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  • Creating PowerShell Automatic Variables from C#

    - by Uros Calakovic
    I trying to make automatic variables available to Excel VBA (like ActiveSheet or ActiveCell) also available to PowerShell as 'automatic variables'. PowerShell engine is hosted in an Excel VSTO add-in and Excel.Application is available to it as Globals.ThisAddin.Application. I found this thread here on StackOverflow and started created PSVariable derived classes like: public class ActiveCell : PSVariable { public ActiveCell(string name) : base(name) { } public override object Value { get { return Globals.ThisAddIn.Application.ActiveCell; } } } public class ActiveSheet : PSVariable { public ActiveSheet(string name) : base(name) { } public override object Value { get { return Globals.ThisAddIn.Application.ActiveSheet; } } } and adding their instances to the current POwerShell session: runspace.SessionStateProxy.PSVariable.Set(new ActiveCell("ActiveCell")); runspace.SessionStateProxy.PSVariable.Set(new ActiveSheet("ActiveSheet")); This works and I am able to use those variables from PowerShell as $ActiveCell and $ActiveSheet (their value change as Excel active sheet or cell change). Then I read PSVariable documentation here and saw this: "There is no established scenario for deriving from this class. To programmatically create a shell variable, create an instance of this class and set it by using the PSVariableIntrinsics class." As I was deriving from PSVariable, I tried to use what was suggested: PSVariable activeCell = new PSVariable("ActiveCell"); activeCell.Value = Globals.ThisAddIn.Application.ActiveCell; runspace.SessionStateProxy.PSVariable.Set(activeCell); Using this, $ActiveCell appears in my PowerShell session, but its value doesn't change as I change the active cell in Excel. Is the above comment from PSVariable documentation something I should worry about, or I can continue creating PSVariable derived classes? Is there another way of making Excel globals available to PowerShell?

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  • Validate a XDocument against schema without the ValidationEventHandler (for use in a HTTP handler)

    - by Vaibhav Garg
    Hi everyone, (I am new to Schema validation) Regarding the following method, System.Xml.Schema.Extensions.Validate( ByVal source As System.Xml.Linq.XDocument, ByVal schemas As System.Xml.Schema.XmlSchemaSet, ByVal validationEventHandler As System.Xml.Schema.ValidationEventHandler, ByVal addSchemaInfo As Boolean) I am using it as follows inside a IHttpHandler - Try Dim xsd As XmlReader = XmlReader.Create(context.Server.MapPath("~/App_Data/MySchema.xsd")) Dim schemas As New XmlSchemaSet() : schemas.Add("myNameSpace", xsd) : xsd.Close() myXDoxumentOdj.Validate(schemas, Function(s As Object, e As ValidationEventArgs) SchemaError(s, e, context), True) Catch ex1 As Threading.ThreadAbortException 'manage schema error' Return Catch ex As Exception 'manage other errors' End Try The handler- Function SchemaError(ByVal s As Object, ByVal e As ValidationEventArgs, ByVal c As HttpContext) As Object If c Is Nothing Then c = HttpContext.Current If c IsNot Nothing Then HttpContext.Current.Response.Write(e.Message) HttpContext.Current.Response.End() End If Return New Object() End Function This is working fine for me at present but looks very weak. I do get errors when I feed it bad XML. But i want to implement it in a more elegant way. This looks like it would break for large XML etc. Is there some way to validate without the handler so that I get the document validated in one go and then deal with errors? To me it looks Async such that the call to Validate() would pass and some non deterministic time later the handler would get called with the result/errors. Is that right? Thanks and sorry for any goofy mistakes :).

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  • Filp route value in asp.net mvc routes

    - by Herman
    Hi all, I am new to asp.net mvc, so please bear with me. We have the following route dictionary setup. routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{language}/{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { language = "en", controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); for any given page in our app, we to render a link to the a french version of the same page. For example, the page: http://www.example.com/en/home should have link on that page that points to http://www.example.com/fr/home Now I have the following UrlHelper extension method public static string FilpLanguage(this UrlHelper urlHelper) { var data = urlHelper.RequestContext.RouteData; if (System.Threading.Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture == CultureInfo.GetCultureInfoByIetfLanguageTag("en-CA")) data.Values["language"] = "fr"; else data.Values["language"] = "en"; return urlHelper.RouteUrl(data.Values.Where(item => item.Value != null)); } However, calling FilpLanguage on www.example.com/en/home will return the following URL: www.example.com/en/home?current=[,] Am I missing something here? where did the current parameter come from? Thanks in advance.

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  • Using LINQ to map dynamically (or construct projections)

    - by CodeGrue
    I know I can map two object types with LINQ using a projection as so: var destModel = from m in sourceModel select new DestModelType {A = m.A, C = m.C, E = m.E} where class SourceModelType { string A {get; set;} string B {get; set;} string C {get; set;} string D {get; set;} string E {get; set;} } class DestModelType { string A {get; set;} string C {get; set;} string E {get; set;} } But what if I want to make something like a generic to do this, where I don't know specifically the two types I am dealing with. So it would walk the "Dest" type and match with the matching "Source" types.. is this possible? Also, to achieve deferred execution, I would want it just to return an IQueryable. For example: public IQueryable<TDest> ProjectionMap<TSource, TDest>(IQueryable<TSource> sourceModel) { // dynamically build the LINQ projection based on the properties in TDest // return the IQueryable containing the constructed projection } I know this is challenging, but I hope not impossible, because it will save me a bunch of explicit mapping work between models and viewmodels.

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  • On C++ global operator new: why it can be replaced

    - by Jimmy
    I wrote a small program in VS2005 to test whether C++ global operator new can be overloaded. It can. #include "stdafx.h" #include "iostream" #include "iomanip" #include "string" #include "new" using namespace std; class C { public: C() { cout<<"CTOR"<<endl; } }; void * operator new(size_t size) { cout<<"my overload of global plain old new"<<endl; // try to allocate size bytes void *p = malloc(size); return (p); } int main() { C* pc1 = new C; cin.get(); return 0; } In the above, my definition of operator new is called. If I remove that function from the code, then operator new in C:\Program Files (x86)\Microsoft Visual Studio 8\VC\crt\src\new.cpp gets called. All is good. However, in my opinion, my implementations of operator new does NOT overload the new in new.cpp, it CONFLICTS with it and violates the one-definition rule. Why doesn't the compiler complain about it? Or does the standard say since operator new is so special, one-definition rule does not apply here? Thanks.

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  • Javascript Cookie Function not working for Domain

    - by danit
    Here are the functions Im using: Set Cookie: function set_cookie ( name, value, exp_y, exp_m, exp_d, path, domain, secure ) { var cookie_string = name + "=" + escape ( value ); if ( exp_y ) { var expires = new Date ( exp_y, exp_m, exp_d ); cookie_string += "; expires=" + expires.toGMTString(); } if ( path ) cookie_string += "; path=" + escape ( path ); if ( domain ) cookie_string += "; domain=" + escape ( domain ); if ( secure ) cookie_string += "; secure"; document.cookie = cookie_string; } Read Cookie: function get_cookie ( cookie_name ) { var results = document.cookie.match ( '(^|;) ?' + cookie_name + '=([^;]*)(;|$)' ); if ( results ) return ( unescape ( results[2] ) ); else return null; } Delete Cookie: function delete_cookie ( cookie_name ) { var cookie_date = new Date ( ); // current date & time cookie_date.setTime ( cookie_date.getTime() - 1 ); document.cookie = cookie_name += "=; expires=" + cookie_date.toGMTString(); } The Jquery I use to construct the cookie: if(get_cookie('visible')== 'no') { $("#wrapper").hide(); $(".help").hide(); $("#slid .show").show(); $("#slid .hide").hide(); } else { $("#slid .show").hide(); $("#slid .hide").show(); } $("#slider").click(function() { if(get_cookie('visible')== null) { set_cookie('visible','no', 2020, 01,01, '/', 'domain.com'); } else { delete_cookie('visible'); } $(".help").slideToggle(); $("#wrapper").animate({ opacity: 1.0 },200).slideToggle(200, function() { $("#slid img").toggle(); }); }); Im trying to set the cookie for all pages that exist under domain.com with the path '/'. However using these functions and jQuery it doesn't appear to be working, any anyone give me an idea of where im going wrong?

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  • Center DIV via jQuery

    - by tony noriega
    I have a footer that is fixed to the bottom of the viewport. I am using jQuery toggle to open a comment card for users to comment and submit: $('a#footer-comment').click(function() { $("#comment-card").toggle(300); return false; $('#comment-card').show({ position:); }); $('a#footer-comment-hide').click(function() { $("#comment-card").toggle(300); return false; $('#comment-card').hide(); }); naturally if i dont add any CSS selectors to #comment-card it shows up UNDER the footer, and out of sight. So i added: {position:absolute; bottom:30px; left:auto;} 30px so it shows up above the footer which is 30px high. Problem is, i can not get this to center in the viewport... if i use pixels, depending on the resolution, it is either too far left or right... how do i center this in the viewport?

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  • WPF validation on Enter Key Up

    - by Martin
    I'm trying to validate a UI change when Enter key is pressed. The UI element is a textbox, which is data binded to a string. My problem is that the data binding hasn't updated TestText when Enter key is Up. It is only updated when I press the button which brings up a message box. /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for Window1.xaml /// </summary> public partial class Window1 : Window, INotifyPropertyChanged { String _testText = new StringBuilder("One").ToString(); public string TestText { get { return _testText; } set { if (value != _testText) { _testText = value; OnPropertyChanged("TestText"); } } } public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); myGrid.DataContext = this; } private void OnPropertyChanged(string property) { if (PropertyChanged != null) { PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(property)); } } public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; private void onKeyUp(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { if (e.Key != System.Windows.Input.Key.Enter) return; System.Diagnostics.Trace.WriteLine(TestText); } private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show(TestText); } } Window XAML: Window x:Class="VerificationTest.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300" KeyUp="onKeyUp" TextBox XAML: TextBox Name="myTextBox" Text="{Binding TestText}" Button XAML: Button Name="button1" Click="button1_Click"

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  • Why does GCC need extra declarations in templates when VS does not?

    - by Kyle
    template<typename T> class Base { protected: Base() {} T& get() { return t; } T t; }; template<typename T> class Derived : public Base<T> { public: Base<T>::get; // Line A Base<T>::t; // Line B void foo() { t = 4; get(); } }; int main() { return 0; } If I comment out lines A and B, this code compiles fine under Visual Studio 2008. Yet when I compile under GCC 4.1 with lines A and B commented, I get these errors: In member function ‘void TemplateDerived::foo()’: error: ‘t’ was not declared in this scope error: there are no arguments to ‘get’ that depend on a template parameter, so a declaration of ‘get’ must be available Why would one compiler require lines A and B while the other doesn't? Is there a way to simplify this? In other words, if derived classes use 20 things from the base class, I have to put 20 lines of declarations for every class deriving from Base! Is there a way around this that doesn't require so many declarations?

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  • Problem in Application_Error in Global.asax

    - by mmtemporary
    my problem is User.Identity.Name or Request.Url.AbsoluteUri in exception handling is empty when exception email to me. this is Application_Code: void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { Server.Transfer("~/errors/default.aspx"); } and this is default.aspx code: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Server.GetLastError() == null) return; Exception ex = Server.GetLastError().GetBaseException(); if (ex == null) return; string message = string.Format("User: ", User.Identity.Name); message += Environment.NewLine; message += string.Format("AbsoluteUri: ", Request.Url.AbsoluteUri); message += Environment.NewLine; message += string.Format("Form: ", Request.Form.ToString()); message += Environment.NewLine; message += string.Format("QueryString: ", Request.QueryString.ToString()); message += Environment.NewLine; HttpBrowserCapabilities browser = Request.Browser; string s = "Browser Capabilities:\n" + "Type = " + browser.Type + "\n" + "Name = " + browser.Browser + "\n" + "Version = " + browser.Version + "\n" + "Platform = " + browser.Platform + "\n" + "Is Crawler = " + browser.Crawler + "\n" + "Supports Cookies = " + browser.Cookies + "\n" + "Supports JavaScript = " + browser.EcmaScriptVersion.ToString() + "\n" + "\n"; message += s; message += Environment.NewLine; message += ex.ToString(); Exception lastException = (Exception)Application["LastException"]; if (lastException == null || lastException.Message != ex.Message) { Application.Lock(); Application["LastException"] = ex; Application.UnLock(); SiteHelper.SendEmail(SiteHelper.AdministratorEMail, "Error!!!", message, false); } Server.ClearError(); } but i receive email like this (this is header without full exception content): User: AbsoluteUri: Form: QueryString: Browser Capabilities: Type = IE8 Name = IE Version = 8.0 Platform = WinXP Is Crawler = False Supports Cookies = True Supports JavaScript = 1.2 why username and request url is emty? this problem is exist when i replace transfer with redirect or i don't use both. tanx

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  • How to define a batching routing service in WCF

    - by mattx
    I have designed a custom silverlight wcf channel that I want to leverage to selectively batch calls from the client to the server and possibly to cache on the client and short circuit calls. So far I'm just using this channel as a transport and sending the generic WCF messages that result to the WCF router service example here http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/cc500646.aspx?pr=blog to prototype this on the server side. So my scenario looks like this: IFooClient-MyTransportChannel-IRouterService-IFooService-Return I now need to be able to send more than one message per call through the router and carve them up and service them on the server side. Since this is just an experiment and I'm taking baby steps I will dispatch and service all the messages right away on the server side and return the batch of results. Immediately I noticed that simply making the router interface take Message[] instead of Message doesn't work due to serialization problems. I guess this makes sense. I'm not sure soap envelopes can contain other soap envelopes etc. Is there a simple way to take a collection of WCF Message objects and send them to a single method on a service where they can be split up and forwarded as appropriate? If not I'd love suggestions on how I should approach this. I want to have minimal work to do on the router service side so the goal should be to get as close to being able to "slice and forward" as possible.

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  • updating multiple nodes in xml with xquery and xdmp:node-replace

    - by morja
    Hi all, I wnat to update an XML document in my xml database (Marklogic). I have xml as input and want to replace each node that exists in the target xml. If a node does not exist it would be great if it gets added, but thats maybe another task. My XML in the database: <user> <username>username</username> <firstname>firstname</firstname> <lastname>lastname</lastname> <email>[email protected]</email> <comment>comment</comment> </user> The value of $user_xml: <user> <firstname>new firstname</firstname> <lastname>new lastname</lastname> </user> My function so far: declare function update-user ( $username as xs:string, $user_xml as node()) as empty-sequence() { let $uri := user-uri($username) return for $node in $user_xml/user return xdmp:node-replace(fn:doc($uri)/user/fn:node-name($node), $node) }; First of all I cannot iterate over $user_xml/user. If I try to iterate over $user_xml I get "arg1 is not of type node()" exception. But maybe its the wrong approach anyway? Does anybody maybe have sample code how to do this?

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  • LINQ to objects: Is there

    - by Charles
    I cannot seem to find a way to have LINQ return the value from a specified accessor. I know the name of the accessors for each object, but am unsure if it is possible to pass the requested accessor as a variable or otherwise achieve the desired refactoring. Consider the following code snippet: // "value" is some object with accessors like: format, channels, language row = new List<String> { String.Join(innerSeparator, (from item in myObject.Audio orderby item.Key ascending select item.Value.format).ToArray()), String.Join(innerSeparator, (from item in myObject.Audio orderby item.Key ascending select item.Value.channels).ToArray()), String.Join(innerSeparator, (from item in myObject.Audio orderby item.Key ascending select item.Value.language).ToArray()), // ... } I'd like to refactor this into a method that uses the specified accessor, or perhaps pass a delegate, though I don't see how that could work. string niceRefactor(myObj myObject, string /* or whatever type */ ____ACCESSOR) { return String.Join(innerSeparator, (from item in myObject.Audio orderby item.Key ascending select item.Value.____ACCESSOR).ToArray()); } I have written a decent amount of C#, but am still new to the magic of LINQ. Is this the right approach? How would you refactor this?

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  • Returning data from SQL Server reporting web service call

    - by user79339
    Hi, I am generating a report that contains the version number. The version number is stored in the DB and retrieved/incremented as part of the report generation. The only problem is, I am calling SSRS via a web service call, which returns the generated report as a byte array. Is there any way to get the version number out of this generated report? For example to display a dialog that says "You generated Status Report, Version number 3". I tried passing in an output parameter and setting it inside the storedproc. Its modified when i execute it in sql management studio, but not in the reporting studio. Or atleast i can't seem to bind to the modified, post execution value (using expression "=Parameters!ReportVersion.Value"). Of course, I could get/increment the version number from database myself before calling the SSRS webservice and pass it along as a parameter to the Report, but that might cause concurrancy problems. On the whole, it just seems neater for the storedproc to access/generate a version number and return it to the ReportingEngine, which will generate the report with the version number and return the updated version number to the WebService client. Any thoughts/Ideas?

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  • Error: "an object reference is required for the non-static field, method or property..."

    - by user300484
    Hi! Im creating an application on C#. Its function is to evualuate if a given is prime and if the same swapped number is prime as well. When I build my solution on Visual Studio, it says that "an object reference is required for the non-static field, method or property...". Im having this problem with the "volteado" and "siprimo" methods. Can you tell me where is the problem and how i can fix it? thank you! namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Console.Write("Write a number: "); long a= Convert.ToInt64(Console.ReadLine()); // a is the number given by the user long av = volteado(a); // av is "a" but swapped if (siprimo(a) == false && siprimo(av) == false) Console.WriteLine("Both original and swapped numbers are prime."); else Console.WriteLine("One of the numbers isnt prime."); Console.ReadLine(); } private bool siprimo(long a) {// evaluate if the received number is prime bool sp = true; for (long k = 2; k <= a / 2; k++) if (a % k == 0) sp = false; return sp; } private long volteado(long a) {// swap the received number long v = 0; while (a > 0) { v = 10 * v + a % 10; a /= 10; } return v; } } }

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  • php: autoload exception handling.

    - by YuriKolovsky
    Hello again, I'm extending my previous question (Handling exceptions within exception handle) to address my bad coding practice. I'm trying to delegate autoload errors to a exception handler. <?php function __autoload($class_name) { $file = $class_name.'.php'; try { if (file_exists($file)) { include $file; }else{ throw new loadException("File $file is missing"); } if(!class_exists($class_name,false)){ throw new loadException("Class $class_name missing in $file"); } }catch(loadException $e){ header("HTTP/1.0 500 Internal Server Error"); $e->loadErrorPage('500'); exit; } return true; } class loadException extends Exception { public function __toString() { return get_class($this) . " in {$this->file}({$this->line})".PHP_EOL ."'{$this->message}'".PHP_EOL . "{$this->getTraceAsString()}"; } public function loadErrorPage($code){ try { $page = new pageClass(); echo $page->showPage($code); }catch(Exception $e){ echo 'fatal error: ', $code; } } } $test = new testClass(); ?> the above script is supposed to load a 404 page if the testClass.php file is missing, and it works fine, UNLESS the pageClass.php file is missing as well, in which case I see a "Fatal error: Class 'pageClass' not found in D:\xampp\htdocs\Test\PHP\errorhandle\index.php on line 29" instead of the "fatal error: 500" message I do not want to add a try/catch block to each and every class autoload (object creation), so i tried this. What is the proper way of handling this?

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  • PHP -- automatic SQL injection protection?

    - by ashgromnies
    I took over maintenance of a PHP app recently and I'm not super familiar with PHP but some of the things I've been seeing on the site are making me nervous that it could be vulnerable to a SQL injection attack. For example, see how this code for logging into the administrative section works: $password = md5(HASH_SALT . $_POST['loginPass']); $query = "SELECT * FROM `administrators` WHERE `active`='1' AND `email`='{$_POST['loginEmail']}' AND `password`='{$password}'"; $userInfo = db_fetch_array(db_query($query)); if($userInfo['id']) { $_SESSION['adminLoggedIn'] = true; // user is logged in, other junk happens here, not important The creators of the site made a special db_query method and db_fetch_array method, shown here: function db_query($qstring,$print=0) { return @mysql(DB_NAME,$qstring); } function db_fetch_array($qhandle) { return @mysql_fetch_array($qhandle); } Now, this makes me think I should be able to do some sort of SQL injection attack with an email address like: ' OR 'x'='x' LIMIT 1; and some random password. When I use that on the command line, I get an administrative user back, but when I try it in the application, I get an invalid username/password error, like I should. Could there be some sort of global PHP configuration they have enabled to block these attacks? Where would that be configured? Here is the PHP --version information: # php --version PHP 5.2.12 (cli) (built: Feb 28 2010 15:59:21) Copyright (c) 1997-2009 The PHP Group Zend Engine v2.2.0, Copyright (c) 1998-2009 Zend Technologies with the ionCube PHP Loader v3.3.14, Copyright (c) 2002-2010, by ionCube Ltd., and with Zend Optimizer v3.3.9, Copyright (c) 1998-2009, by Zend Technologies

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  • OO model for nsxmlparser when delegate is not self

    - by richard
    Hi, I am struggling with the correct design for the delegates of nsxmlparser. In order to build my table of Foos, I need to make two types of webservice calls; one for the whole table and one for each row. It's essentially a master-query then detail-query, except the master-query-result-xml doesn't return enough information so i then need to query the detail for each row. I'm not dealing with enormous amounts of data. Anyway - previously I've just used NSXMLParser *parser = [[NSXMLParser alloc]init]; [parser setDelegate:self]; [parser parse]; and implemented all the appropriate delegate methods in whatever class i'm in. In attempt at cleanliness, I've now created two separate delegate classes and done something like: NSXMLParser *xp = [[NSXMLParser alloc]init]; MyMasterXMLParserDelegate *masterParserDelegate = [[MyMasterXMLParser]alloc]init]; [xp setDelegate:masterParserDelegate]; [xp parse]; In addition to being cleaner (in my opinion, at least), it also means each of the -parser:didStartElement implementations don't spend most of the time trying to figure out which xml they're parsing. So now the real crux of the problem. Before i split out the delegates, i had in the main class that was also implementing the delegate methods, a class-level NSMutableArray that I would just put my objects-created-from-xml in when -parser:didEndElement found the 'end' of each record. Now the delegates are in separate classes, I can't figure out how to have the -parser:didEndElement in the 'detail' delegate class "return" the created object to the calling class. At least, not in a clean OO way. I'm sure i could do it with all sorts of nasty class methods. Does the question make sense? Thanks.

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  • function returns after an XMLHttpRequest

    - by ashays
    Alright, I know questions like this have probably been asked dozens of times, but I can't seem to find a working solution for my project. Recently, while using jQuery for a lot of AJAX calls, I've found myself in a form of callback hell. Whether or not jQuery is too powerful for this project is beyond the scope of this question. So basically here's some code that shows what's going on: function check_form(table) { var file = "/models/"+table+".json"; var errs = {}; var xhr = $.getJSON(file, function(json) { for (key in json) { var k = key; var r = json[k]; $.extend(errs, check_item("#"+k,r)); } }); return errs; } And... as you can probably guess, I get an empty object returned. My original idea was to use some sort of onReadyStateChange idea that would return whenever the readyState had finally hit 4. This causes my application to hang indefinitely, though. I need these errors to decide whether or not the form is allowed to submit or not (as well as to tell the user where the errors are in the application. Any ideas? Edit. It's not the prettiest solution, but I've managed to get it to work. Basically, check_form has the json passed to it from another function, instead of loading it. I was already loading it there, too, so it's probably best that I don't continue to load the same file over and over again anyways. I was just worried about overloading memory. These files aren't absolutely huge, though, so I guess it's probably okay.

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  • Combining JSON Arrays

    - by George
    I have 3 json arrays, each with information listed in the same format: Array: ID: NAME: DATA: ID: NAME: DATA: etc... My goal is to combine all 3 arrays into one array, and sort and display by NAME by passing the 3 arrays into a function. The function I've tried is: JSCRIPT Call: // to save time I'm just passing the name of the array, I've tried passing // the full array name as json[0]['DATA'][array_1][0]['NAME'] as well. combineNames(['array_1','array_2']); FUNCTION: function combineNames(names) { var allNames = [] for (i=0;i<names.length;i++) { for (j=0;j<json[0]['DATA'][names[i]].length;j++) { allNames.push(json[0]['DATA'][names[i]][j]['NAME']); } } return allNames.sort(); } The above gives me the error that NAME is null or undefined. I've also tried using the array.concat function which works when I hard code it: var names = []; var allNames = []; var names = names.concat(json[0]['DATA']['array_1'],json[0]['DATA']['array_2']); for (i=0;i<names.length;i++) { allNames.push(names[i]['NAME']); } return allNames.sort(); But I can't figure out how to pass in the arrays into the function (and if possible I would like to just pass in the array name part instead of the whole json[0]['DATA']['array_name'] like I was trying to do in the first function...

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  • Can't decrypt after encrypting with blowfish Java

    - by user2030599
    Hello i'm new to Java and i have the following problem: i'm trying to encrypt the password of a user using the blowfish algorithm, but when i try to decrypt it back to check the authentication it fails to decrypt it for some reason. public static String encryptBlowFish(String to_encrypt, String salt){ String dbpassword = null; try{ SecretKeySpec skeySpec = new SecretKeySpec( salt.getBytes(), "Blowfish" ); // Instantiate the cipher. Cipher cipher = Cipher.getInstance("Blowfish/CBC/PKCS5Padding"); cipher.init(Cipher.ENCRYPT_MODE, skeySpec); //byte[] encrypted = cipher.doFinal( URLEncoder.encode(data).getBytes() ); byte[] encrypted = cipher.doFinal( to_encrypt.getBytes() ); dbpassword = new String(encrypted); } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println("Exception while encrypting"); e.printStackTrace(); dbpassword = null; } finally { return dbpassword; } } public static String decryptBlowFish(String to_decrypt, String salt){ String dbpassword = null; try{ SecretKeySpec skeySpec = new SecretKeySpec( salt.getBytes(), "Blowfish" ); // Instantiate the cipher. Cipher cipher = Cipher.getInstance("Blowfish/CBC/PKCS5Padding"); cipher.init(Cipher.DECRYPT_MODE, skeySpec); //byte[] encrypted = cipher.doFinal( URLEncoder.encode(data).getBytes() ); byte[] encrypted = cipher.doFinal( to_decrypt.getBytes() ); dbpassword = new String(encrypted); } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println("Exception while decrypting"); e.printStackTrace(); dbpassword = null; } finally { return dbpassword; } } When i call the decrypt function it gives me the following error: java.security.InvalidKeyException: Parameters missing Any ideas? Thank you

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  • [C++][Boost] Acceptor and Problems with Async_Accept

    - by bobber205
    See code. :P I am able to receive new connections before async_accept() has been called. My delegate function is also never called so I can't manage any connections I receive, rendering the new connections useless. ;) So here's my question. Is there a way to prevent the Boost ASIO acceptor from getting new connections on its own and only getting connections from async_accept()? Thanks! bool AlexSocket::StartListening(int port) { bool didStart = false; if (!this->listening) { //try to listen acceptor = new tcp::acceptor(this->myService); boost::asio::ip::tcp::endpoint endpoint(boost::asio::ip::tcp::v4(), port); acceptor->open(endpoint.protocol()); acceptor->set_option(boost::asio::ip::tcp::acceptor::reuse_address(true)); acceptor->bind(endpoint); //CAN GET NEW CONNECTIONS HERE (before async_accept is called) acceptor->listen(); didStart = true; //probably change? tcp::socket* tempNewSocket = new tcp::socket(this->myService); acceptor->async_accept(*tempNewSocket, boost::bind(&AlexSocket::NewConnection, this, tempNewSocket, boost::asio::placeholders::error) ); } else //already started! return false; this->listening = didStart; return didStart; } //this function is never called :( void AlexSocket::NewConnection(tcp::socket* s, const boost::system::error_code& error) { cout << "New Connection Made" << endl; //Start new accept async tcp::socket* tempNewSocket = new tcp::socket(this->myService); acceptor->async_accept(*tempNewSocket, boost::bind(&AlexSocket::NewConnection, this, tempNewSocket, boost::asio::placeholders::error) ); }

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  • Circular Reference exception with JSON Serialisation with MVC3 and EF4 CTP5w

    - by nakchak
    Hi I'm having problems with a circular reference when i try and serialise an object returned via EF4 CTP5. Im using the code first approach and simple poco's for my model. I have added [ScriptIgnore] attributes to any properties that provide a back references to an object and annoyingly every seems to work fine if i manually instantiate the poco's, i.e. they serialise to JSON fine, and the scriptignore attribute is acknowledged. However when i try and serialise an object returned from the DAL i get the circular reference exception "A circular reference was detected while serializing an object of type 'System.Data.Entity.DynamicProxies.xxxx'" I have tried several ways of retreiving the data but they all get stuck with this error: public JsonResult GetTimeSlot(int id) { TimeSlotDao tsDao = new TimeSlotDao(); TimeSlot ts = tsDao.GetById(id); return Json(ts); } The method below works slightly better as rather than the timeslot dynamic proxied object causing the circular refference its the appointment object. public JsonResult GetTimeSlot(int id) { TimeSlotDao tsDao = new TimeSlotDao(); var ts = from t in tsDao.GetQueryable() where t.Id == id select new {t.Id, t.StartTime, t.Available, t.Appointment}; return Json(ts); } Any ideas or solutions to this problem? Update I would prefer to use the out of the box serialiser if possible although Json.Net via nuget is ok as an alternative i would hope its possible to use it as I intended as well...

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  • How can I keep an event from being delivered to the GUI until my code finished running?

    - by Frerich Raabe
    I installed a global mouse hook function like this: mouseEventHook = ::SetWindowsHookEx( WH_MOUSE_LL, mouseEventHookFn, thisModule, 0 ); The hook function looks like this: RESULT CALLBACK mouseEventHookFn( int code, WPARAM wParam, LPARAM lParam ) { if ( code == HC_ACTION ) { PMSLLHOOKSTRUCT mi = (PMSLLHOOKSTRUCT)lParam; // .. do interesting stuff .. } return ::CallNextHookEx( mouseEventHook, code, wParam, lParam ); } Now, my problem is that I cannot control how long the 'do interesting stuff' part takes exactly. In particular, it might take longer than the LowLevelHooksTimeout defined in the Windows registry. This means that, at least on Windows XP, the system no longer delivers mouse events to my hook function. I'd like to avoid this, but at the same time I need the 'do interesting stuff' part to happen before the target GUI receives the event. I attempted to solve this by doing the 'interesting stuff' work in a separate thread so that the mouseEventHookFn above can post a message to the worker thread and then do a return 1; immediately (which ends the hook function but avoids that the event is handed to the GUI). The idea was that the worker thread, when finished, performs the CallNextHookEx call itself. However, this causes a crash inside of CallNextHookEx (in fact, the crash occurs inside an internal function called PhkNextValid. I assume it's not safe to call CallNextHookEx from outside a hook function, is this true? If so, does anybody else know how I can run code (which needs to interact with the GUI thread of an application) before the GUI receives the event and avoid that my hook function blocks too long?

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  • PHP static function self:: in joomla JFactory class explanation?

    - by Carbon6
    Hi I'm looking at the code of Joomla and trying to figure out what exactly happends in this function. index.php makes a call to function $app = JFactory::getApplication('site'); jfactory.php code public static function getApplication($id = null, $config = array(), $prefix='J') { if (!self::$application) { jimport('joomla.application.application'); self::$application = JApplication::getInstance($id, $config, $prefix); } return self::$application; } application.php code.. public static function getInstance($client, $config = array(), $prefix = 'J') { static $instances; if (!isset($instances)) { $instances = array(); } ....... more code ........ return $instances[$client]; } Now I cannot figure out in function getApplication why is self:$application used. self::$application = JApplication::getInstance($id, $config, $prefix); $application is always null, what is the purpose of using this approach. I tryied modifying it to $var = JApplication::getInstance($id, $config, $prefix); and returnig it but it doesn't work. I would be very glad if someone with more knowledge could explain what is happening here detailed as possible. Many thanks.

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