Search Results

Search found 25663 results on 1027 pages for 'script programmer'.

Page 544/1027 | < Previous Page | 540 541 542 543 544 545 546 547 548 549 550 551  | Next Page >

  • making clean page via page.tpl.php

    - by user360051
    I have a Drupal module creating a page via hook_menu(). I am trying to make it so the page has no extraneous html output, only what I want. You can view the page here, http://www.thomashansen.me/chat/thomas. If you look at the source, you can see a strange script tag at the end. My page-chat.tpl.php looks like this, <?php // $Id$ ?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="<?php print $language->language ?>" lang="<?php print $language->language ?>" dir="<?php print $language->dir ?>"> <head> </head> <body> <?php print $content; ?> </body> </html> Where is that script tag coming from? and how do I get rid of it? If you need more information just ask.

    Read the article

  • How to parse XML to flex Data Grid contents.

    - by Jeeva
    My xml file which is in a webserver is show below. <root> <userdetails> <username>raja</username> <status>offline</status> </userdetails> <userdetails> <username>Test</username> <status>online</status> </userdetails> </root> How can i parse this to flex data grid contents. I tried with below coding < ?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"? < mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute" creationComplete="initApp()" < mx:HTTPService id="userList" result="handleData(event)" resultFormat="object" url="http://apps.facebook.com/ajparkin/user_list.xml" / <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.collections.ArrayCollection; import mx.rpc.events.ResultEvent; import mx.controls.Alert; public function initApp():void { userList.send(); } [Bindable] var userdetailsArray:ArrayCollection; private function handleData(evt:ResultEvent):void { this.userdetailsArray= evt.result.userdetails; } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:DataGrid dataProvider="{userdetailsArray}"> <mx:columns> <mx:DataGridColumn dataField="username" headerText="User Name"/> <mx:DataGridColumn dataField="status" headerText="Status" /> </mx:columns> </mx:DataGrid> </mx:Application> I'm getting only the field names not the data.

    Read the article

  • Double Buffering with awt

    - by DDP
    Is double buffering (in java) possible with awt? Currently, I'm aware that swing should not be used with awt, so I can't use BufferStrategy and whatnot. If double buffering is possible with awt, do I have to write the buffer by hand? Unlike swing, awt doesn't seem to have the same built-in double buffering capability. If I do have to write the code by hand, is there a good tutorial to look at? Or is it just easier/advisable for a novice programmer to use swing instead? Sorry about the multi-step question. Thanks for your time :)

    Read the article

  • jqtouch load content with ajax

    - by ndrizza
    I am loading this page directly inside of jqtouch. First the page shows "Loading..." Then it should execute a GET Request and refresh the content of the div ("tagcloud") as soon as it get's the content from another php file. (I prefer to load the content this way as otherwise jqtouch freezes for 2 seconds until the content is loaded and then animates to the next page.) <?php $link = $_GET['link']; ?> <div id="TagNews"> <div class="toolbar"> <h1>TagNews</h1> <a href="#" class="back">NZZ</a> </div> <div id="tagcloud">Loading...</div> <script type="text/javascript"> $.get("cloudnews2.php?link=<?php echo $link; ?>", function(data){ document.getElementById("tagcloud").innerHTML = data; }); </script> </div> Howewer, the request never gets loaded. The code is working outside of jqtouch. But inside jqtouch the GET Request doesn't work. I can't figure out why. Could you please help me to do this request?

    Read the article

  • IE "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object expected"

    - by Stephen Borg
    Hi there, I have problems with regards to javascript only when using IE. The error I am getting is "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object expected" and I have no idea why. It is then jumping into the JQuery 1.4.2 file, without giving me a proper error message. All I am doing is simply reading on page load the raw URL, and getting a query string named Search. Using that in an AJAX call to return products and put then into a DIV. No biggies, but somehow IE is managing to blow my page up :-( Any ideas? Code as follows : <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function (e) { $('.boxLoader').show(); function getParameterByName(name) { name = name.replace(/[\[]/, "\\\[").replace(/[\]]/, "\\\]"); var regexS = "[\\?&]" + name + "=([^&#]*)"; var regex = new RegExp(regexS); var results = regex.exec(window.location.href); if (results == null) return ""; else return decodeURIComponent(results[1].replace(/\+/g, " ")); } var Search; Search = getParameterByName("search"); $('#searchCriteria').text(Search); $.get("/Handlers/processProducts.aspx", { SearchCriteria: Search }, function (data) { $('#innercontent').html(data); $('#innercontent').fadeIn(200); $('.boxLoader').fadeOut(200); }); $('#searchBox').live("click", function () { $.get("/Handlers/processProducts.aspx", { SearchCriteria: $('#searchCriteria').val() }, function (data) { $('#innercontent').html(data); $('#innercontent').fadeIn(200); $('.boxLoader').fadeOut(200); }); }); }); </script>

    Read the article

  • Error with html post form in internet explorer

    - by Ron
    I have a html form which posts to a php script. It works fine in chrome and firefox but not in IE. I have ran a test on W3C but can not find any errors that relate to the form. My code is: <form class="formular" id="formular" method="post" action="script/contact.php"> <fieldset> <label> <span>Name : </span> <input type="text" class="validate['required','length[3,-1]','nodigit'] text-input" name="Name" /> </label> <label> <span>Email address : </span> <input type="text" class="validate['required','email'] text-input" name="email" /> </label> </fieldset> <div class="button"> <input type="submit" value="Contact" class="submit" /> </div> </form> Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • PHP curl timing mismatch

    - by JonoB
    I am running a php script that: queries a local database to retrieve an amount executes a curl statement to update an external database with the above amount + x queries the local database again to insert a new row reflecting that the curl statement has been executed. One of the problems that I am having is that the curl statement takes 2-4 seconds to execute, so I have two different users from the same company running the same script at the same time, the execution time of the curl command can cause a mismatch in what should be updated in the external database. This is the because the curl statement has not yet returned from the first user...so the second user is working off incorrect figures. I am not sure of the best options here, but basically I need to prevent two or more curl statements being run at the same time. I thought of storing a value in the database that indicates that the curl statement is being executed at that time, and prevent any other curl statements being run until its completed. Once the first curl statement has been executed, then the database flag is updated and the next one can run. If this field is 'locked', then I could loop through the code and sleep for (5) seconds, and then check again if the flag has been reset. If after (3) loops, then reset the flag automatically (i've never seen the curl take longer than 5 seconds) and continue processing. Are there any other (more elegant) ways of approaching this?

    Read the article

  • What parallel programming model do you recommend today to take advantage of the manycore processors

    - by Doctor J
    If you were writing a new application from scratch today, and wanted it to scale to all the cores you could throw at it tomorrow, what parallel programming model/system/language/library would you choose? Why? I am particularly interested in answers along these axes: Programmer productivity / ease of use (can mortals successfully use it?) Target application domain (what problems is it (not) good at?) Concurrency style (does it support tasks, pipelines, data parallelism, messages...?) Maintainability / future-proofing (will anybody still be using it in 20 years?) Performance (how does it scale on what kinds of hardware?) I am being deliberately vauge on the nature of the application in anticipation of getting good general answers useful for a variety of applications.

    Read the article

  • jQuery UI sortable - sorting images

    - by GSTAR
    I've just implemented the jQuery UI sortable plugin for a set of images. The markup I have is as follows: <ul id="images" class="ui-sortable"> <li id="7884029"><img src="/images/member/4698568/7884029_t.jpg" alt="" /></li> <li id="7379458"><img src="/images/member/4698568/7379458_t.jpg" alt="" /></li> <li id="1704208"><img src="/images/member/4698568/1704208_t.jpg" alt="" /></li> <li id="1750715"><img src="/images/member/4698568/1750715_t.jpg" alt="" /></li> <li id="4364912"><img src="/images/member/4698568/4364912_t.png" alt="" /></li> </ul> <script type="text/javascript"> /*<![CDATA[*/ jQuery(function($) { jQuery('#images').sortable({'delay':'100'}); }); /*]]>*/ </script> The LI id is the 'name' column in the DB table - I prefer not to display the ID column. Now my question is how do I capture the sorting? I understand this would be an AJAX request but I have no idea how to do it. I have set up a sort_order column in my DB table and I am using PHP as my scripting language. I could do with a code example. EDIT: Ideally I prefer if the sort order is applied upon moving an item, i.e. I do not want to enclose it all in a form.

    Read the article

  • Looking to eventually build a smartphone app...

    - by Brian L
    Hi all- I'm a young, inexperienced programmer (I've had a year of Java, some MATLAB, and HTML/CSS in school) but I've decided that to get better, I'm making it my goal to produce a simple smartphone app of some kind this year- probably either webOS or Android since I'm on a PC and can't afford a Mac just to write an iPhone app. So my question is, where do I start? I've read the threads about How to Write for Android and such, but I'm not sure I have enough Java experience to just jump right in. And then there's webOS which is based on JavaScript, correct? I guess I'd just like some input from more experienced folks. I have some Barnes and Noble book credit I'm looking to get rid of too, so if there's a guide you think would be useful, feel free to request. tl;dr: Programming newbie ultimately wants to build a simple smartphone app. Where do I start?

    Read the article

  • OpenAL device, buffer and context relationship

    - by Markus
    I'm trying to create an object oriented model to wrap OpenAL and have a little problem understanding the devices, buffers and contexts. From what I can see in the Programmer's Guide, there are multiple devices, each of which can have multiple contexts as well as multiple buffers. Each context has a listener, and the alListener*() functions all operate on the listener of the active context. (Meaning that I have to make another context active first if I wanted to change it's listener, if I got that right.) So far, so good. What irritates me though is that I need to pass a device to the alcCreateContext() function, but none to alGenBuffers(). How does this work then? When I open multiple devices, on which device are the buffers created? Are the buffers shared between all devices? What happens to the buffers if I close all open devices? (Or is there something I missed?)

    Read the article

  • start-stop-daemon quoted arguments misinterpreted

    - by Martin Westin
    Hi, I have been trying to make an init script using start-stop-daemon. I am stuck on the arguments to the daemon. I want to keep these in a variable at the top of the script but I can't get the quotations to filter down correctly. I'll use ls here so we don't have to look at binaries and arguments that most people wont know or care about. The end result I am looking for is for start-stop... to run ls -la "/folder with space/" DAEMON=/usr/bin/ls DAEMON_OPTS='-la "/folder with space/"' start-stop-daemon --start --make-pidfile --pidfile $PID --exec $DAEMON -- $DAEMON_OPTS Double escaping the options and trying innumerable variations of quotations do not help... Then they end up at the daemon they are always messed up. Enclosing $DAEMON_OPTS in quotes changes things... then they are seen as one since quote... never the right number though :) Echoing the command-line (start-stop...) prints exactly the right stuff to screen. But the daemon (the real one, not ls) complains about the wrong number of arguments. How do I specify a variable so that quotes inside it are brought along to the daemon correctly? Thanks, Martin

    Read the article

  • spyr validation text with jquery serialize()

    - by oz1453
    Code like this : <form> <ol> <li> <fieldset> <legend>test</legend> <ol> <li> <label for="qwerty">qwerty</label> <span id="sprytextfield1"> <input name="qwerty" type="text" id="qwerty" /> <span class="textfieldRequiredMsg">error no qwerty input</span></span> </li> </ol> </fieldset> </li> </ol> <p style="text-align:right;"> <input type="reset" value="reset" /> <input type="submit" value="submit" /> </p> </form> <script type="text/javascript"> $('form').submit(function() { alert($(this).serialize()); return false; }); <!-- var sprytextfield1 = new Spry.Widget.ValidationTextField("sprytextfield1", "none", {validateOn:["blur"]}); //--> </script> I want to do. when i click the submit button serialize the form but when no error with spyr. if the spyr validation text error appears don t serialize or alert. i think.i must make a if condition before alert.

    Read the article

  • Stored Procedures In Source Control - Automate Build/Deployment Process

    - by Alex
    My company provides a large .NET service-oriented solution. The services layer interact with a T-SQL back-end consisting of hundreds of tables and stored procedures. Our C# code is in version-control (SVN) but our stored procedures and schema are not. After much lobbying of expedient upper-management, I was allowed to review our (non-existent) build/deployment process to accomplish the following goals: Place schema and stored procedures under source-control. Automate the build/deployment process. I would like to proceed per the accepted answer's strategy in this post but have additional questions: I would like to use Hudson as my build server. Is this a reasonable choice for a C#/SQL solution? What better alternatives should I explore? Assuming I have all triggers, stored-procedures, schema, etc... under source control, and that they are scripted to individual files, how do I generate a build script which will take into account dependencies/references between these items? (SQL Server does this automatically, but it generates one giant script) What does the workflow of performing an update at the client look like? i.e. I have to keep existing table data. How do I roll-back schema changes? I am the only programmer. Several other pseudo-technical staff like to make changes directly inside SQL Management Studio. Is it realistic to expect others to adhere to this solution -- how can I enforce this? Thank you in advance for your help.

    Read the article

  • Apache ReWriteEngine throwing 500 Internal Server Error for too many internal redirects... why?!?!?!

    - by Stephen G
    I'm trying to implement a new ReWrite rule on my local dev machine. I have 13 rules set up already, and all work fine (even as of this writing). However, for some reason the newest one is throwing me 500 Internal Server Errors. The ReWrite rule is: RewriteRule stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/(.*) /stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/index.php?stuff=$1 RewriteRule stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/(.*)/ /stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/index.php?stuff=$1 Checked my apache logs and got this: [Thu Jan 13 22:07:43 2011] [error] [client ::1] mod_rewrite: maximum number of internal redirects reached. Assuming configuration error. Use 'RewriteOptions MaxRedirects' to increase the limit if neccessary., referer: http://localhost:8888/stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/all/index.php?curr=7 On the script I am trying to redirect to view/index.php?stuff=$1, there is nothing that even remotely resembles a redirect of any kind. I do have a very, very basic session verifier being called at the top of the landing script, which is as follows: //Start session session_start(); //Check whether the session variable SESS_MEMBER_ID is present or not if(!isset($_SESSION['SESS_MEMBER_ID']) || (trim($_SESSION['SESS_MEMBER_ID']) == '')) { header("location: ".$root_http.""); exit(); } However, when I access the page directly, it acts as it should, and there is no redirect. All of my other ReWrite rules and their corresponding landing pages are set up the exact same way. This is blowing my mind. Any help, PLEASE!?

    Read the article

  • SOAP - What's the point?

    - by DanSingerman
    I mean, really, what is the point of SOAP? Web services have been around for a while, and for a while it seemed that the terms 'SOAP' and 'Web service' were largely interchangeable. However SOAP always seemed unwieldy and massively overcomplicated to me. Then REST came along, and suddenly web services made sense. As Joel Spolsky says, give a programmer a REST URL, and they can start playing with the service right away, figuring it out. SOAP is obfuscated behind WSDLs and massively verbose XML, and despite being web based, you can't do anything as simple as access a SOAP service with a web browser. So the essence of my question is: Are there any good reasons to ever choose SOAP over REST? Are you working with SOAP now? Would it be better if the interface was REST? Am I wrong?

    Read the article

  • How to detect changing directory size in Perl

    - by materiamage
    Hello, I am trying to find a way of monitoring directories in Perl, in particular the size of a directory, and upon detecting a change in directory size, perform a particular action. The issue I have is with large files that require a noticeable amount of time to copy into this directory, i.e. 100MB. What happens (in Windows, not Unix) is the system reserves enough disk space for the entire file, even though the file is still copying in progress. This causes problems for me, because my script will try to perform an action on this file that has not finished copying over. I can easily detect directory size changes in Unix via 'du', but 'du' in Windows does not behave the same way. Are there any accurate methods of detecting directory size changes in Perl? Edit: Some points to clarify: - My Perl script is only monitoring a particular directory, and upon detecting a new file or a new directory, perform an action on this new file or directory. It is not copying any files; users on the network will be copying files into the directory I am monitoring. - The problem occurs when a new file or directory appears (copied, not moved) that is significantly large ( 100MB, but usually a couple GB) and my program fires before this copy completes - In Unix I can easily 'du' to see that the file/directory in question is growing in size, and take the appropriate action - In Windows the size is static, so I cannot detect this change - opendir/readdir/closedir is not feasible, as some of the directories that appear may contain thousands of files, and I want to avoid the overhead of Ideally I would like my program to be triggered on change, but I am not sure how to do this. As of right now it busy waits until it detects a change. The change in file/directory size is not in my control.

    Read the article

  • How to implement a 'safe' periodical executer without using the Rails helpers?

    - by Robbie
    I am very new to Ruby on Rails and was never really big on writing JavaScript, so the built in helpers were like a tiny silce of heaven. However I have recently learned that using the helper methods creates "obtrusive javascript" so I am doing a tiny bit of refactoring to get all this messy code out of my view. I'm also using the Prototype API to figure out what all these functions do. Right now, I have: <%= periodically_call_remote(:url => {:action => "tablerefresh", :id => 1 }, :frequency => '5', :complete => "load('26', 'table1', request.responseText)")%> Which produces: <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ new PeriodicalExecuter(function() {new Ajax.Request('/qrpsdrail/grids/tablerefresh/1', {asynchronous:true, evalScripts:true, onComplete:function(request){load('26', 'table1', request.responseText)}, parameters:'authenticity_token=' + encodeURIComponent('dfG7wWyVYEpelfdZvBWk7MlhzZoK7VvtT/HDi3w7gPM=')})}, 5) //]]> </script> My concern is that the "encodeURIComponent" and the presence of "authenticity_token" are generated by Rails. I'm assuming these are used to assure the validity of a request. (Ensuring a request comes from a currently active session?) If that is the case, how can I implement this in application.js 'safely'? It seems that the built in method, although obtrusive, does add some beneficial security. Thanks, in advance, to all who answer.

    Read the article

  • PHP check http referer for form submitted by AJAX, secure?

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: This is the first time I am working for a front-end project that requires server-side authentication for AJAX requests. I've encountered problems like I cannot make a call of session_start as the beginning line of the "destination page", cuz that would get me a PHP Warning : Warning: session_start() [function.session-start]: Cannot send session cache limiter - headers already sent (output started at C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app\ajaxInsert Book.php:1) in C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app\common.php on line 10 I reckon this means I have to figure out a way other than checking PHP session variables to authenticate the "caller" of this PHP script, and this is my approach : I have a "protected" PHP page, which must be used as the "container" of my javascript that posts the form through jQuery $.ajax(); method In my "receiver" PHP script, what I've got is: <?php define(BOOKS_TABLE, "books"); define(APPROOT, "/comic/"); define(CORRECT_REFERER, "/protected/staff/addBook.php"); function isRefererCorrect() { // the following line evaluates the relative path for the referer uri, // Say, $_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'] returns "http://localhost/comic/protected/staff/addBook.php" // Then the part we concern is just this "/protected/staff/addBook.php" $referer = substr($_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'], 6 + strrpos($_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'], APPROOT)); return (strnatcmp(CORRECT_REFERER, $referer) == 0) ? true : false; } //http://stackoverflow.com/questions/267546/correct-http-header-for-json-file header('Content-type: application/json charset=UTF-8'); header('Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate'); echo json_encode(array ( "feedback"=>"ok", "info"=>isRefererCorrect() )); ?> My code works, but I wonder is there any security risks in this approach? Can someone manipulate the post request so that he can pretend that the caller javascript is from the "protected" page? Many thanks to any hints or suggestions.

    Read the article

  • Javascript array of dates - not iterating properly (jquery ui datepicker)

    - by PaulB
    Hi I have some code which builds an array of date ranges. I then call a function, passing it a date, and compare that date with dates in the array. I'm doing it this way because the dates are stored in a cms, and I'm manipulating the JqueryUI datepicker. Unfortunately my code only checks the first date range in the array - and I can't figure out why! I think it's probably something simple (/stupid!) - if anyone can shed some light on it I'd be extremely grateful! The code is below - the june-september range works fine, the december to jan is totally ignored... <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> var ps1 = new Date(2010, 06-1, 18); var pe1 = new Date(2010, 09-1, 03); var ps2 = new Date(2010, 12-1, 20); var pe2 = new Date(2011, 01-1, 02); var peakStart = new Array(ps1,ps2); var peakEnd = new Array(pe1,pe2); function checkDay(date) { var day = date.getDay(); for (var i=0; i<peakStart.length; i++) { if ((date > peakStart[i]) && (date < peakEnd[i])) { return [(day == 5), '']; } else { return [(day == 1 || day == 5), '']; } } } </script>

    Read the article

  • jQuery AJAX Redirection problem

    - by meosoft
    Hello please consider this: On page A I have a link that takes you to page B when JS is off, but when JS is on, I want to replace content on current page with content from the page B. Pages A and B are in fact the same script that is able to tell AJAX calls from regular ones and serve the content appropriately. Everything works fine, as long as there are no redirects involved. But, sometimes there is a 301 redirect and what seems to be happening is that client browser then makes a second request, which will return with a 200 OK. Only the second request is sent without a X-Requested-With header, therefore I cannot tell within my script wether it came from AJAX or not, and will send a complete page instead of just the content. I have tried checking for 301 status code in my error, success, and complete handlers but none of them worked. It seems to be handling the 301 behind the scenes. Could anyone help me with this? jQuery 1.4, PHP 5 Edit: People requested the code to this, which I didn't think was necessary but here goes: // hook up menu ajax loading $('#menu a').live("click", function(){ // update menu highlight if($(this).parents('#menu').size() > 0){ $("#menu>li").removeClass("current_page_item"); $(this).parent().addClass("current_page_item"); } // get the URL where we will be retrieving content from var url = $(this).attr('href'); window.location.hash = hash = url; $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: url, success: function(data){ // search for an ID that is only present if page is requested directly if($(data).find('#maincontent').size() > 0){ data = $(data).find('#maincontent .content-slide *').get(); } // the rest is just animating the content into view $("#scroller").html(data); $('.content-slide').each(setHeight); $('.content-slide').animate({ left: "0px" }, 1000, 'easeOutQuart', function(){ $('#home').css("left", "-760px").html(data); $('#scroller').css("left", "-760px"); $('.content-slide').each(setHeight); } ); } }); return false; });

    Read the article

  • jQuery Swapping Elements

    - by zuk1
    Ok let me make an example: <head> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#options_2").hide(); $("#options_3").hide(); }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="options_1">option 1</div> <div id="options_2">option 2</div> <div id="options_3">option 3</div> <a href="" class="selected">choose option 1</a> <a href="">choose option 2</a> <a href="">choose option 3</a> </body> As you can see only option 1 is visible by default, and the link you click to show option 1 has the class="selected" by default, showing the user that that option is currently selected. I basically want it so that when they click "choose option 2" the options 1 div hides itself and the options 2 div shows itself, and then gives the second link the selected class and removes the class from the image link. It basically just tabs using links and divs but due to the format I have to display it in I cannot use any of the tabs plugins I have found online.

    Read the article

  • Help me refactoring this nasty Ruby if/else statement

    - by Suborx
    Hello, so I have this big method in my application for newsletter distribution. Method is for updating rayons and i need to assigned user to rayon. I have relation n:n through table colporteur_in_rayons witch have attributes since_date and _until_date. I am junior programmer and i know this code is pretty dummy :) I appreciated every suggestion. def update rayon = Rayon.find(params[:id]) if rayon.update_attributes(params[:rayon]) if params[:user_id] != "" unless rayon.users.empty? unless rayon.users.last.id.eql?(params[:user_id]) rayon.colporteur_in_rayons.last.update_attributes(:until_date = Time.now) Rayon.assign_user(rayon.id,params[:user_id]) flash[:success] = "Rayon #{rayon.name} has been succesuly assigned to #{rayon.actual_user.name}." return redirect_to rayons_path end else Rayon.assign_user(rayon.id,params[:user_id]) flash[:success] = "Rayon #{rayon.name} has been successfully assigned to #{rayon.actual_user.name}." return redirect_to rayons_path end end flash[:success] = "Rayon has been successfully updated." return redirect_to rayons_path else flash[:error] = "Rayon has not been updated." return redirect_to :back end end

    Read the article

  • W3C error doc error? Output tag browser support.

    - by ThomasReggi
    Was looking at the reference page here : http://www.w3.org/TR/html5/offline.html I copied and pasted the code on my server here in separate files. All of the pages are linked correctly but the clock won't show. Just to double check, it wasn't my "server config" I put it on jsfiddle.net here: http://jsfiddle.net/reggi/Dy8PU/. Fails: MAC / FIREFOX 3.6.13 Wins: MAC / FIREFOX 4.0.b8 Is this dummy example code? <!-- clock.html --> <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html> <head> <title>Clock</title> <script src="clock.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" href="clock.css"> </head> <body> <p>The time is: <output id="clock"></output></p> </body> </html> /* clock.css */ output { font: 2em sans-serif; } /* clock.js */ setTimeout(function () { document.getElementById('clock').value = new Date(); }, 1000); UPDATE: The W3C code above works on only the NEWEST Beta releases of certain browsers Below are some viable current javascript workarounds

    Read the article

  • How to Return Variable for all tests to use Unittest

    - by chrissygormley
    Hello, I have a Python script and I am trying to set a variable so that if the first test fail's the rest of then will be set to fail. The script I have so far is: class Tests(): def function: result function.......... def errorHandle(self): return self.error def sudsPass(self): try: result = self.client.service.GetStreamUri(self.stream, self.token) except suds.WebFault, e: assert False except Exception, e: pass finally: if 'result' in locals(): self.error = True self.errorHandle() assert True else: self.error = False self.errorHandle() assert False def sudsFail(self): try: result = self.client.service.GetStreamUri(self.stream, self.token) except suds.WebFault, e: assert False except Exception, e: pass finally: if 'result' in locals() or self.error == False: assert False else: assert True class GetStreamUri(TestGetStreamUri): def runTest(self): self.sudsPass() class GetStreamUriProtocolFail(TestGetStreamUri): def runTest(self): self.stream.Transport.Protocol = "NoValue" self.errorHandle() self.sudsFail() if __name__ == '__main__': unittest.main() I am trying to get self.error to be set to False if the first test fail. I understand that it is being set in another test but I was hoping someone could help me find a solution to this problem using some other means. Thanks PS. Please ignore the strange tests. There is a problem with the error handling at the moment.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 540 541 542 543 544 545 546 547 548 549 550 551  | Next Page >