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  • Problem Render backbone collection using Mustache template

    - by RameshVel
    I am quite new to backbone js and Mustache. I am trying to load the backbone collection (Object array) on page load from rails json object to save the extra call . I am having troubles rendering the backbone collection using mustache template. My model & collection are var Item = Backbone.Model.extend({ }); App.Collections.Items= Backbone.Collection.extend({ model: Item, url: '/items' }); and view App.Views.Index = Backbone.View.extend({ el : '#itemList', initialize: function() { this.render(); }, render: function() { $(this.el).html(Mustache.to_html(JST.item_template(),this.collection )); //var test = {name:"test",price:100}; //$(this.el).html(Mustache.to_html(JST.item_template(),test )); } }); In the above view render, i can able to render the single model (commented test obeject), but not the collections. I am totally struck here, i have tried with both underscore templating & mustache but no luck. And this is the Template <li> <div> <div style="float: left; width: 70px"> <a href="#"> <img class="thumbnail" src="http://placehold.it/60x60" alt=""> </a> </div> <div style="float: right; width: 292px"> <h4> {{name}} <span class="price">Rs {{price}}</span></h4> </div> </div> </li> and my object array kind of looks like this

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  • Conditional operator in Mako using Pylons

    - by Antoine Leclair
    In PHP, I often use the conditional operator to add an attribute to an html element if it applies to the element in question. For example: <select name="blah"> <option value="1"<?= $blah == 1 ? ' selected="selected"' : '' ?>> One </option> <option value="2"<?= $blah == 2 ? ' selected="selected"' : '' ?>> Two </option> </select> I'm starting a project with Pylons using Mako for the templating. How can I achieve something similar? Right now, I see two possibilities that are not ideal. Solution 1: <select name="blah"> % if blah == 1: <option value="1" selected="selected">One</option> % else: <option value="1">One</option> % endif % if blah == 2: <option value="2" selected="selected">Two</option> % else: <option value="2">Two</option> % endif </select> Solution 2: <select name="blah"> <option value="1" % if blah == 1: selected="selected" % endif >One</option> <option value="2" % if blah == 2: selected="selected" % endif >Two</option> </select> In this particular case, the value is equal to the variable tested (value="1" = blah == 1), but I use the same pattern in other situations, like <?= isset($variable) ? ' value="$variable" : '' ?>. I am looking for a clean way to achieve this using Mako.

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  • why is OOP hard for me?

    - by netrox
    I have trouble writing OOP in PHP... I understand the concept but I never create classes for my projects... mainly because it's often a small project and nothing complex. But when I read OOP, it seems more difficult to code than writing simple procedural statements. It also seems to take a lot of room as well with so many empty abstract classes and that can be easily lost in the land of objects... it's becoming like a junkyard to me. Also, I noticed that virtually all instructions on how to use OOP use "car" or "cat" or "dog" analogies. Hello... we're not dealing with animals or cars... we're dealing with windows or consoles. You can talk about analogies to death and I will never learn. What I want is see a code that's written to show how objects are created - not, "aCow-moo!" For example, I want to see a browser window object displaying say... three inputs. I want to see an "object" created to output a window with three inputs then I want to see how overriding works, like change the window object to display only two inputs instead of three inputs. I think that would make learning more easy, wouldn't it? Any recommended tutorials of that nature instead of quacks, moos, and woofs.

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  • Inserting javascript with jQuery .html

    - by Andrew Appleby
    I'm experiencing an issue with a website I'm working on, where I originally believed I could simply replace $("main").html('THIS') which was originally code for a flash object, with a new and improved HTML5/Javascript version. The original code: $("#main").html('<div style="height: 100%; width: 100%; overflow: hidden;"><object width="100%" height="100%" codebase="http://fpdownload.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=8,0,0,0" classid="clsid:d27cdb6e-ae6d-11cf-96b8-444553540000">\ <param value="images/uploads/'+image_id+'.swf" name="movie">\ <param value="true" name="allowFullScreen">\ <param value="#737373" name="bgcolor">\ <param value="" name="FlashVars">\ <embed width="100%" height="100%" flashvars="" bgcolor="#737373" allowfullscreen="true" src="images/uploads/'+image_id+'.swf" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" pluginspage="http://www.macromedia.com/go/getflashplayer">\ </object></div>\ '); }); And my (failed) attempt at inserting my new code: $("#main").html('<script type="text/javascript">pano=new pano2vrPlayer("container");skin=new pano2vrSkin(pano);pano.readConfigUrl("xml/tablet_'+image_id+'.xml");hideUrlBar();</script>'); It doesn't even work when I just put , so I know it's gotta be the javascript itself. I've looked at the solutions out there, but I can't make sense in how to properly implement them here in the most efficient way. Your help is much appreciated, thanks!

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  • How am I able to create A List<T> containing a generic Interface?

    - by Conrad Clark
    I have a List which must contain IInteract Objects. But IInteract is a generic interface which requires 2 type arguments. My main idea is iterate through a list of Objects and "Interact" one with another if they didn't interact yet. So i have this object List<IObject> WorldObjects = new List<IObject>(); and this one: private List<IInteract> = new List<IInteract>(); Except I can't compile the last line because IInteract requires 2 type arguments. But I don't know what the arguments are until I add them. I could add interactions between Objects of Type A and A... or Objects of Type B and C. I want to create "Interaction" classes which do something with the "acting" object and the "target" object, but I want them to be independent from the objects... so I could add an Interaction between for instance... "SuperUltraClass" and... an "integer". Am I using the wrong approach?

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  • Read specific line from text file, according to Checked Listbox selection number.

    - by Manolis
    Heya, i want to create an application which will read a specific line from a text file and show it in a textbox. The line will be chosen according to the number of the listbox selection i will make. Here's the code: Public Class Form1 Private Sub Form1_Load(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles MyBase.Load End Sub Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim i As Integer For i = 0 To Me.CheckedListBox1.CheckedIndices.Count - 1 Me.CheckedListBox1.SetItemChecked(Me.CheckedListBox1.CheckedIndices(0),False) Next i End Sub Private Sub Button2_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button2.Click If CheckedListBox1.CheckedItems.Count <> 0 Then Dim reader As New System.IO.StreamReader(CurDir() & "\" & "READ.txt") Dim x As Integer Dim s As String = "" For x = 0 To CheckedListBox1.CheckedItems.Count - 1 s = s & "Answer " & (x + 1).ToString & ") " & CheckedListBox1.CheckedItems(x).ToString & ControlChars.CrLf & reader.ReadLine() & ControlChars.CrLf & ControlChars.CrLf Next x Answer.Text = (s) Else MessageBox.Show("Please select questions.", "Error", _ MessageBoxButtons.OK, _ MessageBoxIcon.Information) Return End If End Sub End Class So lets say i 'check' the first, second, and fifth items from the checked listbox, i want it to read from the text file the first, second, and fifth lines of text and show them in the textbox. The current code just reads line 1, 2, 3 (...) in order, no matter what item i have 'checked'. Thanks in advance!

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  • Array of templated structs

    - by Jakub Mertlik
    I have structs templated by int derived from a Base struct. struct Base { int i; double d; }; template< int N > struct Derv : base { static const int mN = N; }; I need to make an array of Derv< N where N can vary for each struct in that array. I know C/C++ does not allow arrays of objects of different types, but is there a way around this? I was thinking of separating the type information somehow (hints like pointers to Base struct or usage of union spring to my mind, but with all of these I don't know how to store the type information of each array element for usage DURING COMPILE TIME). As you can see, the memory pattern of each Derv< N is the same. I need to access the type of each array element for template specialization later in my code. The general aim of this all is to have a compile-time dispatch mechanism without the need to do a runtime "type switch" somewhere in the code. Thank you.

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  • Constructor and Destructors in C++ [Not a question] [closed]

    - by Jack
    I am using gcc. Please tell me if I am wrong - Lets say I have two classes A & B class A { public: A(){cout<<"A constructor"<<endl;} ~A(){cout<<"A destructor"<<endl;} }; class B:public A { public: B(){cout<<"B constructor"<<endl;} ~B(){cout<<"B destructor"<<endl;} }; 1) The first line in B's constructor should be a call to A's constructor ( I assume compiler automatically inserts it). Also the last line in B's destructor will be a call to A's destructor (compiler does it again). Why was it built this way? 2) When I say A * a = new B(); compiler creates a new B object and checks to see if A is a base class of B and if it is it allows 'a' to point to the newly created object. I guess that is why we don't need any virtual constructors. ( with help from @Tyler McHenry , @Konrad Rudolph) 3) When I write delete a compiler sees that a is an object of type A so it calls A's destructor leading to a problem which is solved by making A's destructor virtual. As user - Little Bobby Tables pointed out to me all destructors have the same name destroy() in memory so we can implement virtual destructors and now the call is made to B's destructor and all is well in C++ land. Please comment.

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  • Swapping content in a seperate div on hover

    - by Fuego DeBassi
    I feel like this should work: $(".module .one").hover(function() { $("#viewport #one").addClass('red'); }); Basically I am hiding all the .children of "#viewport on load, then when a seperate element is hovered, in this case .module .one I want to change something on the corresponding viewport ID #viewport #one. Basic idea is a variable content window, where when a thumbnail or whatever I put in the modules swaps the content shown in the viewport. Something I am doing wrong? Here is my full code: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".module .caption").hide(); $("#viewport").children().hide(); $(".module").hover(function() { $(this).find(".caption").slideDown().end().siblings('.module').addClass('under'); },function() { $(this).find(".caption").slideUp().end().siblings('.module').removeClass('under'); }); $(".module .one").hover(function() { $("#viewport #one").addClass('red'); }); }); </script> The bigger hover function in the middle is for some fancy rollover effects that the modules will perform themselves, but for these purposes I just want to figure out why I can't add a Class to a separate element when another is hovered. Would love some help/advice!

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  • Natural problems to solve using closures

    - by m.u.sheikh
    I have read quite a few articles on closures, and, embarassingly enough, I still don't understand this concept! Articles explain how to create a closure with a few examples, but I don't see any point in paying much attention to them, as they largely look contrived examples. I am not saying all of them are contrived, just that the ones I found looked contrived, and I dint see how even after understanding them, I will be able to use them. So in order to understand closures, I am looking at a few real problems, that can be solved very naturally using closures. For instance, a natural way to explain recursion to a person could be to explain the computation of n!. It is very natural to understand a problem like computing the factorial of a number using recursion. Similarly, it is almost a no-brainer to find an element in an unsorted array by reading each element, and comparing with the number in question. Also, at a different level, doing Object-oriented programming also makes sense. So I am trying to find a number of problems that could be solved with or without closures, but using closures makes thinking about them and solving them easier. Also, there are two types to closures, where each call to a closure can create a copy of the environment variables, or reference the same variables. So what sort of problems can be solved more naturally in which of the closure implementations?

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  • InvalidCastException when getting Text from a Label referenced by dynamicaly built String, Fix?

    - by Chris
    NET Version: 3.5 Ok, I recieve an error (System.InvalidCastException was unhandled. Message="Unable to cast object of type 'System.Windows.Forms.Control[]' to type 'System.Windows.Forms.Label'.") when trying to get Text from a Label referenced by a dynamicly built string. Here's my situation; I have an array of 250 labels named l1 - l250. What I want to do is loop through them using this while statement: int c = 1; while (c < 251) { string k = "l" + c.ToString(); //dynamic name of Control(Label) object ka = Controls.Find(k, true); string ct = ((Label)ka).Text; //<<Error Occurs Here build = build + ct; c++; } and get the text value of each to build a string named build. I don't get any build errors, just this while debuging. While debuging I can go down to view my local variables. When looking through these, I can view the contents of object ka; it does contain the correct Text value of the correct Label I want to "access". I just don't understand how to get there. The text value is listed under "[0]" which is the only subcatagory for "ka".

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  • Null reference exceptions in .net

    - by Carlo
    Hello, we're having this big problem with our application. It's a rather large application with several modules, and thousands and thousands lines of code. A lot of parts of the application are designed to exist only with a reference to another object, for example a Person object can never exists without a House object, so if you at any point in the app say: bool check = App.Person.House == null; check should always be false (by design), so, to keep using that example, while creating modules, testing, debugging, App.Person.House is never null, but once we shipped the application to our client, they started getting a bunch of NullReferenceException with the objects that by design, should never have a null reference. They tell us the bug, we try to reproduce it here, but 90% of the times we can't, because here it works fine. The app is being developed with C# and WPF, and by design, it only runs on Windows XP SP 3, and the .net framework v3.5, so we KNOW the user has the same operative system, service pack, and .net framework version as we do here, but they still get this weird NullReferenceExceptions that we can't reproduce. So, I'm just wondering if anyone has seen this before and how you fixed it, we have the app running here at least 8 hours a day in 5 different computers, and we never see those exceptions, this only happens to the client for some reason. ANY thought, any clue, any solution that could get us closer to fixing this problem will be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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  • JQuery set img src depending on where you click

    - by Anna
    Hello ! I used javascript for loading a picture on my website depending on which "small" photos in ul you clicked... I had something like that : <script type="text/javascript"> function viewImage(src, legende) { document.getElementById("imageBig").src = "images/photos/"+src; document.getElementById("legend").innerHTML = legende; } </script> and in html simply : things like that : <li><a href="#centre" onclick="javascript:viewImage('flute.jpg','La Reine de la Nuit au Comedia')"><img src="images/photos/carre-09.jpg" alt="" /></a> <a href="#centre" onclick="javascript:viewImage('perichole.jpg','Manuelita - <em>La P&eacute;richole</em> &agrave; l&#8217;Op&eacute;ra Comique')"><img src="images/photos/carre-03.jpg" alt="" /></a></li> <li><a href="#centre" onclick="javascript:viewImage('12.png','R&eacute;cital &agrave; Carnac, septembre 2008')"><img src="images/photos/carre-12.jpg" alt="Marion Baglan Carnac R&eacute;" /></a> <a href="#centre" onclick="javascript:viewImage('01.jpg','')"><img src="images/photos/carre-01.jpg" alt="" /></a></li> so you see, I could, depending on which small photos in the unordered list you clicked, load some particular photos, by passing the src string in argument... but I decided to use Jquery to get some fade-in effect. But I can't find a way to pass an argument that would tell my JQuery function which photo to load depending on where I clicked... stuck here : $(document).ready(function(){ $('#ulPhotos').click(function() { var newSrc= $('#imageBig').attr("src", "images/photos/11.jpg"); }); }); I don't want the 11.jpg to be hardcoded, I need to pass it through argument when I click on a special li element in my ul element of id #ulPhotos... I hope I'm clear enough sorry !

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  • POST XML to server, receive PDF

    - by Shaggy Frog
    Similar to this question, we are developing a Web app where the client clicks a button to receive a PDF from the server. Right now we're using the .ajax() method with jQuery to POST the data the backend needs to generate the PDF (we're sending XML) when the button is pressed, and then the backend is generating the PDF entirely in-memory and sending it back as application/pdf in the HTTP response. One answer to that question requires the server-side save the PDF to disk so it can give back a URL for the client to GET. But I don't want the backend caching content at all. The other answer suggests the use of a jQuery plugin, but when you look at its code, it's actually generating a form element and then submitting the form. That method will not work for us since we are sending XML data in the body of the HTTP request. Is there a way to have the browser open up the PDF without caching the PDF server-side, and without requiring us to throw out our send-data-to-the-server-using-XML solution? (I'd like the browser to behave like it does when a form element is submitted -- a POST is made and then the browser looks at the Content-type header to determine what to do next, like load the PDF in the browser window, a la Safari)

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  • JQuery Dragging Outside Parent

    - by Andy
    I'm using JQuery's draggable(); to make li elements draggable. The only problem is when the element is dragged outside its parent, it doesn't show up. That is, it doesn't leave the confines of its parent div. An example is here: http://imgur.com/N2N1L.png - it's as if the z-index for everything else has greater priority (and the element slides under everything). Here's the code: $('.photoList li').draggable({ distance: 20, snap: theVoteBar, revert: true, containment: 'document' }); And the li elements are placed in DIVs like this: <div class="coda-slider preload" id="coda-slider-1"> <div class="panel"> <div class="panel-wrapper"> <h2 class="title" style="display:none;">Page 1</h2> <ul class="photoList"> <li> <img class="ui-widget-content" src="photos/1.jpg" style="width:100px;height:100px;" /> </li> </ul> </div> </div> I'm positive the problem is it won't leave its parent container, but I'm not sure what to do to get it out. Any direction or help would be appreciated GREATLY!

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  • R: manipulating data.frames containing strings and booleans.

    - by Mike Dewar
    Hello. I have a data.frame in R; it's called p. Each element in the data.frame is either True or False. My variable p has, say, m rows and n columns. For every row there is strictly only one TRUE element. It also has column names, which are strings. What I would like to do is the following: For every row in p I see a TRUE I would like to replace with the name of the corresponding column I would then like to collapse the data.frame, which now contains FALSEs and column names, to a single vector, which will have m elements. I would like to do this in an R-thonic manner, so as to continue my enlightenment in R and contribute to a world without for-loops. I can do step 1 using the following for loop: for (i in seq(length(colnames(p)))) { p[p[,i]==TRUE,i]=colnames(p)[i] } but theres's no beauty here and I have totally subscribed to this for-loops-in-R-are-probably-wrong mentality. Maybe wrong is too strong but they're certainly not great. I don't really know how to do step 2. I kind of hoped that the sum of a string and FALSE would return the string but it doesn't. I kind of hoped I could use an OR operator of some kind but can't quite figure that out (Python responds to False or 'bob' with 'bob'). Hence, yet again, I appeal to you beautiful Rstats people for help!

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  • Problem using js jquery helper

    - by Josh R
    hi, I am using cakephp 1.3.6 and am trying to use inbuilt js helper. I have added var $helpers = array('Js' => array('Jquery')); in my controller. In my layout, I have included the jquery files and have also included echo $this->Js->writeBuffer(); before the </body> tag. I checked if the jquery libraries correctly but trying to create a simple accordian from the jqueryui.com, it works fine. But when I try <?php $this->Js->get('#element'); $this->Js->drag(array( 'container' => '#content', 'start' => 'onStart', 'drag' => 'onDrag', 'stop' => 'onStop', 'snapGrid' => array(10, 10), 'wrapCallbacks' => false )); ?> <div="element">something</div> It does not work. I appreciate any help. Thanks.

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  • Remove then Query fails in JPA (deleted entity passed to persist)

    - by nag
    I have two entitys MobeeCustomer and CustomerRegion i want to remove the object from CustomerRegion first Im put join Coloumn in CustomerRegion is null then Remove the Object from the entityManager but Iam getting Exception MobeeCustomer: public class MobeeCustomer implements Serialization{ private Long id; private String custName; private String Address; private String phoneNo; private Set<CustomerRegion> customerRegion = new HashSet<CustomerRegion>(0); @OneToMany(cascade = { CascadeType.PERSIST, CascadeType.REMOVE }, fetch = FetchType.LAZY, mappedBy = "mobeeCustomer") public Set<CustomerRegion> getCustomerRegion() { return CustomerRegion; } public void setCustomerRegion(Set<CustomerRegion> customerRegion) { CustomerRegion = customerRegion; } } CustomerRegion public class CustomerRegion implements Serializable{ private Long id; private String custName; private String description; private String createdBy; private Date createdOn; private String updatedBy; private Date updatedOn; private MobeeCustomer mobeeCustomer; @ManyToOne(fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @JoinColumn(name = "MOBEE_CUSTOMER") public MobeeCustomer getMobeeCustomer() { return mobeeCustomer; } public void setMobeeCustomer(MobeeCustomer mobeeCustomer) { this.mobeeCustomer = mobeeCustomer; } } sample code: for (CustomerRegion region : deletedRegionList) { region.setMobeeCustomer(null); getEntityManager().remove(region); } StackTrace: please suggest me how to remove the CustomerRegion Object I am getting Exception javax.persistence.EntityNotFoundException: deleted entity passed to persist: [com.manam.mobee.persist.entity.CustomerRegion#<null>] 15:46:34,614 ERROR [STDERR] at org.hibernate.ejb.AbstractEntityManagerImpl.throwPersistenceException(AbstractEntityManagerImpl.java:613) 15:46:34,614 ERROR [STDERR] at org.hibernate.ejb.AbstractEntityManagerImpl.flush(AbstractEntityManagerImpl.java:299) 15:46:34,614 ERROR [STDERR] at org.jboss.seam.persistence.EntityManagerProxy.flush(EntityManagerProxy.java:92) 15:46:34,614 ERROR [STDERR] at org.jboss.seam.framework.EntityHome.update(EntityHome.java:64)

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  • @attribute elements in XML

    - by danit
    Here is my XML: ["link"]=> array(2) { [0]=> object(SimpleXMLElement)#244 (1) { ["@attributes"]=> array(3) { ["type"]=> string(9) "text/html" ["href"]=> string(48) "http://twitter.com/MoodleDan/statuses/1226112723" ["rel"]=> string(9) "alternate" } } [1]=> object(SimpleXMLElement)#245 (1) { ["@attributes"]=> array(3) { ["type"]=> string(9) "image/png" ["href"]=> string(59) "http://a3.twimg.com/profile_images/226895523/Dan_normal.png" ["rel"]=> string(5) "image" } } } ["author"]=> object(SimpleXMLElement)#246 (2) { ["name"]=> string(14) "Dan Humpherson" ["uri"]=> string(16) "http://vl3.co.uk" } The above XML is part of a larger array, but how do i get the href -> ["href"]=> string(59) "http://a3.twimg.com/profile_images/226895523/Dan_normal.png" Element to echo in PHP? This is what I tried (Wrong I know) foreach ($entry->link as $img) { echo $img->href; echo "<img src='". $img ."' />"; }

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  • Behavior of <- NULL on lists versus data.frames for removing data

    - by Ananda Mahto
    Many R users eventually figure out lots of ways to remove elements from their data. One way is to use NULL, particularly when you want to do something like drop a column from a data.frame or drop an element from a list. Eventually, a user comes across a situation where they want to drop several columns from a data.frame at once, and they hit upon <- list(NULL) as the solution (since using <- NULL will result in an error). A data.frame is a special type of list, so it wouldn't be too tough to imagine that the approaches for removing items from a list should be the same as removing columns from a data.frame. However, they produce different results, as can be seen in the example below. ## Make some small data--two data.frames and two lists cars1 <- cars2 <- head(mtcars)[1:4] cars3 <- cars4 <- as.list(cars2) ## Demonstration that the `list(NULL)` approach works cars1[c("mpg", "cyl")] <- list(NULL) cars1 # disp hp # Mazda RX4 160 110 # Mazda RX4 Wag 160 110 # Datsun 710 108 93 # Hornet 4 Drive 258 110 # Hornet Sportabout 360 175 # Valiant 225 105 ## Demonstration that simply using `NULL` does not work cars2[c("mpg", "cyl")] <- NULL # Error in `[<-.data.frame`(`*tmp*`, c("mpg", "cyl"), value = NULL) : # replacement has 0 items, need 12 Switch to applying the same concept to a list, and compare the difference in behavior. ## Does not fully drop the items, but sets them to `NULL` cars3[c("mpg", "cyl")] <- list(NULL) # $mpg # NULL # # $cyl # NULL # # $disp # [1] 160 160 108 258 360 225 # # $hp # [1] 110 110 93 110 175 105 ## *Does* drop the `list` items while this would ## have produced an error with a `data.frame` cars4[c("mpg", "cyl")] <- NULL # $disp # [1] 160 160 108 258 360 225 # # $hp # [1] 110 110 93 110 175 105 The main questions I have are, if a data.frame is a list, why does it behave so differently in this scenario? Is there a foolproof way of knowing when an element will be dropped, when it will produce an error, and when it will simply be given a NULL value? Or do we depend on trial-and-error for this?

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  • Put together tiles in android sdk and use as background

    - by Jon
    In a feeble attempt to learn some Android development am I stuck at graphics. My aim here is pretty simple: Take n small images and build a random image, larger than the screen with possibility to scroll around. Have an animated object move around on it I have looked at the SDK examples, Lunar Lander especially but there are a few things I utterly fail to wrap my head around. I've got a birds view plan (which in my head seems reasonably sane): How do I merge the tiles into one large image? The background is static so I figure I should do like this: Make a 2d array with refs to the tiles Make a large Drawable and draw the tiles on it At init draw this big image as the background At each onDraw redraw the background of the previous spot of the moving object, and the moving object at its new location The problem is the hands on things. I load the small images with "Bitmap img1 = BitmapFactory.decodeResource (res, R.drawable.img1)", but then what? Should I make a canvas and draw the images on it with "canvas.drawBitmap (img1, x, y, null);"? If so how to get a Drawable/Bitmap from that? I'm totally lost here, and would really appreciate some hands on help (I would of course be grateful for general hints as well, but I'm primarily trying to understand the Graphics objects). To make you, dear reader, see my level of confusion will I add my last desperate try: Drawable drawable; Canvas canvas = new Canvas (); Bitmap img1 = BitmapFactory.decodeResource (res, R.drawable.img1); // 50 x 100 px image Bitmap img2 = BitmapFactory.decodeResource (res, R.drawable.img2); // 50 x 100 px image canvas.drawBitmap (img1, 0, 0, null); canvas.drawBitmap (img2, 50, 0, null); drawable.draw (canvas); // obviously wrong as draw == null this.setBackground (drawable); Thanks in advance

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  • __toString magic and type coercion

    - by TomcatExodus
    I've created a Template class for managing views and their associated data. It implements Iterator and ArrayAccess, and permits "sub-templates" for easy usage like so: <p><?php echo $template['foo']; ?></p> <?php foreach($template->post as $post): ?> <p><?php echo $post['bar']; ?></p> <?php endforeach; ?> Anyways, rather than using inline core functions, such as hash() or date(), I figured it would be useful to create a class called TemplateData, which would act as a wrapper for any data stored in the templates. This way, I can add a list of common methods for formatting, for example: echo $template['foo']->asCase('upper'); echo $template['bar']->asDate('H:i:s'); //etc.. When a value is set via $template['foo'] = 'bar'; in the controllers, the value of 'bar' is stored in it's own TemplateData object. I've used the magic __toString() so when you echo a TemplateData object, it casts to (string) and dumps it's value. However, despite the mantra controllers and views should not modify data, whenever I do something like this: $template['foo'] = 1; echo $template['foo'] + 1; //exception It dies on a Object of class TemplateData could not be converted to int; Unless I recast $template['foo'] to a string: echo ((string) $template['foo']) + 1; //outputs 2 Sort of defeats the purpose having to jump through that hoop. Are there any workarounds for this sort of behavior that exist, or should I just take this as it is, an incidental prevention of data modification in views?

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  • Using Everyauth/Express and Multiple Configurations?

    - by Zane Claes
    I'm successfully using Node.js + Express + Everyauth ( https://github.com/abelmartin/Express-And-Everyauth/blob/master/app.js ) to login to Facebook, Twitter, etc. from my application. The problem I'm trying to wrap my head around is that Everyauth seems to be "configure and forget." I set up a single everyauth object and configure it to act as middleware for express, and then forget about it. For example, if I want to create a mobile Facebook login I do: var app = express.createServer(); everyauth.facebook .appId('AAAA') .appSecret('BBBB') .entryPath('/login/facebook') .callbackPath('/callback/facebook') .mobile(true); // mobile! app.use(everyauth.middleware()); everyauth.helpExpress(app); app.listen(8000); Here's the problem: Both mobile and non-mobile clients will connect to my server, and I don't know which is connecting until the connection is made. Even worse, I need to support multiple Facebook app IDs (and, again, I don't know which one I will want to use until the client connects and I partially parse the input). Because everyauth is a singleton which in configured once, I cannot see how to make these changes to the configuration based upon the request that is made. What it seems like is that I need to create some sort of middleware which acts before the everyauth middleware to configure the everyauth object, such that everyauth subsequently uses the correct appId/appSecret/mobile parameters. I have no clue how to go about this... Suggestions? Here's the best idea I have so far, though it seems terrible: Create an everyauth object for every possible configuration using a different entryPath for each...

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  • Ternary operator

    - by Antoine Leclair
    In PHP, I often use the ternary operator to add an attribute to an html element if it applies to the element in question. For example: <select name="blah"> <option value="1"<?= $blah == 1 ? ' selected="selected"' : '' ?>> One </option> <option value="2"<?= $blah == 2 ? ' selected="selected"' : '' ?>> Two </option> </select> I'm starting a project with Pylons using Mako for the templating. How can I achieve something similar? Right now, I see two possibilities that are not ideal. Solution 1: <select name="blah"> % if blah == 1: <option value="1" selected="selected">One</option> % else: <option value="1">One</option> % endif % if blah == 2: <option value="2" selected="selected">Two</option> % else: <option value="2">Two</option> % endif </select> Solution 2: <select name="blah"> <option value="1" % if blah == 1: selected="selected" % endif >One</option> <option value="2" % if blah == 2: selected="selected" % endif >Two</option> </select> In this particular case, the value is equal to the variable tested (value="1" = blah == 1), but I use the same pattern in other situations, like <?= isset($variable) ? ' value="$variable" : '' ?>. I am looking for a clean way to achieve this using Mako.

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  • Pairs from single list

    - by Apalala
    Often enough, I've found the need to process a list by pairs. I was wondering which would be the pythonic and efficient way to do it, and found this on Google: pairs = zip(t[::2], t[1::2]) I thought that was pythonic enough, but after a recent discussion involving idioms versus efficiency, I decided to do some tests: import time from itertools import islice, izip def pairs_1(t): return zip(t[::2], t[1::2]) def pairs_2(t): return izip(t[::2], t[1::2]) def pairs_3(t): return izip(islice(t,None,None,2), islice(t,1,None,2)) A = range(10000) B = xrange(len(A)) def pairs_4(t): # ignore value of t! t = B return izip(islice(t,None,None,2), islice(t,1,None,2)) for f in pairs_1, pairs_2, pairs_3, pairs_4: # time the pairing s = time.time() for i in range(1000): p = f(A) t1 = time.time() - s # time using the pairs s = time.time() for i in range(1000): p = f(A) for a, b in p: pass t2 = time.time() - s print t1, t2, t2-t1 These were the results on my computer: 1.48668909073 2.63187503815 1.14518594742 0.105381965637 1.35109519958 1.24571323395 0.00257992744446 1.46182489395 1.45924496651 0.00251388549805 1.70076990128 1.69825601578 If I'm interpreting them correctly, that should mean that the implementation of lists, list indexing, and list slicing in Python is very efficient. It's a result both comforting and unexpected. Is there another, "better" way of traversing a list in pairs? Note that if the list has an odd number of elements then the last one will not be in any of the pairs. Which would be the right way to ensure that all elements are included? I added these two suggestions from the answers to the tests: def pairwise(t): it = iter(t) return izip(it, it) def chunkwise(t, size=2): it = iter(t) return izip(*[it]*size) These are the results: 0.00159502029419 1.25745987892 1.25586485863 0.00222492218018 1.23795199394 1.23572707176 Results so far Most pythonic and very efficient: pairs = izip(t[::2], t[1::2]) Most efficient and very pythonic: pairs = izip(*[iter(t)]*2) It took me a moment to grok that the first answer uses two iterators while the second uses a single one. To deal with sequences with an odd number of elements, the suggestion has been to augment the original sequence adding one element (None) that gets paired with the previous last element, something that can be achieved with itertools.izip_longest().

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