Search Results

Search found 39473 results on 1579 pages for 'johny why'.

Page 549/1579 | < Previous Page | 545 546 547 548 549 550 551 552 553 554 555 556  | Next Page >

  • TCP/IP RST being sent differently in different browsers.

    - by Brian
    On Mac OS X (10.6), if I start a YouTube video download and pull the Ethernet cable for 5 or so seconds, then plug it back in, I get varying results depending on the browser. With Opera and Chrome, after I plug the cable back in the video continues to load. But with Safari and Firefox, it never does. Using Wireshark to look at the traffic, I found that Opera and Chrome simply ACK the first packet from YouTube after the cable has been plugged back in, but Safari and Firefox set the RST flag (0x4) in the TCP header and no more traffic follows. I can put a HUB in between the machine and the internet connection, the problem goes away and all four browsers continue loading the video when the cable is plugged back into the HUB. Again, looking at the Wireshark logs, it's evident that the machine doesn't see the Mulitcast connection close and there is simply a delay in the packets flowing through. So it seems that if Safari and Firefox sees a Multicast connection close, and then later see data on that same connection, they will send a RST. My question is why? What is the correct course of action, and why are 2/4 browsers doing it one way, while the other 2/4 are doing it another way? Is there somewhere in the code that I can see where this is happening in Firefox, for instance? Thank you very much.

    Read the article

  • Can I split a single SQL 2008 DB Table into multiple filegroups, based on a discriminator column?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I've got a SQL Server 2008 R2 database which has a number of tables. Two of these tables contains a lot of large data .. mainly because one of them is VARBINARY(MAX) and the sister table is GEOGRAPHY. (Why two tables? Read Below if you're interested***) The data in these tables are geospatial shapes, such as zipcode boundaries. Now, the first 70K odd rows are for DataType = 1 the rest 5mil rows are for DataType = 2 Now, is it possible to split the table data into two files? so all rows that are for DataType != 2 goes into File_A and DataType = 2 goes into File_B? This way, when I backup the DB, I can skip adding File_B so my download is waaaaay smaller? Is this possible? I guessing you might be thinking - why not keep them as TWO extra tables? Mainly because in the code, the data is conceptually the same .. it's just happens that I want to split the storage of this model data. It really messes up my model if I now how two aggregates in my model, instead of one. ***Entity Framework doesn't like Tables with GEOGRAPHY, so i have to create a new table which transforms the GEOGRAPHY to VARBINARY, and then drop that into EF.

    Read the article

  • java label setText and setBounds clashing?

    - by java
    I would like to have a JLabel changint color to a random one, while jumping to a random position, and while changing its text. but the setText and setBounds seem to clash and i don't know why. if you comment out the setText then the setBounds will work, but they won't work together. import java.awt.*; import java.util.*; import javax.swing.*; public class test2 extends JFrame { private static JLabel label = new JLabel("0"); private static Random gen = new Random(); public test2() { JPanel panel = new JPanel(); panel.add(label); this.add(panel); } public static void move() { for (int i = 0; i < 10; i++) { int n = gen.nextInt(254)+1; int nn = gen.nextInt(254)+1; int nnn = gen.nextInt(254)+1; label.setText(""+i); //the setBounds command will not work with the setText command. why? label.setBounds(n*2, nn*2, 20, 20); label.setForeground(new Color(n, nn, nnn)); try { Thread.sleep(200); } catch (Exception e) {} } } public static void main(String[] args) { test2 frame = new test2(); frame.setVisible(true); frame.setSize(600, 600); frame.setResizable(true); frame.setLocationRelativeTo(null); frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); move(); } }

    Read the article

  • .NET ServiceInstaller get too much time for uninstall services

    - by rodnower
    Hello, we have some Setup Project wrote in Visual Studio 2008 in C# that installs and uninstalls services with ServiceInstaller class. When I install the services this don't get too much time, but when I uninstall with following code the process for each service get few seconds (and we have many services): ServiceInstaller si = new ServiceInstaler(); string path = string.Format("/assemblypath={0}", strServiceExecutablePath); string[] cmdline = { path }; InstallContext context = new InstallContext(string.Empty, cmdline); si.Context = context; si.ServiceName = strServiceName; si.Uninstall(null); Some one know why? Here I want to ask some related question. What difference between working of: InstallUtill /u exePath when it uninstall service and: sc delete serviceName And why when I delete some record from registry from CurrentControlSet\services I still see the service in services.msc but with: <Failed to read description. Error code:2 In description? From where I need to delete service manually for delete it complitely? Thank you for ahead.

    Read the article

  • jQuery .die isnt killing an attached event?

    - by adam
    Hi I've just started experimenting with .live and .die and having some great results but one thing isn't working. I've been tinkering with firebugs console to try out my written code live to see if i can figure out the reason why .die isn't killing off an attached event. First if i do this //attach ajax submission $('a[href$=edit]').live("click", function(event) { $.get($(this).attr("href"), null, null); return false; }); Then as expected when I click on a link the ajax fires off and my server side code injects a form for inline editing. But sometimes I want to disable this behaviour and also make the link unclickable so I do the following //unbind ajax form creation when we click on a link, then disable its semantic behaviour $('a[href$=edit]').die("click").click( function(){ return false; } ); which works but if then try to remove this and restore that ajax goodness with the code below it doesn't work, Instead the link remains unclickable. I cant figure out why? Can anyone help? //remove any previous events from the links $('a[href$=edit]').die(); //attach ajax submission $('a[href$=edit]').live("click", function(event) { $.get($(this).attr("href"), null, null); return false; });

    Read the article

  • How do I define a monadic function to work on a list in J?

    - by Gregory Higley
    Let's say I have the following J expression: # 3 ((|=0:)#]) 1+i.1000 This counts the number of numbers between 1 and 1000 that are evenly divisible by 3. (Now, before anyone points out that there's an easier way to do this, this question is about the syntax of J, and not mathematics.) Let's say I define a monadic function for this, as follows: f =: monad define # y ((|=0:)#]) 1+i.1000 ) This works great with a single argument, e.g., f 4 250 If I pass a list in, I get a length error: f 1 2 3 |length error: f Now, I completely understand why I get the length error. When you substitute the list 1 2 3 for the y argument of the monad, you get: # 1 2 3 ((|=0:)#]) 1+i.1000 If you know anything about J, it's pretty clear why the length error is occurring. So, I don't need an explanation of that. I want to define the function such that when I pass a list, it returns a list, e.g., f 1 2 3 1000 500 333 How can I either (a) redefine this function to take a list and return a list or (b) get the function to work on a list as-is without being redefined, perhaps using some adverb or other technique?

    Read the article

  • C++: Constructor/destructor unresolved when not inline?

    - by Anamon
    In a plugin-based C++ project, I have a TmpClass that is used to exchange data between the main application and the plugins. Therefore the respective TmpClass.h is included in the abstract plugin interface class that is included by the main application project, and implemented by each plugin. As the plugins work on STL vectors of TmpClass instances, there needs to be a default constructor and destructor for the TmpClass. I had declared these in TmpClass.h: class TmpClass { TmpClass(); ~TmpClass(); } and implemented them in TmpClass.cpp. TmpClass::~TmpClass() {} TmpClass::TmpClass() {} However, when compiling plugins this leads to the linker complaining about two unresolved externals - the default constructor and destructor of TmpClass as required by the std::vector<TmpClass> template instantiation - even though all other functions I declare in TmpClass.h and implement in TmpClass.cpp work. As soon as I remove the (empty) default constructor and destructor from the .cpp file and inline them into the class declaration in the .h file, the plugins compile and work. Why is it that the default constructor and destructor have to be inline for this code to compile? Why does it even maatter? (I'm using MSVC++8).

    Read the article

  • $_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'] not working with Header

    - by EmmyS
    I have a site that allows public access to some pages, but requires a login for others. I have a link to the login from all pages, and what I'd like to do after a successful login is send the user back to the page they were on when they clicked the login link. I know the HTTP_REFERER can be spoofed, and sometimes stripped out by certain hosts and proxies, but since it's strictly within my own site, and only a convenience for users, I'm not too worried about it. I am curious about why it isn't working in conjunction with a redirect, though. I've set a visible field to contain the value of the http referer, and it displays correctly. So the page is getting the value of the referrer variable. But when I try this: $home_url = $_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER']; header('Location: ' . $home_url); it doesn't work. This, on the other hand, does: $home_url = 'http://' . $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'].dirname($_SERVER['PHP_SELF']).'/discussions.php'; header('Location: ' . $home_url); So I know the header location part works. Any idea why it doesn't want to work in conjunction with the http_referer variable? (Also, does it drive anyone else nuts that referer is spelled incorrectly? I keep mistyping it using the OED spelling, silly me...)

    Read the article

  • Help me sort programing languages a bit

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hi, so I asked here few days ago about C# and its principles. Now, if I may, I have some additional general questions about some languages, becouse for novice like me, it seems a bit confusing. To be exact I want to ask more about language functions capabilities than syntax and so. To be honest, its just these special functions that bothers me and make me so confused. For exmaple, C has its printf(), Pascal has writeln() and so. I know in basic the output in assembler of these funtions would be similiar, every language has more or less its special functions. For console output, for file manipulation, etc. But all these functions are de-facto part of its OS API, so why is for example in C distinguished between C standard library functions and (on Windows) WinAPI functions when even printf() has to use some Windows feature, call some of its function to actually show desired text on console window, becouse the actuall "showing" is done by OS. Where is the line between language functions and system API? Now languages I dont quite understand - Python, Ruby and similiar. To be more specific, I know they are similiar to java and C# in term they are compiled into bytecode. But, I do not unerstand what are its capabilities in term of building GUI applications. I saw tutorial for using Ruby to program GUI applications on Linux and Windows. But isn´t that just some kind of upgrade? I mean fram other tutorials It seemed like these languages was first intended for small scripts than building big applications. I hope you understand why I am confused. If you do, please help me sort it out a bit, I have no one to ask.

    Read the article

  • When to define SDD(System Sequence Diagram) operations System->Actor?

    - by devoured elysium
    I am having some trouble understanding how to make System Sequence Diagrams, as I don't fully grasp why in some cases one should define operations for System - Actor and in others don't. Here is an example: Let's assume the System is a Cinema Ticket Store and the Actor is a client that wants to buy a ticket. 1) The User tells the System that wants to buy some tickets, stating his client number. 2) The System confirms that the given client number is valid. 3) The User tells the System the movie that wants to see. 4) The System shows the set of available sessions and seats for that movie. 5) The System asks the user which session/seat he wants. 6) The User tells the System the chosen session/seat. This would be converted to: a) -----> tellClientNumber(clientNumber) b) <----- validClientNumber c) -----> tellMovieToSee(movie) d) <----- showsAvailableSeatsHours e) -----> tellSystemChosenSessionSeat(session, seat) I know that when we are dealing with SDD's we are still far away from coding. But I can't help trying to imagine how it how it would have been had I to convert it right away to code: I can understand 1) and 2). It's like if it was a C#/Java method with the following signature: boolean tellClientNumber(clientNumber) so I put both on the SDD. Then, we have the pair 3) 4). I can imagine that as something as: SomeDataStructureThatHoldsAvailableSessionsSeats tellSystemMovieToSee(movie) Now, the problem: From what I've come to understand, my lecturer says that we shouldn't make an operation on the SDD for 5) as we should only show operations from the Actor to the System and when the System is either presenting us data (as in c)) or validating sent data (such as in b)). I find this odd, as if I try to imagine this like a DOS app where you have to put your input sequencially, it makes sense to make an arrow even for 5). Why is this wrong? How should I try to visualize this? Thanks

    Read the article

  • IE textarea wrap bug?

    - by user2227033
    It seems that IE starting from IE7 to IE10 wraps text in the textarea control incorrectly when using \n (or \r\n - doesn't matter - results are the same). Is this a bug in IE or they treat the html standard differently than other browsers - who is right? I have defined: <textarea id="TextArea1" runat="server" style="width: 190px; height: 390px; white-space: normal; word-wrap: normal; overflow: scroll" ></textarea> When I try to add long string like "VeryLongStringEndingWithNewLine\n" by using JavaScript code (obj.value += text;) the text is shown in one line with scroll (this is ok) but added with an additional empty line (\r\n) - why? When I try to add short string like "Short\n" multiple times, again via JavaScript code the text is on the same line (should be on the separate lines because normal wrapping should be applied). Moreover when I do postback then all \r\n's are replaced with spaces (why?) and then text parsed correctly (assuming if I used spaces instead of crlf normal wraping with space only wraps when does not fit in the area). When using FF or Chrome same control behaves correctly - long lines are shown without an additional empty next line, short lines are on the different lines, no replacement with spaces when doing postback. I know I could probably use other options or white space characters, but I feel that above is not correct about IE. Any comments? Mindaugas

    Read the article

  • which one of these is an example of coercion

    - by user1890210
    I have been pondering a multiple choice question on coercion. One of the 4 examples a,b,c or d is an example of coercion. I narrowed it down to A or B. But I am having a problem choosing between the two. Cane someone please explain why one is coercion and one isn't. A) string s="tomat"; char c='o'; s=s+c; I thought A could be correct because we have two different types, character and string, being added. Meaning that c is promoted to string, hence coercion. B) double x=1.0; double y=2.0; int i=(int)(x+y); I also thought B was the correct answer because the double (x+y) is being turned into a int to be placed in i. But I thought this could be wrong because its being done actively through use of (int) rather than passively such as "int i = x + y" I'll list the other two options, even though I believe that neither one is the correct answer C) char A=0x20; A = A << 1 | 0x01; cout << A << endl; D) double x=1.0; double y=x+1; return 0; I'm not just looking for an answer, but an explanation. I have read tons of things on coercion and A and B both look like the right answer. So why is one correct and the other not.

    Read the article

  • How to debug JBoss out of memory problem?

    - by user561733
    Hello, I am trying to debug a JBoss out of memory problem. When JBoss starts up and runs for a while, it seems to use memory as intended by the startup configuration. However, it seems that when some unknown user action is taken (or the log file grows to a certain size) using the sole web application JBoss is serving up, memory increases dramatically and JBoss freezes. When JBoss freezes, it is difficult to kill the process or do anything because of low memory. When the process is finally killed via a -9 argument and the server is restarted, the log file is very small and only contains outputs from the startup of the newly started process and not any information on why the memory increased so much. This is why it is so hard to debug: server.log does not have information from the killed process. The log is set to grow to 2 GB and the log file for the new process is only about 300 Kb though it grows properly during normal memory circumstances. This is information on the JBoss configuration: JBoss (MX MicroKernel) 4.0.3 JDK 1.6.0 update 22 PermSize=512m MaxPermSize=512m Xms=1024m Xmx=6144m This is basic info on the system: Operating system: CentOS Linux 5.5 Kernel and CPU: Linux 2.6.18-194.26.1.el5 on x86_64 Processor information: Intel(R) Xeon(R) CPU E5420 @ 2.50GHz, 8 cores This is good example information on the system during normal pre-freeze conditions a few minutes after the jboss service startup: Running processes: 183 CPU load averages: 0.16 (1 min) 0.06 (5 mins) 0.09 (15 mins) CPU usage: 0% user, 0% kernel, 1% IO, 99% idle Real memory: 17.38 GB total, 2.46 GB used Virtual memory: 19.59 GB total, 0 bytes used Local disk space: 113.37 GB total, 11.89 GB used When JBoss freezes, system information looks like this: Running processes: 225 CPU load averages: 4.66 (1 min) 1.84 (5 mins) 0.93 (15 mins) CPU usage: 0% user, 12% kernel, 73% IO, 15% idle Real memory: 17.38 GB total, 17.18 GB used Virtual memory: 19.59 GB total, 706.29 MB used Local disk space: 113.37 GB total, 11.89 GB used

    Read the article

  • What are the Limitations for Connecting to an Access Query in Excel

    - by thornomad
    I have an Access 2007 database that has a number of tables, some are fairly large (100,000+ records); I have created a union query to pull some of the same types of data from multiple tables into one large query for pivot table manipulation and reporting. For example: SELECT Language FROM Table1 UNION ALL SELECT Language FROM Table2 UNION ALL SELECT Language FROM Table3; This works. I found, quickly, however, that a union query will not show up when connecting to the datasource from Excel 2007. So, I created a second query to reference the union query. Like so: SELECT * FROM [The Above Union Query]; This query works and it, initially, was accessible from Excel. Time passed, I've added more data. Suddenly, when I connect to my Access database from Excel my query referencing the union has disappeared. MS Access shows no signs of an issue (data displays in Access) and my other non-union queries are showing up in Excel 2007 ... but not the one that references the union. What could be going on? Why did it disappear? I noticed if I switch some of the referenced tables in the union query to a smaller table (with less rows) all of sudden the query appears in Excel again. At least, I think that's what the difference is. I really can't put my finger on why some of the union queries won't show up and some will. Am stumped and need some guidance. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Is this method of static file serving safe in node.js? (potential security hole?)

    - by MikeC8
    I want to create the simplest node.js server to serve static files. Here's what I came up with: fs = require('fs'); server = require('http').createServer(function(req, res) { res.end(fs.readFileSync(__dirname + '/public/' + req.url)); }); server.listen(8080); Clearly this would map http://localhost:8080/index.html to project_dir/public/index.html, and similarly so for all other files. My one concern is that someone could abuse this to access files outside of project_dir/public. Something like this, for example: http://localhost:8080/../../sensitive_file.txt I tried this a little bit, and it wasn't working. But, it seems like my browser was removing the ".." itself. Which leads me to believe that someone could abuse my poor little node.js server. I know there are npm packages that do static file serving. But I'm actually curious to write my own here. So my questions are: Is this safe? If so, why? If not, why not? And, if further, if not, what is the "right" way to do this? My one constraint is I don't want to have to have an if clause for each possible file, I want the server to serve whatever files I throw in a directory.

    Read the article

  • undefined offset error in php

    - by user225269
    I don't know why but the code below is working when I have a different query: $result = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM student WHERE IDNO='".$_GET['id']."'") ?> <?php while ( $row = mysql_fetch_array($result) ) { ?> <?php list($year,$month,$day)=explode("-", $row['BIRTHDAY']); ?> <tr> <td width="30" height="35"><font size="2">Month:</td> <td width="30"><input name="mm" type="text" id="mm" onkeypress="return handleEnter(this, event)" value="<?php echo $month;?>"> <td width="30" height="35"><font size="2">Day:</td> <td width="30"><input name="dd" type="text" id="dd" maxlength="25" onkeypress="return handleEnter(this, event)" value="<?php echo $day;?>"> <td width="30" height="35"><font size="2">Year:</td> <td width="30"><input name="yyyy" type="text" id="yyyy" maxlength="25" onkeypress="return handleEnter(this, event)" value="<?php echo $year;?>"> And it works when this is my query: $idnum = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['idnum']); mysql_select_db("school", $con); $result = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM student WHERE IDNO='$idnum'"); Please help, why do I get the undefined offset error when I use this query: $result = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM student WHERE IDNO='".$_GET['id']."'") I assume that the query is the problem because its the only thing that's different between the two.

    Read the article

  • What's the deal with the hidden Throw when catching a ThreadAbortException?

    - by priehl
    I'm going through a book of general c# development, and I've come to the thread abort section. The book says something along the lines that when you call Thread.Abort() on another thread, that thread will throw a ThreadAbortException, and even if you tried to supress it it would automatically rethrow it, unless you did some bs that's generally frowned upon. Here's the simple example offered. using System; using System.Threading; public class EntryPoint { private static void ThreadFunc() { ulong counter = 0; while (true) { try { Console.WriteLine("{0}", counter++); } catch (ThreadAbortException) { // Attempt to swallow the exception and continue. Console.WriteLine("Abort!"); } } } static void Main() { try { Thread newThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(EntryPoint.ThreadFunc)); newThread.Start(); Thread.Sleep(2000); // Abort the thread. newThread.Abort(); // Wait for thread to finish. newThread.Join(); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } } } The book says: When your thread finishes processing the abort exception, the runtime implicitly rethrows it at the end of your exception handler. It’s the same as if you had rethrown the exception yourself. Therefore, any outer exception handlers or finally blocks will still execute normally. In the example, the call to Join won’t be waiting forever as initially expected. So i wrapped a try catch around the Thread.Abort() call and set a break point, expecting it to hit this, considering the text says "any outer exception handlers or finally blocks will still execute normally". BUT IT DOES NOT. I'm racking my brain to figure out why. Anyone have any thoughts on why this isn't the case? Is the book wrong? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET DynamicData: Whats happening during an update?

    - by Jens A.
    I am using ASP.NET DynamicData (based on LINQ to SQL) on my site for basic scaffolding. On one table I have added additional properties, that are not stored in the table, but are retrieved from somewhere else. (Profile information for a user account, in this case). They are displayed just fine, but when editing these values and pressing "Update", they are not changed. Here's what the properties look like, the table is the standard aspnet_Users table: public String Address { get { UserProfile profile = UserProfile.GetUserProfile(UserName); return profile.Address; } set { UserProfile profile = UserProfile.GetUserProfile(UserName); profile.Address = value; profile.Save(); } } When I fired up the debugger, I've noticed that for each update the set accessor is called three times. Once with the new value, but on a newly created instance of user, then once with the old value, again on an new instance, and finally with the old value on the existing instance. Wondering a bit, I checked with the properties created by the designer, and they, too, are called three times in (almost) the same fashion. The only difference is, that the last call contains the new value for the property. I am a bit stumped here. Why three times, and why are my new properties behaving differently? I'd be grateful for any help on that matter! =)

    Read the article

  • Absence of property syntax in Java

    - by Vojislav Stojkovic
    C# has syntax for declaring and using properties. For example, one can declare a simple property, like this: public int Size { get; set; } One can also put a bit of logic into the property, like this: public string SizeHex { get { return String.Format("{0:X}", Size); } set { Size = int.Parse(value, NumberStyles.HexNumber); } } Regardless of whether it has logic or not, a property is used in the same way as a field: int fileSize = myFile.Size; I'm no stranger to either Java or C# -- I've used both quite a lot and I've always missed having property syntax in Java. I've read in this question that "it's highly unlikely that property support will be added in Java 7 or perhaps ever", but frankly I find it too much work to dig around in discussions, forums, blogs, comments and JSRs to find out why. So my question is: can anyone sum up why Java isn't likely to get property syntax? Is it because it's not deemed important enough when compared to other possible improvements? Are there technical (e.g. JVM-related) limitations? Is it a matter of politics? (e.g. "I've been coding in Java for 50 years now and I say we don't need no steenkin' properties!") Is it a case of bikeshedding?

    Read the article

  • Pointer and malloc issue

    - by Andy
    I am fairly new to C and am getting stuck with arrays and pointers when they refer to strings. I can ask for input of 2 numbers (ints) and then return the one I want (first number or second number) without any issues. But when I request names and try to return them, the program crashes after I enter the first name and not sure why. In theory I am looking to reserve memory for the first name, and then expand it to include a second name. Can anyone explain why this breaks? Thanks! #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> void main () { int NumItems = 0; NumItems += 1; char* NameList = malloc(sizeof(char[10])*NumItems); printf("Please enter name #1: \n"); scanf("%9s", NameList[0]); fpurge(stdin); NumItems += 1; NameList = realloc(NameList,sizeof(char[10])*NumItems); printf("Please enter name #2: \n"); scanf("%9s", NameList[1]); fpurge(stdin); printf("The first name is: %s",NameList[0]); printf("The second name is: %s",NameList[1]); return 0; }

    Read the article

  • hover buttons background image change not working

    - by Brae
    Background I'm trying to make a menu, you hover over the button and the background image shifts its Y position to give you the 'over' effect for each button. CSS .menu {float: left;} .menu span {display: none;} .menu a {display: block; margin: 10px; width: 200px; height: 50px;} #itemA {background: url('images/btnA.png') no-repeat 0 0;} #itemB {background: url('images/btnB.png') no-repeat 0 0;} #itemC {background: url('images/btnC.png') no-repeat 0 0;} #itemD {background: url('images/btnD.png') no-repeat 0 0;} HTML <div class="menu"> <a id="itemA" href="#"><span>AAAAA</span></a> <a id="itemB" href="#"><span>BBBBB</span></a> <a id="itemC" href="#"><span>CCCCC</span></a> <a id="itemD" href="#"><span>DDDDD</span></a> </div> Problem why do none of these work? /*** - test A a.menu:link {background-position: 0 -51px;} a.menu:visited {display: block; margin: 10px; width: 200px; height: 32px;} ***/ /*** - test B a.menu:hover {background-position: 0 -51px;} ***/ /*** - test C .menu a:hover {background-position: 0 -51px;} ***/ /*** - test D .menu:hover a {background-position: 0 -51px;} ***/ /*** - test E a:hover .menu {background-position: 0 -51px;} ***/ Notes images are 200x101px (50px high with a 1px seperator) Question why do none of these work, should any of them work, is there a solution im missing? thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Confusion in MIPS code

    - by Haya Hallian
    While going through the MIPS code I got some confusion. Code is shown as follows .data key: .ascii "key: " # "key: \n" char: .asciiz " \n" .text .globl main main: jal getchar la $a0, char # $a0 contains address of char variable (" \n") sb $v0, ($a0) # replace " " in char with v0, which is read_character (X) la $a0, key # now a0 will contain, address of "key: " "X\n" What I dont understand is that how load address instruction works. First a0 contained address of char variable. In next line we are storing value of v0 in that location. there is no offset with ($a0), is that assumed to be 0 like in 0($a0)? Why only the " " empty space is replaced with v0, and why not the "\n" get replaced? or It may also have been the case that both the empty space and \n character get replced by v0. Secondly when we load the address of key in a0, the previous address should be overwritten. a0 should have contained the address of key only, but from comment it seems that the two strings are concatenated. How does that happen.

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework does not map 2 columns from a SqlQuery calling a stored procedure

    - by user1783530
    I'm using Code First and am trying to call a stored procedure and have it map to one of my classes. I created a stored procedure, BOMComponentChild, that returns details of a Component with information of its hierarchy in PartsPath and MyPath. I have a class for the output of this stored procedure. I'm having an issue where everything except the two columns, PartsPath and MyPath, are being mapped correctly with these two properties ending up as Nothing. I searched around and from my understanding the mapping bypasses any Entity Framework name mapping and uses column name to property name. The names are the same and I'm not sure why it is only these two columns. The last part of the stored procedure is: SELECT t.ParentID ,t.ComponentID ,c.PartNumber ,t.PartsPath ,t.MyPath ,t.Layer ,c.[Description] ,loc.LocationID ,loc.LocationName ,CASE WHEN sup.SupplierID IS NULL THEN 1 ELSE sup.SupplierID END AS SupplierID ,CASE WHEN sup.SupplierName IS NULL THEN 'Scinomix' ELSE sup.SupplierName END AS SupplierName ,c.Active ,c.QA ,c.IsAssembly ,c.IsPurchasable ,c.IsMachined ,t.QtyRequired ,t.TotalQty FROM BuildProducts t INNER JOIN [dbo].[BOMComponent] c ON c.ComponentID = t.ComponentID LEFT JOIN [dbo].[BOMSupplier] bsup ON bsup.ComponentID = t.ComponentID AND bsup.IsDefault = 1 LEFT JOIN [dbo].[LookupSupplier] sup ON sup.SupplierID = bsup.SupplierID LEFT JOIN [dbo].[LookupLocation] loc ON loc.LocationID = c.LocationID WHERE (@IsAssembly IS NULL OR IsAssembly = @IsAssembly) ORDER BY t.MyPath and the class it maps to is: Public Class BOMComponentChild Public Property ParentID As Nullable(Of Integer) Public Property ComponentID As Integer Public Property PartNumber As String Public Property MyPath As String Public Property PartsPath As String Public Property Layer As Integer Public Property Description As String Public Property LocationID As Integer Public Property LocationName As String Public Property SupplierID As Integer Public Property SupplierName As String Public Property Active As Boolean Public Property QA As Boolean Public Property IsAssembly As Boolean Public Property IsPurchasable As Boolean Public Property IsMachined As Boolean Public Property QtyRequired As Integer Public Property TotalQty As Integer Public Property Children As IDictionary(Of String, BOMComponentChild) = New Dictionary(Of String, BOMComponentChild) End Class I am trying to call it like this: Me.Database.SqlQuery(Of BOMComponentChild)("EXEC [BOMComponentChild] @ComponentID, @PathPrefix, @IsAssembly", params).ToList() When I run the stored procedure in management studio, the columns are correct and not null. I just can't figure out why these won't map as they are the important information in the stored procedure. The types for PartsPath and MyPath are varchar(50).

    Read the article

  • segmentation fault while using format string to scan input

    - by Aman Deep Gautam
    consider the code and its result: while ((row = mysql_fetch_row (table_info)) != NULL) { answer='\0'; printf ( "%s: ", row[0] ); scanf ( "%c", &answer ); getchar(); if ( answer == 'y') { printf ( "*****\n" ); table_name[index] = malloc ( strlen(row[0]) + 1 ); printf ( "*****\n" ); memcpy ( &table_name[index], &row[0], strlen(row[0]) + 1 ); } printf ( "finally inserted: %s \n", table_name[index]); } The result on execution: 1_time_access: y ***** ***** finally inserted: 1_time_access 2_time_access: y ***** ***** finally inserted: 2_time_access 39_time_access: y ***** ***** finally inserted: 39_time_access Explanation of result: row[0] has value 1_time_access, 2_time_access, 39_time_access. Now Consider a better way of doing it which is using a format string to escape the \n. I run the following code but it gives segentation fault, I cannot understand why. Code: while ((row = mysql_fetch_row (table_info)) != NULL) { answer='\0'; printf ( "%s: ", row[0] ); scanf ( "%[^\n]%*c", &answer ); if ( answer == 'y') { printf ( "*****\n" ); fflush(stdout); table_name[index] = malloc ( strlen(row[0]) + 1 ); printf ( "*****\n" ); fflush(stdout); memcpy ( &table_name[index], &row[0], strlen(row[0]) + 1 ); } printf ( "finally inserted: %s \n", table_name[index]); fflush(stdout); } Result: 1_time_access: y ***** ./set-env.sh: line 17: 15263 Segmentation fault (core dumped) ./exec dataset_one (do not worry about set-env.sh, it is the script running th program.) I canot understand why this is happening.

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to create subdatabases as a kind of subfolders in sql server?

    - by user193655
    I am creating an application where there is main DB and where other data is stored in secondary databases. The secondary databases follow a "plugin" approach. I use SQL Server. A simple installation of the application will just have the mainDB, while as an option one can activate more "plug-ins" and for every plug-in there will be a new database. Now why I made this choice is because I have to work with an exisiting legacy system and this is the smartest thing I could figure to implement the plugin system. MainDB and Plugins DB have exactly the same schema (basically Plugins DB have some "special content", some important data that one can use as a kind of template - think to a letter template for example - in the application). Plugin DBs are so used in readonly mode, they are "repository of content". The "smart" thing is that the main application can also be used by "plugin writers", they just write a DB inserting content, and by making a backup of the database they creaetd a potential plugin (this is why all DBs has the same schema). Those plugins DB are downloaded from internet as there is a content upgrade available, every time the full PlugIn DB is destroyed and a new one with the same name is creaetd. This is for simplicity and even because the size of this DBs is generally small. Now this works, anyway I would prefer to organize the DBs in a kind of Tree structure, so that I can force the PlugIn DBs to be "sub-DBs" of the main application DB. As a workaround I am thinking of using naming rules, like: ApplicationDB (for the main application DB) ApplicationDB_PlugIn_N (for the N-th plugin DB) When I search for plugin 1 I try to connect to ApplicationDB_PlugIn_1, if I don't find the DB i raise an error. This situation can happen for example if som DBA renamed ApplicationDB_Plugin_1. So since those Plugin DBs are really dependant on ApplicationDB only I was trying to "do the subfolder trick". Can anyone suggest a way to do this? Can you comment on this self-made plugin approach I decribed above?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 545 546 547 548 549 550 551 552 553 554 555 556  | Next Page >