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• Passing $_GET or $_POST data to PHP script that is run with wget

  - by Matt

  Hello, I have the following line of PHP code which works great: exec( 'wget http://www.mydomain.com/u1.php /dev/null &' ); u1.php acts to do various types of maintenance on my server and the above command makes it happen in the background. No problems there. But I need to pass variable data to u1.php before it's executed. I'd like to pass POST data preferably, but could accommodate GET or SESSION data if POST isn't an option. Basically the type of data being passed is user-specific and will vary depending on who is logged in to the site and triggering the above code. I've tried adding the GET data to the end of the URL and that didn't work. So how else might I be able to send the data to u1.php? POST data preferred, SESSION data would work as well (but I tried this and it didn't pick up the logged in user's session data). GET would be a last resort. Thanks!

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• Do double forward slashes direct IE to use specific css?

  - by kjh

  I have just found something very weird while developing a website. While trying to get a div element to display across the top of the screen, I noticed that I wasn't achieving a desired result in any browser except for old versions of IE. In order to test some different code, instead of deleting the faulty line, I used '//' to comment it out (I'm not really even sure if that works in css) but what happened was, the compatible browsers used the uncommented code, while IE used the code marked by '//'. here is the code: #ban-menu-div{ position:fixed;top:0; //position:relative; //<-- IE keeps the banner with rel pos while the other display:block; // browsers used fixed margin:auto; padding:0px; width:100%; text-align:center; background:black; } so basically, it seems as though // can be used to instruct newer browsers to ignore specific lines of code, and instruct older versions of IE to use it? If this is common practice someone please let me know. it sure makes developing for older browsers a hell of a lot easier

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• .NET security mechanism to restrict access between two Types in the same project?

  - by jdk

  Question: Is there a mechanism in the .NET Framework to hide one custom Type from another without using separate projects/assemblies? I'm using C# with ASP.NET in a Website project. Note: I'm not talking about access modifiers to hide members of a Type from another type - I mean to hide the Type itself. Background: I'm working in an ASP.NET Website project and the team has decided not to use separate project assemblies for different software layers. Therefore I'm looking for a way to have, for example, a DataAccess/ folder of which I disallow its classes to access other Types in the same ASP.NET Website project. In other words I want to fake the layers and have some kind of security mechanism around each layer to prevent it from accessing another. Obviously there's not a way to enforce this restriction using language-specific OO keywords so I am looking for something else, for example: maybe a permission framework or code access mechanism, maybe something that uses meta data like Attributes. Even something that restricts one namespace from accessing another. I'm unsure the final form it might take. If this were C++ I'd likely be using friend to make as solution, which doesn't translate to C# internal in this case although they're often compared. I don't really care whether the solution actually hides Types from each other or just makes them inaccessible; however I don't want to lock down one Type from all others, another reason access modifiers are not a solution. A runtime or design time answer will suffice. Looking for something easy to implement otherwise it's not worth the effort ...

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• HTML Table: How to resize data cells when already specified "colspan"?

  - by Jenny

  I have tabular data to display, which has a meaning to both rows and columns. Columns are time blocks, rows are days. A particular datacell is confined to a single day, but can be in multiple time block. To show this, I am using the colspan tag. <div id = "GuideTable"> <table> <tr> <td colspan = 3> </td></tr></table> </div> Or Whatever. I'm trying to apply CSS formating to the entire table, and for changing colors, etc, things are fine, but wanting to have a consistent width is where I am running into problems. Right now, each data cell's width seems tied to the maximum width in its column (everything auto lines up). Some columns are itty bitty, others are huge. I'm trying to make columns consistently sized (even if that means every column is as big as the biggest column needs to be), but setting an individual datacells width (either via css or in the tag itself) is getting me nowhere. I'm thinking maybe the colspan tag is overriding my manual width? If that's the case, how can I change the width of a column as a whole, especially since they aren't explicitly defined? (CAN you explicitly define columns?) Examples of the CSS I'm using: #GuideTable td{ background:#ffffff; border-style: solid; border-width: 1px; width: 100px; }

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• How do you use a view with arguments as the site front page in Drupal?

  - by Justin

  I have a Drupal site and I have setup a view to power the front page. My goal is to be able to pass 0-2 arguments to the home page, that get passed into the view. However, I still need the normal Drupal pages to work. The list of arguments is known. For example: mysite.com/berlin/birds would pass in "berlin" as the first argument and "birds" as the second argument to the view that powers the front page. mysite.com/berlin would just pass in one argument, "berlin" mysite.com/admin would load the normal admin pages in Drupal I'm not clear on how to achieve this. Is there a hook I can use? I can't find one or think of one. Is there a way to specify this in the argument for the view itself? Perhaps I can write a hook that interjects when the URL is being loaded, and rewrite in the background? The solution I currently have is to add these paths (since my arguments are known) to the menu system. This works, except that when I the pages they aren't the front page, so the pages don't use the node themes I want (they use the node details theme).

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• CSS3: Stripe table with multiple <tbody> elements

  - by xyz

  Hello, I've got a table with multiple <tbody> elements. At a given time, only one <tbody> is displayed, or all of them are displayed. I currently use this CSS3 code to stripe the table. table tr:nth-child(even) { background: #efefef; } When a single <tbody> element is shown, everything is (obviously) fine, but when multiple <tbody> elements are shown the CSS rules apply to each one separately, and each <tbody> has its own "stripes system". Together the stripes may or may not look consistent, depending on the number of rows. <tbody> <tr> [ODD] <tr> [EVEN] <tr> [ODD] </tbody> <tbody> <tr> [ODD] <tr> [EVEN] </tbody> ... Would I absolutely have to use JavaScript (...jQuery) to fix this?

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• .net remoting - Better solution to wait for a service to initialize ?

  - by CitizenInsane

  Context I have a client application (which i cannot modify, i.e. i only have the binary) that needs to run from time to time external commands that depends on a resource which is very long to initialize (about 20s). I thus decided to initialize this resource once for all in a "CommandServer.exe" application (single instance in the system tray) and let my client application call an intermediate "ExecuteCommand.exe" program that uses .net remoting to perform the operation on the server. The "ExecuteCommand.exe" is in charge for starting the server on first call and then leave it alive to speed up further commands. The service: public interface IMyService { void ExecuteCommand(string[] args); } The "CommandServer.exe" (using WindowsFormsApplicationBase for single instance management + user friendly splash screen during resource initializations): private void onStartupFirstInstance(object sender, StartupEventArgs e) { // Register communication channel channel = new TcpServerChannel("CommandServerChannel", 8234); ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(channel, false); // Register service var resource = veryLongToInitialize(); service = new MyServiceImpl(resource); RemotingServices.Marshal(service, "CommandServer"); // Create icon in system tray notifyIcon = new NotifyIcon(); ... } The intermediate "ExecuteCommand.exe": static void Main(string[] args) { startCommandServerIfRequired(); var channel = new TcpClientChannel(); ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(channel, false); var service = (IMyService)Activator.GetObject(typeof(IMyService), "tcp://localhost:8234/CommandServer"); service.RunCommand(args); } Problem As the server is very long to start (about 20s to initialize the required resources), the "ExecuteCommand.exe" fails on service.RunCommand(args) line because the server is yet not available. Question Is there a elegant way I can tune the delay before to receive "service not available" when calling service.RunCommand ? NB1: Currently I'm working around the issue by adding a mutex in server to indicate for complete initiliazation and have "ExecuteCommand.exe" to wait for this mutex before to call service.RunCommand. NB2: I have no background with .net remoting, nor WCF which is recommended replacer. (I chose .net remoting because this looked easier to set-up for this single shot issue in running external commands).

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• Cross-browser curved borders

  - by Gandalf StormCrow

  What is the best way to achieve cross-browser(ff,ie6,chrome,opera,safari) curved corners on a div. I found this article http://jonraasch.com/blog/css-rounded-corners-in-all-browsers and I've followed instructions step by step multiple times, here is my css : #content_wrapper{ -moz-border-radius:25px 25px 25px 25px; -webkit-border-radius: 25px; -khtml-border-radius: 25px; border-radius: 25px; background-color:#F2DADC; border:25px solid #ECD3D5; height:780px; opacity:0.7; width:747px; margin:0px auto; position:relative; display:block; zoom:1; } <!--[if lte IE 8]> <style> #content_wrapper{ behavior: url(template/css/border-radius.htc); border-radius: 20px; } </style> <![endif]--> Can somebody point me what am I doing wrong or is there a better way to achieve the same effect, its working in all browsers except in IE

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• localhost yes but phpmyadmin blank

  - by Giskin Leow

  WAMP people having problem with both localhost and phpmyadmin loads blank which usually the port problem. Mine is only phpmyadmin blank. sqlbuddy and phpinfo no problem. tried uninstall reinstalled wamp. tried xampp, same problem, all works well, not phpmyadmin. mysql log: 120905 8:03:08 [Note] Plugin 'FEDERATED' is disabled. 120905 8:03:08 InnoDB: The InnoDB memory heap is disabled 120905 8:03:08 InnoDB: Mutexes and rw_locks use Windows interlocked functions 120905 8:03:08 InnoDB: Compressed tables use zlib 1.2.3 120905 8:03:09 InnoDB: Initializing buffer pool, size = 128.0M 120905 8:03:09 InnoDB: Completed initialization of buffer pool 120905 8:03:09 InnoDB: highest supported file format is Barracuda. 120905 8:03:09 InnoDB: Waiting for the background threads to start 120905 8:03:10 InnoDB: 1.1.8 started; log sequence number 1595675 120905 8:03:11 [Note] Server hostname (bind-address): '(null)'; port: 3306 120905 8:03:11 [Note] - '(null)' resolves to '::'; 120905 8:03:11 [Note] - '(null)' resolves to '0.0.0.0'; 120905 8:03:11 [Note] Server socket created on IP: '0.0.0.0'. 120905 8:03:13 [Note] Event Scheduler: Loaded 0 events 120905 8:03:13 [Note] wampmysqld: ready for connections. apache log [Wed Sep 05 08:03:09 2012] [notice] Apache/2.2.22 (Win32) PHP/5.4.3 configured -- resuming normal operations [Wed Sep 05 08:03:09 2012] [notice] Server built: May 13 2012 13:32:42 [Wed Sep 05 08:03:09 2012] [notice] Parent: Created child process 3812 [Wed Sep 05 08:03:09 2012] [notice] Child 3812: Child process is running [Wed Sep 05 08:03:09 2012] [notice] Child 3812: Acquired the start mutex. [Wed Sep 05 08:03:09 2012] [notice] Child 3812: Starting 64 worker threads. [Wed Sep 05 08:03:09 2012] [notice] Child 3812: Starting thread to listen on port 80. [Wed Sep 05 08:03:09 2012] [notice] Child 3812: Starting thread to listen on port 80. [Wed Sep 05 08:04:14 2012] [error] [client 127.0.0.1] File does not exist: C:/wamp/www/favicon.ico [Wed Sep 05 08:09:50 2012] [error] [client 127.0.0.1] File does not exist: C:/wamp/www/favicon.ico [Wed Sep 05 08:41:03 2012] [error] [client 127.0.0.1] File does not exist: C:/wamp/www/phpMyAdmin

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• using IntentExatras with Alarm Manager

  - by Ashwin

  I want to know if this code will work(I cannot try it out right now. Moreover, I have a few doubts that have to be cleared). Intent intent = new Intent(context, AlarmReceiver.class); intent.putExtra("user",global.getUsername()); intent.puExtra("password",global.getPassword); PendingIntent sender = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(context, 192837, intent, PendingIntent.FLAG_UPDATE_CURRENT); // Get the AlarmManager service Log.v("inside log_run", "new service started"); AlarmManager am = (AlarmManager) getSystemService(ALARM_SERVICE); am.setRepeating(AlarmManager.RTC_WAKEUP, IMMEDIATELY,60000,sender); finish(); As you can see, this code starts an AlarmManager with setRepeating(). If you see the intent(actually the pending intent) passed on to the BroadcastReceiver, there are two extras that are passed on. These are global variables that live as long as the Application is running. But this AlarmManager is meant to be run in the background (that is application will be alive only for the first few calls of the o fthe alrmamanager to the broadcast recevier) My Question Will AlarmManager make a copy of the global variables(the username and password) and maintain this copy to be passed along with the intent? Because, these values will be used in the broadcast receiver.

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• WCF consumed as WebService adds a boolean parameter?

  - by Martín Marconcini

  I've created the default WCF Service in VS2008. It's called "Service1" public class Service1 : IService1 { public string GetData( int value ) { return string.Format("You entered: {0}", value); } public CompositeType GetDataUsingDataContract( CompositeType composite ) { if ( composite.BoolValue ) { composite.StringValue += "Suffix"; } return composite; } } It works fine, the interface is IService1: [ServiceContract] public interface IService1 { [OperationContract] string GetData( int value ); [OperationContract] CompositeType GetDataUsingDataContract( CompositeType composite ); // TODO: Add your service operations here } This is all by default; Visual Studio 2008 created all this. I then created a simple Winforms app to "test" this. I added the Service Reference to my the above mentioned service and it all works. I can instanciate and call myservice1.GetData(100); and I get the result. But I was told that this service will have to be consumed by a Winforms .NET 2.0 app via Web Services, so I proceeded to add the reference to a new Winforms .NET 2.0 application created from scratch (only one winform called form1). This time, when adding the "web reference", it added the typical "localhost" one belonging to webservices; the wizard saw the WCF Service (running on background) and added it. When I tried to consume this, I found out that the GetData(int) method, was now GetData(int, bool). Here's the code private void button1_Click( object sender, EventArgs e ) { localhost.Service1 s1 = new WindowsFormsApplication2.localhost.Service1(); Console.WriteLine(s1.GetData(100, false)); } Notice the false in the GetData call? I don't know what that parameter is or where did that come from, it is called "bool valueSpecified". Does anybody know where this is coming from? Anything else I should do to consume a WCF Service as a WebService from .NET 2.0? (winforms).

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• Why use shorter VARCHAR(n) fields?

  - by chryss

  It is frequently advised to choose database field sizes to be as narrow as possible. I am wondering to what degree this applies to SQL Server 2005 VARCHAR columns: Storing 10-letter English words in a VARCHAR(255) field will not take up more storage than in a VARCHAR(10) field. Are there other reasons to restrict the size of VARCHAR fields to stick as closely as possible to the size of the data? I'm thinking of Performance: Is there an advantage to using a smaller n when selecting, filtering and sorting on the data? Memory, including on the application side (C++)? Style/validation: How important do you consider restricting colunm size to force non-sensical data imports to fail (such as 200-character surnames)? Anything else? Background: I help data integrators with the design of data flows into a database-backed system. They have to use an API that restricts their choice of data types. For character data, only VARCHAR(n) with n <= 255 is available; CHAR, NCHAR, NVARCHAR and TEXT are not. We're trying to lay down some "good practices" rules, and the question has come up if there is a real detriment to using VARCHAR(255) even for data where real maximum sizes will never exceed 30 bytes or so. Typical data volumes for one table are 1-10 Mio records with up to 150 attributes. Query performance (SELECT, with frequently extensive WHERE clauses) and application-side retrieval performance are paramount.

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• Core Data Errors vs Exceptions Part 3

  - by John Gallagher

  My question is similar to this one. Background I'm creating a large number of objects in a core data store using NSOperations to speed things up. I've followed all the Core Data multithreading rules - I've got a single persistent store coordinator and a managed object context per thread that on save is merging back to the main managed object context. The Problem When the number of threads running at once is more than 1, I get the exception logged on save of my core data store: NSExceptionHandler has recorded the following exception: NSInternalInconsistencyException -- optimistic locking failure What I've Tried My code that creates new entities is quite complex - it makes entities that have relationships with other entities that could be being created in a separate thread. If I replace my object creation routine with some very simple code just making non-related entries, everything works perfectly. Initially, as well as the exceptions, I was getting a save error saying core data couldn't save due to the merge failing. I read the docs and realised I needed a merge policy on the Managed Object Context I was saving to. I set this up and as this question states, the save error goes away, but the exception remains. My Question Do I need to worry about these exceptions? If I do need to get rid of the exceptions, any ideas on how I do it?

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• Why doesn't JQuery hover animate work in this example

  - by Christian

  When I hover over the box it doesn't change it's caller as I intent. What's wrong? <html> <head><title>test</title></head> <style type="text/css" > .box_type1{ width:560px; height:560px; background-color:#b0c4de; } </style> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('.box_type1').hover( function () { $(this).stop().animate({backgroundColor:'#4E1402'}, 300); }, function () { $(this).stop().animate({backgroundColor:'#943D20'}, 100); }); }); </script> <body> </div> <div class="box_type1"> </div> </body> </html>

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• UIWebview :: Text :: HTML :: JS

  - by user306089

  hello, 1- i load a text from a txt file 2- i show it into a html "file" 3- problem : 3-a : this code works : i create my page by code and i insert my text myText = ... loaded from an array of texts ...; NSString *myDescriptionHTML = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"<html> \n" "<head> \n" "<style type=\"text/css\"> \n" "body {font-family: \"%@\"; font-size: 1.0f + 'em'; color:#FFF;}\n" "</style> \n" "</head> \n" "<body id=\"myid\">%@</body> \n" "</html>", @"Arial", myText]; [self.myWebView loadHTMLString:myDescriptionHTML baseURL:nil]; 3-b but this one does not work : i load a html page already created and i inject my text into using JS : myText = ... loaded from an array of texts ...; [self.myWebView stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"document.getElementById(\"myid\").innerHTML = \"%@\";", myText]]; 3-c but this one working : same as 3-b but i init my text with a string in the code itself : myText = @"hello all"; [self.myWebView stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"document.getElementById(\"myid\").innerHTML = \"%@\";", myText]]; any help to understand what's wrong with 3-b ? thank you

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• Calculations on the iteration count in for loop in Ruby 1.8.7

  - by user1805035

  I was playing around with Ruby and Latex to create a color coding set. I'm more than a novice with C++, but haven't looked at Ruby until now. So, still learning a lot of coding. I have the following block of code below. When attempting to run this, band1 = 1e+02. I've tried band1 = (BigDecimal(i) * 100).to_f thinking maybe there was some odd floating point issue. This is just me trying anything though as an integer multiplied by an integer should create an integer, if I'm still thinking correctly. I've tried a variety of other things as well (things that I can do in C++, but this ain't C++), but to no avail. (1..9).each do |i| #Band 1 (0..9).each do |j| #Band 2 (0..11).each do |k| #Band 3 #Band 3 Start #these are the colors of the resistor bands b1 = $c_band12[i] b2 = $c_band12[j] b3 = $c_band3[k] b4 = "Gold" oms = ((i*100) + (j*10)) * $mult[k] band1 = i*100 band2 = j band3 = $mult[k] end end end Not sure what I'm missing. Should I be using .each_with_index through these iterations? I've tried this: (1..9).each_with_index {|i, indexi| #Band 1 (0..9).each_with_index {|j, indexj| #Band 2 (0..11).each_with_index {|k, indexk| #Band 3 #Band 3 Start #these are the colors of the resistor bands b1 = $c_band12[i] b2 = $c_band12[j] b3 = $c_band3[k] b4 = "Gold" oms = ((i*100) + (j*10)) * $mult[k] band1 = indexk * 100 and I get the same answer. I can't see why 1*100 should equate to such a large number? Thank you, AT

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• What could the negative effects be of attaching to a process as a debugger?

  - by I_like_traffic_lights

  Background A client of mine has a major problem. They have a CRM system, which was created by a single person over a period of 9 years. Unfortunatelly, a few weeks ago, this person died. I believe the company has learned their lesson, and they have started a project of rewriting the CRM system to a modern platform. I have been hired to create a solution in the meantime to make adaptations to the CRM system. I have given up understanding the code, as this would take too long. My solution, is therefore, to make a window and show this on top of the CRM system, whenever this CRM system is showing. This part works fine, but my major problem is extracting the data from the CRM system. Proposed solution After excluding 6 approaches, including runtime code injection, memory searching, database integration, I have arrived at attaching to the process as a debugger, so I get notified about event, and use this in combination with reading from process memory. This approach seems to work, but I am worried about possible side-effects of this approach. Question What are the dangers of using this in a production environment, where there are 250 employees utilizing the system. Needless to say, I cannot risk reducing the already shaky stability of the system.

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• Applied style in WPF ignores properties.

  - by Quenton Jones

  Here's the conundrum. In two different places in my application, I use a border with the exact same appearance. In an never-ending fight against code bloat and unmanageable code, I want to define the border's appearance in a style to use when I create the border. Strangely, several of the properties I set are being ignored. Here's the code I use to create the style. Simple enough. Style borderStyle = new Style(typeof(Border)); borderStyle.Setters.Add(new Setter(Border.BorderBrushProperty, Brushes.Black)); borderStyle.Setters.Add(new Setter(Border.BorderThicknessProperty, new Thickness(4))); borderStyle.Setters.Add(new Setter(Border.OpacityProperty, 1.0)); return borderStyle; But when I set the style, the opacity property is left at its original value of 0.7. I have also tried setting the background of the border to a brush I created. It too is ignored. Thanks for any insights you may have.

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• Sending variable data from one of two text boxes to javascript

  - by Enyalius

  Greetings, all! I am fairly new to JS (my background is in C++, enterprise languages like assembly and COBOL, and some light .NET), so I was wondering if I could get some advice regarding how to send variable information from one of two text boxes to some javascript and then have the JS do some basic checks and such. Here's the pseudocode for what I am trying to do: <form = webForm> <p> _____________ textboxPeople| searchIcon //a text box to search an online phonebook at my company. ------------- //It has a little "magnifying glass" icon to search //(onClick), but I would also like them to be able to //search by hitting the "enter" key on their keyboards. </p> <p> _____________ texboxIntranet| searchIcon //Same as above search textbox, but this one is used if ------------- //the user wishes to search my corporate intranet site. </form> So ends the front-facing basic form that I would like to use. Now, onClick or onEnter, I would like the form to pass the contents of the text box used as well as an identifier such as "People" or "Intranet," depending on which box is used, to some basic JS on the back end: begin JavaScript: if(identifier = 'People') fire peopleSearch(); else if(identifier = 'Intranet') fire intranetSearch(); function peopleSearch() { http://phonebook.corporate.com/query=submittedValue //This will take the person //that the user submitted in the form and //place it at the end of a URL, after which //it will open said complete URL in the //same window. } function intranetSearch() { http://intranet.corporate.com/query=submittedValue //This will function in the //same way as the people search function. } end JavaScript Any thoughts/suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Thank you all in advance!

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• Basic Application Organization + Publishing (.NET 4.0)

  - by keynesiancross

  Hi all, I'm trying to figure out the best way to keep my program organized. Currently I have many class files in one project file, but some of these classes do things that are very different, and some I would like to expose to other applications in the future. One thought I had to organizing my application was to create multiple project files, with one "Main" project, which would interact with all the other projects and their relevant classes as needed. Does this make sense? I was wondering if anyone had any suggestions in regards to using multiple project files in one solution (and how do you create something like this?), and if it makes sense to have multiple namespaces in one solution... Cheers ----Edit Below---- Sorry, my fault. Currently my program is all in one console project. Within this project I have several classes, some of which basically launch a BackgroundWorker and run an endless loop pulling data. The BackgroundWorker then passes this data back to the main business logic as needed. I'm hoping to seperate this data pull material (including the background worker material) into one project file, and the rest of the business logic into another project file. The projects will have to pass objects between eachother though (the data to the main business logic, and the business logic will pass startup parameteres to the dataPull project)... Hopefully this adds a bit more detail.

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• Dynamic change .click value Jquery IE issue.

  - by user326100

  Hello guys.. it's i first time i'm asking here. Sorry if the answer is available already. I have a very small jQuery script that canges the paramether for onclick attr on a DIV. IT works like as right and left arrows for some content in the middle. BAsically i set the onclick="foo(1)" then when get clicked sld change the value 1 to 2, and keep changing everytime i click. on jQuery functio i'm using: $("#v_arrow_r").attr('onclick','').unbind().click(newclick_next); it works like a charm on FF and Chrome, but does not work on IE !!!! Argh... here the the code: if (start == 24) { var a = 0; var b = 0; } else { var a = start-6; var b = start+6; } next = "home_featured_videos(" + b + ");"; newclick_next = eval("(function(){"+next+"});"); prev = "home_featured_videos(" + a + ");"; newclick_prev = eval("(function(){"+prev+"});"); $('#video-module').css('background',''); $('#video-module').html(response); $("#v_arrow_l").attr('onclick','').unbind().click(newclick_prev); $("#v_arrow_r").attr('onclick','').unbind().click(newclick_next); The html: //CONTENT So like i said.. i define the attr onclick when page open. It work well on IE. but when i click the arrow and call the function the oncli is set to null and i add the function to .click. IE stop working. the click is dead. If anybody have idea why this is happening. Thanx in advance. Kind Regards Varois

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• Getting rejected value null spring validation

  - by Shabarinath

  Hi in my project when I am trying to validate my form its not showing any error messages even if validation fails (Event Form is not submitted and enters into validation fail block) Here is my code /****************** Post Method *************/ @RequestMapping(value="/property", method = RequestMethod.POST) public String saveOrUpdateProperty(@ModelAttribute("property") Property property, BindingResult result, Model model, HttpServletRequest request) throws Exception { try { if(validateFormData(property, result)) { model.addAttribute("property", new Property()); return "property/postProperty"; } } /********* Validate Block *************/ private boolean validateFormData(Property property, BindingResult result) throws DaoException { if (property.getPropertyType() == null || property.getPropertyType().equals("")) { result.rejectValue("propertyType", "Cannot Be Empty !", "Cannot Be Empty !"); } if (property.getTitle() == null || property.getTitle().equals("")) { result.rejectValue("title", "Cannot Be Empty !", "Cannot Be Empty !"); } return (result.hasFieldErrors() || result.hasErrors()); } But when i debug i can see below one org.springframework.validation.BeanPropertyBindingResult: 1 errors Field error in object 'property' on field 'title': rejected value [null]; codes [Cannot Be Empty !.property.title,Cannot Be Empty !.title,Cannot Be Empty !.java.lang.String,Cannot Be Empty !]; arguments []; default message [Cannot Be Empty !] and this is how i am displaying in jsp file <div class="control-group"> <div class="controls"> <label class="control-label"><span class="required">* </span>Property Type</label> <div class="controls"> <form:input path="title" placeholder="Pin Code" cssClass="form-control border-radius-4 textField"/> <form:errors path="title" style="color:red;"/> </div> </div> </div> Event though when i see the below one when i debug (1 Error its correct) org.springframework.validation.BeanPropertyBindingResult: 1 errors Why it is not displayed in jsp can any one hep me?

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• Python threading question (Working with a method that blocks forever)

  - by Nix

  I am trying to wrap a thread around some receiving logic in python. Basically we have an app, that will have a thread in the background polling for messages, the problem I ran into is that piece that actually pulls the messages waits forever for a message. Making it impossible to terminate... I ended up wrapping the pull in another thread, but I wanted to make sure there wasn't a better way to do it. Original code: class Manager: def __init__(self): receiver = MessageReceiver() receiver.start() #do other stuff... class MessageReceiver(Thread): receiver = Receiver() def __init__(self): Thread.__init__(self) def run(self): #stop is a flag that i use to stop the thread... while(not stopped ): #can never stop because pull below blocks message = receiver.pull() print "Message" + message What I refectored to: class Manager: def __init__(self): receiver = MessageReceiver() receiver.start() class MessageReceiver(Thread): receiver = Receiver() def __init__(self): Thread.__init__(self) def run(self): pullThread = PullThread(self.receiver) pullThread.start() #stop is a flag that i use to stop the thread... while(not stopped and pullThread.last_message ==None): pass message = pullThread.last_message print "Message" + message class PullThread(Thread): last_message = None def __init__(self, receiver): Thread.__init(self, target=get_message, args=(receiver)) def get_message(self, receiver): self.last_message = None self.last_message = receiver.pull() return self.last_message I know the obvious locking issues exist, but is this the appropriate way to control a receive thread that waits forever for a message? One thing I did notice was this thing eats 100% cpu while waiting for a message... **If you need to see the stopping logic please let me know and I will post.

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• How to override "inherited" z-indexes?

  - by Earlz

  I am needing to override the notion of inherited z-indexes. For instance in this code <style> div{ background-color:white; top: 0px; bottom: 0px; left: 0px; right: 0px; } </style> <div style="position: fixed; z-index: 2;"> div 1 <div style="position: fixed; z-index: 3;"> div 2 </div> </div> <div style="position: fixed; z-index: 2;"> div 3 </div> http://jsbin.com/epoqo3/3 I want for div 2 to be displayed, but instead div 3 is displayed. How can I change this behavior without changing my structure.

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• Fade in an HTML element with raw javascript over 500 miliseconds.

  - by Juan C. Rois

  Hello everybody, Once again I find myself stuck by something that I just don't understand. Any help would be appreciated. I'm working on a modal window, you click something and the background is masked and a modal window shows some content. I have a div with "display:none" and "opacity:0", and when the user triggers the modal, this div will overlay everything and have certain transparency to it. In my mind, what I need to do is: Set the opacity Perform a "for" loop that will check if the opacity is less than the desired value. Inside this loop, perform a "setInterval" to gradually increment the value of the opacity until it reaches the desired value. When the desired value has been reached, perform an "if" statement to "clearInterval". My code so far is as follows: var showMask = document.getElementById('mask'); function fireModal(){ showMask.style.opacity = 0; showMask.style.display = 'block'; var getCurrentOpacity = showMask.style.opacity; var increaseOpacity = 0.02; var finalOpacity = 0.7; var intervalIncrement = 20; var timeLapse = 500; function fadeIn(){ for(var i = getCurrentOpacity; i < finalOpacity; i++){ setInterval(function(){ showMask.style.opacity = i; }, intervalIncrement) } if(getCurrentOpacity == finalOpacity){ clearInterval(); } } fadeIn(); } As you all can guess, this is not working, all it does is set the opacity to "1" without gradually fade it in. Thanks in advance for your help.

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