Search Results

Search found 25663 results on 1027 pages for 'script programmer'.

Page 544/1027 | < Previous Page | 540 541 542 543 544 545 546 547 548 549 550 551  | Next Page >

• What parallel programming model do you recommend today to take advantage of the manycore processors

  - by Doctor J

  If you were writing a new application from scratch today, and wanted it to scale to all the cores you could throw at it tomorrow, what parallel programming model/system/language/library would you choose? Why? I am particularly interested in answers along these axes: Programmer productivity / ease of use (can mortals successfully use it?) Target application domain (what problems is it (not) good at?) Concurrency style (does it support tasks, pipelines, data parallelism, messages...?) Maintainability / future-proofing (will anybody still be using it in 20 years?) Performance (how does it scale on what kinds of hardware?) I am being deliberately vauge on the nature of the application in anticipation of getting good general answers useful for a variety of applications.

  Read the article

• how to implement enhanced session handling in PHP

  - by praksant

  Hi, i'm working with sessions in PHP, and i have different applications on single domain. Problem is, that cookies are domain specific, and so session ids are sent to any page on single domain. (i don't know if there is a way to make cookies work in different way). So Session variables are visible in every page on this domain. I'm trying to implement custom session manager to overcome this behavior, but i'm not sure if i'm thinking about it right. I want to completely avoid PHP session system, and make a global object, which would store session data and on the end of script save it to database. On first access i would generate unique session_id and create a cookie On the end of script save session data with session_id, timestamps for start of session and last access, and data from $_SERVER, such as REMOTE_ADDR, REMOTE_PORT, HTTP_USER_AGENT. On every access chceck database for session_id sent in cookie from client, check IP, Port and user agent (for security) and read data into session variable (if not expired). If session_id expired, delete from database. That session variable would be implemented as singleton (i know i would get tight coupling with this class, but i don't know about better solution). I'm trying to get following benefits: Session variables invisible in another scripts on the same server and same domain Custom management of session expiration Way to see open sessions (something like list of online users) i'm not sure if i'm overlooking any disadvantages of this solution. Is there any better way? Thank you!!

  Read the article

• OpenAL device, buffer and context relationship

  - by Markus

  I'm trying to create an object oriented model to wrap OpenAL and have a little problem understanding the devices, buffers and contexts. From what I can see in the Programmer's Guide, there are multiple devices, each of which can have multiple contexts as well as multiple buffers. Each context has a listener, and the alListener*() functions all operate on the listener of the active context. (Meaning that I have to make another context active first if I wanted to change it's listener, if I got that right.) So far, so good. What irritates me though is that I need to pass a device to the alcCreateContext() function, but none to alGenBuffers(). How does this work then? When I open multiple devices, on which device are the buffers created? Are the buffers shared between all devices? What happens to the buffers if I close all open devices? (Or is there something I missed?)

  Read the article

• Difference in clientX and clientY when going out of the browser on ie/ff

  - by Py

  I just ran into a little problem with clientX and clientY. I put a little event to detect if the mouse goes out of the window and to know where it exits. And there come the trouble, it works fine with firefox, but only sends -1 as an answer in IE. Does someone know if there is a way to solve easily that problem and that without using a framework? A little bit of code to reproduce that: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> document.onmouseout=function(e){ if (!e) var e = window.event; var relTarg = e.relatedTarget || e.toElement; if (!relTarg){ document.getElementById('result1').innerHTML="e.clientY:"+e.clientY+" e.clientX:"+e.clientX; } }; </script> </head> <body> <div id="result1">Not Yet</div> </body> </html> the results if I exit through the left of the window are: e.clientY:302 e.clientX:-130 on firefox e.clientY:-1 e.clientX:-1 on ie. Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• jQuery Swapping Elements

  - by zuk1

  Ok let me make an example: <head> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#options_2").hide(); $("#options_3").hide(); }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="options_1">option 1</div> <div id="options_2">option 2</div> <div id="options_3">option 3</div> <a href="" class="selected">choose option 1</a> <a href="">choose option 2</a> <a href="">choose option 3</a> </body> As you can see only option 1 is visible by default, and the link you click to show option 1 has the class="selected" by default, showing the user that that option is currently selected. I basically want it so that when they click "choose option 2" the options 1 div hides itself and the options 2 div shows itself, and then gives the second link the selected class and removes the class from the image link. It basically just tabs using links and divs but due to the format I have to display it in I cannot use any of the tabs plugins I have found online.

  Read the article

• Forces to prompt download box IE

  - by Bruno Costa

  Hello, I'm having a problem with some reports in the application I'm doing manutention I've a button that does a postback to the server and do some information and then get back to the cliente and open a popup to download the report. private void grid_ItemCommand(object source, System.Web.UI.WebControls.DataGridCommandEventArgs e) { ... ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptBlock(this.GetType(), "xxx", "<script>javascript:window.location('xx.aspx?m=x','xxx','width=750,height=350,directories=no,location=no,menubar=no,scrollbars,status=no,toolbar=no,resizable=yes,left=50,top=50');</script>"); } Then in xxx.aspx I've the code: Response.ClearContent(); Response.ClearHeaders(); Response.TransmitFile(tempFileName); Response.Flush(); Response.Close(); File.Delete(tempFileName); Response.End(); This works fine if IE option Automatic prompting for file downloads is enabled. But by default this is disabled and I need to force the download box to be prompting. Can I do anything without change a lot of code? Thanks.

  Read the article

• start-stop-daemon quoted arguments misinterpreted

  - by Martin Westin

  Hi, I have been trying to make an init script using start-stop-daemon. I am stuck on the arguments to the daemon. I want to keep these in a variable at the top of the script but I can't get the quotations to filter down correctly. I'll use ls here so we don't have to look at binaries and arguments that most people wont know or care about. The end result I am looking for is for start-stop... to run ls -la "/folder with space/" DAEMON=/usr/bin/ls DAEMON_OPTS='-la "/folder with space/"' start-stop-daemon --start --make-pidfile --pidfile $PID --exec $DAEMON -- $DAEMON_OPTS Double escaping the options and trying innumerable variations of quotations do not help... Then they end up at the daemon they are always messed up. Enclosing $DAEMON_OPTS in quotes changes things... then they are seen as one since quote... never the right number though :) Echoing the command-line (start-stop...) prints exactly the right stuff to screen. But the daemon (the real one, not ls) complains about the wrong number of arguments. How do I specify a variable so that quotes inside it are brought along to the daemon correctly? Thanks, Martin

  Read the article

• Its all working so now I can chill

  - by bizl

  Most software houses I have been at have this attitude about their work. Get it done quick and move on. For programmers I find that the chill time is time that can be used to either improve infrastructure, refactor some old code or learn a new language. I would like to know what your throughts about 'chill time' if its the right attitude at all, and if so what to do with it. Is this sort of chilling helpful for a programmer, what are things you do with your own chill time if you adopt this approach to work.

  Read the article

• jQuery AJAX Redirection problem

  - by meosoft

  Hello please consider this: On page A I have a link that takes you to page B when JS is off, but when JS is on, I want to replace content on current page with content from the page B. Pages A and B are in fact the same script that is able to tell AJAX calls from regular ones and serve the content appropriately. Everything works fine, as long as there are no redirects involved. But, sometimes there is a 301 redirect and what seems to be happening is that client browser then makes a second request, which will return with a 200 OK. Only the second request is sent without a X-Requested-With header, therefore I cannot tell within my script wether it came from AJAX or not, and will send a complete page instead of just the content. I have tried checking for 301 status code in my error, success, and complete handlers but none of them worked. It seems to be handling the 301 behind the scenes. Could anyone help me with this? jQuery 1.4, PHP 5 Edit: People requested the code to this, which I didn't think was necessary but here goes: // hook up menu ajax loading $('#menu a').live("click", function(){ // update menu highlight if($(this).parents('#menu').size() > 0){ $("#menu>li").removeClass("current_page_item"); $(this).parent().addClass("current_page_item"); } // get the URL where we will be retrieving content from var url = $(this).attr('href'); window.location.hash = hash = url; $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: url, success: function(data){ // search for an ID that is only present if page is requested directly if($(data).find('#maincontent').size() > 0){ data = $(data).find('#maincontent .content-slide *').get(); } // the rest is just animating the content into view $("#scroller").html(data); $('.content-slide').each(setHeight); $('.content-slide').animate({ left: "0px" }, 1000, 'easeOutQuart', function(){ $('#home').css("left", "-760px").html(data); $('#scroller').css("left", "-760px"); $('.content-slide').each(setHeight); } ); } }); return false; });

  Read the article

• Stored Procedures In Source Control - Automate Build/Deployment Process

  - by Alex

  My company provides a large .NET service-oriented solution. The services layer interact with a T-SQL back-end consisting of hundreds of tables and stored procedures. Our C# code is in version-control (SVN) but our stored procedures and schema are not. After much lobbying of expedient upper-management, I was allowed to review our (non-existent) build/deployment process to accomplish the following goals: Place schema and stored procedures under source-control. Automate the build/deployment process. I would like to proceed per the accepted answer's strategy in this post but have additional questions: I would like to use Hudson as my build server. Is this a reasonable choice for a C#/SQL solution? What better alternatives should I explore? Assuming I have all triggers, stored-procedures, schema, etc... under source control, and that they are scripted to individual files, how do I generate a build script which will take into account dependencies/references between these items? (SQL Server does this automatically, but it generates one giant script) What does the workflow of performing an update at the client look like? i.e. I have to keep existing table data. How do I roll-back schema changes? I am the only programmer. Several other pseudo-technical staff like to make changes directly inside SQL Management Studio. Is it realistic to expect others to adhere to this solution -- how can I enforce this? Thank you in advance for your help.

  Read the article

• spyr validation text with jquery serialize()

  - by oz1453

  Code like this : <form> <ol> <li> <fieldset> <legend>test</legend> <ol> <li> <label for="qwerty">qwerty</label> <span id="sprytextfield1"> <input name="qwerty" type="text" id="qwerty" /> <span class="textfieldRequiredMsg">error no qwerty input</span></span> </li> </ol> </fieldset> </li> </ol> <p style="text-align:right;"> <input type="reset" value="reset" /> <input type="submit" value="submit" /> </p> </form> <script type="text/javascript"> $('form').submit(function() { alert($(this).serialize()); return false; }); <!-- var sprytextfield1 = new Spry.Widget.ValidationTextField("sprytextfield1", "none", {validateOn:["blur"]}); //--> </script> I want to do. when i click the submit button serialize the form but when no error with spyr. if the spyr validation text error appears don t serialize or alert. i think.i must make a if condition before alert.

  Read the article

• How to parse XML to flex Data Grid contents.

  - by Jeeva

  My xml file which is in a webserver is show below. <root> <userdetails> <username>raja</username> <status>offline</status> </userdetails> <userdetails> <username>Test</username> <status>online</status> </userdetails> </root> How can i parse this to flex data grid contents. I tried with below coding < ?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"? < mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute" creationComplete="initApp()" < mx:HTTPService id="userList" result="handleData(event)" resultFormat="object" url="http://apps.facebook.com/ajparkin/user_list.xml" / <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.collections.ArrayCollection; import mx.rpc.events.ResultEvent; import mx.controls.Alert; public function initApp():void { userList.send(); } [Bindable] var userdetailsArray:ArrayCollection; private function handleData(evt:ResultEvent):void { this.userdetailsArray= evt.result.userdetails; } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:DataGrid dataProvider="{userdetailsArray}"> <mx:columns> <mx:DataGridColumn dataField="username" headerText="User Name"/> <mx:DataGridColumn dataField="status" headerText="Status" /> </mx:columns> </mx:DataGrid> </mx:Application> I'm getting only the field names not the data.

  Read the article

• W3C error doc error? Output tag browser support.

  - by ThomasReggi

  Was looking at the reference page here : http://www.w3.org/TR/html5/offline.html I copied and pasted the code on my server here in separate files. All of the pages are linked correctly but the clock won't show. Just to double check, it wasn't my "server config" I put it on jsfiddle.net here: http://jsfiddle.net/reggi/Dy8PU/. Fails: MAC / FIREFOX 3.6.13 Wins: MAC / FIREFOX 4.0.b8 Is this dummy example code? <!-- clock.html --> <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html> <head> <title>Clock</title> <script src="clock.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" href="clock.css"> </head> <body> <p>The time is: <output id="clock"></output></p> </body> </html> /* clock.css */ output { font: 2em sans-serif; } /* clock.js */ setTimeout(function () { document.getElementById('clock').value = new Date(); }, 1000); UPDATE: The W3C code above works on only the NEWEST Beta releases of certain browsers Below are some viable current javascript workarounds

  Read the article

• SOAP - What's the point?

  - by DanSingerman

  I mean, really, what is the point of SOAP? Web services have been around for a while, and for a while it seemed that the terms 'SOAP' and 'Web service' were largely interchangeable. However SOAP always seemed unwieldy and massively overcomplicated to me. Then REST came along, and suddenly web services made sense. As Joel Spolsky says, give a programmer a REST URL, and they can start playing with the service right away, figuring it out. SOAP is obfuscated behind WSDLs and massively verbose XML, and despite being web based, you can't do anything as simple as access a SOAP service with a web browser. So the essence of my question is: Are there any good reasons to ever choose SOAP over REST? Are you working with SOAP now? Would it be better if the interface was REST? Am I wrong?

  Read the article

• Help me refactoring this nasty Ruby if/else statement

  - by Suborx

  Hello, so I have this big method in my application for newsletter distribution. Method is for updating rayons and i need to assigned user to rayon. I have relation n:n through table colporteur_in_rayons witch have attributes since_date and _until_date. I am junior programmer and i know this code is pretty dummy :) I appreciated every suggestion. def update rayon = Rayon.find(params[:id]) if rayon.update_attributes(params[:rayon]) if params[:user_id] != "" unless rayon.users.empty? unless rayon.users.last.id.eql?(params[:user_id]) rayon.colporteur_in_rayons.last.update_attributes(:until_date = Time.now) Rayon.assign_user(rayon.id,params[:user_id]) flash[:success] = "Rayon #{rayon.name} has been succesuly assigned to #{rayon.actual_user.name}." return redirect_to rayons_path end else Rayon.assign_user(rayon.id,params[:user_id]) flash[:success] = "Rayon #{rayon.name} has been successfully assigned to #{rayon.actual_user.name}." return redirect_to rayons_path end end flash[:success] = "Rayon has been successfully updated." return redirect_to rayons_path else flash[:error] = "Rayon has not been updated." return redirect_to :back end end

  Read the article

• How to implement a 'safe' periodical executer without using the Rails helpers?

  - by Robbie

  I am very new to Ruby on Rails and was never really big on writing JavaScript, so the built in helpers were like a tiny silce of heaven. However I have recently learned that using the helper methods creates "obtrusive javascript" so I am doing a tiny bit of refactoring to get all this messy code out of my view. I'm also using the Prototype API to figure out what all these functions do. Right now, I have: <%= periodically_call_remote(:url => {:action => "tablerefresh", :id => 1 }, :frequency => '5', :complete => "load('26', 'table1', request.responseText)")%> Which produces: <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ new PeriodicalExecuter(function() {new Ajax.Request('/qrpsdrail/grids/tablerefresh/1', {asynchronous:true, evalScripts:true, onComplete:function(request){load('26', 'table1', request.responseText)}, parameters:'authenticity_token=' + encodeURIComponent('dfG7wWyVYEpelfdZvBWk7MlhzZoK7VvtT/HDi3w7gPM=')})}, 5) //]]> </script> My concern is that the "encodeURIComponent" and the presence of "authenticity_token" are generated by Rails. I'm assuming these are used to assure the validity of a request. (Ensuring a request comes from a currently active session?) If that is the case, how can I implement this in application.js 'safely'? It seems that the built in method, although obtrusive, does add some beneficial security. Thanks, in advance, to all who answer.

  Read the article

• PHP check http referer for form submitted by AJAX, secure?

  - by Michael Mao

  Hi all: This is the first time I am working for a front-end project that requires server-side authentication for AJAX requests. I've encountered problems like I cannot make a call of session_start as the beginning line of the "destination page", cuz that would get me a PHP Warning : Warning: session_start() [function.session-start]: Cannot send session cache limiter - headers already sent (output started at C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app\ajaxInsert Book.php:1) in C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app\common.php on line 10 I reckon this means I have to figure out a way other than checking PHP session variables to authenticate the "caller" of this PHP script, and this is my approach : I have a "protected" PHP page, which must be used as the "container" of my javascript that posts the form through jQuery $.ajax(); method In my "receiver" PHP script, what I've got is: <?php define(BOOKS_TABLE, "books"); define(APPROOT, "/comic/"); define(CORRECT_REFERER, "/protected/staff/addBook.php"); function isRefererCorrect() { // the following line evaluates the relative path for the referer uri, // Say, $_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'] returns "http://localhost/comic/protected/staff/addBook.php" // Then the part we concern is just this "/protected/staff/addBook.php" $referer = substr($_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'], 6 + strrpos($_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'], APPROOT)); return (strnatcmp(CORRECT_REFERER, $referer) == 0) ? true : false; } //http://stackoverflow.com/questions/267546/correct-http-header-for-json-file header('Content-type: application/json charset=UTF-8'); header('Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate'); echo json_encode(array ( "feedback"=>"ok", "info"=>isRefererCorrect() )); ?> My code works, but I wonder is there any security risks in this approach? Can someone manipulate the post request so that he can pretend that the caller javascript is from the "protected" page? Many thanks to any hints or suggestions.

  Read the article

• making clean page via page.tpl.php

  - by user360051

  I have a Drupal module creating a page via hook_menu(). I am trying to make it so the page has no extraneous html output, only what I want. You can view the page here, http://www.thomashansen.me/chat/thomas. If you look at the source, you can see a strange script tag at the end. My page-chat.tpl.php looks like this, <?php // $Id$ ?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="<?php print $language->language ?>" lang="<?php print $language->language ?>" dir="<?php print $language->dir ?>"> <head> </head> <body> <?php print $content; ?> </body> </html> Where is that script tag coming from? and how do I get rid of it? If you need more information just ask.

  Read the article

• Vim Editor is very smart?

  - by Narek

  I am programming in C++ or Java. So I want to use Vim editor, because it is very flexible. I have heard that I can configure the Vim editor to be able to go from object to the definition from function to the definition from class name to the definition Do we have any professional Vim-er that could tell me how exactly to configure Vim for that? Thanks in advance. P.S. In case readers will consider this question is not connected with programming, I would say that this is improving speed of programming. So it is a help to the programmer. So please don't close this question. EDIT: Also I would like to know how vim works with code completion and can vim hint the list of methods that are available for the certain object? If yes, then I would like to know how to configure these options too?

  Read the article

• Perl : how to interrupt/resume loop by user hitting a key?

  - by Michael Mao

  Hi all: This is for debugging purpose. I've got a for loop that generates some output to Cygwin bash's CLI. I know that I can redirect outputs to text files and use Perl or even just a normal text editor to inspect the values printed out for a particular iteration, just feel that a bit painful. What I am now thinking is, to place a special subroutine inside the for loop, so that it would be "interrupted" at the beginning of each iteration, and Perl script should only resume to run after user/programmer hits a key(the Enter Key from keyboard?) In this way I can directly inspect the values printed out during each iteration. Is there a simple way to do this, without using additional libraries/CPAN ? Many thanks to the hints/suggestions in advance.

  Read the article

• How can i change a jquery plugin's option value with my value?

  - by Pandiya Chendur

  I have just jquery pagination plugin to work... But what happens is when i click page number 2 i get the first page and when i click 3 i get second page and so on.... My initial page my current page value changes to 0 instead 1 this causes the problem... My plugin has this, jQuery.fn.pagination = function(maxentries, opts){ opts = jQuery.extend({ items_per_page:10, num_display_entries:10, current_page:0, num_edge_entries:0, link_to:"#", prev_text:"Prev", next_text:"Next", ellipse_text:"...", prev_show_always:true, next_show_always:true, callback:function(){return false;} },opts||{}); current_page is set to 0 ... I have modified the current page value in my jquery function but it doesn't seem to work.... <script type="text/javascript"> var itemsPerPage = 5; var maxNumberOfElementsHere = 17; $(document).ready(function() { getRecordspage(1, itemsPerPage); $(".pager").pagination(maxNumberOfElementsHere, { callback: getRecordspage, current_page: 1, // Look here i have changed this but it doesn't work... items_per_page: itemsPerPage, num_display_entries: 5, next_text: 'Next', prev_text: 'Prev', num_edge_entries: 1 }); }); </script>

  Read the article

• Apache ReWriteEngine throwing 500 Internal Server Error for too many internal redirects... why?!?!?!

  - by Stephen G

  I'm trying to implement a new ReWrite rule on my local dev machine. I have 13 rules set up already, and all work fine (even as of this writing). However, for some reason the newest one is throwing me 500 Internal Server Errors. The ReWrite rule is: RewriteRule stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/(.*) /stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/index.php?stuff=$1 RewriteRule stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/(.*)/ /stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/index.php?stuff=$1 Checked my apache logs and got this: [Thu Jan 13 22:07:43 2011] [error] [client ::1] mod_rewrite: maximum number of internal redirects reached. Assuming configuration error. Use 'RewriteOptions MaxRedirects' to increase the limit if neccessary., referer: http://localhost:8888/stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/all/index.php?curr=7 On the script I am trying to redirect to view/index.php?stuff=$1, there is nothing that even remotely resembles a redirect of any kind. I do have a very, very basic session verifier being called at the top of the landing script, which is as follows: //Start session session_start(); //Check whether the session variable SESS_MEMBER_ID is present or not if(!isset($_SESSION['SESS_MEMBER_ID']) || (trim($_SESSION['SESS_MEMBER_ID']) == '')) { header("location: ".$root_http.""); exit(); } However, when I access the page directly, it acts as it should, and there is no redirect. All of my other ReWrite rules and their corresponding landing pages are set up the exact same way. This is blowing my mind. Any help, PLEASE!?

  Read the article

• Error with html post form in internet explorer

  - by Ron

  I have a html form which posts to a php script. It works fine in chrome and firefox but not in IE. I have ran a test on W3C but can not find any errors that relate to the form. My code is: <form class="formular" id="formular" method="post" action="script/contact.php"> <fieldset> <label> <span>Name : </span> <input type="text" class="validate['required','length[3,-1]','nodigit'] text-input" name="Name" /> </label> <label> <span>Email address : </span> <input type="text" class="validate['required','email'] text-input" name="email" /> </label> </fieldset> <div class="button"> <input type="submit" value="Contact" class="submit" /> </div> </form> Thanks in advance

  Read the article

• How to use AJAX to populate state list depending on Country list?

  - by jasondavis

  I have the code below that will change a state dropdown list when you change the country list. How can I make it change the state list ONLY when country ID number 2234 and 224 are selected? If another country is selected is should change into this text input box <input type="text" name="othstate" value="" class="textBox"> The form <form method="post" name="form1"> <select style="background-color: #ffffa0" name="country" onchange="getState(this.value)"> <option>Select Country</option> <option value="223">USA</option> <option value="224">Canada</option> <option value="225">England</option> <option value="226">Ireland</option> </select> <select style="background-color: #ffffa0" name="state"> <option>Select Country First</option> </select> The javascript <script> function getState(countryId) { var strURL="findState.php?country="+countryId; var req = getXMLHTTP(); if (req) { req.onreadystatechange = function() { if (req.readyState == 4) { // only if "OK" if (req.status == 200) { document.getElementById('statediv').innerHTML=req.responseText; } else { alert("There was a problem while using XMLHTTP:\n" + req.statusText); } } } req.open("GET", strURL, true); req.send(null); } } </script>

  Read the article

• How to Return Variable for all tests to use Unittest

  - by chrissygormley

  Hello, I have a Python script and I am trying to set a variable so that if the first test fail's the rest of then will be set to fail. The script I have so far is: class Tests(): def function: result function.......... def errorHandle(self): return self.error def sudsPass(self): try: result = self.client.service.GetStreamUri(self.stream, self.token) except suds.WebFault, e: assert False except Exception, e: pass finally: if 'result' in locals(): self.error = True self.errorHandle() assert True else: self.error = False self.errorHandle() assert False def sudsFail(self): try: result = self.client.service.GetStreamUri(self.stream, self.token) except suds.WebFault, e: assert False except Exception, e: pass finally: if 'result' in locals() or self.error == False: assert False else: assert True class GetStreamUri(TestGetStreamUri): def runTest(self): self.sudsPass() class GetStreamUriProtocolFail(TestGetStreamUri): def runTest(self): self.stream.Transport.Protocol = "NoValue" self.errorHandle() self.sudsFail() if __name__ == '__main__': unittest.main() I am trying to get self.error to be set to False if the first test fail. I understand that it is being set in another test but I was hoping someone could help me find a solution to this problem using some other means. Thanks PS. Please ignore the strange tests. There is a problem with the error handling at the moment.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 540 541 542 543 544 545 546 547 548 549 550 551  | Next Page >