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• Why would dynamically changing the stroke type of a GestureOverlayView cause unusual behaviour?

  - by Rob Kent

  I recently introduced multi-stroke gestures into my application. This is a preference so I set the StrokeType dynamically in Activity.OnCreate. What I have discovered is that if you change the StrokeType so that it is different to the setting in the layout file, it changes the behaviour of the GestureOverlayView in the following way. The normal behaviour is that you draw a gesture and it stays on the screen after it is drawn. When you change the stroke type dynamically however, any gesture drawn on the screen disappears immediately after the OnGestureEnded event has fired. I reloaded the sample GesturesBuilder application and confirmed it has the same problem if you add the second line shown here: GestureOverlayView overlay = (GestureOverlayView) findViewById(R.id.gestures_overlay); overlay.setGestureStrokeType(GestureOverlayView.GESTURE_STROKE_TYPE_SINGLE); overlay.addOnGestureListener(new GesturesProcessor()); } The default in the layout is MULTIPLE but changing it to single changes the behaviour. If you keep the above line but set it to what it already is, the behaviour is not affected. Is this a bug in the Android gestures library and does anyone know a workaround? Note that this is on an HTC Magic so it could also be a handset issue.

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• Should .net comments start with a capital letter and end with a period?

  - by Hamish Grubijan

  Depending on the feedback I get, I might raise this "standard" with my colleagues. This might become a custom StyleCop rule. is there one written already? So, Stylecop already dictates this for summary, param, and return documentation tags. Do you think it makes sense to demand the same from comments? On related note: if a comment is already long, then should it be written as a proper sentence? For example (perhaps I tried too hard to illustrate a bad comment): //if exception quit vs. // If an exception occurred, then quit. If figured - most of the time, if one bothers to write a comment, then it might as well be informative. Consider these two samples: //if exception quit if (exc != null) { Application.Exit(-1); } and // If an exception occurred, then quit. if (exc != null) { Application.Exit(-1); } Arguably, one does not need a comment at all, but since one is provided, I would think that the second one is better. Please back up your opinion. Do you have a good reference for the art of commenting, particularly if it relates to .Net? Thanks.

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• throwing exception from APCProc crashes program

  - by lazy_banana

  I started to do some research on how terminate a multithreaded application properly and I found those 2 post(first, second) about how to use QueueUserAPC to signal other threads to terminate. I thought I should give it a try, and the application keeps crashing when I throw the exception from the APCProc. Code: #include <stdio.h> #include <windows.h> class ExitException { public: char *desc; DWORD exit_code; ExitException(char *desc,int exit_code): desc(desc), exit_code(exit_code) {} }; //I use this class to check if objects are deconstructed upon termination class Test { public: char *s; Test(char *s): s(s) { printf("%s ctor\n",s); } ~Test() { printf("%s dctor\n",s); } }; DWORD CALLBACK ThreadProc(void *useless) { try { Test t("thread_test"); SleepEx(INFINITE,true); return 0; } catch (ExitException &e) { printf("Thread exits\n%s %lu",e.desc,e.exit_code); return e.exit_code; } } void CALLBACK exit_apc_proc(ULONG_PTR param) { puts("In APCProc"); ExitException e("Application exit signal!",1); throw e; return; } int main() { HANDLE thread=CreateThread(NULL,0,ThreadProc,NULL,0,NULL); Sleep(1000); QueueUserAPC(exit_apc_proc,thread,0); WaitForSingleObject(thread,INFINITE); puts("main: bye"); return 0; } My question is why does this happen? I use mingw for compilation and my OS is 64bit. Can this be the reason?I read that you shouldn't call QueueApcProc from a 32bit app for a thread which runs in a 64bit process or vice versa, but this shouldn't be the case.

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• Implementing a non-public assignment operator with a public named method?

  - by Casey

  It is supposed to copy an AnimatedSprite. I'm having second thoughts that it has the unfortunate side effect of changing the *this object. How would I implement this feature without the side effect? EDIT: Based on new answers, the question should really be: How do I implement a non-public assignment operator with a public named method without side effects? (Changed title as such). public: AnimatedSprite& AnimatedSprite::Clone(const AnimatedSprite& animatedSprite) { return (*this = animatedSprite); } protected: AnimatedSprite& AnimatedSprite::operator=(const AnimatedSprite& rhs) { if(this == &rhs) return *this; destroy_bitmap(this->_frameImage); this->_frameImage = create_bitmap(rhs._frameImage->w, rhs._frameImage->h); clear_bitmap(this->_frameImage); this->_frameDimensions = rhs._frameDimensions; this->CalcCenterFrame(); this->_frameRate = rhs._frameRate; if(rhs._animation != nullptr) { delete this->_animation; this->_animation = new a2de::AnimationHandler(*rhs._animation); } else { delete this->_animation; this->_animation = nullptr; } return *this; }

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• rendering a TextView in a Bitmap for an android widget

  - by foke

  I'm building a widget which displays some text. By widget I mean the kind which lies on the desktop. The problem is that I want to change text's font at runtime. There is several textview I would like, at runtime, to set the first as bold, the second blue and italic for example, etc. I came up with this : TextView tv = new TextView(context); tv.setText(stringToDisplay); tv.setTextColor(0xa00050ff); // example tv.setTextSize(30); // example Bitmap b = loadBitmapFromView(tv); updateViews.setImageViewBitmap(R.id.id_of_the_imageview, b); with private static Bitmap loadBitmapFromView(View v) { Bitmap b = Bitmap.createBitmap(v.getLayoutParams().width, v.getLayoutParams().height, Bitmap.Config.ARGB_8888); Canvas c = new Canvas(b); v.layout(0, 0, v.getLayoutParams().width, v.getLayoutParams().height); v.draw(c); return b; } but it wont work (NullPointerException on first line of loadBitmap), until I replace v.getLayoutParams().width, v.getLayoutParams().height by fixed sizes like 250, 50 Bitmap b = Bitmap.createBitmap(250, 50, Bitmap.Config.ARGB_8888); // ... v.layout(0, 0, 250, 50); But that's not a good solution ... so I tried this : LayoutInflater li = (LayoutInflater) context.getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); View row = li.inflate(R.layout.widget_text, null); TextView tv = (TextView) row.findViewById(R.id.id_of_the_textview); widget_text being a layout similar to the displayed one but with TextViews instead of ImageViews, in the hope to get some size information out of it .. but it's not working and I get this exception : 01-02 17:35:06.001: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(11025): Caused by: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: width and height must be > 0 on the call to Bitmap.createBitmap() so, someone could point me in the right direction?

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• In Rails, how would I include a section of a page only if the rest of the page doesn't match a certain regexp?

  - by Simon

  We have a site with a lot of user-generated content, and we'd like to show Google ads on it. Some of the content is such that we mustn't show the ads on pages containing that content, or else the whole site gets banned. We've come up with a regexp which we think will match all the offending content. So, three approaches come to mind: Render the page once without the ad section, and then insert the ad section into it if it's clean Render the page as normal, and do the insertion in client-side javascript Render the page above the ad section, capturing only the parts of the page that change; make sure there are no changing parts afterwards. Only show the ads if the captured text is clean, and make sure the unchanging, uncaptured parts are well-vetted in advance. The first one seems like it might delay the page rendering for too long; the second seems like it might delay showing the ads too long; and the third seems too fragile. Is there a better approach? If not, which one is the best solution of the three?

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• When is it possible to override top-level bindings in (R7RS) scheme?

  - by Marc

  I have read the current draft of the forthcoming R7RS scheme standard (small language), but I don't understand under which conditions it is not an error to redefine top-level bindings. I guess that it is possible to define or set! a binding that has been introduced at the top-level of a program a second time. But what about imported bindings from an external library? Is it possible to override these bindings by the standard? On page 26/27 of the report, it says: The top level of a program may also include import declarations. In a library declaration, it is an error to import the same identifier more than once with different bindings, or to redefine or mutate an imported binding with define, define-syntax or set!. However, a REPL should permit these actions. Does it mean that redefining is only an error when it does happen in libraries for imported bindings? I understand that it prohibits optimisations by compilers if the compiler does not know whether, say + still means the built-in addition or is any other user-specified error. But from this perspective, it does not make sense to restrict forbidding to rebind on the library level, when it would also make sense (at least) for imported bindings in programs. P.S.: As this is all about the environment of a scheme program: am I right in saying that environments are not first class citizens because one cannot get hold of the current environment? (Which, in turn, allows a compiled program to forget about the chosen names of the bindings.)

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• Replace beginning words(SQL SERVER 2005, SET BASED)

  - by Newbie

  I have the below tables. tblInput Id WordPosition Words -- ----------- ----- 1 1 Hi 1 2 How 1 3 are 1 4 you 2 1 Ok 2 2 This 2 3 is 2 4 me tblReplacement Id ReplacementWords --- ---------------- 1 Hi 2 are 3 Ok 4 This The tblInput holds the list of words while the tblReplacement hold the words that we need to search in the tblInput and if a match is found then we need to replace those. But the problem is that, we need to replace those words if any match is found at the beginning. i.e. in the tblInput, in case of ID 1, the words that will be replaced is only 'Hi' and not 'are' since before 'are', 'How' is there and it is not in the tblReplacement list. in case of Id 2, the words that will be replaced are 'Ok' & 'This'. Since these both words are present in the tblReplacement table and after the first word i.e. 'Ok' is replaced, the second word which is 'This' here comes first in the list of ID category 2 . Since it is available in the tblReplacement, and is the first word now, so this will also be replaced. So the desired output will be Id NewWordsAfterReplacement --- ------------------------ 1 How 1 are 1 you 2 is 2 me My approach so far: ;With Cte1 As( Select t1.Id ,t1.Words ,t2.ReplacementWords From tblInput t1 Cross Join tblReplacement t2) ,Cte2 As( Select Id, NewWordsAfterReplacement = REPLACE(Words,ReplacementWords,'') From Cte1) Select * from Cte2 where NewWordsAfterReplacement <> '' But I am not getting the desired output. It is replacing all the matching words. Urgent help needed*.( SET BASED )* I am using SQL SERVER 2005. Thanks

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• Ways to access a 32bit DLL from a 64bit exe

  - by bufferz

  I have a project that must be compiled and run in 64 bit mode. Unfortunately, I am required to call upon a DLL that is only available in 32 bit mode, so there's no way I can house everything in a 1 Visual Studio project. I am working to find the best way to wrap the 32 bit DLL in its own exe/service and issue remote (although on the same machine) calls to that exe/service from my 64 bit app. My OS is Win7 Pro 64 bit. The required calls to this 32 bit process are several dozen per second, but low data volume. This is a realtime image analysis application so response time is critical despite low volume. Lots of sending/receiving single primitives. Ideally, I would host a WCF service to house this DLL, but in a 64 bit OS one cannot force the service to run as x86! Source. That is really unfortunate since I timed function calls to the WCF service to be only 4ms on my machine. I have experimented with named pipes is .net. I found them to be 40-50 times slower than WCF (unusable for me). Any other options or suggestions for the best way to approach my puzzle?

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• Asynchronous Controller is blocking requests in ASP.NET MVC through jQuery

  - by Jason

  I have just started using the AsyncController in my project to take care of some long-running reports. Seemed ideal at the time since I could kick off the report and then perform a few other actions while waiting for it to come back and populate elements on the screen. My controller looks a bit like this. I tried to use a thread to perform the long task which I'd hoped would free up the controller to take more requests: public class ReportsController : AsyncController { public void LongRunningActionAsync() { AsyncManager.OutstandingOperations.Increment(); var newThread = new Thread(LongTask); newThread.Start(); } private void LongTask() { // Do something that takes a really long time //....... AsyncManager.OutstandingOperations.Decrement(); } public ActionResult LongRunningActionCompleted(string message) { // Set some data up on the view or something... return View(); } public JsonResult AnotherControllerAction() { // Do a quick task... return Json("..."); } } But what I am finding is that when I call LongRunningAction using the jQuery ajax request, any further requests I make after that back up behind it and are not processed until LongRunningAction completes. For example, call LongRunningAction which takes 10 seconds and then call AnotherControllerAction which is less than a second. AnotherControllerAction simply waits until LongRunningAction completes before returning a result. I've also checked the jQuery code, but this still happens if I specifically set "async: true": $.ajax({ async: true, type: "POST", url: "/Reports.aspx/LongRunningAction", dataType: "html", success: function(data, textStatus, XMLHttpRequest) { // ... }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { // ... } }); At the moment I just have to assume that I'm using it incorrectly, but I'm hoping one of you guys can clear my mental block!

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• What's the best practice for handling system-specific information under version control?

  - by Joe

  I'm new to version control, so I apologize if there is a well-known solution to this. For this problem in particular, I'm using git, but I'm curious about how to deal with this for all version control systems. I'm developing a web application on a development server. I have defined the absolute path name to the web application (not the document root) in two places. On the production server, this path is different. I'm confused about how to deal with this. I could either: Reconfigure the development server to share the same path as the production Edit the two occurrences each time production is updated. I don't like #1 because I'd rather keep the application flexible for any future changes. I don't like #2 because if I start developing on a second development server with a third path, I would have to change this for every commit and update. What is the best way to handle this? I thought of: Using custom keywords and variable expansion (such as setting the property $PATH$ in the version control properties and having it expanded in all the files). Git doesn't support this because it would be a huge performance hit. Using post-update and pre-commit hooks. Possibly the likely solution for git, but every time I looked at the status, it would report the two files as being changed. Not really clean. Pulling the path from a config file outside of version control. Then I would have to have the config file in the same location on all servers. Might as well just have the same path to begin with. Is there an easy way to deal with this? Am I over thinking it?

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• How to get the real, actual duration of an MP3 file (VBR or CBR) server-side

  - by Cummander Checkov

  I used to calculate the duration of MP3 files server-side using ffmpeg - which seemed to work fine. Today i discovered that some of the calculations were wrong. Somehow, for some reason, ffmpeg will miscalculate the duration and it seems to happen with variable bit rate mp3 files only. When testing this locally, i noticed that ffmpeg printed two extra lines in green. Command used: ffmpeg -i song_9747c077aef8.mp3 ffmpeg says: [mp3 @ 0x102052600] max_analyze_duration 5000000 reached at 5015510 [mp3 @ 0x102052600] Estimating duration from bitrate, this may be inaccurate After a nice, warm google session, i found some posts on this, but no solution was found. I then tried to increase the maximum duration: ffmpeg -analyzeduration 999999999 -i song_9747c077aef8.mp3 After this, ffmpeg returned only the second line: [mp3 @ 0x102052600] Estimating duration from bitrate, this may be inaccurate But in either case, the calculated duration was just plain wrong. Comparing it to VLC i noticed that here the duration is correct. After more research i stumbled over mp3info - which i installed and used. mp3info -p "%S" song_9747c077aef8.mp3 mp3info then returned the CORRECT duration, but only as an integer, which i cannot use as i need a more accurate number here. The reason for this was explained in a comment below, by user blahdiblah - mp3info is simply pulling ID3 info from the file and not actually performing any calculations. I also tried using mplayer to retrieve the duration, but just as ffmpeg, mplayer is returning the wrong value. Now i ran out of options. If somebody knows how to get around this, any hints, tips, guides or corrections are welcome! Thank You!

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• Pass variable by Post method from JQuery UI Autocomplete to PHP page

  - by Shahriar N Khondokar

  I have two JQuery UI autocomplete input fields. When an option is selected in the first one, the value of the selection will be used as condition for a database query that will send the source data for the second autocomplete field. My problem is how do I send the value of the first selection to the PHP page via Post method? The code so far is shown below (this code is from a tutorial which used the GET method; but I want to use Post): <script> $("input#divisions").autocomplete ({ //this is the first input source : [ { value: "81", label: "City1" }, { value: "82", label: "City2" }, { value: "83", label: "City3" } ], minLength : 0, select: function(event, ui) { $('#divisions').val(ui.item.label); return false; }, focus: function(event, ui){ $('#divisions').val(ui.item.label); return false; }, change: function(event, ui){ //the tutorial has this value sent by variables in the URL; I want the selection value sent by POST. How can I change this? c_t_v_choices = "c_t_v_choices.php?filter=" + ui.item.value; $("#c_t_v").autocomplete("option", "source", c_t_v_choices); } }).focus (function (event) { $(this).autocomplete ("search", ""); }); $("#c_t_v").autocomplete({ source: "", minLength: 2, select: function(event,ui){ //$('#city').val(ui.item.city); } }); </script> Can anyone please help? Dont hesitate to let me know if you have any questions.

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• DataTrigger not reevaluating after property changes

  - by frozen

  I have a listbox which has its itemssource (this is done in the code behind on as the window is created) databound to an observable collection. The List box then has the following data template assigned against the items: usercontrol.xaml ... <ListBox x:Name="communicatorListPhoneControls" ItemContainerStyle="{StaticResource templateForCalls}"/> ... app.xaml ... <Style x:Key="templateForCalls" TargetType="{x:Type ListBoxItem}"> <Setter Property="ContentTemplate" Value="{StaticResource templateRinging}"/> <Style.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Path=hasBeenAnswered}" Value="True"> <Setter Property="ContentTemplate" Value="{StaticResource templateAnswered}"/> </DataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> ... When the observable collection is updated with an object, this appears in the listbox with the correct initial datatemplate, however when the "hasBeenAnswered" property is set to true (when debugging i can see the collection is correct) the datatrigger does not re-evaluate and then update the listbox to use the correct data template. I have implemented the INotifyPropertyChanged Event in my object, and if in the template i bind to a value, i can see the value update. Its just that the datatrigger will not re-evaluate and change to the correct template. I know the datatrigger binding is correct because if i close the window and open it again, it will correctly apply the second datatemplate, because the "hasBeenAnswered" is set to True.

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• C++ Conceptual problem with (Pointer) Pointers

  - by Ptr

  I have a structure usually containing a pointer to an int. However, in some special cases, it is necessary that this int pointer points to another pointer which then points to an int. Wow: I mentioned the word pointer 5 times so far! Is this even possible? I thought about it that way: Instead of using a second int pointer, which is most likely not possible as my main int pointer can only point to an int and not to another int pointer, I could make it a reference like this: int intA = 1; int intB = 2; int& intC = intB; int* myPointers[ 123 ]; myPointers[ 0 ] = &intA; myPointers[ 1 ] = &intB; myPointers[ 3 ] = &intC; So the above would do what I want: The reference to intB (intC) behaves quite like I want it to (If it gets changed it also changes intB) The problem: I can't change references once they are set, right? Or is there a way? Everything in short: How do I get a value to work with * (pointers) and ** (pointers to pointers)?

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• Linq to Entities Joins

  - by Bob Avallone

  I have a question about joins when using Linq to Entities. According to the documentation the use on the join without a qualifier performs like a left outer join. However when I execute the code below, I get a count returned of zero. But if I comment out the three join lines I get a count of 1. That would indicate that the join are acting as inner join. I have two questions. One which is right inner or outer as the default? Second how do I do the other one i.e. inner or outer? The key words on inner and outer do not work. var nprs = (from n in db.FMCSA_NPR join u in db.FMCSA_USER on n.CREATED_BY equals u.ID join t in db.LKUP_NPR_TYPE on n.NPR_TYPE_ID equals t.ID join s in db.LKUP_AUDIT_STATUS on n.NPR_STATUS_ID equals s.ID where n.ROLE_ID == pRoleId && n.OWNER_ID == pOwnerId && n.NPR_STATUS_ID == pNPRStatusId && n.ACTIVE == pActive select n).ToList(); if (nprs.Count() == 0) return null;

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• How to optimalize my game calendar in C#?

  - by MartyIX

  Hi, I've implemented a simple calendar (message system) for my game which consists from: 1) List<Event> calendar; 2) public class Event { /// <summary> /// When to process the event /// </summary> public Int64 when; /// <summary> /// Which object should process the event /// </summary> public GameObject who; /// <summary> /// Type of event /// </summary> public EventType what; public int posX; public int posY; public int EventID; } 3) calendar.Add(new Event(...)) The problem with this code is that even thought the number of messages is not excessise per second. It allocates still new memory and GC will once need to take care of that. The garbage collection may lead to a slight lag in my game and therefore I'd like to optimalize my code. My considerations: To change Event class in a structure - but the structure is not entirely small and it takes some time to copy it wherever I need it. Reuse Event object somehow (add queue with used events and when new event is needed I'll just take from this queue). Does anybody has other idea how to solve the problem? Thanks for suggestions!

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• codeigniter differentiate field names in JOINed tables

  - by Patrick

  Hi, I need to retrieve data from two tables. the first is a list of events, the second is a list of venues. I have a fields with the same name in both tables: events.venue (which is an ID) and venues.venue is the name of the place, say "blues bar". The tables can be joined on events.venue = venues.id. Snippet of my model: $this->db->select('events.*, venues.*'); $this->db->join('venues', 'events.venue = venues.id'); if ($date != 'all') { $this->db->where('date', $date); } if ($keyword) { $this->db->like('description', $keyword); $this->db->or_like('band', $keyword); $this->db->or_like('venue', $keyword); $this->db->or_like('genre', $keyword); } $Q = $this->db->get('events'); if ($Q->num_rows() > 0) { foreach ($Q->result() as $row) { $data[] = $row; } } $Q->free_result(); return $data; Snippet of the View: foreach ($events as $row) { echo "<p>{$row->band} ({$row->genre})<br />"; echo "Playing at: {$row->venue}<br /></p>"; // echoes "blues bar" //more here... } 2 Questions: 1) Why does $row-venue echo venues.venue, instead of events.venue? B) how can I differentiate them? eg. What if I want to echo both events.venue and venues.venue? I can probably do something like "SELECT venues.venue as name_of_the_venue", but how can I do this when I've already selected *?

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• Task Parallel Library exception handling

  - by user1680766

  When handling exceptions in TPL tasks I have come across two ways to handle exceptions. The first catches the exception within the task and returns it within the result like so: var task = Task<Exception>.Factory.StartNew( () => { try { // Do Something return null; } catch (System.Exception e) { return e; } }); task.ContinueWith( r => { if (r.Result != null) { // Handle Exception } }); The second is the one shown within the documentation and I guess the proper way to do things: var task = Task.Factory.StartNew( () => { // Do Something }); task.ContinueWith( r => { if (r.Exception != null) { // Handle Aggregate Exception r.Exception.Handle(y => true); } }); I am wondering if there is anything wrong with the first approach? I have received 'unhandled aggregate exception' exceptions every now and again using this technique and was wondering how this can happen?

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• Linear Interpolation. How to implement this algorithm in C ? (Python version is given)

  - by psihodelia

  There exists one very good linear interpolation method. It performs linear interpolation requiring at most one multiply per output sample. I found its description in a third edition of Understanding DSP by Lyons. This method involves a special hold buffer. Given a number of samples to be inserted between any two input samples, it produces output points using linear interpolation. Here, I have rewritten this algorithm using Python: temp1, temp2 = 0, 0 iL = 1.0 / L for i in x: hold = [i-temp1] * L temp1 = i for j in hold: temp2 += j y.append(temp2 *iL) where x contains input samples, L is a number of points to be inserted, y will contain output samples. My question is how to implement such algorithm in ANSI C in a most effective way, e.g. is it possible to avoid the second loop? NOTE: presented Python code is just to understand how this algorithm works. UPDATE: here is an example how it works in Python: x=[] y=[] hold=[] num_points=20 points_inbetween = 2 temp1,temp2=0,0 for i in range(num_points): x.append( sin(i*2.0*pi * 0.1) ) L = points_inbetween iL = 1.0/L for i in x: hold = [i-temp1] * L temp1 = i for j in hold: temp2 += j y.append(temp2 * iL) Let's say x=[.... 10, 20, 30 ....]. Then, if L=1, it will produce [... 10, 15, 20, 25, 30 ...]

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• jquery toggling more than one div

  - by Crays

  Hi guys, i'm trying to make toggling div with only 1 javascript. I tried this, the first div does what it was meant to do but the second doesn't. Have a look. <body> <div> <div>He <div>You <div id="Me"><a id="me">Me</a></div> </div> </div> <div id="This">We </div> </div> <div> <div>1 <div>2 <div id="Me"><a id="me">3</a></div> </div> </div> <div id="This">4 </div> </div> <script> $("#me").click(function () { $(this).parent().parent().parent().siblings("#This").slideToggle("slow"); }); </script> </body> when i click me, we disappear, alright. But when i click 3, 4 doesn't disappear.

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• Sort queryset by a generic foreign key (django)?

  - by thornomad

  I am using Django's comment framework which utilizes generic foreign keys. Question: How do I sort a given model's queryset by their comment count using the generic foreign key lookup? Reading the django docs on the subject it says one needs to calculate them not using the aggregation API: Django's database aggregation API doesn't work with a GenericRelation. [...] For now, if you need aggregates on generic relations, you'll need to calculate them without using the aggregation API. The only way I can think of, though, would be to iterate through my queryset, generate a list with content_type and object_id's for each item, then run a second queryset on the Comment model filtering by this list of content_type and object_id ... sort the objects by the count, then re-create a new queryset in this order by pulling the content_object for each comment ... This just seems wrong and I'm not even sure how to pull it off. Ideas? Someone must have done this before. I found this post online but it requires me handwriting SQL -- is that really necessary ?

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• Java: Inputting text from a file using split

  - by 00PS

  I am inputting an adjacency list for a graph. There are three columns of data (vertex, destination, edge) separated by a single space. Here is my implementation so far: FileStream in = new FileStream("input1.txt"); Scanner s = new Scanner(in); String buffer; String [] line = null; while (s.hasNext()) { buffer = s.nextLine(); line = buffer.split("\\s+"); g.add(line[0]); System.out.println("Added vertex " + line[0] + "."); g.addEdge(line[0], line[1], Integer.parseInt(line[2])); System.out.println("Added edge from " + line[0] + " to " + line[1] + " with a weight of " + Integer.parseInt(line[2]) + "."); } System.out.println("Size of graph = " + g.size()); Here is the output: Added vertex a. Added edge from a to b with a weight of 9. Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NullPointerException at structure5.GraphListDirected.addEdge(GraphListDirected.java:93) at Driver.main(Driver.java:28) I was under the impression that line = buffer.split("\\s+"); would return a 2 dimensional array of Strings to the variable line. It seemed to work the first time but not the second. Any thoughts? I would also like some feedback on my implementation of this problem. Is there a better way? Anything to help out a novice! :)

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• How to strengthen Mysql database server Security?

  - by i need help

  If we were to use server1 for all files (file server), server2 for mysql database (database server). In order for websites in server1 to access to the database in server2, isn't it needed to connect to to ip address of second (mysql server) ? In this case, is remote mysql connection. However, I seen from some people comment on the security issue. remote access to MySQL is not very secure. When your remote computer first connects to your MySQL database, the password is encrypted before being transmitted over the Internet. But after that, all data is passed as unencrypted "plain text". If someone was able to view your connection data (such as a "hacker" capturing data from an unencrypted WiFi connection you're using), that person would be able to view part or all of your database. So I just wondering ways to secure it? Allow remote mysql access from server1 by allowing the static ip adress allow remote access from server 1 by setting port allowed to connect to 3306 change 3306 to other port? Any advice?

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• Deleting from 2 arrays of dictionaries

  - by Matt Winters

  I have an array of dictionaries loaded from a plist (below) called arrayHistory. <plist version="1.0"> <array> <dict> <key>item</key> <string>1</string> <key>result</key> <string>8.1</string> <key>date</key> <date>2009-12-15T19:36:59Z</date> </dict> ... </array> </plist> I filter this array based on 'item' so that a second array, arrayHistoryDetail has the same structure as arrayHistory but only contains e.g. 'item's equal to '1'. These detail items are successfully displayed in a tableView. I then want to select an item from the tableView, and delete it from the tableView data source, arrayHistoryDetail (line 2 in the code below) - works, then I want to delete the item from the tableView itself (line 3 in the code below) - also works. My problem is that I also need to delete it from the original arrayHistory, so I tried the following: created a temporary dictionary as an ivar: NSMutableDictionary *tempDict; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableDictionary *tempDict; Then my thinking was to make a copy in line 1 and remove it from the original array in line 4. 1 tempDict = [arrayHistoryDetail objectAtIndex: indexPath.row]; 2 [arrayHistoryDetail removeObjectAtIndex: indexPath.row]; 3 [tableView deleteRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:indexPath] withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationFade]; 4 [arrayHistory removeObject:tempDict]; Didn't work. Could someone please guide me in the right direction. I'm thinking that tempDict is a pointer and that removeObject needs a copy? I don't know. Thanks.

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