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  • DWR and Spring Security - User is deauthenticated in few seconds

    - by Vojtech
    I am trying to implement user authentication via DWR as follows: public class PublicRemote { @Autowired @Qualifier("authenticationManager") private AuthenticationManager authenticationManager; public Map<String, Object> userLogin(String username, String password, boolean stay) { Map<String, Object> map = new HashMap<>(); UsernamePasswordAuthenticationToken authRequest = new UsernamePasswordAuthenticationToken(username, password); try { Authentication authentication = authenticationManager.authenticate(authRequest); SecurityContextHolder.getContext().setAuthentication(authentication); map.put("success", "true"); } catch (Exception e) { map.put("success", "false"); } return map; } public Map<String, Object> getUserState() { Map<String, Object> map = new HashMap<>(); Authentication authentication = SecurityContextHolder.getContext().getAuthentication(); boolean authenticated = authentication != null && authentication.isAuthenticated(); map.put("authenticated", authenticated); if (authenticated) { map.put("authorities", authentication.getAuthorities()); } return map; } } The authentication works correctly and by calling getUserState() I can see that the user is successfully logged in. The problem is that this state will stay only for few seconds. In probably 5 seconds, the getAuthentication() starts returning null. Is there some problem with session in DWR or is it some misconfiguration of Spring Security?

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  • Use properties or methods to expose business rules in C#?

    - by Val
    I'm writing a class to encapsulate some business rules, each of which is represented by a boolean value. The class will be used in processing an InfoPath form, so the rules get the current program state by looking up values in a global XML data structure using XPath operations. What's the best (most idiomatic) way to expose these rules to callers -- properties or public methods? Call using properties Rules rules = new Rules(); if ( rules.ProjectRequiresApproval ) { // get approval } else { // skip approval } Call using methods Rules rules = new Rules(); if ( rules.ProjectRequiresApproval() ) { // get approval } else { // skip approval } Rules class exposing rules as properties public class Rules() { private int _amount; private int threshold = 100; public Rules() { _amount = someExpensiveXpathOperation; } // rule property public bool ProjectRequiresApproval { get { return _amount < threshold } } } Rules class exposing rules as methods public class Rules() { private int _amount; private int threshold = 100; public Rules() { _amount = someExpensiveXpathOperation; } // rule method public bool ProjectRequiresApproval() { return _amount < threshold; } } What are the pros and cons of one over the other?

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  • @PersistenceContext cannot be resolved to a type

    - by Saken Kungozhin
    i was running a code in which there's a dependency @PersistenceContext and field private EntityManager em; both of which cannot be resolved to a type, what is the meaning of this error and how can i fix it? the code is here: package org.jboss.tools.examples.util; import java.util.logging.Logger;` import javax.enterprise.context.RequestScoped; import javax.enterprise.inject.Produces; import javax.enterprise.inject.spi.InjectionPoint; import javax.faces.context.FacesContext; /** * This class uses CDI to alias Java EE resources, such as the persistence context, to CDI beans * * <p> * Example injection on a managed bean field: * </p> * * <pre> * &#064;Inject * private EntityManager em; * </pre> */ public class Resources { // use @SuppressWarnings to tell IDE to ignore warnings about field not being referenced directly @SuppressWarnings("unused") @Produces @PersistenceContext private EntityManager em; @Produces public Logger produceLog(InjectionPoint injectionPoint) { return Logger.getLogger(injectionPoint.getMember().getDeclaringClass().getName()); } @Produces @RequestScoped public FacesContext produceFacesContext() { return FacesContext.getCurrentInstance(); } }

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  • jquery animated buttons that just wont behave

    - by TJ Sherrill
    Ok I have a inline list of buttons. <ul id="nav"> <li class="home"><a href="#">Menu Item</a></li> <li class="contact"><a href="#">Menu Item</a></li> <li class="about"><a href="#">Menu Item</a></li> </ul> .home{ position:absolute; bottom:0; background-image:url(../img/menu/single_line.png); background-repeat:no-repeat; height:34px; width:134px; } .home_hover{ position:absolute; bottom:0; background-image:url(../img/menu/single_line_over.png); background-repeat:no-repeat; height:70px; width:134px; } $(document).ready(function(){ $("#nav .home").mouseover(function(){ $(this).toggleClass("home_hover").slideToggle("slow"); return false; }).mouseout(function(){ $(this).toggleClass("home_hover").slideToggle("slow"); return false; }); }); Each menu item has a background image, and then when its hovered the background image is replaced by a taller image. Ultimately I am trying to build a simple menu where on mouseover the menu item appears to slide up. But in reality Jquery can animate the toggleClass with slideToggle. The problem is that this current code doesn't behave right. It jumps up and down, because the text is moving. I am pretty new to Jquery so any help is greatly appreciated. I also loaded this up at http://gasworks.ravennainteractive.com/result/ thanks

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  • Java Trying to get a line of source from a website

    - by dsta
    I'm trying to get one line of source from a website and then I'm returning that line back to main. I keep on getting an error at the line where I define InputStream in. Why am I getting an error at this line? public class MP3LinkRetriever { private static String line; public static void main(String[] args) { String link = "www.google.com"; String line = ""; while (link != "") { link = JOptionPane.showInputDialog("Please enter the link"); try { line = Connect(link); } catch(Exception e) { } JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null, "MP3 Link: " + parseLine(line)); String text = line; Toolkit.getDefaultToolkit( ).getSystemClipboard() .setContents(new StringSelection(text), new ClipboardOwner() { public void lostOwnership(Clipboard c, Transferable t) { } }); JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null, "Link copied to your clipboard"); } } public static String Connect(String link) throws Exception { String strLine = null; InputStream in = null; try { URL url = new URL(link); HttpURLConnection uc = (HttpURLConnection) url.openConnection(); in = new BufferedInputStream(uc.getInputStream()); Reader re = new InputStreamReader(in); BufferedReader r = new BufferedReader(re); int index = -1; while ((strLine = r.readLine()) != null && index == -1) { index = strLine.indexOf("<source src"); } } finally { try { in.close(); } catch (Exception e) { } } return strLine; } public static String parseLine(String line) { line = line.replace("<source", ""); line = line.replace(" src=", ""); line = line.replace("\"", ""); line = line.replace("type=", ""); line = line.replace("audio/mpeg", ""); line = line.replace(">", ""); return line; } }

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  • jQuery Validate PHP Response

    - by Kurt
    Hello Everybody, my problem is, I want to validate an email adresse with jquery. Not only the syntax but rather if the email is already registrated. There are some tutorials but they are not working! At first the Jquery Code: <script id="demo" type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { // validate signup form on keyup and submit var validator = $("form#signupform").validate({ rules: { Vorname: { required: true, minlength: 3 }, Nachname:{ required: true, minlength: 4 }, password: { required: true, minlength: 5 }, password_confirm: { required: true, minlength: 5, equalTo: "#password" }, Email: { required: true, email: true, type: "POST", remote: "remotemail.php" }, dateformat: "required", ... </script> And now the PHP Code: <?php include('dbsettings.php'); $conn = mysql_connect($dbhost,$dbuser,$dbpw); mysql_select_db($dbdb,$conn); $auslesen1 = "SELECT Email FROM flo_user"; $auslesen2 = mysql_query($auslesen1,$conn); $registered_email = mysql_fetch_assoc($auslesen2); $requested_email = $_POST['Email']; if( in_array($requested_email, $registered_email) ){ echo "false"; } else{ echo "true"; } ?> I tried return TRUE/ return FALSE as well, but this displays "Email is registrated" all the time. json_encode didn't work as well. Thanks a lot!

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  • How can I exclude words with apostrophes when reading into a table of strings?

    - by rearden
    ifstream fin; string temp; fin.open("engldict.txt"); if(fin.is_open()) { bool apos = false; while(!fin.eof()) { getline(fin, temp, '\n'); if(temp.length() > 2 && temp.length() < 7) { for(unsigned int i = 0; i < temp.length(); i++) { if(temp.c_str()[i] == '\'') apos = true; } if(!apos) dictionary.insert(temp); } } } This code gives me a runtime error: Unhandled exception at 0x00A50606 in Word Jumble.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0x00000014. and throws me a break point at: size_type size() const _NOEXCEPT { // return length of sequence return (this->_Mysize); } within the xstring header. This exception is thrown no matter what character I use, so long as it is present within the words I am reading in. I am aware that it is probably a super simple fix, but I just really need another set of eyes to see it. Thanks in advance.

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  • What is the difference between Inversion of Control and Dependency injection in C++?

    - by rlbond
    I've been reading recently about DI and IoC in C++. I am a little confused (even after reading related questions here on SO) and was hoping for some clarification. It seems to me that being familiar with the STL and Boost leads to use of dependency injection quite a bit. For example, let's say I made a function that found the mean of a range of numbers: template <typename Iter> double mean(Iter first, Iter last) { double sum = 0; size_t number = 0; while (first != last) { sum += *(first++); ++number; } return sum/number; }; Is this dependency injection? Inversion of control? Neither? Let's look at another example. We have a class: class Dice { public: typedef boost::mt19937 Engine; Dice(int num_dice, Engine& rng) : n_(num_dice), eng_(rng) {} int roll() { int sum = 0; for (int i = 0; i < num_dice; ++i) sum += boost::uniform_int<>(1,6)(eng_); return sum; } private: Engine& eng_; int n_; }; This seems like dependency injection. But is it inversion of control? Also, if I'm missing something, can someone help me out?

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  • sql statement question. Need to query 3 tables in one go!

    - by Stefan
    Hey there, I have an sql database. In this database is 3 tables I need to query. The first table has all the item info called item and the other two tables has data for votes and comments called userComment and the third for votes called userItem I currently have a function which uses this sql query to get the latest more popular (in terms of both votes and comments): $sql = "SELECT itemID, COUNT(*) AS cnt FROM ( SELECT `itemID` FROM `userItem` WHERE FROM_UNIXTIME( `time` ) >= NOW() - INTERVAL 1 DAY UNION ALL SELECT `itemID` FROM `userComment` WHERE FROM_UNIXTIME( `time` ) >= NOW() - INTERVAL 1 DAY AND `itemID` > 0 ) q GROUP BY `itemID` ORDER BY cnt DESC"; I know how to change this for either by votes alone or comments.... HOWEVER - I need to query the database to only return the itemID's of the ones which have specific conditions in only the item table these are WHERE categoryID = 'xx' AND typeID = 'xx' If the sql ninja could please help me on this one? Do I have to first return the results from the above query and the for each in the array fetched then check each against the item table and see if it fits the conditions to build a new array - or is that overkill? Thanks, Stefan

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  • jquery for ruby on rails

    - by Cezar
    Hello, I am tying to use this code http://gist.github.com/110410 to dump Prototype in favor of jQuery but I do have a problem. This is my HTML (a link_to generated link): <a onclick="var f = document.createElement('form'); f.style.display = 'none'; this.parentNode.appendChild(f); f.method = 'POST'; f.action = this.href;var s = document.createElement('input'); s.setAttribute('type', 'hidden'); s.setAttribute('name', 'authenticity_token'); s.setAttribute('value', 'Mi6RcR6YDyvg2uNwGrpbeIJutSHa2fYboU37wSDE7AU='); f.appendChild(s);f.submit();return false;" class="post add_to_cart " href="/line_items?product_id=547">Add to cart</a> Issue: Everything works as it should except that the page does a reload. I suspect that the submit gets thru which causes a page reload. Is there an elegant way to prevent that ? return false; doesn't seem to cut it in this case.

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  • Tomcat does not pick up the class file - the JSP file is not displayed

    - by blueSky
    I have a Java code which is a controller for a jsp page, called: HomeController.java. Code is as follows: @Controller public class HomeController { protected final transient Log log = LogFactory.getLog(getClass()); @RequestMapping(value = "/mypage") public String home() { System.out.println("HomeController: Passing through..."); return "home"; } } There is nothing especial in the jsp page: home.jsp. If I go to this url: http://localhost:8080/adcopyqueue/mypage I can view mypage and everything works fine. Also in the tomcat Dos page I can see the comment: HomeController: Passing through... As expected. Now under the same directory that I have HomeController.java, I've created another file called: LoginController.java. Following is the code: @Controller public class LoginController { protected final transient Log log = LogFactory.getLog(getClass()); @RequestMapping(value = "/loginpage") public String login() { System.out.println("LoginController: Passing through..."); return "login"; } } And under the same place which I have home.jsp, I've created login.jsp. Also under tomcat folders, LoginController.class exists under the same folder that HomeController.class exists and login.jsp exists under the same folder which home.jsp exists. But when I go to this url: http://localhost:8080/adcopyqueue/loginpage Nothing is displayed! I think tomcat does not pick up LoginController.class b/c on the tomcat Dos window, I do NOT see this comment: LoginController: Passing through... Instead I see following which I do not know what do they mean? [ INFO] [http-8080-1 01:43:45] (AppInfo.java:populateAppInfo:34) got manifest [ INFO] [http-8080-1 01:43:45] (AppInfo.java:populateAppInfo:36) manifest entrie s 8 The structure and the code for HomeController.java and LoginController.java plus the jsp files match. I have no idea why tomcat sees one of the files and not the other? Clean build did not help. Does anybody have any idea? Any help is greatly appraciated.

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  • Ensuring that all callbacks were completed before sending a new request through a DuplexChannel usin

    - by Etan
    I am experiencing some issues when using a Callback in a WCF project. First, the server invokes some function Foo on the client which then forwards the request to a Windows Forms GUI: GUI CLASS delegate void DoForward(); public void ForwardToGui() { if (this.cmdSomeButton.InvokeRequired) { DoForward d = new DoForward(ForwardToGui); this.Invoke(d); } else { Process(); // sets result variable in callback class as soon as done } } } CALLBACK CLASS object _m = new object(); private int _result; public int result { get { return _result; } set { _result = value; lock(_m) { Monitor.PulseAll(_m); } } } [OperationContract] public int Foo() { result = 0; Program.Gui.ForwardToGui(); lock(_m) { Monitor.Wait(_m, 30000); } return result; } The problem now is that the user should be able to cancel the process, which doesn't work properly: SERVER INTERFACE [OperationContract] void Cleanup(); GUI CLASS private void Gui_FormClosed(object sender, EventArgs e) { Program.callbackclass.nextAction = -1; // so that the monitor pulses and Foo() returns Program.server.Cleanup(); } The problem with this is that Cleanup() hangs. However, when I close the form when Process() is not running, it works properly. The source seems to be that the Cleanup() is called before the monitor pulses etc and therefore a new request is sent to the server before the last request from the server has not yet been responded. How can I solve this problem? How can I ensure before calling Cleanup() that no Foo() is currently being executed?

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  • KnockoutJS - creating object doesn't work

    - by Kiwanax
    I'm doing a navigation list with menus and submenus. I have the following structure: function Menu(navigation) { this.NavigationUrl = ko.observable(navigation.NavigationUrl); this.NavigationTitle = ko.observable(navigation.NavigationTitle); this.NavigationDescription = ko.observable(navigation.NavigationDescription); var mappedChildren = ko.utils.arrayMap(navigation.Children, function (child) { return new Menu(child); }); this.Children = ko.observableArray(mappedChildren); } function DashboardViewModel() { var self = this; self.LoggedUser = ko.observable(""); self.Navigations = ko.observableArray([]); $.get('/Home/DashboardDependencies', {}, function (result) { self.LoggedUser(result.LoggedUser); var mappedNavigations = ko.utils.arrayMap(result.Navigations, function (item) { var menu = new Menu(item); // When I alert item, the result appears properly: // { "NavigationTitle": "blah", "NavigationDescription": "bleh" [...] } alert(JSON.stringify(item)); // But when I alert the new menu object, the result doesn't appear: // Just: "{}" alert(JSON.stringify(menu)); return menu; }); self.Navigations = mappedNavigations; }); } ko.applyBindings(new DashboardViewModel()); So, check it out. When I try to alert the item variable, the result appears properly. When I try to alert the new Menu object, the result just show {}. Why this' happening? Thank you all for the help!

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  • Fading in and fading out for a form

    - by karthik
    hi i have a requirement in which my form is transparent,if my mouse enters into it the form should became visible,if my mouse leaves out of the form it becomes transparent, i have three different controls placed in my form , each controls mouse leave and mouse enter is the same that of the form . if my mouse enters into the form and enters into a control form_mouseleaveevent and control_mouseenterd gets fired so iam not able to achieve it,how to overcome this. below is the piece of code for this: private void TransToOpac() { if (!isTransparent) return; if (TtoOON == false ) { TtoOON = true; for (i = this.Opacity; i <= 1; i = i + 0.02) { this.Opacity = i; Thread.Sleep(50); } isTransparent = false; TtoOON = false; } } private void OpacToTrans() { if (isTransparent) return; if (OtoTON == false ) { OtoTON = true; for (i = this.Opacity; i >= 0.5; i = i - 0.02) { this.Opacity = i; Thread.Sleep(50); } isTransparent = true; OtoTON = false; } } private void OnMouseEntered(object sender, EventArgs e) { TransToOpac(); } private void OnMouseLeft(object sender, EventArgs e) { OpacToTrans(); }

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  • Retrieve class name hierarchy as string

    - by Jeff Wain
    Our system complexity has risen to the point that we need to make permission names tied to the client from the database more specific. In the client, permissions are referenced from a static class since a lot of client functionality is dependent on the permissions each user has and the roles have a ton of variety. I've referenced this post as an example, but I'm looking for a more specific use case. Take for instance this reference, where PermissionAlpha would be a const string: return HasPermission(PermissionNames.PermissionAlpha); Which is great, except now that things are growing more complex the classes are being structured like this: public static class PermissionNames { public static class PermissionAlpha { public const string SubPermission; } } I'm trying to find an easy way to reference PermissionAlpha in this new setup that will act similar to the first declaration above. Would the only way to do this be to resort to pulling the value of the class name like in the example below? I'm trying to keep all the names in one place that can be reference anywhere in the application. public static class PermissionAlpha { public static string Name { get { return typeof(PermissionAlpha).Name; } } }

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  • Class Generics break completely seperate method

    - by TheLQ
    I found a strange problem when I used class Generics Today: Setting some broke a completely separate method. Here's a small example class that illustrates the problem. This code works just fine public class Sandbox { public interface ListenerManagerTest { public Set<Listener> getListeners(); } public void setListenerManager(ListenerManagerTest listenerManager) { for (Listener curListener : listenerManager.getListeners()) return; } } Now as soon as I use class Generics, the getListeners() method returns Set<Object> instead of Set<Listener> public class Sandbox { public interface ListenerManagerTest<E extends Object> { public Set<Listener> getListeners(); } public void setListenerManager(ListenerManagerTest listenerManager) { for (Listener curListener : listenerManager.getListeners()) //Expected Listener, not Object return; } } What would cause this error? The ##java channel on Freenode said it was because of compile time candy and that I was using a raw type. But how would an raw class type break all generics in the class? And how would of worked before?

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  • C# "Rename" Property in Derived Class

    - by Eric
    When you read this you'll be awfully tempted to give advice like "this is a bad idea for the following reason..." Bear with me. I know there are other ways to approach this. This question should be considered trivia. Lets say you have a class "Transaction" that has properties common to all transactions such as Invoice, Purchase Order, and Sales Receipt. Let's take the simple example of Transaction "Amount", which is the most important monetary amount for a given transaction. public class Transaction { public double Amount { get; set; } public TxnTypeEnum TransactionType { get; set; } } This Amount may have a more specific name in a derived type... at least in the real world. For example, the following values are all actually the same thing: Transaction - Amount Invoice - Subtotal PurchaseOrder - Total Sales Receipt - Amount So now I want a derived class "Invoice" that has a Subtotal rather than the generically-named Amount. Ideally both of the following would be true: In an instance of Transaction, the Amount property would be visible. In an instance of Invoice, the Amount property would be hidden, but the Subtotal property would refer to it internally. Invoice looks like this: public class Invoice : Transaction { new private double? Amount { get { return base.Amount; } set { base.Amount = value; } } // This property should hide the generic property "Amount" on Transaction public double? SubTotal { get { return Amount; } set { Amount = value; } } public double RemainingBalance { get; set; } } But of course Transaction.Amount is still visible on any instance of Invoice. Thanks for taking a look!

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  • Specifying character

    - by danutenshu
    So below I have a code in C++ that is supposed to invert the arguments in a vector, but not the sequence. I have listed my problems as sidenotes in the code below. The invert function is supposed to invert each argument, and then the main function just outputs the inverted words in same order For instance, program("one two three four")=ruof eerth owt eno #include <iostream> #include <string> using namespace std; int invert(string normal) { string inverted; for (int num=normal.size()-1; num>=0; num--) { inverted.append(normal[num]); //I don't know how to get each character //I need another command for append } return **inverted**; <---- } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { string text; for (int a=1; a<argc; a++) { text.append(invert(argv[a])); //Can't run the invert function text.append(" "); } cout << text << endl; return 0; }

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  • Lock-Free Data Structures in C++ Compare and Swap Routine

    - by slf
    In this paper: Lock-Free Data Structures (pdf) the following "Compare and Swap" fundamental is shown: template <class T> bool CAS(T* addr, T exp, T val) { if (*addr == exp) { *addr = val; return true; } return false; } And then says The entire procedure is atomic But how is that so? Is it not possible that some other actor could change the value of addr between the if and the assignment? In which case, assuming all code is using this CAS fundamental, it would be found the next time something "expected" it to be a certain way, and it wasn't. However, that doesn't change the fact that it could happen, in which case, is it still atomic? What about the other actor returning true, even when it's changes were overwritten by this actor? If that can't possibly happen, then why? I want to believe the author, so what am I missing here? I am thinking it must be obvious. My apologies in advance if this seems trivial.

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  • NHibernate.MappingException on table insertion.

    - by Suja
    The table structure is : The controller action to insert a row to table is public bool CreateInstnParts(string data) { IDictionary myInstnParts = DeserializeData(data); try { HSInstructionPart objInstnPartBO = new HSInstructionPart(); using (ISession session = Document.OpenSession()) { using (ITransaction transaction = session.BeginTransaction()) { objInstnPartBO.DocumentId = Convert.ToInt32(myInstnParts["documentId"]); objInstnPartBO.InstructionId = Convert.ToInt32(myInstnParts["instructionId"]); objInstnPartBO.PartListId = Convert.ToInt32(myInstnParts["part"]); objInstnPartBO.PartQuantity = Convert.ToInt32(myInstnParts["quantity"]); objInstnPartBO.IncPick = Convert.ToBoolean(myInstnParts["incpick"]); objInstnPartBO.IsTracked = Convert.ToBoolean(myInstnParts["istracked"]); objInstnPartBO.UpdatedBy = User.Identity.Name; objInstnPartBO.UpdatedAt = DateTime.Now; session.Save(objInstnPartBO); transaction.Commit(); } return true; } } catch (Exception ex) { Console.Write(ex.Message); return false; } } This is throwing an exception NHibernate.MappingException was caught Message="No persister for: Hexsolve.Data.BusinessObjects.HSInstructionPart" Source="NHibernate" StackTrace: at NHibernate.Impl.SessionFactoryImpl.GetEntityPersister(String entityName) at NHibernate.Impl.SessionImpl.GetEntityPersister(String entityName, Object obj) at NHibernate.Event.Default.AbstractSaveEventListener.SaveWithGeneratedId(Object entity, String entityName, Object anything, IEventSource source, Boolean requiresImmediateIdAccess) at NHibernate.Event.Default.DefaultSaveOrUpdateEventListener.SaveWithGeneratedOrRequestedId(SaveOrUpdateEvent event) at NHibernate.Event.Default.DefaultSaveEventListener.SaveWithGeneratedOrRequestedId(SaveOrUpdateEvent event) at NHibernate.Event.Default.DefaultSaveOrUpdateEventListener.EntityIsTransient(SaveOrUpdateEvent event) at NHibernate.Event.Default.DefaultSaveEventListener.PerformSaveOrUpdate(SaveOrUpdateEvent event) at NHibernate.Event.Default.DefaultSaveOrUpdateEventListener.OnSaveOrUpdate(SaveOrUpdateEvent event) at NHibernate.Impl.SessionImpl.FireSave(SaveOrUpdateEvent event) at NHibernate.Impl.SessionImpl.Save(Object obj) at HexsolveMVC.Controllers.InstructionController.CreateInstnParts(String data) in F:\Project\HexsolveMVC\Controllers\InstructionController.cs:line 1342 InnerException: Can anyone help me solve this??

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  • ASP.NET MVC Dropdownlist retain the selected value in the browser after post

    - by MLabib
    I build a drop down list in my aspx page as following <%= Html.DropDownList("SelectedRole", new SelectList((IEnumerable)Model.roles, "RoleId", "RoleName", Model.SelectedRole), "")%> it works fine for first Get and the first default value is selected; then I select item from the drop down list and submit the form. the controller bind the values correctly, public ActionResult About([Bind] Roles r) { //r.SelectedRole = the selected value in the page. //Roles r = new Roles(); r.roles = new List<Role>(); r.roles.Add(new Role(1, "one")); r.roles.Add(new Role(2, "two")); r.roles.Add(new Role(3, "three")); r.roles.Add(new Role(4, "four")); r.SelectedRole = null; return View(r) } Then I nullify the selected item and return my view, but still the previous selected Item is selected (although I did nullify it) Any Idea if I am doing something wrong or it is a bug in MVC? I am using ASP.NET MVC 1 Thanks

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  • C# -Fluent interface implementation Help

    - by nettguy
    I am implementing the following piece of code using Fluent Interface design in C# 3.0. The code is working fine. public interface ITrainable { ITrainable AddSkill(string _skill); } public interface ISearchSkill { ISearchSkill SearchSkill(SoftwareEngineer emp,string[] _skills); } public abstract class Person { public Person(){} protected string Name { get; set; } } public class SoftwareEngineer:Person,ITrainable { protected internal List<string> skillSet { get; set; } public SoftwareEngineer() { } public SoftwareEngineer(string name) { Name=name; skillSet = new List<string>(); } public ITrainable AddSkill(string _skill) { skillSet.Add(_skill); return this; } } public class HRExecutive :Person,ISearchSkill { SoftwareEngineer _employee; public HRExecutive() { _employee=new SoftwareEngineer(); } public ISearchSkill SearchSkill(SoftwareEngineer _employee,string[] skills) { this._employee= _employee; foreach (string _skill in skills) { if (_employee.skillSet.Contains(_skill)) { Console.WriteLine(Name + " is trained on " + _skill); } else { Console.WriteLine(Name + " is not trained on " + _skill); } } return this; } } Execution SoftwareEngineer emp1 = new SoftwareEngineer("JonSkeet"); emp1.AddSkill("java").AddSkill("C#").AddSkill("F#"); HRExecutive hr = new HRExecutive(); hr.SearchSkill(emp1, new string[] { "java", "C#" }). SearchSkill(emp1, new string[] { "Oracle", "F#" }); Question : I don't want the skillSet of SoftwareEngineer being accessed by some XXX class.It could be accessed by limited classes.But protected internal List<string> skillSet { get; set; } is the only option (i think) i can declare in order to access the skillSet from HRExecutive.If i do so other XXX class can still access it. How to rewrite the code to prevent it?

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  • A more effecient millisecond conversion method?

    - by cube
    I am currently using this method to convert milliseconds to min:sec:1/10sec. However it does not seem to be efficient at all. Would anyone know of a faster more efficient and optimized way of accomplishing the same. mills.prototype.formatTime = function(time) { var elapsedTime = (time * 1000); //Minutes var elapsedM = (elapsedTime/60000)|0; var remaining = elapsedTime - (elapsedM * 60000); //add a leading zero if it's a single digit number if (elapsedM < 10) { elapsedM = "0"+elapsedM; } //Seconds var elapsedS = ((remaining/1000)|0); remaining -= (elapsedS*1000); ////add leading zero if (elapsedS<10) { elapsedS = "0"+elapsedS; } //Hundredths var elapsedFractions = ((remaining/10)|0); if (elapsedFractions < 10) { elapsedFractions = "0"+elapsedFractions; } //display results nicely var time_data = elapsedM+":"+elapsedS+":"+elapsedFractions; //return time_data; return[time_data,elapsedM,elapsedS,elapsedFractions] };

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  • Mocking non-virtual methods in C++ without editing production code?

    - by wk1989
    Hello, I am a fairly new software developer currently working adding unit tests to an existing C++ project that started years ago. Due to a non-technical reason, I'm not allowed to modify any existing code. The base class of all my modules has a bunch of methods for Setting/Getting data and communicating with other modules. Since I just want to unit testing each individual module, I want to be able to use canned values for all my inter-module communication methods. I.e. for a method Ping() which checks if another module is active, I want to have it return true or false based on what kind of test I'm doing. I've been looking into Google Test and Google Mock, and it does support mocking non-virtual methods. However the approach described (http://code.google.com/p/googlemock/wiki/CookBook#Mocking_Nonvirtual_Methods) requires me to "templatize" the original methods to take in either real or mock objects. I can't go and templatize my methods in the base class due to the requirement mentioned earlier, so I need some other way of mocking these virtual methods Basically, the methods I want to mock are in some base class, the modules I want to unit test and create mocks of are derived classes of that base class. There are intermediate modules in between my base Module class and the modules that I want to test. I would appreciate any advise! Thanks, JW EDIT: A more concrete examples My base class is lets say rootModule, the module I want to test is leafModule. There is an intermediate module which inherits from rootModule, leafModule inherits from this intermediate module. In my leafModule, I want to test the doStuff() method, which calls the non virtual GetStatus(moduleName) defined in the rootModule class. I need to somehow make GetStatus() to return a chosen canned value. Mocking is new to me, so is using mock objects even the right approach?

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  • Create a new webpage using a WCF service

    - by sweeney
    Hello, I'd like to create WCF operation contract which consumes a string, produces a public webpage and then returns the address of this new page. [ServiceContract(Namespace = "")] public class DatabaseService { [OperationContract] public string BuildPage(string fileName, string html) { //writes html to file //returns public file url } } This doesn't seem like it should be complicated but i cant figure out how to do it. So far what i've tried is this: [OperationContract] public string PrintToFile(string name, string text) { FileInfo f = new FileInfo(name); StreamWriter w = f.AppendText(); w.Write(text); w.Close(); return f.Directory.ToString(); } Here's the problem. This does not create a file in the web root, it creates it in the directory where the webdav server is running. When i run this on an IIS server it seems to do nothing at all (at least not that i can tell). How can I get a handle to the webroot programmatically so that i can place the resultant file there and then return the public URL? I can tack on the domain name after the fact without issue so if it only returns the relative path to the file that's fine. Thanks, brian

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