Search Results

Search found 15423 results on 617 pages for 'uses clause'.

Page 553/617 | < Previous Page | 549 550 551 552 553 554 555 556 557 558 559 560  | Next Page >

  • Using MVC2 to update an Entity Framework v4 object with foreign keys fails

    - by jbjon
    With the following simple relational database structure: An Order has one or more OrderItems, and each OrderItem has one OrderItemStatus. Entity Framework v4 is used to communicate with the database and entities have been generated from this schema. The Entities connection happens to be called EnumTestEntities in the example. The trimmed down version of the Order Repository class looks like this: public class OrderRepository { private EnumTestEntities entities = new EnumTestEntities(); // Query Methods public Order Get(int id) { return entities.Orders.SingleOrDefault(d => d.OrderID == id); } // Persistence public void Save() { entities.SaveChanges(); } } An MVC2 app uses Entity Framework models to drive the views. I'm using the EditorFor feature of MVC2 to drive the Edit view. When it comes to POSTing back any changes to the model, the following code is called: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(int id, FormCollection formValues) { // Get the current Order out of the database by ID Order order = orderRepository.Get(id); var orderItems = order.OrderItems; try { // Update the Order from the values posted from the View UpdateModel(order, ""); // Without the ValueProvider suffix it does not attempt to update the order items UpdateModel(order.OrderItems, "OrderItems.OrderItems"); // All the Save() does is call SaveChanges() on the database context orderRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id = order.OrderID }); } catch (Exception e) { return View(order); // Inserted while debugging } } The second call to UpdateModel has a ValueProvider suffix which matches the auto-generated HTML input name prefixes that MVC2 has generated for the foreign key collection of OrderItems within the View. The call to SaveChanges() on the database context after updating the OrderItems collection of an Order using UpdateModel generates the following exception: "The operation failed: The relationship could not be changed because one or more of the foreign-key properties is non-nullable. When a change is made to a relationship, the related foreign-key property is set to a null value. If the foreign-key does not support null values, a new relationship must be defined, the foreign-key property must be assigned another non-null value, or the unrelated object must be deleted." When debugging through this code, I can still see that the EntityKeys are not null and seem to be the same value as they should be. This still happens when you are not changing any of the extracted Order details from the database. Also the entity connection to the database doesn't change between the act of Getting and the SaveChanges so it doesn't appear to be a Context issue either. Any ideas what might be causing this problem? I know EF4 has done work on foreign key properties but can anyone shed any light on how to use EF4 and MVC2 to make things easy to update; rather than having to populate each property manually. I had hoped the simplicity of EditorFor and DisplayFor would also extend to Controllers updating data. Thanks

    Read the article

  • MVC2 Client validation with Annotations in View with RenderAction

    - by Olle
    I'm having problem with client side validation on a View that renders a dropdownlist with help of a Html.RenderAction. I have two controllers. SpecieController and CatchController and I've created ViewModels for my views. I want to keep it as DRY as possible and I will most probably need a DropDownList for all Specie elsewhere in the near future. When I create a Catch i need to set a relationship to one specie, I do this with an id that I get from the DropDownList of Species. ViewModels.Catch.Create [Required] public int Length { get; set; } [Required] public int Weight { get; set; } [Required] [Range(1, int.MaxValue)] public int SpecieId { get; set; } ViewModels.Specie.List public DropDownList(IEnumerable<SelectListItem> species) { this.Species = species; } public IEnumerable<SelectListItem> Species { get; private set; } My View for the Catch.Create action uses the ViewModels.Catch.Create as a model. But it feels that I'm missing something in the implemetation. What I want in my head is to connect the selected value in the DropDownList that comes from the RenderAction to my SpecieId. View.Catch.Create <div class="editor-label"> <%: Html.LabelFor(model => model.SpecieId) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%-- Before DRY refactoring, works like I want but not DRY <%: Html.DropDownListFor(model => model.SpecieId, Model.Species) %> --%> <% Html.RenderAction("DropDownList", "Specie"); %> <%: Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.SpecieId) %> </div> CatchController.Create [HttpPost] public ActionResult Create(ViewModels.CatchModels.Create myCatch) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { // Can we make this StronglyTyped? int specieId = int.Parse(Request["Species"]); // Save to db Catch newCatch = new Catch(); newCatch.Length = myCatch.Length; newCatch.Weight = myCatch.Weight; newCatch.Specie = SpecieService.GetById(specieId); newCatch.User = UserService.GetUserByUsername(User.Identity.Name); CatchService.Save(newCatch); } This scenario works but not as smooth as i want. ClientSide validation does not work for SpecieId (after i refactored), I see why but don't know how I can ix it. Can I "glue" the DropDownList SelectedValue into myCatch so I don't need to get the value from Request["Species"] Thanks in advance for taking your time on this.

    Read the article

  • PostgreSQL to Data-Warehouse: Best approach for near-real-time ETL / extraction of data

    - by belvoir
    Background: I have a PostgreSQL (v8.3) database that is heavily optimized for OLTP. I need to extract data from it on a semi real-time basis (some-one is bound to ask what semi real-time means and the answer is as frequently as I reasonably can but I will be pragmatic, as a benchmark lets say we are hoping for every 15min) and feed it into a data-warehouse. How much data? At peak times we are talking approx 80-100k rows per min hitting the OLTP side, off-peak this will drop significantly to 15-20k. The most frequently updated rows are ~64 bytes each but there are various tables etc so the data is quite diverse and can range up to 4000 bytes per row. The OLTP is active 24x5.5. Best Solution? From what I can piece together the most practical solution is as follows: Create a TRIGGER to write all DML activity to a rotating CSV log file Perform whatever transformations are required Use the native DW data pump tool to efficiently pump the transformed CSV into the DW Why this approach? TRIGGERS allow selective tables to be targeted rather than being system wide + output is configurable (i.e. into a CSV) and are relatively easy to write and deploy. SLONY uses similar approach and overhead is acceptable CSV easy and fast to transform Easy to pump CSV into the DW Alternatives considered .... Using native logging (http://www.postgresql.org/docs/8.3/static/runtime-config-logging.html). Problem with this is it looked very verbose relative to what I needed and was a little trickier to parse and transform. However it could be faster as I presume there is less overhead compared to a TRIGGER. Certainly it would make the admin easier as it is system wide but again, I don't need some of the tables (some are used for persistent storage of JMS messages which I do not want to log) Querying the data directly via an ETL tool such as Talend and pumping it into the DW ... problem is the OLTP schema would need tweaked to support this and that has many negative side-effects Using a tweaked/hacked SLONY - SLONY does a good job of logging and migrating changes to a slave so the conceptual framework is there but the proposed solution just seems easier and cleaner Using the WAL Has anyone done this before? Want to share your thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Access Violation Using memcpy or Assignment to an Array in a Struct

    - by Synetech inc.
    Hi, I wrote a program last night that worked just fine but when I refactored it today to make it more extensible, I ended up with a problem. The original version had a hard-coded array of bytes. After some processing, some bytes were written into the array and then some more processing was done. To avoid hard-coding the pattern, I put the array in a structure so that I could add some related data and create an array of them. However now, I cannot write to the array in the structure. Here’s a pseudo-code example: main() { char pattern[]="\x32\x33\x12\x13\xba\xbb"; PrintData(pattern); pattern[2]='\x65'; PrintData(pattern); } That one works but this one does not: struct ENTRY { char* pattern; int somenum; }; main() { ENTRY Entries[] = { {"\x32\x33\x12\x13\xba\xbb\x9a\xbc", 44} , {"\x12\x34\x56\x78", 555} }; PrintData(Entries[0].pattern); Entries[0].pattern[2]='\x65'; //0xC0000005 exception!!! :( PrintData(Entries[0].pattern); } The second version causes an access violation exception on the assignment. I’m sure it’s because the second version allocates memory differently, but I’m starting to get a headache trying to figure out what’s what or how to get fix this. (I’m currently working around it by dynamically allocating a buffer of the same size as the pattern array, copying the pattern to the new buffer, making the changes to the buffer, using the buffer in the place of the pattern array, and then trying to remember to free the—temporary—buffer.) (Specifically, the original version cast the pattern array—+offset—to a DWORD* and assigned a DWORD constant to it to overwrite the four target bytes. The new version cannot do that since the length of the source is unknown—may not be four bytes—so it uses memcpy instead. I’ve checked and re-checked and have made sure that the pointers to memcpy are correct, but I still get an access violation. I use memcpy instead of str(n)cpy because I am using plain chars (as an array of bytes), not Unicode chars and ignoring the null-terminator. Using an assignment as above causes the same problem.) Any ideas? Thanks a lot.

    Read the article

  • SQLite file locking and DropBox

    - by Alex Jenter
    I'm developing an app in Visual C++ that uses an SQLite3 DB for storing data. Usually it sits in the tray most of the time. I also would like to enable putting my app in a DropBox folder to share it across several PCs. It worked really well up until DropBox has recently updated itself. And now it says that it "can't sync the file in use". The SQLite file is open in my app, but the lock is shared. There are some prepared statements, but all are reset immediately after using step. Is there any way to enable synchronizing of an open SQLite database file? Thanks! Here is the simple wrapper that I use just for testing (no error handling), in case this helps: class Statement { private: Statement(sqlite3* db, const std::wstring& sql) : db(db) { sqlite3_prepare16_v2(db, sql.c_str(), sql.length() * sizeof(wchar_t), &stmt, NULL); } public: ~Statement() { sqlite3_finalize(stmt); } public: void reset() { sqlite3_reset(stmt); } int step() { return sqlite3_step(stmt); } int getInt(int i) const { return sqlite3_column_int(stmt, i); } tstring getText(int i) const { const wchar_t* v = (const wchar_t*)sqlite3_column_text16(stmt, i); int sz = sqlite3_column_bytes16(stmt, i) / sizeof(wchar_t); return std::wstring(v, v + sz); } private: friend class Database; sqlite3* db; sqlite3_stmt* stmt; }; class Database { public: Database(const std::wstring& filename = L"")) : db(NULL) { sqlite3_open16(filename.c_str(), &db); } ~Database() { sqlite3_close(db); } void exec(const std::wstring& sql) { auto_ptr<Statement> st(prepare(sql)); st->step(); } auto_ptr<Statement> prepare(const tstring& sql) const { return auto_ptr<Statement>(new Statement(db, sql)); } private: sqlite3* db; };

    Read the article

  • Managing database connections in an Android Activity

    - by Daniel Lew
    I have an application with a ListActivity that uses a CursorAdapter as its adapter. The ListActivity opens the database and does the querying for the CursorAdapter, which is all well and good, but I am having issues with figuring out when to close both the Cursor and the SQLiteDatabase. The way things are handled right now, if the user finishes the activity, I close the database and the cursor. However, this still ends up with the DalvikVM warning me that I've left a database open - for example, if the user hits the "home" button (leaving the activity in the task's stack), rather than the "back" button. If I close them during pause and then re-query during resume, then I don't get any errors, but then a user cannot return to the list without it requerying (and thus losing the user's place in the list). By this I mean, the user can click on any item in the list and open a new activity based on it, but will often want to hit "back" afterwards and return to the same place on the list. If I requery, then I cannot return the user back to the correct spot. What is the proper way to handle this issue? I want the list to remain scrolled properly, but I don't want the VM to keep complaining about unclosed databases. Edit: Here's a general outline of how I handle the code at the moment: public class MyListActivity extends ListActivity { private Cursor mCursor; private CursorAdapter mAdapter; protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); mAdapter = new MyCursorAdapter(this); setListAdapter(mAdapter); } protected void onPause() { super.onPause(); if (isFinishing()) { mCursor.close(); } } protected void onDestroy() { super.onDestroy(); mCursor.close(); } private void updateQuery() { // If we had a cursor open before, close it. if (mCursor != null) { mCursor.close(); } MyDbHelper dbHelper = new MyDbHelper(this); SQLiteDatabase db = dbHelper.getReadableDatabase(); mCursor = db.query(...); mAdapter.changeCursor(mCursor); db.close(); } } updateQuery() can be called multiple times because the user can filter the results via menu items (I left this part out of the code, as the problem still occurs even if the user does no filtering). Again, the issue is that when I hit home I get leak errors. Yet, after going home, I can go back to the app and find my list again - cursor fully intact.

    Read the article

  • Eventlet or gevent or Stackless + Twisted, Pylons, Django and SQL Alchemy

    - by Khorkrak
    We're using Twisted extensively for apps requiring a great deal of asynchronous io. There are some cases where stuff is cpu bound instead and for that we spawn a pool of processes to do the work and have a system for managing these across multiple servers as well - all done in Twisted. Works great. The problem is that it's hard to bring new team members up to speed. Writing asynchronous code in Twisted requires a near vertical learning curve. It's as if humans just don't think that way naturally. We're considering a mixed approach perhaps. Maybe do the xmlrpc server part and process management in Twisted still but the other stuff in code that at least looks synchronous while not being as such. Then again I like explicit over implicit so hmmm. Anyway onto greenlets - how well does that stuff work? So there's Stackless and as you can see from my Gallentean avatar I'm well aware of the tremendous success in it's use for CCP's flagship EVE Online game first hand. What about Eventlet or gevent? Well for now only Eventlet works with Twisted. However gevent claims to be faster since it's not a pure python implementation it instead uses libevent. It also has fewer idiosyncrasies and defects supposedly. The documentation there is minimal in comparison to Eventlet and it's maintained by 1 guy as far as I can tell. This makes me leery but all great projects start this way so... Then there's PyPy - I haven't even finished reading about that one yet - just saw it in this thread: Drawbacks of Stackless. So confusing - I'm wondering what the heck to do - sounds like Eventlet is probably the best bet but is it really stable enough? Anyone out there have any experience with it? Should we go with Stackless instead as it's been around and is proven technology - just like Twisted is as well - and they do work together nicely. But still I hate having to have a separate version of Python to do this. what to do.... This somewhat obnoxious blog entry hit the nail on the head for me though: Asynchronous IO for Grownups We're stuck using MySQL as well - I never knew how great PostgreSQL was until having had to work on a production OLTP system in MySQL instead - but that's another story. But if that monkey patch thing really works then wow. Just wow.

    Read the article

  • How to setup named instances using StructureMap profiles?

    - by khaledh
    I've done quite a bit of googling and searching here on SO, but couldn't find a similar question or answer. In typical SM configuration you can add multiple named instances for a single PluginType: ForRequestedType<IFoo>() .AddInstances( x => { x.OfConcreteType<FooA>().WithName( "FooA" ); x.OfConcreteType<FooB>().WithName( "FooB" ); } ); No problem there. The problem is that I can't do the same when creating a profile. Most examples explaining how to use profiles use the For<>() method of the passed ProfileExpression: CreateProfile( "Default", p => { p.For<IFoo>().UseConcreteType<FooC>(); } ); I can't seem to find a way to add multiple named instances for the same PluginType as you can do above with regular configuration. The only other method available through ProfileExpression is Type<>(), but I'm not sure if it can be used for this purpose. Edit: I tried to use Type<>() instead of For<>() and it seems to be taking me in the right direction, but I bumped into another problem. To better explain it here's a better example of what I'm trying to do (this is what I posted to the structuremap-users group, no answer yet): ObjectFactory.Initialize( x => { x.CreateProfile( "Nissan", p => { p.Type<ICar>().Is.OfConcreteType<NewNissanCar>().WithName( "New" ); p.Type<ICar>().Is.OfConcreteType<OldNissanCar>().WithName( "Old" ); } ); x.CreateProfile( "Honda", p => { p.Type<ICar>().Is.OfConcreteType<NewHondaCar>().WithName( "New" ); p.Type<ICar>().Is.OfConcreteType<OldHondaCar>().WithName( "Old" ); } ); } ); ObjectFactory.Profile = "Nissan"; ICar newCar = ObjectFactory.GetNamedInstance<ICar>( "New" ); // -> returns NewHondaCar ICar car = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<ICar>(); // -> returns OldNissanCar So even though I set the profile to "Nissan", GetNamedInstance<>("New") returned an instance from the incorrect profile - it should've returned NewNissanCar instead of NewHondaCar. Interestingly, GetInstance<>() uses the correct profile, but because I can't pass an instance name, it returns an arbitrary concrete type from that profile that implements ICar (I guess it just returns the last concrete type added for that interface).

    Read the article

  • Does COM interop respect .NET AppDomain boundaries for assembly loading?

    - by Xiaofu
    Here's the core problem: I have a .NET application that is using COM interop in a separate AppDomain. The COM stuff seems to be loading assemblies back into the default domain, rather than the AppDomain from which the COM stuff is being called. What I want to know is: is this expected behaviour, or am I doing something wrong to cause these COM related assemblies to be loaded in the wrong AppDomain? Please see a more detailed description of the situation below... The application consists of 3 assemblies: - the main EXE, the entry point of the application. - common.dll, containing just an interface IController (in the IPlugin style) - controller.dll, containing a Controller class that implements IController and MarshalByRefObject. This class does all the work and uses COM interop to interact with another application. The relevant part of the main EXE looks like this: AppDomain controller_domain = AppDomain.CreateDomain("Controller Domain"); IController c = (IController)controller_domain.CreateInstanceFromAndUnwrap("controller.dll", "MyNamespace.Controller"); result = c.Run(); AppDomain.Unload(controller_domain); The common.dll only contains these 2 things: public enum ControllerRunResult{FatalError, Finished, NonFatalError, NotRun} public interface IController { ControllerRunResult Run(); } And the controller.dll contains this class (which also calls the COM interop stuff): public class Controller: IController, MarshalByRefObject When first running the application, Assembly.GetAssemblies() looks as expected, with common.dll being loaded in both AppDomains, and controller.dll only being loaded into the controller domain. After calling c.Run() however I see that assemblies related to the COM interop stuff have been loaded into the default AppDomain, and NOT in the AppDomain from which the COM interop is taking place. Why might this be occurring? And if you're interested, here's a bit of background: Originally this was a 1 AppDomain application. The COM stuff it interfaces with is a server API which is not stable over long periods of use. When a COMException (with no useful diagnostic information as to its cause) occurs from the COM stuff, the entire application has to restarted before the COM connection will work again. Simply reconnecting to the COM app server results in immediate COM exceptions again. To cope with this I have tried to move the COM interop stuff into a seperate AppDomain so that when the mystery COMExceptions occur I can unload the AppDomain in which it occurs, create a new one and start again, all without having to manually restart the application. That was the theory anyway...

    Read the article

  • Timeout Expired error Using LINQ

    - by Refracted Paladin
    I am going to sum up my problem first and then offer massive details and what I have already tried. Summary: I have an internal winform app that uses Linq 2 Sql to connect to a local SQL Express database. Each user has there own DB and the DB stay in sync through Merge Replication with a Central DB. All DB's are SQL 2005(sp2or3). We have been using this app for over 5 months now but recently our users are getting a Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding. Detailed: The strange part is they get that in two differnt locations(2 differnt LINQ Methods) and only the first time they fire in a given time period(~5mins). One LINQ method is pulling all records that match a FK ID and then Manipulating them to form a Heirarchy View for a TreeView. The second is pulling all records that match a FK ID and dumping them into a DataGridView. The only things I can find in common with the 2 are that the first IS an IEnumerable and the second converts itself from IQueryable - IEnumerable - DataTable... I looked at the query's in Profiler and they 'seemed' normal. They are not very complicated querys. They are only pulling back 10 - 90 records, from one table. Any thoughts, suggestions, hints whatever would be greatly appreciated. I am at my wit's end on this.... public IList<CaseNoteTreeItem> GetTreeViewDataAsList(int personID) { var myContext = MatrixDataContext.Create(); var caseNotesTree = from cn in myContext.tblCaseNotes where cn.PersonID == personID orderby cn.ContactDate descending, cn.InsertDate descending select new CaseNoteTreeItem { CaseNoteID = cn.CaseNoteID, NoteContactDate = Convert.ToDateTime(cn.ContactDate). ToShortDateString(), ParentNoteID = cn.ParentNote, InsertUser = cn.InsertUser, ContactDetailsPreview = cn.ContactDetails.Substring(0, 75) }; return caseNotesTree.ToList<CaseNoteTreeItem>(); } AND THIS ONE public static DataTable GetAllCNotes(int personID) { using (var context = MatrixDataContext.Create()) { var caseNotes = from cn in context.tblCaseNotes where cn.PersonID == personID orderby cn.ContactDate select new { cn.ContactDate, cn.ContactDetails, cn.TimeSpentUnits, cn.IsCaseLog, cn.IsPreEnrollment, cn.PresentAtContact, cn.InsertDate, cn.InsertUser, cn.CaseNoteID, cn.ParentNote }; return caseNotes.ToList().CopyLinqToDataTable(); } }

    Read the article

  • Revisiting .NET, but what should I focus on?

    - by Wayne M
    After about a two-year hiatus, I'm brushing up on my .NET skills to find a .NET job (my previous two positions have very little development, or development using legacy technologies, so apart from a few very minor apps I have not touched .NET in close to two years). I'm aware of things like ASP.NET MVC, and I have previously read on things like NHibernate and DI/IOC, albeit I have yet to use them apart from very trivial "Hello World" type applications. I have a subscription to Rob Conery's Tekpub website and occasionally watch these videos when I have free time. My concern is this: I don't live in a very technical area. I would be surprised if any but the most tech-savvy companies have heard of, let alone use, ASP.NET MVC, NHibernate (or even LINQ/EF), or know about IoC. I would be willing to bet a large sum of money that 95% of the possible jobs I could obtain will use the following: Visual Source Safe, if any VCS at all ASP.NET 2.0 Webforms (3.5 if lucky) Raw ADO.NET on top of a very thin implementation of the Gateway pattern Stored Procedures in the database for most CRUD operations Gratuitous use of code-behind, with a Service layer if I'm lucky If I were extremely lucky, I might find a shop that has heard of ORMs and either uses one, or has wrote their own data abstraction. Also if I were lucky, the company would be using Model-View-Presenter. In light of this I'm not sure what I should focus on learning. Personally, I would prefer to be using the latest stuff - ASP.NET MVC, NHibernate, jQuery, WCF etc. Reality says I should go back to the basics, since it looks like most potential opportunities aren't going to be anywhere near the cutting edge, or anywhere close to it. And, as much as I would like to find a position and start to show the other developers the benefits, in my past experience this has usually resulted in my being fired for "not being a team player" and doing things the bad old way. So, I am curious how you would approach a situation like this? What should I focus on, in order to A) Reaquaint myself with .NET, and B) Prepare myself to obtain a .NET job again that is more than likely going to use techniques that I and most other knowledgeable developers will scoff at?

    Read the article

  • NoPrimaryKeyException from DBUnit when loading a dataset into a databse

    - by Omar Kooheji
    I'm getting NoPrimaryKeyException when I try to run one of my unit tests which uses DBUnit. The datatable is created using Hibernate and is a join table between two classes mapping a many to many relationship. The annotations that define the relationship are as follows: @Override @ManyToMany @JoinTable(name="offset_file_offset_entries", joinColumns={@JoinColumn(name="offset_entry_id")},inverseJoinColumns={@JoinColumn(name="file_description_id")}) public List<OffsetEntry> getOffsets() { The other entries in in the XML file I'm using to define the dataset seem to work fine but not the join table. I get the following exception: org.dbunit.dataset.NoPrimaryKeyException: offset_file_offset_entries at org.dbunit.operation.UpdateOperation.getOperationData(UpdateOperation.java:72) at org.dbunit.operation.RefreshOperation$UpdateRowOperation.<init>(RefreshOperation.java:266) at org.dbunit.operation.RefreshOperation.createUpdateOperation(RefreshOperation.java:142) at org.dbunit.operation.RefreshOperation.execute(RefreshOperation.java:100) at org.dbunit.ext.mssql.InsertIdentityOperation.execute(InsertIdentityOperation.java:217) at uk.co.sabio.obscheduler.application.dao.AbstractBaseDatabaseTest.setUp(AbstractBaseDatabaseTest.java:57) at org.springframework.test.context.junit38.AbstractJUnit38SpringContextTests.runManaged(AbstractJUnit38SpringContextTests.java:332) at org.springframework.test.context.junit38.AbstractJUnit38SpringContextTests.access$0(AbstractJUnit38SpringContextTests.java:326) at org.springframework.test.context.junit38.AbstractJUnit38SpringContextTests$1.run(AbstractJUnit38SpringContextTests.java:216) at org.springframework.test.context.junit38.AbstractJUnit38SpringContextTests.runTest(AbstractJUnit38SpringContextTests.java:296) at org.springframework.test.context.junit38.AbstractJUnit38SpringContextTests.runTestTimed(AbstractJUnit38SpringContextTests.java:253) at org.springframework.test.context.junit38.AbstractJUnit38SpringContextTests.runBare(AbstractJUnit38SpringContextTests.java:213) at junit.framework.TestResult$1.protect(TestResult.java:110) at junit.framework.TestResult.runProtected(TestResult.java:128) at junit.framework.TestResult.run(TestResult.java:113) at junit.framework.TestCase.run(TestCase.java:124) at junit.framework.TestSuite.runTest(TestSuite.java:232) at junit.framework.TestSuite.run(TestSuite.java:227) at org.junit.internal.runners.JUnit38ClassRunner.run(JUnit38ClassRunner.java:83) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit4.runner.JUnit4TestReference.run(JUnit4TestReference.java:46) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.TestExecution.run(TestExecution.java:38) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.runTests(RemoteTestRunner.java:467) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.runTests(RemoteTestRunner.java:683) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.run(RemoteTestRunner.java:390) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.main(RemoteTestRunner.java:197) the Dataset entry in question looks like this: <offset_file_offset_entries offset_entry_id="1" file_description_id="1" /> And matches up with the database which has both fields as primary keys (The Databse is MS SQL Server if that helps) There are corresponding entries in the two tables being Joined defined in the following xml: <dataset> <file_description file_path="src/test/resources/" file_pattern=".txt" file_description_id="1"/> <offset_file_description file_description_id="1"/> <offset_entries offset_entry_id="1" field_name="Field1" field_length="10" start_index="0"/> <offset_file_offset_entries offset_entry_id="1" file_description_id="1" /> </dataset> Do I have to define the primary keys in the hibernate annotations? If so How do I do so? do I have to change the way I define my dataset to imply that the two columns are a joint primary key? I'm not very proficient with hibernate or DBUnit for that matter and I'm at my wits end so any assistance would be really appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Building a template to auto-scaffold Index views in ASP.NET MVC

    - by DanM
    I'm trying to write an auto-scaffolder for Index views. I'd like to be able to pass in a collection of models or view-models (e.g., IQueryable<MyViewModel>) and get back an HTML table that uses the DisplayName attribute for the headings (th elements) and Html.Display(propertyName) for the cells (td elements). Each row should correspond to one item in the collection. Here's what I have so far: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl" %> <% var items = (IQueryable<TestProj.ViewModels.TestViewModel>)Model; // Should be generic! var properties = items.First().GetMetadata().Properties .Where(pm => pm.ShowForDisplay && !ViewData.TemplateInfo.Visited(pm)); %> <table> <tr> <% foreach(var property in properties) { %> <th> <%= property.DisplayName %> </th> <% } %> </tr> <% foreach(var item in items) { %> <tr> <% foreach(var property in properties) { %> <td> <%= Html.Display(property.DisplayName) %> // This doesn't work! </td> <% } %> </tr> <% } %> </table> Two problems with this: I'd like it to be generic. So, I'd like to replace var items = (IQueryable<TestProj.ViewModels.TestViewModel>)Model; with var items = (IQueryable<T>)Model; or something to that effect. The <td> elements are not working because the Html in <%= Html.Display(property.DisplayName) %> contains the model for the view, which is a collection of items, not the item itself. Somehow, I need to obtain an HtmlHelper object whose Model property is the current item, but I'm not sure how to do that. How do I solve these two problems?

    Read the article

  • MKMapView memory usage grows out of control with setRegion: calls

    - by Kurt
    Hi, I have a single MKMapView instance that I have programmatically added to a UIView. As part of the UI, the user can cycle through a list of addresses and the map view is updated to show the correct map for each address as the user goes through them. I create the map view once, and simply change what it displays with setRegion:animated:. The problem is that each time the map is changed to show a new address, the memory usage of my program increases by 200K-500K (as reported by Memory Monitor in Instruments). According to Object Allocations, it appears that a lot of 1.0K Mallocs are happening each time, and the Extended Detail pane for these 1.0K allocations shows that the Responsible Caller is convert_image_data and the Extended Detail pane shows that this is the result of [MKMapTileView drawLayer:inContext:]. So, seems likely to me that the memory usage is due to MKMapView not freeing memory it uses to redraw the map each time. In fact, when I don't display the map at all (by not even adding it as a subview of my main UIView) but still cycle through the addresses (which changes various UILabels and other displayed info) the memory usage for the app does NOT increase. If I add the map view but never update it with setRegion:, the memory also does NOT increase when changing to a new address. One more bit of info: if I go to a new address (and therefore ask the map to display the new address) the memory jumps as described above. However, if I go back to an address that was already displayed, the memory does not jump when the map redraws with the old address. Also, this happens on iPad (real device) with 3.2 and on iPhone (again, real device) with 3.1.2. Here's how I initialize the MKMapView (I only do this once): CGRect mapFrame; mapFrame.origin.y = 460; // yes, magic numbers. just for testing. mapFrame.origin.x = 0; mapFrame.size.height = 500; mapFrame.size.width = 768; mapView = [[MKMapView alloc] initWithFrame:mapFrame]; mapView.delegate = self; [self.view insertSubview:mapView atIndex:0]; And in response to the user selecting an address, I set the map like so: MKCoordinateRegion region; MKCoordinateSpan span; span.latitudeDelta=kStreetMapSpan; // 0.003 span.longitudeDelta=kStreetMapSpan; // 0.003 region.center = address.coords; // coords is CLLocationCoordinate2D region.span = span; mapView.region.span = span; [mapView setRegion:region animated:NO]; Any thoughts? I've scoured the net but haven't seen mention of this problem, and I've reached the limits of my Instruments knowledge. Thanks for any ideas.

    Read the article

  • What are the reasons why the CPU usage doesn’t go 100% with C# and APM?

    - by Martin
    I have an application which is CPU intensive. When the data is processed on a single thread, the CPU usage goes to 100% for many minutes. So the performance of the application appears to be bound by the CPU. I have multithreaded the logic of the application, which result in an increase of the overall performance. However, the CPU usage hardly goes above 30%-50%. I would expect the CPU (and the many cores) to go to 100% since I process many set of data at the same time. Below is a simplified example of the logic I use to start the threads. When I run this example, the CPU goes to 100% (on an 8/16 cores machine). However, my application which uses the same pattern doesn’t. public class DataExecutionContext { public int Counter { get; set; } // Arrays of data } static void Main(string[] args) { // Load data from the database into the context var contexts = new List<DataExecutionContext>(100); for (int i = 0; i < 100; i++) { contexts.Add(new DataExecutionContext()); } // Data loaded. Start to process. var latch = new CountdownEvent(contexts.Count); var processData = new Action<DataExecutionContext>(c => { // The thread doesn't access data from a DB, file, // network, etc. It reads and write data in RAM only // (in its context). for (int i = 0; i < 100000000; i++) c.Counter++; }); foreach (var context in contexts) { processData.BeginInvoke(context, new AsyncCallback(ar => { latch.Signal(); }), null); } latch.Wait(); } I have reduced the number of locks to the strict minimum (only the latch is locking). The best way I found was to create a context in which a thread can read/write in memory. Contexts are not shared among other threads. The threads can’t access the database, files or network. In other words, I profiled my application and I didn’t find any bottleneck. Why the CPU usage of my application doesn’t go about 50%? Is it the pattern I use? Should I create my own thread instead of using the .Net thread pool? Is there any gotchas? Is there any tool that you could recommend me to find my issue? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Bugs in Excel's ActiveX combo boxes?

    - by k.robinson
    I have noticed that I get all sorts of annoying errors when: I have ActiveX comboboxes on a worksheet (not an excel form) The comboboxes have event code linked to them (eg, onchange events) I use their listfillrange or linkedcell properties (clearing these properties seems to alleviate a lot of problems) (Not sure if this is connected) but there is data validation on the targeted linkedcell. I program a fairly complex excel application that does a ton of event handling and uses a lot of controls. Over the months, I have been trying to deal with a variety of bugs dealing with those combo boxes. I can't recall all the details of each instance now, but these bugs tend to involve pointing the listfillrange and linkedcell properties at named ranges, and often have to do with the combo box events triggering at inappropriate times (such as when application.enableevents = false). These problems seemed to grow bigger in Excel 2007, so that I had to give up on these combo boxes entirely (I now use combo boxes contained in user forms, rather than directly on the sheets). Has anyone else seen similar problems? If so, was there a graceful solution? I have looked around with Google and so far haven't spotted anyone with similar issues. Some of the symptoms I end up seeing are: Excel crashing when I start up (involves combobox_onchange, listfillrange-named range on another different sheet, and workbook_open interactions). (note, I also had some data validation on the the linked cells in case a user edited them directly.) Excel rendering bugs (usually when the combo box changes, some cells from another sheet get randomly drawn over the top of the current sheet) Sometimes it involves the screen flashing entirely to another sheet for a moment. Excel losing its mind (or rather, the call stack) (related to the first bullet point). Sometimes when a function modifies a property of the comboboxes, the combobox onchange event fires, but it never returns control to the function that caused the change in the first place. The combobox_onchange events are triggered even when application.enableevents = false. Events firing when they shouldn't (I posted another question on stack overflow related to this). At this point, I am fairly convinced that ActiveX comboboxes are evil incarnate and not worth the trouble. I have switched to including these comboboxes inside a userform module instead. I would rather inconvenience users with popup forms than random visual artifacts and crashing (with data loss).

    Read the article

  • Stack overflow in compojure web project

    - by Anders Rune Jensen
    Hi I've been playing around with clojure and have been using it to build a simple little audio player. The strange thing is that sometimes, maybe one out of twenty, when contacting the server I will get the following error: 2010-04-20 15:33:20.963::WARN: Error for /control java.lang.StackOverflowError at clojure.lang.RT.seq(RT.java:440) at clojure.core$seq__4245.invoke(core.clj:105) at clojure.core$filter__5084$fn__5086.invoke(core.clj:1794) at clojure.lang.LazySeq.sval(LazySeq.java:42) at clojure.lang.LazySeq.seq(LazySeq.java:56) at clojure.lang.RT.seq(RT.java:440) at clojure.core$seq__4245.invoke(core.clj:105) at clojure.core$filter__5084$fn__5086.invoke(core.clj:1794) at clojure.lang.LazySeq.sval(LazySeq.java:42) at clojure.lang.LazySeq.seq(LazySeq.java:56) at clojure.lang.RT.seq(RT.java:440) at clojure.core$seq__4245.invoke(core.clj:105) at clojure.core$filter__5084$fn__5086.invoke(core.clj:1794) at clojure.lang.LazySeq.sval(LazySeq.java:42) at clojure.lang.LazySeq.seq(LazySeq.java:56) at clojure.lang.RT.seq(RT.java:440) at clojure.core$seq__4245.invoke(core.clj:105) at clojure.core$filter__5084$fn__5086.invoke(core.clj:1794) at clojure.lang.LazySeq.sval(LazySeq.java:42) at clojure.lang.LazySeq.seq(LazySeq.java:56) at clojure.lang.RT.seq(RT.java:440) ... If I do it right after again it always works. So it appears to be related to timing or something. The code in question is: (defn add-track [t] (common/ref-add tracks t)) (defn add-collection [coll] (doseq [track coll] (add-track track))) and (defn ref-add [ref value] (dosync (ref-set ref (conj @ref value)))) where coll is extracted from this function: (defn tracks-by-album [album] (sort sort-tracks (filter #(= (:album %) album) @tracks))) which uses: (defn get-album-from-track [track] (seq/find-first #(= (:album track) (:name %)) @albums)) (defn sort-tracks [track1 track2] (cond (= (:album track1) (:album track2)) (cond (and (:album-track track1) (:album-track track2)) (< (:album-track track1) (:album-track track2)) :else 0) :else (> (:year (get-album-from-track track1)) (:year (get-album-from-track track2))))) it gets called more or less directly from the request I get in: (when-handle-command cmd params (audio/tracks-by-album decoded-name)) (defn when-handle-command [cmd params data] (println (str "handling command:" cmd)) ....) I never get the handling command in my log, so it must die when it does the tracks-by-album. so it does appear to be the tracks-by-album function from the stack trace. I just don't see why it sometimes works and sometimes doesn't. I say that it's tracks-by-album because it's the only function (including it's children) that does filter, as can be seen in the trace. All the source code is available at: http://code.google.com/p/mucomp/. It's my little hobby project to learn clojure and so far it's quite buggy (this is just one bug :)) so I havn't really liked to tell too many people about it yet :)

    Read the article

  • C# Silverlight - Delay Child Window Load?!

    - by Goober
    The Scenario Currently I have a C# Silverlight Application That uses the domainservice class and the ADO.Net Entity Framework to communicate with my database. I want to load a child window upon clicking a button with some data that I retrieve from a server-side query to the database. The Process The first part of this process involves two load operations to load separate data from 2 tables. The next part of the process involves combining those lists of data to display in a listbox. The Problem The problem with this is that the first two asynchronous load operations haven't returned the data by the time the section of code to combine these lists of data is reached, thus result in a null value exception..... Initial Load Operations To Get The Data: public void LoadAudits(Guid jobID) { var context = new InmZenDomainContext(); var imageLoadOperation = context.Load(context.GetImageByIDQuery(jobID)); imageLoadOperation.Completed += (sender3, e3) => { imageList = ((LoadOperation<InmZen.Web.Image>)sender3).Entities.ToList(); }; var auditLoadOperation = context.Load(context.GetAuditByJobIDQuery(jobID)); auditLoadOperation.Completed += (sender2, e2) => { auditList = ((LoadOperation<Audit>)sender2).Entities.ToList(); }; } I Then Want To Execute This Immediately: IEnumerable<JobImageAudit> jobImageAuditList = from a in auditList join ai in imageList on a.ImageID equals ai.ImageID select new JobImageAudit { JobID = a.JobID, ImageID = a.ImageID.Value, CreatedBy = a.CreatedBy, CreatedDate = a.CreatedDate, Comment = a.Comment, LowResUrl = ai.LowResUrl, }; auditTrailList.ItemsSource = jobImageAuditList; However I can't because the async calls haven't returned with the data yet... Thus I have to do this (Perform the Load Operations, Then Press A Button On The Child Window To Execute The List Concatenation and binding): private void LoadAuditsButton_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { IEnumerable<JobImageAudit> jobImageAuditList = from a in auditList join ai in imageList on a.ImageID equals ai.ImageID select new JobImageAudit { JobID = a.JobID, ImageID = a.ImageID.Value, CreatedBy = a.CreatedBy, CreatedDate = a.CreatedDate, Comment = a.Comment, LowResUrl = ai.LowResUrl, }; auditTrailList.ItemsSource = jobImageAuditList; } Potential Ideas for Solutions: Delay the child window displaying somehow? Potentially use DomainDataSource and the Activity Load control?! Any thoughts, help, solutions, samples comments etc. greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Specifying Android project dependencies (in Eclipse)

    - by Henrik Gustafsson
    I have two Android projects, a 'library project' containing a custom layout, and an 'application project' containing an application which uses the layout. Everything seems to build and execute fine, except that the visual layout editor throws a ClassNotFoundException (which I assume is a bug in the plug-in), but when I try to start to make use of the attributes I defined for the custom layout in the xml, I can no longer build. That is; this works: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <se.fnord.android.layout.PredicateLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent"> <TextView android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="asdfasdf" /> </se.fnord.android.layout.PredicateLayout> Whereas this does not: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <se.fnord.android.layout.PredicateLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" xmlns:fnord="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/se.fnord.android" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent"> <TextView fnord:layout_horizontalSpacing="1px" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="asdfasdf" /> </se.fnord.android.layout.PredicateLayout> The build fails with a message from aapt: ERROR No resource identifier found for attribute 'layout_horizontalSpacing' in package 'se.fnord.android' The resource identifier does exist in the R-file and attrs.xml contained the library project, and if I put the layout code and resources directly in the application project everything works fine. The layout_horizontalSpacing attribute (and layout_verticalSpacing) is a custom attribute used in the PredicateLayout.LayoutParam class to specify the distance to the next widget. So far I've tried the standard eclipse ways by specifying project references and build path project dependencies. I was also told to try the tag in the application manifest, which did not help. So, what do I need to do for the references in the xml-file to work? I don't know if it's relevant, but the 'library' manifest looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <manifest xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" package="se.fnord.android" android:versionCode="1" android:versionName="1.0.0"> </manifest> The 'application' manifest like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <manifest xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" package="se.fnord.appname" android:versionCode="1" android:versionName="1.0.0"> <application android:icon="@drawable/icon" android:label="@string/app_name"> <activity android:name=".AppName" android:label="@string/app_name"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> </activity> </application> </manifest> (The 'PredicateLayout', btw, is a cleaned-up version of this).

    Read the article

  • MSSQL: How to copy a file (pdf, doc, txt...) stored in a varbinary(max) field to a file in a CLR sto

    - by user193655
    I ask this question as a followup of this question. A solution that uses bcp and xp_cmdshell, that is not my desired solution, has been posted here: stackoverflow.com/questions/828749/ms-sql-server-2005-write-varbinary-to-file-system (sorry i cannot post a second hyperlink since my reputation is les than 10). I am new to c# (since I am a Delphi developer) anyway I was able to create a simple CLR stored procedures by following a tutorial. My task is to move a file from the client file system to the server file system (the server can be accessed using remote IP, so I cannot use a shared folder as destination, this is why I need a CLR stored procedure). So I plan to: 1) store from Delphi the file in a varbinary(max) column of a temporary table 2) call the CLR stored procedure to create a file at the desired path using the data contained in the varbinary(max) field Imagine I need to move C:\MyFile.pdf to Z:\MyFile.pdf, where C: is a harddrive on local system and Z: is an harddrive on the server. I provide the code below (not working) that someone can modify to make it work? Here I suppose to have a table called MyTable with two fields: ID (int) and DATA (varbinary(max)). Please note it doesn't make a difference if the table is a real temporary table or just a table where I temporarly store the data. I would appreciate if some exception handling code is there (so that I can manage an "impossible to save file" exception). I would like to be able to write a new file or overwrite the file if already existing. [Microsoft.SqlServer.Server.SqlProcedure] public static void VarbinaryToFile(int TableId) { using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection("context connection=true")) { connection.Open(); SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand("select data from mytable where ID = @TableId", connection); command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@TableId", TableId); // This was the sample code I found to run a query //SqlContext.Pipe.ExecuteAndSend(command); // instead I need something like this (THIS IS META_SYNTAX!!!): SqlContext.Pipe.ResultAsStream.SaveToFile('z:\MyFile.pdf'); } } (one subquestion is: is this approach coorect or there is a way to directly pass the data to the CLR stored procedure so I don't need to use a temp table?) If the subquestion's answer is No, could you describe the approach of avoiding a temp table? So is there a better way then the one I describe above (=temp table + Stored procedure)? A way to directly pass the dataastream from the client application to the CLR stored procedure? (my files can be any size but also very big)

    Read the article

  • How to make a Custom Data Generator for SQL XML DataType.

    - by Keith Sirmons
    Howdy, I am using Visual Studio 2010 and am playing around with the Database Projects. I am creating a DataGenerationPlan to insert data into a simple table, in which one of the column datatypes is XML. Out of the box, the generation plan uses the Regular Expression generator and generates something like this : HGcSv9wa7yM44T9x5oFT4pmBkEmv62lJ7OyAmCnL6yqXC2X.......... I am looking at creating a custom data Generator for this data type and have followed this site for the basics: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa833244.aspx This example works if I am creating a string datatype and using it for a nvarchar datatype. What do I need to change to hook this Generator to the XML Datatype? Below are my code files. The string property works for nvarchar. The XElement property does not work for the xml datatype, and the RecordXMLDataGenerator is not listed as an option in the Generator column for the generation plan. CustomDataGenerators: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using Microsoft.Data.Schema.Tools.DataGenerator; using Microsoft.Data.Schema.Extensibility; using Microsoft.Data.Schema; using Microsoft.Data.Schema.Sql; using System.Xml.Linq; namespace CustomDataGenerators { [DatabaseSchemaProviderCompatibility(typeof(SqlDatabaseSchemaProvider))] public class RecordXMLDataGenerator : Generator { private XElement _RecordData; [Output(Description = "Generates string of XML Data for the Record.", Name = "RecordDataString")] public string RecordDataString { get { return _RecordData.ToString(SaveOptions.None); } } [Output(Description = "Generates XML Data for the Record.", Name = "RecordData")] public XElement RecordData { get { return _RecordData; } } protected override void OnGenerateNextValues() { base.OnGenerateNextValues(); XElement element = new XElement("Root", new XElement("Children1", 1), new XElement("Children6", 6) ); _RecordData = element; } } } XML Extensions File: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <extensions assembly="" version="1" xmlns="urn:Microsoft.Data.Schema.Extensions" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="urn:Microsoft.Data.Schema.Extensions Microsoft.Data.Schema.Extensions.xsd"> <extension type="CustomDataGenerators.RecordXMLDataGenerator" assembly="CustomDataGenerators, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=xxxxxxxxxxxx" enabled="true"/> </extensions> Table.sql: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Record] ( id int IDENTITY (1,1) NOT NULL, recordData xml NULL, userId int NULL, test nvarchar(max) NULL, rowver rowversion NULL, CONSTRAINT pk_RecordID PRIMARY KEY (id) )

    Read the article

  • jQuery load Google Visualization API with AJAX

    - by Curro
    Hello. There is an issue that I cannot solve, I've been looking a lot in the internet but found nothing. I have this JavaScript that is used to do an Ajax request by PHP. When the request is done, it calls a function that uses the Google Visualization API to draw an annotatedtimeline to present the data. The script works great without AJAX, if I do everything inline it works great, but when I try to do it with AJAX it doesn't work!!! The error that I get is in the declaration of the "data" DataTable, in the Google Chrome Developer Tools I get a Uncaught TypeError: Cannot read property 'DataTable' of undefined. When the script gets to the error, everything on the page is cleared, it just shows a blank page. So I don't know how to make it work. Please help Thanks in advance $(document).ready(function(){ // Get TIER1Tickets $("#divTendency").addClass("loading"); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "getTIER1Tickets.php", data: "", success: function(html){ // Succesful, load visualization API and send data google.load('visualization', '1', {'packages': ['annotatedtimeline']}); google.setOnLoadCallback(drawData(html)); } }); }); function drawData(response){ $("#divTendency").removeClass("loading"); // Data comes from PHP like: <CSV ticket count for each day>*<CSV dates for ticket counts>*<total number of days counted> // So it has to be split first by * then by , var dataArray = response.split("*"); var dataTickets = dataArray[0]; var dataDates = dataArray[1]; var dataCount = dataArray[2]; // The comma separation now splits the ticket counts and the dates var dataTicketArray = dataTickets.split(","); var dataDatesArray = dataDates.split(","); // Visualization data var data = new google.visualization.DataTable(); data.addColumn('date', 'Date'); data.addColumn('number', 'Tickets'); data.addRows(dataCount); var dateSplit = new Array(); for(var i = 0 ; i < dataCount ; i++){ // Separating the data because must be entered as "new Date(YYYY,M,D)" dateSplit = dataDatesArray[i].split("-"); data.setValue(i, 0, new Date(dateSplit[2],dateSplit[1],dateSplit[0])); data.setValue(i, 1, parseInt(dataTicketArray[i])); } var annotatedtimeline = new google.visualization.AnnotatedTimeLine(document.getElementById('divTendency')); annotatedtimeline.draw(data, {displayAnnotations: true}); }

    Read the article

  • Using 32bit COM object from C# or VBS on Vista 64bit and getting error 80004005

    - by alexandroid
    I need some mind reading here, since I am trying to do what I do not completely understand. There is a 32-bit application (electronic trading application called CQG) which provides a COM API for external access. I have sample programs and scripts which access this API from Excel, .NET (C++, VB and C#) and shell VBScript. I have these .NET applications as source code and as compiled executables (32-bit, compiled on Windows XP). Now I have Windows Vista Home 64-bit which makes my head to spin. Excel examples work just fine (in Excel 2003). Compiled .NET sample executables work as well. But when I am trying to run .NET C# sample converted to and compiled by Visual Studio C# Expression, or run the VBScript script, I am getting error 80004005 when trying to create an object. Initially the .NET application also gave me 80040154 but then I figured how to make it produce 32-bit code and not 64-bit, so now the errors in C# and VBScript applications are the same. That's all the progress I got for now. And yes, I tried running 32-bit versions of cscript.exe/WScript from SysWOW64 folder on my VBS, but still the result is the same (80004005). How to solve this problem? I am almost ready to believe it is practically impossible, but the fact that Excel VBA works and .NET executables compiled on Windows XP run just fine just makes me angry. There should be a way to beat this thing (some secret which probably only Windows Vista developers know)! I will appreciate any help! PS: I believe code samples do not make much sense here, but this is the line of VBScript which fails: Set CEL = WScript.CreateObject("CQG.CQGCEL.4.0", "CEL_") And this is C#: CQGCEL CEL = new CQGCEL(); Update: Forgot to say UAC is off, of course. And I am working from account with administrator priviledges. I also tried watching which registry keys are read using Process Monitor but everything looks OK for GUIDs of this object. I could not recognize some other GUIDs so I am not sure whether they were critical or not. Is there a chance that this COM object uses Internet Explorer and gets the wrong one (like Internet Explorer 7 instead of Internet Explorer 6 engine or something)?

    Read the article

  • Problem with sqlite database on android platform

    - by mudit
    hi all i am developing an application which uses sqlite db for storing records. I am developing this application on SDK 1.5.. when i test the application on 1.5 device it works good but when i try to run it on a 1.6 device i get a force close message with following logcat output: 03-19 09:31:35.206: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(224): Uncaught handler: thread main exiting due to uncaught exception 03-19 09:31:35.226: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(224): java.lang.RuntimeException: Unable to start activity ComponentInfo{com.abc.android/com.abc.android.app}: android.database.sqlite.SQLiteException: unable to open database file 03-19 09:31:35.226: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(224): at android.app.ActivityThread.performLaunchActivity(ActivityThread.java:2454) 03-19 09:31:35.226: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(224): at android.app.ActivityThread.handleLaunchActivity(ActivityThread.java:2470) 03-19 09:31:35.226: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(224): at android.app.ActivityThread.access$2200(ActivityThread.java:119) 03-19 09:31:35.226: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(224): at android.app.ActivityThread$H.handleMessage(ActivityThread.java:1821) 03-19 09:31:35.226: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(224): at android.os.Handler.dispatchMessage(Handler.java:99) 03-19 09:31:35.226: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(224): at android.os.Looper.loop(Looper.java:123) 03-19 09:31:35.226: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(224): at android.app.ActivityThread.main(ActivityThread.java:4310) 03-19 09:31:35.226: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(224): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invokeNative(Native Method) 03-19 09:31:35.226: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(224): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:521) 03-19 09:31:35.226: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(224): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit$MethodAndArgsCaller.run(ZygoteInit.java:860) 03-19 09:31:35.226: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(224): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit.main(ZygoteInit.java:618) 03-19 09:31:35.226: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(224): at dalvik.system.NativeStart.main(Native Method) 03-19 09:31:35.226: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(224): Caused by: android.database.sqlite.SQLiteException: unable to open database file 03-19 09:31:35.226: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(224): at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteDatabase.dbopen(Native Method) 03-19 09:31:35.226: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(224): at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteDatabase.(SQLiteDatabase.java:1697) 03-19 09:31:35.226: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(224): at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteDatabase.openDatabase(SQLiteDatabase.java:738) 03-19 09:31:35.226: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(224): at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteDatabase.openOrCreateDatabase(SQLiteDatabase.java:760) 03-19 09:31:35.226: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(224): at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteDatabase.openOrCreateDatabase(SQLiteDatabase.java:753) 03-19 09:31:35.226: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(224): at android.app.ApplicationContext.openOrCreateDatabase(ApplicationContext.java:473) 03-19 09:31:35.226: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(224): at android.content.ContextWrapper.openOrCreateDatabase(ContextWrapper.java:193) 03-19 09:31:35.226: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(224): at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteOpenHelper.getWritableDatabase(SQLiteOpenHelper.java:98) 03-19 09:31:35.226: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(224): at com.abc.android.DbAdapter.open(DbAdapter.java:101) 03-19 09:31:35.226: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(224): at com.abc.android.class1.onCreate(class1.java:105) 03-19 09:31:35.226: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(224): at android.app.Instrumentation.callActivityOnCreate(Instrumentation.java:1047) 03-19 09:31:35.226: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(224): at android.app.ActivityThread.performLaunchActivity(ActivityThread.java:2417) 03-19 09:31:35.226: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(224): ... 11 more DBAdapter.java public DbAdapter open() throws SQLException { Log.d("DbAdapter", "in DbAdapter open()"); mDbHelper = new DatabaseHelper(mCtx); mDb = mDbHelper.getWritableDatabase(); // line 101 return this; } DatabaseHelper(Context context) { super(context, DATABASE_NAME, null, DATABASE_VERSION); } @Override public void onCreate(SQLiteDatabase db) { db.execSQL(DATABASE_QUERY); } class1.java mDB = new DbAdapter(Class1.this); mDB.open(); // line 105 Please help..what do i do????

    Read the article

  • Delphi - restore actual row in DBGrid

    - by durumdara
    Hi! D6 prof. Formerly we used DBISAM and DBISAMTable. That handle the RecNo, and it is working good with modifications (Delete, edit, etc). Now we replaced with ElevateDB, that don't handle RecNo, and many times we use Queries, not Tables. Query must reopen to see the modifications. But if we Reopen the Query, we need to repositioning to the last record. Locate isn't enough, because Grid is show it in another Row. This is very disturbing thing, because after the modification record is moving into another row, you hard to follow it, and users hate this. We found this code: function TBaseDBGrid.GetActRow: integer; begin Result := -1 + Row; end; procedure TBasepDBGrid.SetActRow(aRow: integer); var bm : TBookMark; begin if IsDataSourceValid(DataSource) then with DataSource.DataSet do begin bm := GetBookmark; DisableControls; try MoveBy(-aRow); MoveBy(aRow); //GotoBookmark(bm); finally FreebookMark(bm); EnableControls; end; end; end; The original example is uses moveby. This working good with Queries, because we cannot see that Query reopened in the background, the visual control is not changed the row position. But when we have EDBTable, or Live/Sensitive Query, the MoveBy is dangerous to use, because if somebody delete or append a new row, we can relocate into wrong record. Then I tried to use the BookMark (see remark). But this technique isn't working, because it is show the record in another Row position... So the question: how to force both the row position and record in DBGrid? Or what kind of DBGrid can relocate to the record/row after the underlying DataSet refreshed? I search for user friendly solution, I understand them, because I tried to use this jump-across DBGrid, and very bad to use, because my eyes are getting out when try to find the original record after update... :-( Thanks for your every help, link, info: dd

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 549 550 551 552 553 554 555 556 557 558 559 560  | Next Page >