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  • Need a better way to execute console commands from python and log the results

    - by Wim Coenen
    I have a python script which needs to execute several command line utilities. The stdout output is sometimes used for further processing. In all cases, I want to log the results and raise an exception if an error is detected. I use the following function to achieve this: def execute(cmd, logsink): logsink.log("executing: %s\n" % cmd) popen_obj = subprocess.Popen(\ cmd, shell=True, stdout=subprocess.PIPE, stderr=subprocess.PIPE) (stdout, stderr) = popen_obj.communicate() returncode = popen_obj.returncode if (returncode <> 0): logsink.log(" RETURN CODE: %s\n" % str(returncode)) if (len(stdout.strip()) > 0): logsink.log(" STDOUT:\n%s\n" % stdout) if (len(stderr.strip()) > 0): logsink.log(" STDERR:\n%s\n" % stderr) if (returncode <> 0): raise Exception, "execute failed with error output:\n%s" % stderr return stdout "logsink" can be any python object with a log method. I typically use this to forward the logging data to a specific file, or echo it to the console, or both, or something else... This works pretty good, except for three problems where I need more fine-grained control than the communicate() method provides: stdout and stderr output can be interleaved on the console, but the above function logs them separately. This can complicate the interpretation of the log. How do I log stdout and stderr lines interleaved, in the same order as they were output? The above function will only log the command output once the command has completed. This complicates diagnosis of issues when commands get stuck in an infinite loop or take a very long time for some other reason. How do I get the log in real-time, while the command is still executing? If the logs are large, it can get hard to interpret which command generated which output. Is there a way to prefix each line with something (e.g. the first word of the cmd string followed by :).

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  • Problem using the prependTo() in jQuery

    - by raulriera
    Hi all, I am having a problem trying to use the prependTo() function in jQuery... for some reason I can't get this to work $(" <div id="note178" class="note"> <div class="delete"><a href="/chart-notes/delete/178" onclick="$.ajax({ dataType: 'script', url: '/chart-notes/delete/178'}); return false;"><img src='/images/icons/delete.png'></a></div> <div class="timestamp">1 minute ago </div> <div class="content">ñasdas dasdasdasd conclusión</div> </div> ").prependTo(".notes").fadeIn("slow"); Although when doing it like this, it works fine $.ajax({ url:'/chart-notes/show/<cfoutput>#chartnote.id#</cfoutput>', success: function(data) { $(data).prependTo(".notes").fadeIn("slow"); // Scroll to the top of the annotations $('html, body').animate({scrollTop: $(".notes").offset().top}, 1000); // Clear the form $('#chartnote-notes').val(""); } }); The "data" response from that success function is the same <div id="note178" class="note"> <div class="delete"><a href="/chart-notes/delete/178" onclick="$.ajax({ dataType: 'script', url: '/chart-notes/delete/178'}); return false;"><img src='/images/icons/delete.png'></a></div> <div class="timestamp">1 minute ago </div> <div class="content">ñasdas dasdasdasd conclusión</div> </div> As before

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  • ASP.Net MVC - how can I easily serialize query results to a database?

    - by Mortanis
    I've been working on a little property search engine while I learn ASP.Net MVC. I've gotten the results from various property database tables and sorted them into a master generic property response. The search form is passed via Model Binding and works great. Now, I'd like to add pagination. I'm returning the chunk of properties for the current page with .Skip() and .Take(), and that's working great. I have a SearchResults model that has the paged result set and various other data like nextPage and prevPage. Except, I no longer have the original form of course to pass to /Results/2. Previously I'd have just hidden a copy of the form and done a POST each time, but it seems inelegant. I'd like to serialize the results to my MS SQL database and return a unique key for that results set - this also helps with a "Send this query to a friend!" link. Killing two birds with one stone. Is there an easy way to take an IQueryable result set that I have, serialize it, stick it into the DB, return a unique key and then reverse the process with said key? I'm using Linq to SQL currently on a MS SQL Express install, though in production it'll be on MS SQL 2008.

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  • probelem with NSTimer

    - by zp26
    Hi I have a problem with a NSTimer I recived a "SIGABRT" error and "[NSCFTimer intValue]: unrecognized selector sent to instance " These is my code: -(void)detectionMove:(NSNumber*)arrayIndex{ static BOOL notFind = FALSE; static int countVariable = 0; static int countRilevamenti = 0; notFind = FALSE; for(int i = countVariable+1; i<[[[[sharedController arrayMovement]objectAtIndex:[arrayIndex intValue]] arrayPositionMove]count]; i++){ if(!notFind){ if((actualAccelerometerX+sensibilityMovement) >= [[[[[sharedController arrayMovement]objectAtIndex:[arrayIndex intValue]] arrayPositionMove]objectAtIndex:i]valueX] && (actualAccelerometerX-sensibilityMovement) <= [[[[[sharedController arrayMovement]objectAtIndex:[arrayIndex intValue]] arrayPositionMove]objectAtIndex:i]valueX] && (actualAccelerometerY+sensibilityMovement) >= [[[[[sharedController arrayMovement]objectAtIndex:[arrayIndex intValue]] arrayPositionMove]objectAtIndex:i]valueY] && (actualAccelerometerY-sensibilityMovement) <= [[[[[sharedController arrayMovement]objectAtIndex:[arrayIndex intValue]] arrayPositionMove]objectAtIndex:i]valueY] && (actualAccelerometerZ+sensibilityMovement) >= [[[[[sharedController arrayMovement]objectAtIndex:[arrayIndex intValue]] arrayPositionMove]objectAtIndex:i]valueZ] && (actualAccelerometerZ-sensibilityMovement) <= [[[[[sharedController arrayMovement]objectAtIndex:[arrayIndex intValue]] arrayPositionMove]objectAtIndex:i]valueZ]) { countVariable = i; notFind = TRUE; countRilevamenti++; } } } if(!notFind) return; else if(countVariable+1 == [[[[sharedController arrayMovement]objectAtIndex:[arrayIndex intValue]] arrayPositionMove]count]){ if(countRilevamenti + tollerance >= [[[[sharedController arrayMovement]objectAtIndex:[arrayIndex intValue]] arrayPositionMove]count]) movementDetected = [arrayIndex intValue]; else NSLog(@"troppo veloce"); countVariable = 0; notFind = FALSE; countRilevamenti = 0; return; } [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:timeToCatch target:self selector:@selector(detectionMove:) userInfo:(NSNumber*)arrayIndex repeats:NO]; }

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  • Foreign key relationships in Entity Framework

    - by Anders Svensson
    I'm trying to add an object created from Entity Data Model classes. I have a table called Users, which has turned into a User EDM class. And I also have a table Pages, which has become a Page EDM class. These tables have a foreign key relationship, so that each page is associated with many users. Now I want to be able to add a page, but I can't get how to do it. I get a nullreference exception on Users below. I'm still rather confused by all this, so I'm sure it's a simple error, but I just can't see how to do it. Also, by the way, the compiler requires that I set PageID in the object initializer, even though this field is set to be an automatic id in the table. Am I doing it right just setting it to 0, expecting it to be updated automatically in the table when saved, or how should I do that? Any help appreciated! The method in question: private Page GetPage(User currentUser) { string url = _request.ServerVariables["url"].ToLower(); var userPages = from p in _context.PageSet where p.Users.UserID == currentUser.UserID select p; var existingPage = userPages.FirstOrDefault(e => e.Url == url); //Could be combined with above, but hard to read? if (existingPage != null) return existingPage; Page page = new Page() { Count = 0, Url = _request.ServerVariables["url"].ToLower(), PageID = 0, //Only initial value, changed later? }; _context.AddToPageSet(page); page.Users.UserID = currentUser.UserID; //Here's the problem... return page; }

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  • Have Microsoft changed how ASP.NET MVC deals with duplicate action method names?

    - by Jason Evans
    I might be missing something here, but in ASP.NET MVC 4, I can't get the following to work. Given the following controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string order1, string order2) { return null; } } and it's view: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Home"; } @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.TextBox("order1")<br /> @Html.TextBox("order2") <input type="submit" value="Save"/> } When start the app, all I get is this: The current request for action 'Index' on controller type 'HomeController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index() on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index(System.String, System.String) on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController Now, in ASP.NET MVC 3 the above works fine, I just tried it, so what's changed in ASP.NET MVC 4 to break this? OK there could be a chance that I'm doing something silly here, and not noticing it. EDIT: I notice that in the MVC 4 app, the Global.asax.cs file did not contain this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } which the MVC 3 app does, by default. So I added the above to the MVC 4 app but it fails with the same error. Note that the MVC 3 app does work fine with the above route. I'm passing the "order" data via the Request.Form. EDIT: In the file RouteConfig.cs I can see RegisterRoutes is executed, with the following default route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Default", url: "{controller}/{action}/{id}", defaults: new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I still get the original error, regards ambiguity between which Index() method to call.

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  • Can JMX operations take interfaces as parameters?

    - by Thor84no
    I'm having problems with an MBean that takes a Map<String, Object> as a parameter. If I try to execute it via JMX using a proxy object, I get an Exception: Caused by: javax.management.ReflectionException at org.jboss.mx.server.AbstractMBeanInvoker.invoke(AbstractMBeanInvoker.java:231) at org.jboss.mx.server.MBeanServerImpl.invoke(MBeanServerImpl.java:668) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) Caused by: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Unable to find operation updateProperties(java.util.HashMap) It appears that it attempts to use the actual implementation class rather than the interface, and doesn't check if this is a child of the required interface. The same thing happens for extended classes (for example declare HashMap, pass in LinkedHashMap). Does this mean it's impossible to use an interface for such methods? At the moment I'm getting around it by changing the method signature to accept a HashMap, but it seems odd that I wouldn't be able to use interfaces (or extended classes) in my MBeans. Edit: The proxy object is being created by an in-house utility class called JmxInvocationHandler. The (hopefully) relevant parts of it are as follows: public class JmxInvocationHandler implements InvocationHandler { ... public static <T> T createMBean(final Class<T> iface, SFSTestProperties properties, String mbean, int shHostID) { T newProxyInstance = (T) Proxy.newProxyInstance(iface.getClassLoader(), new Class[] { iface }, (InvocationHandler) new JmxInvocationHandler(properties, mbean, shHostID)); return newProxyInstance; } ... private JmxInvocationHandler(SFSTestProperties properties, String mbean, int shHostID) { this.mbeanName = mbean + MBEAN_SUFFIX + shHostID; msConfig = new MsConfiguration(properties.getHost(0), properties.getMSAdminPort(), properties.getMSUser(), properties.getMSPassword()); } ... public Object invoke(Object proxy, Method method, Object[] args) throws Throwable { if (management == null) { management = ManagementClientStore.getInstance().getManagementClient(msConfig.getHost(), msConfig.getAdminPort(), msConfig.getUser(), msConfig.getPassword(), false); } final Object result = management.methodCall(mbeanName, method.getName(), args == null? new Object[] {} : args); return result; } }

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  • Unusual heap size limitations in VS2003 C++

    - by Shane MacLaughlin
    I have a C++ app that uses large arrays of data, and have noticed while testing that it is running out of memory, while there is still plenty of memory available. I have reduced the code to a sample test case as follows; void MemTest() { size_t Size = 500*1024*1024; // 512mb if (Size > _HEAP_MAXREQ) TRACE("Invalid Size"); void * mem = malloc(Size); if (mem == NULL) TRACE("allocation failed"); } If I create a new MFC project, include this function, and run it from InitInstance, it works fine in debug mode (memory allocated as expected), yet fails in release mode (malloc returns NULL). Single stepping through release into the C run times, my function gets inlined I get the following // malloc.c void * __cdecl _malloc_base (size_t size) { void *res = _nh_malloc_base(size, _newmode); RTCCALLBACK(_RTC_Allocate_hook, (res, size, 0)); return res; } Calling _nh_malloc_base void * __cdecl _nh_malloc_base (size_t size, int nhFlag) { void * pvReturn; // validate size if (size > _HEAP_MAXREQ) return NULL; ' ' And (size _HEAP_MAXREQ) returns true and hence my memory doesn't get allocated. Putting a watch on size comes back with the exptected 512MB, which suggests the program is linking into a different run-time library with a much smaller _HEAP_MAXREQ. Grepping the VC++ folders for _HEAP_MAXREQ shows the expected 0xFFFFFFE0, so I can't figure out what is happening here. Anyone know of any CRT changes or versions that would cause this problem, or am I missing something way more obvious?

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  • I have a fucntion that create histogram of each Bitmap. How can i create another 3 histograms for R.G.B of each Bitmap?

    - by Daniel Lip
    This is the histogram function im using today and if im not worng it's creating an histogram by Gray color. What i want is another fucntion that will return me 3 histograms of each Bitmap: The first histogram will be of the Red color of the bitmap the second for the Green color and the last one for the Blue color. public static long[] GetHistogram(Bitmap b) { long[] myHistogram = new long[256]; BitmapData bmData = null; try { //Lock it fixed with 32bpp bmData = b.LockBits(new Rectangle(0, 0, b.Width, b.Height), ImageLockMode.ReadOnly, PixelFormat.Format32bppArgb); int scanline = bmData.Stride; System.IntPtr Scan0 = bmData.Scan0; unsafe { byte* p = (byte*)(void*)Scan0; int nWidth = b.Width; int nHeight = b.Height; for (int y = 0; y < nHeight; y++) { for (int x = 0; x < nWidth; x++) { long Temp = 0; Temp += p[0]; // p[0] - blue, p[1] - green , p[2]-red Temp += p[1]; Temp += p[2]; Temp = (int)Temp / 3; myHistogram[Temp]++; //we do not need to use any offset, we always can increment by pixelsize when //locking in 32bppArgb - mode p += 4; } } } b.UnlockBits(bmData); } catch { try { b.UnlockBits(bmData); } catch { } } return myHistogram; } How may i do it ?

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  • Difference in behaviour (GCC and Visual C++)

    - by Prasoon Saurav
    Consider the following code. #include <stdio.h> #include <vector> #include <iostream> struct XYZ { int X,Y,Z; }; std::vector<XYZ> A; int rec(int idx) { int i = A.size(); A.push_back(XYZ()); if (idx >= 5) return i; A[i].X = rec(idx+1); return i; } int main(){ A.clear(); rec(0); puts("FINISH!"); } I couldn't figure out the reason why the code gives a segmentation fault on Linux (IDE used: Code::Blocks) whereas on Windows (IDE used: Visual C++) it doesn't. When I used Valgrind just to check what actually the problem was, I got this output. I got Invalid write of size 4 at four different places. Then why didn't the code crash when I used Visual C++? Am I missing something?

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  • HTML Helper/Text Box validation

    - by slandau
    I have this input on the view: <%= Html.TextBoxCurrentDateWithoutPermission("EffectiveDate", Model.EffectiveDate.HasValue ? Model.EffectiveDate.Value.ToString("dd-MMM-yyyy") : "", new string[] { PERMISSIONS.hasICAdvanced }, new { @class = "economicTextBox", propertyName = "EffectiveDate", onchange = "parseAndSetDt(this); ", dataType = "Date" })%> Here is the custom HTML Helper: public static MvcHtmlString TextBoxCurrentDateWithoutPermission( this HtmlHelper htmlHelper, string name, object value, string[] permissions, object htmlAttributes ) { foreach (string permission in permissions) { if (Chatham.Web.UI.Extranet.SessionManager.DisplayUser.IsInRole(permission)) { // the user has the permission => render the textbox return htmlHelper.TextBox(name, value, htmlAttributes); } } // the user has no permission => render a readonly checkbox var mergedHtmlAttributes = new RouteValueDictionary(htmlAttributes); mergedHtmlAttributes["disabled"] = "disabled"; return htmlHelper.TextBox(name, value == "" ? DateTime.Now : value, mergedHtmlAttributes); } The way this works now is, when a user does NOT have the permission passed in, the box is disabled. The way it needs to be -- if the user does NOT have the permission passed in, it needs to be enabled, however the only dates it can accept are todays date AND dates in the future. So I need JQuery validation (or just plain JS), for this textbox on the page for the following case: If the textbox is enabled AND the user does not have the permission, allow the user to input the current date or future dates ONLY.

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  • Paging using Linq-To-Sql based on two parameters in asp.net mvc...

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    As two parameters i say currentPage and pagesize .....I thus far used sql server stored procedures and implemented paging like this, GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetMaterialsInView] -- Add the parameters for the stored procedure here @CurrentPage INT, @PageSize INT AS BEGIN -- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from -- interfering with SELECT statements. SET NOCOUNT ON; SELECT *,ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY Id) AS Row FROM ( SELECT *,ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY Id) AS Row FROM InTimePagingView ) AS InTimePages WHERE Row >= (@CurrentPage - 1) * @PageSize + 1 AND Row <= @CurrentPage*@PageSize SELECT COUNT(*) as TotalCount FROM InTimePagingView SELECT CEILING(COUNT(*) / CAST(@PageSize AS FLOAT)) NumberOfPages FROM InTimePagingView END Now i am using Linq-to-sql and i use this, public IQueryable<MaterialsObj> FindAllMaterials() { var materials = from m in db.Materials join Mt in db.MeasurementTypes on m.MeasurementTypeId equals Mt.Id where m.Is_Deleted == 0 select new MaterialsObj() { Id = Convert.ToInt64(m.Mat_id), Mat_Name = m.Mat_Name, Mes_Name = Mt.Name, }; return materials; } Now i want to return the records,TotalCount where i use Total count to generate pagenumbers..... Is this possible... Any suggestion... EDIT: Just found this... NorthWindDataContext db = new NorthWindDataContext(); var query = from c in db.Customers select c.CompanyName; //Assuming Page Number = 2, Page Size = 10 int iPageNum = 2; int iPageSize = 10; var PagedData = query.Skip((iPageNum - 1) * iPageSize).Take(iPageSize); ObjectDumper.Write(PagedData);

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  • autorelease object not confirming protocol does not give any warning

    - by Sahil Wasan
    I have a class "ABC" and its method which returns non autoreleases object of that class. @interface ABC:NSObject +(ABC *)aClassMethodReturnsObjectWhichNotAutoreleased; @end @implementation ABC +(ABC *)aClassMethodReturnsObjectWhichNotAutoreleased{ ABC *a = [[ABC alloc]init]; return a; } @end If I have a protocol Foo. @Protocol Foo @required -(void)abc; @end My ABC class is "not" confirming Foo protocols. 1st call id<Foo> obj = [ABC aClassMethodReturnsObjectWhichNotAutoreleased]; //show warning It shows warning "Non Compatible pointers.." thats good.Abc did not confirm protocol Foo BUT 2nd call id<Foo> obj = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"abc",@"def",nil]; // It will "not" show warning as it will return autorelease object.NSArray don't confirm protocol Foo In first call compiler gives warning and in second call compiler is not giving any warning.I think that is because i am not returning autorelease object. Why is compiler not giving warning in 2nd call as NSArray is also not confirming FOO Thanks in advance

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  • notify url is not called

    - by Jahangeer Ahmed
    Dim redirecturl As String = "" redirecturl = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings("papalUrl").ToString() & "us/cgi-bin/webscr?cmd=_cart&upload=1&business=" & ConfigurationManager.AppSettings("paypalemail").ToString() Dim j As Integer = 0 Dim dr1 As DataRow If ds.Tables("ReviewOrder").Rows.Count 0 Then Dim requestsFile As String = Server.MapPath("~/App_Data/PaymentRequests.xml") ' ds.Tables("ReviewOrder").WriteXml(requestsFile) For j = 0 To ds.Tables("ReviewOrder").Rows.Count - 1 dr1 = ds.Tables("ReviewOrder").Rows(j) redirecturl += "&item_name_" & j + 1 & "=" & dr1("varTitle") redirecturl += "&amount_" & j + 1 & "=" & dr1("flRate") redirecturl += "&image_url_" & j + 1 & "=" & ConfigurationManager.AppSettings("RSSurl").ToString() & dr1("imgImage") redirecturl += "&quantity_" & j + 1 & "=" & Convert.ToInt64(dr1("flQuantity")) ''redirecturl += "&item_name_2=Sample_testing2&amount_2=9.50" ''redirecturl += "&quantity_2=2" ''redirecturl += "&item_name_3=Sample_testing3" ''redirecturl += "&amount_3=8.50" ''redirecturl += "&quantity_3=3" redirecturl += "&custom_" & j + 1 & "=" & dr1("BasketID") Next End If redirecturl += "&currency=" & ConfigurationManager.AppSettings("CurrencyCode").ToString() redirecturl += "&first_name=" & firstName redirecturl += "&last_name=" & lastName redirecturl += "&city=" & city redirecturl += "&state=" & state redirecturl += "&zip=" & zip redirecturl += "&address1=" & address1 redirecturl += "&address2=" & address2 redirecturl += "&notify_url=" & Server.UrlEncode(ConfigurationManager.AppSettings("NotifyUrl").ToString() & "&rm=2") redirecturl += "&return=" & ConfigurationManager.AppSettings("SuccessURL").ToString() 'Failed return page url redirecturl += "&cancel_return=" & ConfigurationManager.AppSettings("FailedURL").ToString() Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptBlock(Me.GetType(), "Redirect", "window.parent.location='" & redirecturl & "';", True)

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  • Where clause on joined table used for user defined key/value pairs

    - by Steve Wright
    Our application allows administrators to add “User Properties” in order for them to be able to tailor the system to match their own HR systems. For example, if your company has departments, you can define “Departments” in the Properties table and then add values that correspond to “Departments” such as “Jewelry”, “Electronics” etc… You are then able to assign a department to users. Here is the schema: In this schema, a User can have only one UserPropertyValue per Property, but doesn’t have to have a value for the property. I am trying to build a query that will be used in SSRS 2005 and also have it use the PropertyValues as the filter for users. My query looks like this: SELECT UserLogin, FirstName, LastName FROM Users U LEFT OUTER JOIN UserPropertyValues UPV ON U.ID = UPV.UserID WHERE UPV.PropertyValueID IN (1, 5) When I run this, if the user has ANY of the property values, they are returned. What I would like to have is where this query will return users that have values BY PROPERTY. So if PropertyValueID = 1 is of Department (Jewelry), and PropertyValueID = 5 is of EmploymentType (Full Time), I want to return all users that are in Department Jewelry that are EmployeeType of Full Time, can this be done? Here's a full data example: User A has Department(Jewelry value = 1) and EmploymentType(FullTime value = 5)User B has Department(Electronics value = 2) and EmploymentType(FullTime value = 5)User C has Department(Jewelry value = 1) and EmployementType(PartTime value = 6) My query should only return User A using the above query UPDATE: I should state that this query is used as a dataset in SSRS, so the parameter passed to the query will be @PropertyIDs and it is defined as a multi-value parameter in SSRS. WHERE UPV.PropertyValueID IN (@PropertyIDs)

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  • Create a new webpage using a WCF service

    - by sweeney
    Hello, I'd like to create WCF operation contract which consumes a string, produces a public webpage and then returns the address of this new page. [ServiceContract(Namespace = "")] public class DatabaseService { [OperationContract] public string BuildPage(string fileName, string html) { //writes html to file //returns public file url } } This doesn't seem like it should be complicated but i cant figure out how to do it. So far what i've tried is this: [OperationContract] public string PrintToFile(string name, string text) { FileInfo f = new FileInfo(name); StreamWriter w = f.AppendText(); w.Write(text); w.Close(); return f.Directory.ToString(); } Here's the problem. This does not create a file in the web root, it creates it in the directory where the webdav server is running. When i run this on an IIS server it seems to do nothing at all (at least not that i can tell). How can I get a handle to the webroot programmatically so that i can place the resultant file there and then return the public URL? I can tack on the domain name after the fact without issue so if it only returns the relative path to the file that's fine. Thanks, brian

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  • Hash Code for a group of three fields

    - by Gauranga
    I have three fields namely Number1 Number2 Time I am trying to write a function in java that returns a unique hash value (long needs to be the return type of hash) for the above fields. This hash would then be used to store database rows corresponding to the above mentioned fields in a HashSet. I am new to writing a hash code function, can someone please review what I have. Any help would be appreciated. public class HashCode { private long Number1; private long Number2; String Time; public HashCode(long Number1, long Number2, String Time){ this.Number1 = Number1; this.Number2 = Number2; this.Time = Time; } public long getHashCode() { long hash = 3; hash = 47 * hash + (long) (this.Number1 ^ (this.Number1 >>> 32)); hash = 47 * hash + (long) (this.Number2 ^ (this.Number2 >>> 32)); hash = 47 * hash + (this.Time != null ? this.Time.hashCode() : 0); return hash; } }

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  • Write to memory buffer instead of file with libjpeg?

    - by Richard Knop
    I have found this function which uses libjpeg to write to a file: int write_jpeg_file( char *filename ) { struct jpeg_compress_struct cinfo; struct jpeg_error_mgr jerr; /* this is a pointer to one row of image data */ JSAMPROW row_pointer[1]; FILE *outfile = fopen( filename, "wb" ); if ( !outfile ) { printf("Error opening output jpeg file %s\n!", filename ); return -1; } cinfo.err = jpeg_std_error( &jerr ); jpeg_create_compress(&cinfo); jpeg_stdio_dest(&cinfo, outfile); /* Setting the parameters of the output file here */ cinfo.image_width = width; cinfo.image_height = height; cinfo.input_components = bytes_per_pixel; cinfo.in_color_space = color_space; /* default compression parameters, we shouldn't be worried about these */ jpeg_set_defaults( &cinfo ); /* Now do the compression .. */ jpeg_start_compress( &cinfo, TRUE ); /* like reading a file, this time write one row at a time */ while( cinfo.next_scanline < cinfo.image_height ) { row_pointer[0] = &raw_image[ cinfo.next_scanline * cinfo.image_width * cinfo.input_components]; jpeg_write_scanlines( &cinfo, row_pointer, 1 ); } /* similar to read file, clean up after we're done compressing */ jpeg_finish_compress( &cinfo ); jpeg_destroy_compress( &cinfo ); fclose( outfile ); /* success code is 1! */ return 1; } I would actually need to write the jpeg compressed image just to memory buffer, without saving it to a file, to save time. Could somebody give me an example how to do it? I have been searching the web for a while but the documentation is very rare if any and examples are also difficult to come by.

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  • JQuery Ajax Get passing parameters

    - by George
    Hi, I am working on my first MVC application and am running into a bit of a problem. I have a data table that when a row is clicked, I want to return the detail from that row. I have a function set up as: function rowClick(item) { $("#detailInfo").data("width.dialog", 800); $.ajax({ type: "GET", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", url: "<%= Url.Action("GetDetails", "WarningRecognition")%>", data: "", dataType: "json", success: function(data) {//do some stuff...and show results} } The problem I am running into is the passing of the "item". I calls the Controller function that looks like this: public JsonResult GetDetails(string sDetail) { Debug.WriteLine(Request.QueryString["sDetail"]); Debug.WriteLine("sDetail: " + sDetail); var myDetailsDao = new WarnRecogDetailsDao(); return new JsonResult { Data = myDetailsDao.SelectDetailedInfo(Convert.ToInt32(sDetail)) }; } But it never shows anything as the the "sDetail". It does hit the function but nothing is passed to it. So, I have read where you pass the parameter via the data but I have tried every combination I can think of and it never shows up. Tried: data: {"item"} data: {sDetail[item]} data: {sDetail[" + item + "]} Any help is greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance. Geo...

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  • Custom button with property as StaticResource

    - by alin
    I am trying to achieve the following thing: use an svg image into a custom button. In order to do this I created a Custom button: public class MainButton : Button { static MainButton() { DefaultStyleKeyProperty.OverrideMetadata(typeof(MainButton), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata(typeof(MainButton))); } public string Text { get { return (string)GetValue(TextProperty); } set { SetValue(TextProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty TextProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("Text", typeof(string), typeof(MainButton), new UIPropertyMetadata("")); public object Image { get { return (object)GetValue(ImageProperty); } set { SetValue(ImageProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty ImageProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("Image", typeof(object), typeof(MainButton), new UIPropertyMetadata("")); } I took a svg file, opened it in inkscape and saved it as xaml file. I opened Themes.xaml and added the created xaml image as a ControlTemplate And the button style is: Style TargetType="{x:Type local:MainButton}" <StackPanel Canvas.Top="12" Canvas.Left="0" Canvas.ZIndex="2" Width="80"> <ContentControl x:Name="Img" Template="{StaticResource Home}" /> </StackPanel> <StackPanel x:Name="spText" Canvas.Top="45" Canvas.Left="1" Canvas.ZIndex="1" Width="80"> <TextBlock x:Name="Txt" Text="{Binding Path=(local:MainButton.Text), RelativeSource ={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType ={x:Type Button}}}" VerticalAlignment="Center" HorizontalAlignment="Center" Foreground="White" FontSize="14"/> </StackPanel> ... As you can see I have hardcoded the StaticResource name I want to be able to have a binding with property Image on this Template, something like So that I can set the Image property of the button with the name of the StaticResource I want. For example, having beside "Home" image, another one "Back" I would have two buttons in MainWindow declared like this: Any advice is kindly taken. Thank you for your time.

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  • Better way to implement custom views in a listview with simpleadapter?

    - by jonaz
    I have a value called tags which is a comma separated list of words. I want to put this into nicely designed "tag-buttons". The below works. However the line ((LinearLayout) view).removeAllViews(); seems like an ugly fix for not adding the tags multiple times every time adapter.notifyDataSetChanged(); is called after i load more rows with a setOnScrollListener() Any suggestion to "best practice" here, or at least a more good looking solution? adapter = new SimpleAdapter(activity,data, R.layout.list_transactions, new String[] {"comment", "amount","date","tags","category"}, new int[] { R.id.comment, R.id.amount,R.id.date,R.id.tags_container,R.id.category } ); SimpleAdapter.ViewBinder binder = new SimpleAdapter.ViewBinder() { @Override public boolean setViewValue(View view, Object object, String value) { //Log.d(TAG,"view.toString()= "+ view.toString()); if (view.getId() == R.id.tags_container) { String[] tags = value.split(","); ((LinearLayout) view).removeAllViews(); for (String tag : tags) { View v = createTagView(activity.getLayoutInflater(),tag); ((LinearLayout) view).addView(v); } return true; } return false; } };

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  • Attaching methods to prototype from within constructor function

    - by Matthew Taylor
    Here is the textbook standard way of describing a 'class' or constructor function in JavaScript, straight from the Definitive Guide to JavaScript: function Rectangle(w,h) { this.width = w; this.height = h; } Rectangle.prototype.area = function() { return this.width * this.height; }; I don't like the dangling prototype manipulation here, so I was trying to think of a way to encapsulate the function definition for area inside the constructor. I came up with this, which I did not expect to work: function Rectangle(w,h) { this.width = w; this.height = h; this.constructor.prototype.area = function() { return this.width * this.height; }; } I didn't expect this to work because the this reference inside the area function should be pointing to the area function itself, so I wouldn't have access to width and height from this. But it turns out I do! var rect = new Rectangle(2,3); var area = rect.area(); // great scott! it is 6 Some further testing confirmed that the this reference inside the area function actually was a reference to the object under construction, not the area function itself. function Rectangle(w,h) { this.width = w; this.height = h; var me = this; this.constructor.prototype.whatever = function() { if (this === me) { alert ('this is not what you think');} }; } Turns out the alert pops up, and this is exactly the object under construction. So what is going on here? Why is this not the this I expect it to be?

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  • CreateProcess() fails with an access violation

    - by John Doe
    My aim is to execute an external executable in my program. First, I used system() function, but I don't want the console to be seen to the user. So, I searched a bit, and found CreateProcess() function. However, when I try to pass a parameter to it, I don't know why, it fails. I took this code from MSDN, and changed a bit: #include <windows.h> #include <stdio.h> #include <tchar.h> void _tmain( int argc, TCHAR *argv[] ) { STARTUPINFO si; PROCESS_INFORMATION pi; ZeroMemory( &si, sizeof(si) ); si.cb = sizeof(si); ZeroMemory( &pi, sizeof(pi) ); /* if( argc != 2 ) { printf("Usage: %s [cmdline]\n", argv[0]); return; } */ // Start the child process. if( !CreateProcess( NULL, // No module name (use command line) L"c:\\users\\e\\desktop\\mspaint.exe", // Command line NULL, // Process handle not inheritable NULL, // Thread handle not inheritable FALSE, // Set handle inheritance to FALSE 0, // No creation flags NULL, // Use parent's environment block NULL, // Use parent's starting directory &si, // Pointer to STARTUPINFO structure &pi ) // Pointer to PROCESS_INFORMATION structure ) { printf( "CreateProcess failed (%d).\n", GetLastError() ); return; } // Wait until child process exits. WaitForSingleObject( pi.hProcess, INFINITE ); // Close process and thread handles. CloseHandle( pi.hProcess ); CloseHandle( pi.hThread ); } However, this code crated access violation somehow. Can I execute mspaint without showing user the console? Thank you very much.

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  • BASIC Menu-driven program repeates twice after successful completion of first task.

    - by Zazu
    Hello, Im using Plato3 to write C programs. Im creating a menu-driven program but want to test out the basic concept of getting it to work #include<stdio.h> #include<ctype.h> int function1(); main(){ char s; do{ puts("\n choose the following"); puts("(P)rint\n"); puts("(Q)uit\n"); scanf("%c",&s); s=toupper(s); switch (s){ case 'P' : function1(); break; case 'Q' : return -1; break; } }while (function1()==0); } int function1(){ printf("Hello World"); return 0; } The problem is that once function1() returns the value 0, the whole program is echoed ... why ? Example : Running the program gives this : Hello WorldHellow World choose the following (P)rint (Q)uit Hello World choose the following (P)rint (Q)uit -- Any idea why ? Please help, thanks !!!!

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  • Access to map data

    - by herzl shemuelian
    I have a complex map that defined typedef short short1 typedef short short2 typedef map<short1,short2> data_list; typedef map<string,list> table_list; I have a class that fill table_list class GroupingClass { table_list m_table_list; string Buildkey(OD e1){ string ostring; ostring+=string(e1.m_Date,sizeof(Date)); ostring+=string(e1.m_CT,sizeof(CT)); ostring+=string(e1.m_PT,sizeof(PT)); return ostring; } void operator() (const map<short1,short2>::value_type& myPair) { OptionsDefine e1=myPair.second; string key=Buildkey(e1); m_table_list[key][e1.m_short2]=e1.m_short2; } operator table_list() { return m_table_list; } }; and I use it by table_list TL2 GroupingClass gc; TL2=for_each(mapOD.begin(), mapOD.end(), gc); but when I try to access to internal map I have problems for example data_list tmp; tmp=TL2["AAAA"]; short i=tmp[1]; //I dont update i variable but if i use a loop by itrator this work properly why this no work at first way thanks herzl

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