Search Results

Search found 35149 results on 1406 pages for 'yield return'.

Page 546/1406 | < Previous Page | 542 543 544 545 546 547 548 549 550 551 552 553  | Next Page >

  • OO model for nsxmlparser when delegate is not self

    - by richard
    Hi, I am struggling with the correct design for the delegates of nsxmlparser. In order to build my table of Foos, I need to make two types of webservice calls; one for the whole table and one for each row. It's essentially a master-query then detail-query, except the master-query-result-xml doesn't return enough information so i then need to query the detail for each row. I'm not dealing with enormous amounts of data. Anyway - previously I've just used NSXMLParser *parser = [[NSXMLParser alloc]init]; [parser setDelegate:self]; [parser parse]; and implemented all the appropriate delegate methods in whatever class i'm in. In attempt at cleanliness, I've now created two separate delegate classes and done something like: NSXMLParser *xp = [[NSXMLParser alloc]init]; MyMasterXMLParserDelegate *masterParserDelegate = [[MyMasterXMLParser]alloc]init]; [xp setDelegate:masterParserDelegate]; [xp parse]; In addition to being cleaner (in my opinion, at least), it also means each of the -parser:didStartElement implementations don't spend most of the time trying to figure out which xml they're parsing. So now the real crux of the problem. Before i split out the delegates, i had in the main class that was also implementing the delegate methods, a class-level NSMutableArray that I would just put my objects-created-from-xml in when -parser:didEndElement found the 'end' of each record. Now the delegates are in separate classes, I can't figure out how to have the -parser:didEndElement in the 'detail' delegate class "return" the created object to the calling class. At least, not in a clean OO way. I'm sure i could do it with all sorts of nasty class methods. Does the question make sense? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework and WCf

    - by Nihilist
    Hi I am little confused on designing WCf services with EF. When using WCf and EF, where do we draw this line on what properties to return and what not to with the entity. Here is my scenario I have User. Here are the relations. User [1 to many] Address, User [ 1 to many] Email, User [ 1 to many] Phone So now on the webform, on page1 I can edit user information. say I can edit few properties on the user entity and can also edit address, phone, email entities[ like add / delete and update any] On page2, i can only update user properties and nothing related to navigation properties [ address, email, phone]. So when I return the User Entity [ OR DTO] should i be returning the navigation properties too? Or should the client make multiple calls to get navigation properites. Also, how does it go with Save? Like should the client make multiple calls to save user and related entites or just one call to save the graph? Lets say, if I just have a Save(User user) [ where user has all the related entities too] both page1 and page2 will call save and pass me the user. but one page1 i will need a lot more information. but on page2 i just need the user primitive properties. So my question is, where do we draw this line, how do we design theses services ? Is the WCF operation designed on the page and the fields it has ? I am hoping i explained my problem well enough.

    Read the article

  • ZeroMQ REQ/REP on ipc:// and concurrency

    - by Metiu
    I implemented a JSON-RPC server using a REQ/REP 0MQ ipc:// socket and I'm experiencing strange behavior which I suspect is due to the fact that the ipc:// underlying unix socket is not a real socket, but rather a single pipe. From the documentation, one has to enforce strict zmq_send()/zmq_recv() alternation, otherwise the out-of-order zmq_send() will return an error. However, I expected the enforcement to be per-client, not per-socket. Of course with a Unix socket there is just one pipeline from multiple clients to the server, so the server won't know who it is talking with. Two clients could zmq_send() simultaneously and the server would see this as an alternation violation. The sequence could be: ClientA: zmq_send() ClientB: zmq_send() : will it block until the other send/receive completes? will it return -1? (I suspect it will with ipc:// due to inherent low-level problems, but with TCP it could distinguish the two clients) ClientA: zmq_recv() ClientB: zmq_recv() so what about tcp:// sockets? Will it work concurrently? Should I use some other locking mechanism to work around this?

    Read the article

  • How to define a batching routing service in WCF

    - by mattx
    I have designed a custom silverlight wcf channel that I want to leverage to selectively batch calls from the client to the server and possibly to cache on the client and short circuit calls. So far I'm just using this channel as a transport and sending the generic WCF messages that result to the WCF router service example here http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/cc500646.aspx?pr=blog to prototype this on the server side. So my scenario looks like this: IFooClient-MyTransportChannel-IRouterService-IFooService-Return I now need to be able to send more than one message per call through the router and carve them up and service them on the server side. Since this is just an experiment and I'm taking baby steps I will dispatch and service all the messages right away on the server side and return the batch of results. Immediately I noticed that simply making the router interface take Message[] instead of Message doesn't work due to serialization problems. I guess this makes sense. I'm not sure soap envelopes can contain other soap envelopes etc. Is there a simple way to take a collection of WCF Message objects and send them to a single method on a service where they can be split up and forwarded as appropriate? If not I'd love suggestions on how I should approach this. I want to have minimal work to do on the router service side so the goal should be to get as close to being able to "slice and forward" as possible.

    Read the article

  • Address String Split in javscript

    - by Arasoi
    Ok folks I have bombed around for a few days trying to find a good solution for this one. What I have is two possible address formats. 28 Main St Somecity, NY 12345-6789 or Main St Somecity, Ny 12345-6789 What I need to do Is split both strings down into an array structured as such address[0] = HousNumber address[1] = Street address[2] = City address[3] = State address[4] = ZipCode My major problem is how to account for the lack of a house number. with out having the whole array shift the data up one. address[0] = Street address[1] = City address[2] = State address[3] = ZipCode [Edit] For those that are wondering this is what i am doing atm . (cleaner version) place = response.Placemark[0]; point = new GLatLng(place.Point.coordinates[1],place.Point.coordinates[0]); FCmap.setCenter(point,12); var a = place.address.split(','); var e = a[2].split(" "); var x = a[0].split(" "); var hn = x.filter(function(item,index){ return index == 0; }); var st = x.filter(function(item,index){ return index != 0; }); var street = ''; st.each(function(item,index){street += item + ' ';}); results[0] = new Hash({ FullAddie: place.address, HouseNum: hn[0], Dir: '', Street: street, City: a[1], State: e[1], ZipCode: e[2], GPoint: new GMarker(point), Lat: place.Point.coordinates[1], Lng: place.Point.coordinates[0] }); // End Address Splitting

    Read the article

  • Somewhat lost with jquery + php + json

    - by Luis Armando
    I am starting to use the jquery $.ajax() but I can't get back what I want to...I send this: $(function(){ $.ajax({ url: "graph_data.php", type: "POST", data: "casi=56&nada=48&nuevo=98&perfecto=100&vales=50&apenas=70&yeah=60", dataType: "json", error: function (xhr, desc, exceptionobj) { document.writeln("El error de XMLHTTPRequest dice: " + xhr.responseText); }, success: function (json) { if (json.error) { alert(json.error); return; } var output = ""; for (p in json) { output += p + " : " + json[p] + "\n"; } document.writeln("Results: \n\n" + output); } }); }); and my php is: <?php $data = $_POST['data']; function array2json($data){ $json = $data; return json_encode($json); } ?> and when I execute this I come out with: Results: just like that I used to have in the php a echo array2json statement but it just gave back gibberish...I really don't know what am I doing wrong and I've googled for about 3 hours just getting basically the same stuff. Also I don't know how to pass parameters to the "data:" in the $.ajax function in another way like getting info from the web page, can anyone please help me? Edit I did what you suggested and it prints the data now thank you very much =) however, I was wondering, how can I send the data to the "data:" part in jQuery so it takes it from let's say user input, also I was checking the php documentation and it says I'm allowed to write something like: json_encode($a,JSON_HEX_TAG|JSON_HEX_APOS|JSON_HEX_QUOT|JSON_HEX_AMP) however, if I do that I get an error saying that json_encode accepts 1 parameter and I'm giving 2...any idea why? I'm using php 5.2

    Read the article

  • Problem in Application_Error in Global.asax

    - by mmtemporary
    my problem is User.Identity.Name or Request.Url.AbsoluteUri in exception handling is empty when exception email to me. this is Application_Code: void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { Server.Transfer("~/errors/default.aspx"); } and this is default.aspx code: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Server.GetLastError() == null) return; Exception ex = Server.GetLastError().GetBaseException(); if (ex == null) return; string message = string.Format("User: ", User.Identity.Name); message += Environment.NewLine; message += string.Format("AbsoluteUri: ", Request.Url.AbsoluteUri); message += Environment.NewLine; message += string.Format("Form: ", Request.Form.ToString()); message += Environment.NewLine; message += string.Format("QueryString: ", Request.QueryString.ToString()); message += Environment.NewLine; HttpBrowserCapabilities browser = Request.Browser; string s = "Browser Capabilities:\n" + "Type = " + browser.Type + "\n" + "Name = " + browser.Browser + "\n" + "Version = " + browser.Version + "\n" + "Platform = " + browser.Platform + "\n" + "Is Crawler = " + browser.Crawler + "\n" + "Supports Cookies = " + browser.Cookies + "\n" + "Supports JavaScript = " + browser.EcmaScriptVersion.ToString() + "\n" + "\n"; message += s; message += Environment.NewLine; message += ex.ToString(); Exception lastException = (Exception)Application["LastException"]; if (lastException == null || lastException.Message != ex.Message) { Application.Lock(); Application["LastException"] = ex; Application.UnLock(); SiteHelper.SendEmail(SiteHelper.AdministratorEMail, "Error!!!", message, false); } Server.ClearError(); } but i receive email like this (this is header without full exception content): User: AbsoluteUri: Form: QueryString: Browser Capabilities: Type = IE8 Name = IE Version = 8.0 Platform = WinXP Is Crawler = False Supports Cookies = True Supports JavaScript = 1.2 why username and request url is emty? this problem is exist when i replace transfer with redirect or i don't use both. tanx

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to specify Jquery File Upload to post back only once (for multiple files)?

    - by JaJ
    When I upload multiple files (per bluimp jquery file upload) the [httppost] action is entered once per file. Is it possible to specify one and only one postback with an enumerated file container to iterate? View: <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.7.1/jquery.min.js"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.ui.widget.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.iframe-transport.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.fileupload.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <input id="fileupload" type="file" name="files" multiple="multiple"/> Controller: public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(IEnumerable<HttpPostedFileBase> files) { // This is posted back for every file that gets uploaded...I would prefer it only post back once // with a actual collection of files to iterate. foreach (var file in files) // There is only ever one file in files { var filename = Path.Combine(Server.MapPath("~/App_Data"), file.FileName); file.SaveAs(filename); } return View(); }

    Read the article

  • Using LINQ to map dynamically (or construct projections)

    - by CodeGrue
    I know I can map two object types with LINQ using a projection as so: var destModel = from m in sourceModel select new DestModelType {A = m.A, C = m.C, E = m.E} where class SourceModelType { string A {get; set;} string B {get; set;} string C {get; set;} string D {get; set;} string E {get; set;} } class DestModelType { string A {get; set;} string C {get; set;} string E {get; set;} } But what if I want to make something like a generic to do this, where I don't know specifically the two types I am dealing with. So it would walk the "Dest" type and match with the matching "Source" types.. is this possible? Also, to achieve deferred execution, I would want it just to return an IQueryable. For example: public IQueryable<TDest> ProjectionMap<TSource, TDest>(IQueryable<TSource> sourceModel) { // dynamically build the LINQ projection based on the properties in TDest // return the IQueryable containing the constructed projection } I know this is challenging, but I hope not impossible, because it will save me a bunch of explicit mapping work between models and viewmodels.

    Read the article

  • How can I go through a Set in JSP? (Hibernate Associations)

    - by Parris
    Hi All, So I am pretty new to JSP. I have tried this a few ways. Ways that would make sense in PHP or automagicy frameworks... I am probably thinking too much in fact... I have a hibernate one to many association. That is class x has many of class y. In class x's view.jsp. I would like to grab all of class y, where the foreign key of y matches the primary key of x and display them. It seems that hibernate properly puts this stuff into a set. Now, the question is how can I iterate through this set and then output it's contents... I am kind of stumped here. I tried to write a scriptlet, <% java.util.Iterator iter = aBean.getYs().iter(); // aBeans is the bean name // getYs would return the set and iter would return an iterator for the set while(iter.hasNext) { model.X a = new iter.next() %> <h1><%=a.getTitle()%></h1> <% } %> It would seem that that sort of thing should work? Hmmmmmm

    Read the article

  • Using the same code in different (partial) views

    - by Danny Chen
    Maybe this question is quite simple because I'm new to MVC2. I have a simple demo MVC project. (1) A weak-typed view: Index.aspx <% Html.RenderPartial("ArticalList", ViewData["AllArticals"] as List<Artical>); %> (2) A strong-typed partical view: ArticalList.ascx <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<List<Artical>>" %> <% foreach (Artical a in Model) { %> <%= Html.ActionLink(a.Title, "About", new { id = a.ID })%><br /> <%} %> (3) Here is the HomeController.cs public ActionResult Index() { ViewData["AllArticals"] = Artical.GetArticals(); return View(); } public ActionResult ArticalList() { return PartialView(Artical.GetArticals()); } Sorry I'm using a Web-Form "angle", because if I'm using a Web-Form, when I visit Index.aspx, rendering ArticalList.ascx will call public ActionResult ArticalList(). But here I need to write Artical.GetArticals() twice in two actions. How can I put them in one?

    Read the article

  • Adding array to an object breaks the array

    - by DisgruntledGoat
    I have an array like this (output from print_r): Array ( [price] => 700.00 [room_prices] => Array ( [0] => [1] => [2] => [3] => [4] => ) [bills] => Array ( [0] => Gas ) ) I'm running a custom function to convert it to an object. Only the top-level should be converted, the sub-arrays should stay as arrays. The output comes out like this: stdClass Object ( [price] => 700.00 [room_prices] => Array ( [0] => Array ) [bills] => Array ( [0] => Array ) ) Here is my conversion function. All it does is set the value of each array member to an object: function array_to_object( $arr ) { $obj = new stdClass; if ( count($arr) == 0 ) return $obj; foreach ( $arr as $k=>$v ) $obj->$k = $v; return $obj; } I can't figure this out for the life of me!

    Read the article

  • Why can't I extract a C++ type from a Python type using boost::python::extractor?

    - by Robin
    I've wrapped a C++ class using Py++ and everything is working great in Python. I can instantiate the c++ class, call methods, etc. I'm now trying to embed some Python into a C++ application. This is also working fine for the most-part. I can call functions on a Python module, get return values, etc. The python code I'm calling returns one of the classes that I wrapped: import _myextension as myext def run_script(arg): my_cpp_class = myext.MyClass() return my_cpp_class I'm calling this function from C++ like this: // ... excluding error checking, ref counting, etc. for brevity ... PyObject *pModule, *pFunc, *pArgs, *pReturnValue; Py_Initialize(); pModule = PyImport_Import(PyString_FromString("cpp_interface")); pFunc = PyObject_GetAttrString(pModule, "run_script"); pArgs = PyTuple_New(1); PyTuple_SetItem(pArgs, 0, PyString_FromString("an arg")); pReturnValue = PyObject_CallObject(pFunc, pArgs); bp::extract< MyClass& > extractor(pReturnValue); // PROBLEM IS HERE if (extractor.check()) { // This check is always false MyClass& cls = extractor(); } The problem is the extractor never actually extracts/converts the PyObject* to MyClass (i.e. extractor.check() is always false). According to the docs this is the correct way to extract a wrapped C++ class. I've tried returning basic data types (ints/floats/dicts) from the Python function and all of them are extracted properly. Is there something I'm missing? Is there another way to get the data and cast to MyClass?

    Read the article

  • Comparing two Objects which implement the same interface for equality / equivalence - Design help

    - by gav
    Hi All, I have an interface and two objects implementing that interface, massively simplied; public interface MyInterface { public int getId(); public int getName(); ... } public class A implements MyInterface { ... } public class B implements MyInterface { ... } We are migrating from using one implementation to the other but I need to check that the objects of type B that are generated are equivalent to those of type A. Specifically I mean that for all of the interface methods an object of Type A and Type B will return the same value (I'm just checking my code for generating this objects is correct). How would you go about this? Map<String, MyInterface> oldGeneratedObjects = getOldGeneratedObjects(); Map<String, MyInterface> newGeneratedObjects = getNewGeneratedObjects(); // TODO: Establish that for each Key the Values in the two maps return equivalent values. I'm looking for good coding practices and style here. I appreciate that I could just iterate through one key set pulling out both objects which should be equivalent and then just call all the methods and compare, I'm just thinking there may be a cleaner, more extensible way and I'm interested to learn what options there might be. Would it be appropriate / possible / advised to override equals or implement Comparable? Thanks in advance, Gavin

    Read the article

  • On C++ global operator new: why it can be replaced

    - by Jimmy
    I wrote a small program in VS2005 to test whether C++ global operator new can be overloaded. It can. #include "stdafx.h" #include "iostream" #include "iomanip" #include "string" #include "new" using namespace std; class C { public: C() { cout<<"CTOR"<<endl; } }; void * operator new(size_t size) { cout<<"my overload of global plain old new"<<endl; // try to allocate size bytes void *p = malloc(size); return (p); } int main() { C* pc1 = new C; cin.get(); return 0; } In the above, my definition of operator new is called. If I remove that function from the code, then operator new in C:\Program Files (x86)\Microsoft Visual Studio 8\VC\crt\src\new.cpp gets called. All is good. However, in my opinion, my implementations of operator new does NOT overload the new in new.cpp, it CONFLICTS with it and violates the one-definition rule. Why doesn't the compiler complain about it? Or does the standard say since operator new is so special, one-definition rule does not apply here? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Django + jquery : getting 301

    - by llazzaro
    Hello, I have tabs that calls via javascript urls of django to complete the "container" But i am getting 301, any idea why this is happening? Server misconfiguration? urls.py urlpatterns = patterns('', (r'^admin/', include(admin.site.urls)), (r'^list/', 'carsproj.cars.views.list'), ) view def list(request): if request.is_ajax(): return render_to_response('templates/generic_list.html', { 'items' : Cars.objects.all(), 'name' : 'List - Cars' }, context_instance = RequestContext(request)) javascript the_tabs.click(function(e){ var element = $(this); if(element.find('#overLine').length) return false; var bg = element.attr('class').replace('tab ',''); $('#overLine').remove(); $('<div>',{ id:'overLine', css:{ display:'none', width:element.outerWidth()-2, background:topLineColor[bg] || 'white' }}).appendTo(element).fadeIn('slow'); if(!element.data('cache')) { $('#contentHolder').html('<img src="/media/img/ajax_preloader.gif" width="64" height="64" class="preloader" />'); $.get(element.data('page'),function(msg){ $('#contentHolder').html(msg); element.data('cache',msg); }); } else $('#contentHolder').html(element.data('cache')); e.preventDefault(); }) Please tell me what more information you need, js code? template? url.py? I WILL EDIT THIS POST FOR ADD MORE DATA

    Read the article

  • Serialization in C#

    - by anjansaha
    My class structure is as follows. [Serializable] [XmlRootAttribute("person", Namespace = "", IsNullable = false)] public class Person : IDisposable { Private int _id; Private string _name; [XmlElement(“id”)] Public int Id { Get{ return _id;} Set{ _id = value;} } [XmlElement(“name”)] Public string Name { Get{return _name;} Set{_name = value;} } } I am getting the following xml when I serialize the above class <person> <id>1</id> <name>Test</name> </person> Now, I would like to serialize the above class as follows i.e. I would like append “type” attribute for each public property that is serialized as xml element. I can append “type” attribute to “person” node by declaring another public property “type” with “[XmlAttribute(“type”)]” but I would like to achieve the same for each public property that is serialized as xml element. Any idea to achieve below: <person type=”Person”> <id type=”int”>1</id> <name type=”string”>Test</name> </person>

    Read the article

  • How to exclude rows where matching join is in an SQL tree

    - by Greg K
    Sorry for the poor title, I couldn't think how to concisely describe this problem. I have a set of items that should have a 1-to-1 relationship with an attribute. I have a query to return those rows where the data is wrong and this relationship has been broken (1-to-many). I'm gathering these rows to fix them and restore this 1-to-1 relationship. This is a theoretical simplification of my actual problem but I'll post example table schema here as it was requested. item table: +------------+------------+-----------+ | item_id | name | attr_id | +------------+------------+-----------+ | 1 | BMW 320d | 20 | | 1 | BMW 320d | 21 | | 2 | BMW 335i | 23 | | 2 | BMW 335i | 34 | +------------+------------+-----------+ attribute table: +---------+-----------------+------------+ | attr_id | value | parent_id | +---------+-----------------+------------+ | 20 | SE | 21 | | 21 | M Sport | 0 | | 23 | AC | 24 | | 24 | Climate control | 0 | .... | 34 | Leather seats | 0 | +---------+-----------------+------------+ A simple query to return items with more than one attribute. SELECT item_id, COUNT(DISTINCT(attr_id)) AS attributes FROM item GROUP BY item_id HAVING attributes > 1 This gets me a result set like so: +-----------+------------+ | item_id | attributes | +-----------+------------+ | 1 | 2 | | 2 | 2 | | 3 | 2 | -- etc. -- However, there's an exception. The attribute table can hold a tree structure, via parent links in the table. For certain rows, parent_id can hold the ID of another attribute. There's only one level to this tree. Example: +---------+-----------------+------------+ | attr_id | value | parent_id | +---------+-----------------+------------+ | 20 | SE | 21 | | 21 | M Sport | 0 | .... I do not want to retrieve items in my original query where, for a pair of associated attributes, they related like attributes 20 & 21. I do want to retrieve items where: the attributes have no parent for two or more attributes they are not related (e.g. attributes 23 & 34) Example result desired, just the item ID: +------------+ | item_id | +------------+ | 2 | +------------+ How can I join against attributes from items and exclude these rows? Do I use a temporary table or can I achieve this from a single query? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Insert Stored Procedure does not Create Database Record

    - by SidC
    Hello All, I have the following stored procedure: ALTER PROCEDURE Pro_members_Insert @id int outPut, @LoginName nvarchar(50), @Password nvarchar(15), @FirstName nvarchar(100), @LastName nvarchar(100), @signupDate smalldatetime, @Company nvarchar(100), @Phone nvarchar(50), @Email nvarchar(150), @Address nvarchar(255), @PostalCode nvarchar(10), @State_Province nvarchar(100), @City nvarchar(50), @countryCode nvarchar(4), @active bit, @activationCode nvarchar(50) AS declare @usName as varchar(50) set @usName='' select @usName=isnull(LoginName,'') from members where LoginName=@LoginName if @usName <> '' begin set @ID=-3 RAISERROR('User Already exist.', 16, 1) return end set @usName='' select @usName=isnull(email,'') from members where Email=@Email if @usName <> '' begin set @ID=-4 RAISERROR('Email Already exist.', 16, 1) return end declare @MemID as int select @memID=isnull(max(ID),0)+1 from members INSERT INTO members ( id, LoginName, Password, FirstName, LastName, signupDate, Company, Phone, Email, Address, PostalCode, State_Province, City, countryCode, active,activationCode) VALUES ( @Memid, @LoginName, @Password, @FirstName, @LastName, @signupDate, @Company, @Phone, @Email, @Address, @PostalCode, @State_Province, @City, @countryCode, @active,@activationCode) if @@error <> 0 set @ID=-1 else set @id=@memID Note that I've "inherited" this sproc and the database. I am trying to insert a new record from my signup.aspx page. My SQLDataSource is as follows: <asp:SqlDataSource runat="server" ID="dsAddMember" ConnectionString="rmsdbuser" InsertCommandType="StoredProcedure" InsertCommand="Pro_members_Insert" ProviderName="System.Data.SqlClient"> The click handler for btnSave is as follows: Protected Sub btnSave_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Handles btnSave.Click Try dsAddMember.DataBind() Catch ex As Exception End Try End Sub When I run this page, signup.aspx, provide required fields and click submit, the page simply reloads and the database table does not reflect the newly-inserted record. Questions: 1. How do I catch the error messages that might be returned from the sproc? 2. Please advise how to change signup.aspx so that the insert occurs. Thanks, Sid

    Read the article

  • Problem with HiddenFor helper

    - by Dmitry Borovsky
    Hello. Model: public sealed class Model { public string Value { get; set; } } Controller: [HandleError] public class HomeController : Controller { [HttpGet] public ActionResult Index() { return View(new Model { Value = "+" } ); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(Model model) { model.Value += "1"; return View(model); } } View: <%using (Html.BeginForm()){%> <%: Model.Value %> <%: Html.HiddenFor(model => model.Value) %> <input type="submit" value="ok"/> <%}%> Every time I submitted form result is <form action="/" method="post">+1 <input id="Value" name="Value" type="hidden" value="+"> <input type="submit" value="ok"> </form> It means that HiddenFor helper doesn't use real value of Model.Value but uses passed to controller one. Is it bug in MVC framework? Does anyone know workaround?

    Read the article

  • Add leading zeros to this javascript countdown script?

    - by eddjedi
    I am using the following countdown script which works great, but I can't figure out how to add leading zeros to the numbers (eg so it displays 09 instead of 9.) Can anybody help me out please? Here's the current script: function countDown(id, end, cur){ this.container = document.getElementById(id); this.endDate = new Date(end); this.curDate = new Date(cur); var context = this; var formatResults = function(day, hour, minute, second){ var displayString = [ '<div class="stat statBig">',day,'</div>', '<div class="stat statBig">',hour,'</div>', '<div class="stat statBig">',minute,'</div>', '<div class="stat statBig">',second,'</div>' ]; return displayString.join(""); } var update = function(){ context.curDate.setSeconds(context.curDate.getSeconds()+1); var timediff = (context.endDate-context.curDate)/1000; // Check if timer expired: if (timediff<0){ return context.container.innerHTML = formatResults(0,0,0,0); } var oneMinute=60; //minute unit in seconds var oneHour=60*60; //hour unit in seconds var oneDay=60*60*24; //day unit in seconds var dayfield=Math.floor(timediff/oneDay); var hourfield=Math.floor((timediff-dayfield*oneDay)/oneHour); var minutefield=Math.floor((timediff-dayfield*oneDay-hourfield*oneHour)/oneMinute); var secondfield=Math.floor((timediff-dayfield*oneDay-hourfield*oneHour-minutefield*oneMinute)); context.container.innerHTML = formatResults(dayfield, hourfield, minutefield, secondfield); // Call recursively setTimeout(update, 1000); }; // Call the recursive loop update(); }

    Read the article

  • Windows/C++: how to use a COM dll which is not registered

    - by Albert
    Hi, In our application, we need to use a COM dll (namely msdia100.dll) which was not registered in the system before. Earler, we have just called the DLL by calling its DllRegisterServer via this code: // Register DIA DLL required by Breakpad std::string diaLibPath = "msdia100"; HMODULE diaLib = LoadLibrary(diaLibPath.c_str()); if( diaLib == NULL ) { errors << "Cannot load DLL " << diaLibPath << endl; return; } typedef HRESULT ( __stdcall * regServer_t )(void); regServer_t regServer = (regServer_t)GetProcAddress(diaLib, "DllRegisterServer"); if( regServer == NULL ) { errors << "Cannot get method DllRegisterServer from " << diaLibPath << endl; FreeLibrary(diaLib); return; } if( regServer() != S_OK ) { errors << "Cannot call DllRegisterServer from " << diaLibPath << endl; } FreeLibrary(diaLib); This doesn't work anymore on Windows 7 (maybe also Vista, didn't tried) because to call this function, it needs Administrator privileges. All solutions to this problem I have found where about getting those Admin rights. That is no possible solution for us because our application must also work if the user is not able to get those Admin rights. It is also no solution for us to suddenly need an installer for our application which registeres this DLL. So, what possibilities are there? How can I use this DLL without Admin rights? Do I have to recode COM which works without the need to register a DLL first?

    Read the article

  • gcc -finline-functions behaviour?

    - by user176168
    I'm using gcc with the -finline-functions optimization for release builds. In order to combat code bloat because I work on an embedded system I want to say don't inline particular functions. The obvious way to do this would be through function attributes ie attribute(noinline). The problem is this doesn't seem to work when I switch on the global -finline-functions optimisation which is part of the -O3 switch. It also has something to do with it being templated as a non templated version of the same function doesn't get inlined which is as expected. Has anybody any idea of how to control inlining when this global switch is on? Here's the code: #include <cstdlib> #include <iostream> using namespace std; class Base { public: template<typename _Type_> static _Type_ fooT( _Type_ x, _Type_ y ) __attribute__ (( noinline )); }; template<typename _Type_> _Type_ Base::fooT( _Type_ x, _Type_ y ) { asm(""); return x + y; } int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { int test = Base::fooT( 1, 2 ); printf( "test = %d\n", test ); system("PAUSE"); return EXIT_SUCCESS; }

    Read the article

  • How to write an intersects for Shapes in android

    - by Rafael T
    I have an written an Object called Shape which has a Point representing the topLeftCorner and a Dimension with represents its width and height. To get the topRightCorner I can simply add the width to the topLeftPoint.x. I use to rotate them on a certain degree around their center. The problem after the rotation is, that my intersects(Shape) method fails, because it does not honor the rotation of the Shapes. The rotation will be the same for each Shape. My current implementation looks like this inside my Shape Object: public boolean intersects(Shape s){ // functions returning a Point of shape s return intersects(s.topLeft()) || intersects(s.topRight()) || intersects(s.bottomLeft()) || intersects(s.bottomRight()) || intersects(s.leftCenter()) || intersects(s.rightCenter()) || intersects(s.center()); } public boolean intersects(Point p){ return p.x >= leftX() && p.x <= rightX() && p.y >= topY() && p.y <= bottomY(); } Basically I need functions like rotatedLeftX() or rotatedTopRight() to work properly. Also for that calculation I think it doesn't matter when the topLeft point before a rotation of ie 90 will turn into topRight... I already read this and this Question here, but do not understand it fully.

    Read the article

  • jQuery Validate PHP Response

    - by Kurt
    Hello Everybody, my problem is, I want to validate an email adresse with jquery. Not only the syntax but rather if the email is already registrated. There are some tutorials but they are not working! At first the Jquery Code: <script id="demo" type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { // validate signup form on keyup and submit var validator = $("form#signupform").validate({ rules: { Vorname: { required: true, minlength: 3 }, Nachname:{ required: true, minlength: 4 }, password: { required: true, minlength: 5 }, password_confirm: { required: true, minlength: 5, equalTo: "#password" }, Email: { required: true, email: true, type: "POST", remote: "remotemail.php" }, dateformat: "required", ... </script> And now the PHP Code: <?php include('dbsettings.php'); $conn = mysql_connect($dbhost,$dbuser,$dbpw); mysql_select_db($dbdb,$conn); $auslesen1 = "SELECT Email FROM flo_user"; $auslesen2 = mysql_query($auslesen1,$conn); $registered_email = mysql_fetch_assoc($auslesen2); $requested_email = $_POST['Email']; if( in_array($requested_email, $registered_email) ){ echo "false"; } else{ echo "true"; } ?> I tried return TRUE/ return FALSE as well, but this displays "Email is registrated" all the time. json_encode didn't work as well. Thanks a lot!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 542 543 544 545 546 547 548 549 550 551 552 553  | Next Page >