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  • How to be a better software designer

    - by Bmw
    I feel as if I am a hack programmer. I do things over and over again until they finally work. I copy/paste code. I don't think about why something makes sense, if it works I go with it. I have my undergraduate in computer science, and I've done this the entire time. Somehow I made it through the degree by doing this and now I'm in my second year of programming professionally and I am still able to do this and get away with it. Here's the thing, I don't want to be this way anymore. I am not proud of the work I do, I feel like I'm just a copy/paste programmer. How do I become better? I want to be able to design something on my own without copying code. Have you ever been in this situation, if so how did you move beyond it to become a better programmer? To add some background about myself, I started as an asp.net c# programmer, now I'm doing vbscript (which actually makes my tendency to copy/paste/hack a lot worse I must say!) with classic asp…

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  • Adding functions to Java class libraries

    - by Eric
    I'm using a Java class library that is in many ways incomplete: there are many classes that I feel ought to have additional member functions built in. However, I am unsure of the best practice of adding these member functions. Lets call the insufficient base class A. class A { public A(/*long arbitrary arguments*/) { //... } public A(/*long even more arbitrary arguments*/) { //... } public int func() { return 1; } } Ideally, I would like to add a function to A. However, I can't do that. My choice is between: class B extends A { //Implement ALL of A's constructors here public int reallyUsefulFunction() { return func()+1; } } and class AddedFuncs { public int reallyUsefulFunction(A a) { return a.func()+1; } } The way I see it, they both have advantages and disadvantages. The first choice gives a cleaner syntax than the second, and is more logical, but has problems: Let's say I have a third class, C, within the class library. class C { public A func() { return new A(/*...*/); } } As I see it, there is no easy way of doing this: C c; int useful = c.func().reallyUsefulFunction(); as the type returned by C.func() is an A, not a B, and you can't down-cast. So what is the best way of adding a member function to a read-only library class?

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  • Android AutocompleteView OnClickListener

    - by Chirag_RB
    I have 2 Auto Complete Views which i have to pre-populate with some text .However as soon as user clicks on the views , the text should disappear and allow user to enter text . I have written two separate on click listeners to do so . The On click listener for the first one is working fine . However i have to double click for the On click listener of the second one to work. Please find the chunk of code below and come up with some solution . final AutoCompleteTextView source = (AutoCompleteTextView) findViewById(R.id.source); ArrayAdapter source_adapter = new ArrayAdapter(this, R.layout.list_item, Model.City); source.setAdapter(source_adapter); source.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener(){ public void onClick(View v) { source.setText(""); source.setTextSize(14); } }); final AutoCompleteTextView destination = (AutoCompleteTextView) findViewById(R.id.destination); ArrayAdapter destination_adapter = new ArrayAdapter(this, R.layout.list_item, Model.City); destination.setAdapter(destination_adapter); destination.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener(){ public void onClick(View v) { destination.setText(""); destination.setTextSize(14); } });

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  • Highlighting a custom UIButton

    - by Dan Ray
    The app I'm building has LOTS of custom UIButtons laying over top of fairly precisely laid out images. Buttonish, controllish images and labels and what have you, but with a clear custom-style UIButton sitting over top of it to handle the tap. My client yesterday says, "I want that to highlight when you tap it". Never mind that it immediately pushes on a new uinavigationcontroller view... it didn't blink, and so he's confused. Oy. Here's what I've done to address it. I don't like it, but it's what I've done: I subclassed UIButton (naming it FlashingUIButton). For some reason I couldn't just configure it with a background image on control mode highlighted. It never seemed to hit the state "highlighted". Don't know why that is. So instead I wrote: -(void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { [self setBackgroundImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"grey_screen"] forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [self performSelector:@selector(resetImage) withObject:nil afterDelay:0.2]; [super touchesBegan:touches withEvent:event]; } -(void)resetImage { [self setBackgroundImage:nil forState:UIControlStateNormal]; } This happily lays my grey_screen.png (a 30% opaque black box) over the button when it's tapped and replaces it with happy emptyness .2 of a second later. This is fine, but it means I have to go through all my many nibs and change all my buttons from UIButtons to FlashingUIButtons. Which isn't the end of the world, but I'd really hoped to address this as a UIButton category, and hit all birds with one stone. Any suggestions for a better approach than this one?

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  • How do you use a view with arguments as the site front page in Drupal?

    - by Justin
    I have a Drupal site and I have setup a view to power the front page. My goal is to be able to pass 0-2 arguments to the home page, that get passed into the view. However, I still need the normal Drupal pages to work. The list of arguments is known. For example: mysite.com/berlin/birds would pass in "berlin" as the first argument and "birds" as the second argument to the view that powers the front page. mysite.com/berlin would just pass in one argument, "berlin" mysite.com/admin would load the normal admin pages in Drupal I'm not clear on how to achieve this. Is there a hook I can use? I can't find one or think of one. Is there a way to specify this in the argument for the view itself? Perhaps I can write a hook that interjects when the URL is being loaded, and rewrite in the background? The solution I currently have is to add these paths (since my arguments are known) to the menu system. This works, except that when I the pages they aren't the front page, so the pages don't use the node themes I want (they use the node details theme).

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  • PC to Macbook Pro Transition - Getting (re)started?

    - by Torus Linvald
    I'm in my second computer science course right now. I've enjoyed programming so far, but really have just scraped my way by. I've not done much programming outside of required class work. For similar reasons, I never really invested in downloading/learning software to help me program (IDE's, editors, compilers, etc). I know it sounds tedious, but my current setup is: notepad++ for coding; Filezilla to transfer .cpp & .h files to school's aludra/unix and compiling; unix tells me where my bugs are and I go back to notepad++ to debug; repeat until done. This isn't fun - and I know it could be easier. But I put it off knowing that I was soon going to switch to a Mac. And, tomorrow, I'm switching. So... How should I set up my Macbook for the best programming experience? What IDEs and editors and debuggers and so on should I download? How will Mac programming differ from PC? I'm open to all ideas and comments, even the most basic. (Background - I'm learning/programming in C++ right now. Next semester, my classes switch to Java. I'm also going to take a class in web development, with HTML/CSS/Javascript/PHP. My new laptop will be a late 2009 Macbook Pro with Leopard, or maybe Snow Leopard. Free would be preferrable for all programs.) Thank you all.

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  • Can't give my custom prototype cells in tableview different heights

    - by kerbelda
    I've looked around at other questions here and many other sources online and just can't find a solution. I have 3 rows and no matter what I do, they all keep the width defined in the tableview. The first one is what I want, but the second and 3rd I can't give a custom height. Below is my code: #import "DetailTableViewController.h" #import "EventDetailTableViewCell.h" #import "EventDescriptionTableViewCell.h" #import "EventMapTableViewCell.h" @interface DetailTableViewController () @end @implementation DetailTableViewController - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; } #pragma mark - Table view data source - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { // Return the number of sections. return 3; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { // Return the number of rows in the section. return 1; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { if (indexPath.section == 0) { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"headerCell"; EventDetailTableViewCell *headerCell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier forIndexPath:indexPath]; headerCell.headerImage.image = [UIImage imageNamed:@"img4.png"]; return headerCell; } else if (indexPath.section == 1) { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"descriptionCell"; EventDescriptionTableViewCell *descriptionCell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier forIndexPath:indexPath]; descriptionCell.descriptionImage.image = [UIImage imageNamed:@"img2.png"]; return descriptionCell; } else { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"mapCell"; EventMapTableViewCell *mapCell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier forIndexPath:indexPath]; return mapCell; } } #pragma mark - Helper Methods - (NSString *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView titleForHeaderInSection:(NSInteger)section { if (section == 1) { return @" "; } else if (section == 2) { return @" "; } else { return nil; } } -(CGFloat)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView heightForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { if (indexPath.row == 0) { return 222; } else if (indexPath.row == 1) { return 80; } else { return 100; } } @end

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  • How to synchronize two (or n) replication processes for SQL Server databases?

    - by Yauheni Sivukha
    There are two master databases and two read-only copies updated by standard transactional replication. It is needed to map some entity from both read-only databases, lets say that A databases contains orders and B databases contains lines. The problem is that replication to one database can lag behind replication of second database, and at the moment of mapping R-databases will have inconsistent data. For example. We stored 2 orders with lines at 19:00 and 19:03. Mapping process started at 19:05, but to the moment of mapping A database replication processed all changes up to 19:03, but B database replication processed only changes up to 19:00. After mapping we will have order entity with order as of 19:03 and lines as of 19:00. The troubles are guaranteed:) In my particular case both databases have temporal model, so it is possible to fetch data for every time slice, but the problem is to identify time of latest replication. Question: How to synchronize replication processes for several databases to avoid situation described above? Or, in other words, how to compare last time of replication in each database? UPD: The only way I see to synchronize is to continuously write timestamps into service tables in each database and to check these timestamps on replicated servers. Is that acceptable solution?

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  • custom sorting or ordering a table without resorting the whole shebang

    - by fuugus
    for ten years we've been using the same custom sorting on our tables, i'm wondering if there is another solution which involves fewer updates, especially since today we'd like to have a replication/publication date and would'nt like to have our replication replicate unnecessary entries. i had a look into nested sets, but it does'nt seem to do the job for us. base table: id | a_sort ---+------- 1 10 2 20 3 30 after inserting insert into table (a_sort) values(15) an entry at the second position. id | a_sort ---+------- 1 10 2 20 3 30 4 15 ordering the table with select * from table order by a_sort and resorting all the a_sort entries, updating at least id=(2,3,4) will of course produce the desired output id | a_sort ---+------- 1 10 4 20 2 30 3 40 the column names, the column count, datatypes, a possible join, possible triggers or the way the resorting is done is/are irrelevant to the problem. also we've found some pretty neat ways to do this task fast. only; how the heck can we reduce the updates in the db to 1 or 2 max. seems like an awfully common problem. the captain obvious in me thougth once "use an a_sort float(53), insert using a fixed value of ordervaluefirstentry+abs(ordervaluefirstentry-ordervaluenextentry)/2".. but this would only allow around 1040 "in between" entries - so never resorting seems a bit problematic ;)

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  • modified closure warning in ReSharper

    - by Sarah Vessels
    I was hoping someone could explain to me what bad thing could happen in this code, which causes ReSharper to give an 'Access to modified closure' warning: bool result = true; foreach (string key in keys.TakeWhile(key => result)) { result = result && ContainsKey(key); } return result; Even if the code above seems safe, what bad things could happen in other 'modified closure' instances? I often see this warning as a result of using LINQ queries, and I tend to ignore it because I don't know what could go wrong. ReSharper tries to fix the problem by making a second variable that seems pointless to me, e.g. it changes the foreach line above to: bool result1 = result; foreach (string key in keys.TakeWhile(key => result1)) Update: on a side note, apparently that whole chunk of code can be converted to the following statement, which causes no modified closure warnings: return keys.Aggregate( true, (current, key) => current && ContainsKey(key) );

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  • Suggestions on how to implement a UI Element to display a long image in iPhone.

    - by Tattat
    I want to display a long image on iPhone. The user can swipe left or right to see difficult parts of the image. I want to spite the long image into different parts... for example, a long long image is 1000* 100; I want to display 100*100 for each time. When the image is loaded, it shows from x:0 to x:100. When user swipe right, it becomes x:101, x:200. When the user swipe left, it back to x:0, x:100, when the user continue to swipe right, it show x:201, x:300. I am thinking how to implement this specified imageView. I have two ideas now. First, make my own imageView, which super class is UIImageView, and overriding the swipe left, swipe right method. Second, make my own UIView. just implement the user swipe left/right action. Which way you think is better, or any better ideas on implement this? thz u.

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  • Why can't I pass a form field of type file to a CFFUNCTION using structure syntax?

    - by Eric Belair
    I'm trying to pass a form field of type "file" to a CFFUNCTION. The argument type is "any". Here is the syntax I am trying to use (pseudocode): <cfloop from="1" to="5" index="i"> <cfset fieldname = "attachment" & i /> <cfinvoke component="myComponent" method="attachFile"> <cfinvokeargument name="attachment" value="#FORM[fieldname]#" /> </cfinvoke> </cfloop> The loop is being done because there are five form fields named "attachment1", "attachment2", et al. This throws an exception in the function: coldfusion.tagext.io.FileTag$FormFileNotFoundException: The form field C:\ColdFusion8\...\neotmp25080.tmp did not contain a file. However, this syntax DOES work: <cfloop from="1" to="5" index="i"> <cfinvoke component="myComponent" method="attachFile"> <cfinvokeargument name="attachment" value="FORM.attachment#i#" /> </cfinvoke> </cfloop> I don't like writing code like that in the second example. It just seems like bad practice to me. So, can anyone tell me how to use structure syntax to properly pass a file type form field to a CFFUNCTION??

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  • How do I daemonize an arbitrary script in unix?

    - by dreeves
    I'd like a daemonizer that can turn an arbitrary, generic script or command into a daemon. There are two common cases I'd like to deal with: I have a script that should run forever. If it ever dies (or on reboot), restart it. Don't let there ever be two copies running at once (detect if a copy is already running and don't launch it in that case). I have a simple script or command line command that I'd like to keep executing repeatedly forever (with a short pause between runs). Again, don't allow two copies of the script to ever be running at once. Of course it's trivial to write a "while(true)" loop around the script in case 2 and then apply a solution for case 1, but a more general solution will just solve case 2 directly since that applies to the script in case 1 as well (you may just want a shorter or no pause if the script is not intended to ever die (of course if the script really does never die then the pause doesn't actually matter)). Note that the solution should not involve, say, adding file-locking code or PID recording to the existing scripts. More specifically, I'd like a program "daemonize" that I can run like % daemonize myscript arg1 arg2 or, for example, % daemonize 'echo `date` >> /tmp/times.txt' which would keep a growing list of dates appended to times.txt. (Note that if the argument(s) to daemonize is a script that runs forever as in case 1 above, then daemonize will still do the right thing, restarting it when necessary.) I could then put a command like above in my .login and/or cron it hourly or minutely (depending on how worried I was about it dying unexpectedly). NB: The daemonize script will need to remember the command string it is daemonizing so that if the same command string is daemonized again it does not launch a second copy. Also, the solution should ideally work on both OS X and linux but solutions for one or the other are welcome. (If I'm thinking of this all wrong or there are quick-and-dirty partial solutions, I'd love to hear that too.)

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  • how am I supposed to call the function?

    - by user1816768
    I wrote a program which tells you knight's movement (chess). For example if I wanted to know all possible moves, I'd input: possibilites("F4") and I'd get ['D3', 'D5', 'E2', 'E6', 'G2', 'G6', 'H3', 'H5'] as a result, ok I did that, next, I had to write a function in which you input two fields and if those fields are legal, you'd get True and if they're not you'd get False(I had to use the previous function). For example: legal("F4","D3") >>>True code: def legal(field1,field2): c=possibilities(field1) if field1 and field2 in a: return True return False I'm having a problem with the following function which I have to write: I have to put in path of the knight and my function has to tell me if it's legal path, I'm obliged to use the previous function. for example: >>> legal_way(["F3", "E1", "G2", "H4", "F5"]) True >>> legal_way(["F3", "E1", "G3", "H5"]) False >>> legal_way(["B4"]) True I know I have to loop through the list and put first and second item on it in legal(field1,field2) and if it's false, everything is false, but if it's true I have to continue to the end, and this has to work also if I have only one field. I'm stuck, what to do? def legal_way(way): a=len(way) for i in range(0,a-2): if a==1: return true else if legal(way[i],way[i+1]: return True return False and I get True or index out of range

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  • jQuery: How do I rewrite .after( content, content )?

    - by Evan Carroll
    I've got this form working, but according to my previous question it might not be supported: it isn't in the docs either way -- but the intention is pretty obvious in the code. $(".section.warranty .warranty_checks :last").after( $('<div class="little check" />').click( function () { alert('hi') } ) , $('<span>OEM</span>') /*Notice this (a second) argument */ ); What this does is insert <div class="little check"> with a simple .click() callback, followed by a sibling of <span>OEM</span>. How else can I write this then? I'm having difficulty conjuring something working by chaining any combination of .after(), and .insertAfter()? I would expect this to work, but it doesn't: $(".section.warranty .warranty_checks :last").after( $('<div class="little check" />').click( function () { alert('hi') } ).after ( $('<span>OEM</span>') ) ); I would also expect this to work, but it doesn't: $(".section.warranty .warranty_checks :last").after( $('<span>OEM</span>').insertAfter( $('<div class="little check" />').click( function () { alert('hi') } ) ); );

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  • UIImagePickerController Crash after 5 to 7 pictures - again

    - by Sophtware
    OK, I know this one has been beaten to death on this forum, but I'm still having the memory problem and I have tried all the techniques on the web to get around this. I have an application that uses the UIImagePickerController to capture an image from the camera. I've tried both creating and destroying the controller for each picture, and keeping it around for the life of the app. Both are failing. The first way crashes the phone almost immediately. While the second, leaving the controller around, crashes the app after about 5 to 7 pictures. My original app used an undocumented API to get around this issue, but Apple rejected it because of this. I really need to get my app to the store. Does anyone have code showing how they got around the issue? I know there is a way because there are apps on the store using the camera, but I just can't seem to get it. Any help is greatly appreciated! I can post my code here too, if needed.

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  • How to calculate how many lines (or records) can fit in the given page size

    - by devcoder
    My problem is to calculate the data (string) that can fit into the given page size (in inches). I have an application which creates plain vanilla HTML report without using any reporting controls. Now I have to provide paging support in this report. the report is dynamic in nature i.e. columns are decided at run time. Depending upon the page width, I want to wrap columns in multiple lines. For example, if the page width is 8", i want to fit only first 'n' columns in first line and rest columns can be displayed in second line (or more lines if required). For this I need to calculate how much data can fit in a 8" wide line. Similarly, I want to calculate the height of data that can fit into the given height of page. To summarize, how can I calculate how much data can fit into the given page size in inches. Note: The calculation should also consider the font as it is decided at run time.

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  • javascript countdown clock

    - by roi
    <script> var interval; var minutes = 1; var seconds = 5; window.onload = function() { countdown('countdown'); } function countdown(element) { interval = setInterval(function() { var el = document.getElementById(element); if(seconds == 0) { if(minutes == 0) { el.innerHTML = "countdown's over!"; clearInterval(interval); return; } else { minutes--; seconds = 60; } } if(minutes > 0) { var minute_text = minutes + (minutes > 1 ? ' minutes' : ' minute'); } else { var minute_text = ''; } var second_text = seconds > 1 ? 'seconds' : 'second'; el.innerHTML = minute_text + ' ' + seconds + ' ' + second_text + ' remaining'; seconds--; }, 1000); } </script> this is a good countdown clock and i want to show the time in datalist how do i do it? like in this site www.1buy1.co.il

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  • ASP.NET - Google Chrome caching DropDownList selections

    - by Fake
    I'm experiencing what seems to be a caching issue with Google Chrome and Safari on my cart page. In the cart there are 2 dropdown lists. When you hit the checkout button after changing the values in the dropdown lists, it commits what's selected in the lists to the database. It's a little bit hard to explain the unexpected behavior so I will try to write it out step by step with an illustration of my problem. Lets say the first dropdown list has the values of: VALUE1 VALUE2 VALUE3 And the second dropdown list has the values of: DUMBO1 DUMBO2 DUMBO3 I add an item to my cart. Screen Says: VALUE1, DUMBO1 Database Says: VALUE1, DUMBO1 I hit Checkout. Database says: VALUE1, DUMBO1 (I can't see the dropdown lists after I hit checkout because i'm not at the cart page) I hit the back button. Screen Says: VALUE1, DUMBO1 Database Says: VALUE1, DUMBO1 I drop down the VALUE1 combo and select VALUE2, VALUE2 is selected momentarily and then the site posts back and VALUE1 is re-selected in the drop down list (from being reloaded from the DB) MOMENTARILY Screen Says: VALUE2, DUMBO1 Database Says: VALUE1, DUMBO1 THEN AFTER POSTBACK FROM DROPDOWNLIST_SELECTIONCHANGED EVENT Screen Says: VALUE1, DUMBO1 Database Says: VALUE1, DUMBO1 Hit Checkout. Database Says VALUE1 ,DUMBO1 (I can't see the dropdown lists after I hit checkout because i'm not at the cart page) Go back. Screen Says: VALUE2, DUMBO1 Database Says: VALUE1, DUMBO1 So it appears that it's remembering my selection of VALUE2 even though it jumped back to VALUE1 before I checked out. It seems to be a caching problem, however I've got some no-cache code to prevent caching of that page that works great in firefox and internet explorer but seems to be failing in Chrome and Safari. I'm basically returning in the headers for the cart page: no-cache, no-store, and must-revalidate to attempt to prevent caching, but based on this scenario it seems to be caching the page anyway and not reloading it when I hit the back button. I am open to any solutions or suggestions at this point. Thanks!

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  • iPhone application purchase verification -- possible?

    - by Sedate Alien
    The iPhone 3.0 SDK's StoreKit.framework provides support for in-app purchases to give the user additional content, functionality and so on. It is possible for an app to send the transactionReceipt property of SKPaymentTransaction objects to the developer's server for verification of successful purchasing before granting service. Is there any analogous SDK to verify the initial application purchase itself? A developer that wishes for their server to only provide services to genuine applications (i.e. not pirated) without using IAP could do so by verifying the application in this manner, e.g. ensure that only users with the correct transactionReceipt are catered for. I understand that this approach would still be vulnerable to replay attacks; a dedicated group of pirates could share a valid transactionReceipt. However, my server provides a consumable service to users, i.e. once they've connected and done the work, it needn't work a second time so replay attacks are nullified. The service that my app provides is relatively niche. I could distribute it on the App Store as a free application that requires at least one IAP to do anything useful, but I am lead to believe that this would be a very unpopular move among users as it would be considered misleading. If I distribute it as a paid app, I do not know how to ensure that only genuine apps can access the webservice. This is important as every invocation of the webservice costs me money! What are my options?

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  • Using a single texture image unit with multiple sampler uniforms

    - by bcrist
    I am writing a batching system which tracks currently bound textures in order to avoid unnecessary glBindTexture() calls. I'm not sure if I need to keep track of which textures have already been used by a particular batch so that if a texture is used twice, it will be bound to a different TIU for the second sampler which requires it. Is it acceptable for an OpenGL application to use the same texture image unit for multiple samplers within the same shader stage? What about samplers in different shader stages? For example: Fragment shader: ... uniform sampler2D samp1; uniform sampler2D samp2; void main() { ... } Main program: ... glActiveTexture(GL_TEXTURE0); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, tex_id); glUniform1i(samp1_location, 0); glUniform1i(samp2_location, 0); ... I don't see any reason why this shouldn't work, but what about if the shader program also included a vertex shader like this: Vertex shader: ... uniform sampler2D samp1; void main() { ... } In this case, OpenGL is supposed to treat both instances of samp1 as the same variable, and exposes a single location for them. Therefore, the same texture unit is being used in the vertex and fragment shaders. I have read that using the same texture in two different shader stages counts doubly against GL_MAX_COMBINED_TEXTURE_IMAGE_UNITS but this would seem to contradict that. In a quick test on my hardware (HD 6870), all of the following scenarios worked as expected: 1 TIU used for 2 sampler uniforms in same shader stage 1 TIU used for 1 sampler uniform which is used in 2 shader stages 1 TIU used for 2 sampler uniforms, each occurring in a different stage. However, I don't know if this is behavior that I should expect on all hardware/drivers, or if there are performance implications.

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  • In C, when do structure names have to be included in structure initializations and definitions?

    - by Tyler
    I'm reading The C Programming Language by K&R and in the section on structures I came across these code snippets: struct maxpt = { 320, 200 }; and /* addpoints: add two points */ struct addpoint(struct point p1, struct point p2) { p1.x += p2.x; p1.y += p2.y; return p1; } In the first case, it looks like it's assigning the values 320 and 200 to the members of the variable maxpt. But I noticed the name of the struct type is missing (shouldn't it be "struct struct_name maxpt = {320, 200}"? In the second case, the function return type is just "struct" and not "struct name_of_struct". I don't get why they don't include the struct names - how does it know what particular type of structure it's dealing with? My confusion is compounded by the fact that in previous snippets they do include the structure name, such as in the return type for the following function, where it's "struct point" and not just "struct". Why do they include the name in some cases and not in others? /* makepoint: make a point from x and y components */ struct point makepoint(int x, int y) { struct point temp; temp.x = x; temp.y = y; return temp; }

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  • jquery select one class from many

    - by simnom
    Hi, I'm trying to achieve the following functionality. Within a form I have multiple fields with the class name .inputField if one of these fields is selected then the div associated with that element should be shown on focus and hidden on blur. However, when I implement the code below on selecting the second element the class is applied to both. Not sure where I'm going wrong?!?!? html markup: <form class="friendlyForm" name="friendlyForm" id="friendlyForm"> <ul> <li> <label for="testField">Test field</label> <input name="testField" value="here" class="inputField" id="testField" /> <div class="helper" style="display: none;">helper text here</div> </li> <li> <label for="testField">Test field2</label> <input name="testField2" value="here" class="inputField" id="testField2" /> <div class="helper" style="display: none;">helper text here</div> </li> </ul> </form> jQuery markup: $('.friendlyForm').find('.inputField').each(function(i) { $(this).blur(); $(this).focus(function() { //Add the focus class and fadeIn the helper div $(this).parent().addClass('focus'); $(this).parent().parent().find('.helper').fadeIn(); }); $(this).blur(function () { //Remove the focus class and fadeOut helper div $(this).parent().removeClass('focus'); $(this).parent().parent().find('.helper').fadeOut(); }); }); Any pointers here would be greatly appreciated. Thanks

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  • Get & set drop down value using jQuery.

    - by Muhammad Sajid
    If user select an option from dropdown it will shown it a textbox but if he select option having value "Other" then a row will appear to type value for other. my code works fine except when option value is not equal to "Other" <script type="text/javascript"><!-- function setAndReset(box) { if(box.value == 'Other'){ $("#ShowHide").hide(); } document.FormName.hiddenInput.value = box.value; } //--> </script> <body bgcolor="#ffffff"> <form id="FormName" action="" method="get" name="FormName"> <select name="choice1" size="1" onchange="setAndReset(this);"> <option value="one">first</option> <option value="two">second</option> <option value="three">third</option> <option value="other">Other</option> </select> <input type="text" name="hiddenInput" value=""> <tablt><tr id="ShowHide"><td> <input type="text" name="otherInput"> </td></tr></table> <input type="submit" name="submitButtonName"> </form> </body> but it does not show/hide & does not set value in textbox. If it's solve using jquery then i will be thankful to you for you code. Thanks.

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  • Saving image to the existing file throws "A generic error occurred in GDI+" error.

    - by ryan
    i am trying to create a overlapped image using different images,then saving to a particular location. so that i can use generated image(overlapped img) in my telerik reporting. it is important to me to save the overlapped image to the same location with same name. but generating this overlapped image second time throws throws "A generic error occurred in GDI+" error. Please help me with this. It seems i can not override the existing image file. i tried deleting the existing image every time i generate the new one. but its not allowing me deleting the file ,may be it is used by telerik reporting. Here is the image create method which takes the baseimage path, sectionimage path and the reportimage path (this is the target locationenter code here) public static void Creat(List<string> sectionNames, string reportImagePath, string baseImagePath) { var file = Image.FromFile(baseImagePath); Graphics g = Graphics.FromImage(file); foreach (var sectionName in sectionNames) { var image = Image.FromFile(sectionName); g.DrawImage(image, new PointF(0.0F, 0.0F)); } file.Save(reportImagePath, ImageFormat.Png); file.Dispose(); }

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