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  • How can I create an Image in GDI+ from a Base64-Encoded string in C++?

    - by Schnapple
    I have an application, currently written in C#, which can take a Base64-encoded string and turn it into an Image (a TIFF image in this case), and vice versa. In C# this is actually pretty simple. private byte[] ImageToByteArray(Image img) { MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); img.Save(ms, System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Tiff); return ms.ToArray(); } private Image byteArrayToImage(byte[] byteArrayIn) { MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(byteArrayIn); BinaryWriter bw = new BinaryWriter(ms); bw.Write(byteArrayIn); Image returnImage = Image.FromStream(ms, true, false); return returnImage; } // Convert Image into string byte[] imagebytes = ImageToByteArray(anImage); string Base64EncodedStringImage = Convert.ToBase64String(imagebytes); // Convert string into Image byte[] imagebytes = Convert.FromBase64String(Base64EncodedStringImage); Image anImage = byteArrayToImage(imagebytes); (and, now that I'm looking at it, could be simplified even further) I now have a business need to do this in C++. I'm using GDI+ to draw the graphics (Windows only so far) and I already have code to decode the string in C++ (to another string). What I'm stumbling on, however, is getting the information into an Image object in GDI+. At this point I figure I need either a) A way of converting that Base64-decoded string into an IStream to feed to the Image object's FromStream function b) A way to convert the Base64-encoded string into an IStream to feed to the Image object's FromStream function (so, different code than I'm currently using) c) Some completely different way I'm not thinking of here. My C++ skills are very rusty and I'm also spoiled by the managed .NET platform, so if I'm attacking this all wrong I'm open to suggestions.

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  • Any solution to IE8 bug rendering error when hiding elements?

    - by Magnar
    Bug: when hiding an element with JavaScript in IE8, the margin of still-visible other elements on the side is ignored. This bug has been introduced with IE8, since it works as expected in IE6+7 (and other browsers). <html> <head> <style> #a, #b, #c, #d {background: #ccf; padding: 4px; margin-bottom: 8px;} </style> </head> <body> <div id="a">a</div> <div id="b">b</div> <div id="c">c</div> <div id="d">d</div> <script> setTimeout(function () { document.getElementById("b").style.display = "none"; }, 1000); </script> </body> </html> When running this code, notice how a and c have a margin of 8 between them in normal browsers, but a margin of 0 in IE8. Remove the padding, and IE8 behaves like normal. Remove the timeout and IE8 behaves like normal. A border behaves the same way. I've been working with IE-bugs the last 10 years, but this has me stumped. The solution for now is to wrap the divs, and apply the margin to the outer element and other styles to the inner. But that's reminicent of horrible IE6-workarounds. Any better solutions?

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  • Sharing same vector control between different places

    - by Alexander K
    Hi everyone, I'm trying to implement the following: I have an Items Manager, that has an Item class inside. Item class can store two possible visual representations of it - BitmapImage(bitmap) and UserControl(vector). Then later, in the game, I need to share the same image or vector control between all possible places it takes place. For example, consider 10 trees on the map, and all point to the same vector control. Or in some cases this can be bitmap image source. So, the problem is that BitmapImage source can be easily shared in the application by multiple UIElements. However, when I try to share vector control, it fails, and says Child Element is already a Child element of another control. I want to know how to organize this in the best way. For example replace UserControl with other type of control, or storage, however I need to be sure it supports Storyboard animations inside. The code looks like this: if (bi.item.BitmapSource != null) { Image previewImage = new Image(); previewImage.Source = bi.item.BitmapSource; itemPane.ItemPreviewCanvas.Children.Add(previewImage); } else if (bi.item.VectorSource != null) { UserControl previewControl = bi.item.VectorSource; itemPane.ItemPreviewCanvas.Children.Add(previewControl); } Thanks in advance

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  • Spring bean initialization in a web app

    - by EugeneP
    We work with a web application and autowire beans using WebApplicationContextUtils in the init method. Could you clarify some details about bean initialization? The question rises from the static factory method. Suppose there's a bean that is created in a static factory method. As we can see, when the web app is deployed, the ContextLoaderListener initializes all the beans present in Spring xml config file. Now happens such a thing. In the static factory method we run a timer that starts ticking. But in reality we wouldn't want it to start ticking unless the bean is injected into a property of the object ! That is question number one - all the beans are automatically initialized on deploy - correct? And after that when we need an injection, it simply feels the link with the address of the object created during initialization, though OBJECT WAS CREATED ON WEB APP DEPLOY, immediately ! (I assume the default singleton-creation Spring behavior) Second question: are all copies of a web app use the same beans, so all beans are WEB-APP wide, every Spring bean is shared between all the copies of this web app running?

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  • How to Parse an XML (using XELement) having multiple Namespace ?

    - by Subhen
    Hi I , I get the followinng Xresponse after parsing the XML document: <DIDL-Lite xmlns="urn:schemas-upnp-org:metadata-1-0/DIDL-Lite/" xmlns:dc="http://purl.org/dc/elements/1.1/" xmlns:upnp="urn:schemas-upnp-org:metadata-1-0/upnp/" xmlns:dlna="urn:schemas-dlna-org:metadata-1-0/"> <item id="1182" parentID="40" restricted="1"> <title>Hot Issue</title> </item> As per the earlier thread, When there is a default namespace in the document, you must parse it as if it were a named namespace. For example. XNamespace ns = "urn:schemas-upnp-org:metadata-1-0/DIDL-Lite/"; var xDIDL = xResponse.Element(ns + "DIDL-Lite"); But in my case I have four different name space. I am not getting any results after using the following query , I am getting the response , Not Yeilding any results: XNamespace dc = "http://purl.org/dc/elements/1.1/"; var vAudioData = from xAudioinfo in xResponse.Descendants(ns + "DIDL-lite").Elements("item") select new RMSMedia { strAudioTitle = ((string)xAudioinfo.Element(dc + "title")).Trim(), }; I have no clue whats going on as am new to it. Please help

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  • Checking instance of non-class constrained type parameter for null in generic method

    - by casperOne
    I currently have a generic method where I want to do some validation on the parameters before working on them. Specifically, if the instance of the type parameter T is a reference type, I want to check to see if it's null and throw an ArgumentNullException if it's null. Something along the lines of: // This can be a method on a generic class, it does not matter. public void DoSomething<T>(T instance) { if (instance == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("instance"); Note, I do not wish to constrain my type parameter using the class constraint. I thought I could use Marc Gravell's answer on "How do I compare a generic type to its default value?", and use the EqualityComparer<T> class like so: static void DoSomething<T>(T instance) { if (EqualityComparer<T>.Default.Equals(instance, null)) throw new ArgumentNullException("instance"); But it gives a very ambiguous error on the call to Equals: Member 'object.Equals(object, object)' cannot be accessed with an instance reference; qualify it with a type name instead How can I check an instance of T against null when T is not constrained on being a value or reference type?

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  • jQuery validation with submit handler

    - by James
    I setup the form validation using jQuery validation plug-in's validate method and I have a submit handler that modifies the input element's value (I use YUI editor and it needs saveHTML() call to copy the iframe's content to the textarea element.). When submitting the form, I want the validator to validate the form after executing my submit handler. But it doesn't execute my submit handler if it is registered after the validate call. For example, <form id="form1" action="/test"> <input type="text" name="txt1" id="txt1" /> <input type="submit" value="submit" /> $(document).ready(function() { $("#form1").submit(function() { $("#txt1").val("123456"); }); $("#form1").validate({ rules: { txt1: { maxlength: 5 } } }); }); The form is validated after my submit handler so submit is canceled. $(document).ready(function() { $("#form1").validate({ rules: { txt1: { maxlength: 5 } } }); $("#form1").submit(function() { $("#txt1").val("123456"); }); }); However if I change the order the form is validated before my submit handler.

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  • Test MVC using moq

    - by Raminder
    I am new to moq and I was trying to test a controller (MVC) behaviour that when the view raises a certain event, controller calls a certain function on model, here are the classes - public class Model { public void CalculateAverage() { ... } ... } public class View { public event EventHandler CalculateAverage; private void RaiseCalculateAverage() { if (CalculateAverage != null) { CalculateAverage(this, EventArgs.Empty); } } ... } public class Controller { private Model model; private View view; public Controller(Model model, View view) { this.model = model this.view = view; view.CalculaeAverage += view_CalculateAverage; } priavate void view_CalculateAverage(object sender, EventArgs args) { model.CalculateAverage(); } } and the test - [Test] public void ModelCalculateAverageCalled() { Mock<Model> modelMock = new Mock<Model>(); Mock<View> viewMock = new Mock<View>(); Controller controller = new Controller(modelMock.Object, viewMock.Object); viewMock.Raise(x => x.CalculateAverage += null, new EventArgs.Empty); modelMock.Verify(x => x.CalculateAverage()); //never comes here, test fails in above line and exits Assert.True(true); } The issue is that the test is failing in the second last line with "Invocation was not performed on the mock: x = x.CalculateAverage()". Another thing I noticed is that the test terminates on this second last line and the last line is never executed. Am I doing everything correct?

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  • How to :update after :success with link_to_remote Rails method?

    - by Kevin
    Hi, I'm trying to get two things done after a user clicks on a link: Delete a div Add another element at the bottom of the page I played with Rails link_to_remote and what I get with the code below is that the element is added before the div is deleted: <%= link_to_remote "&#x2713;", :url => { :controller => :movies, :action => :mark_as_seen, :movie => movie, :render => 'movie' }, :success => "Effect.Fade('movie_#{movie.id}_wrapper', { duration: 0.4 })", :update => "movies", :position => "bottom", :failure => "alert('Ooops! An error occurred.')" %> I tried to put :update and :position in a :complete callback, but nothing happened. And when I put both of them in the :success callback (after Effect.Fade), all I get is a parsing error. Any idea? Thanks, Kevin

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  • Java: Ignoring escapes when parsing XML

    - by Personman
    I'm using a DocumentBuilder to parse XML files. However, the specification for the project requires that within text nodes, strings like " and < be returned literally, and not turned into the corresponding ASCII values. A previous similar question, http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1979785/read-escaped-quote-as-escaped-quote-from-xml, received one answer that seems to be specific to Apache, and another that appears to simply not not do what it says it does. I'd love to be proven wrong on either count, however :) For reference, here is some code: file = new File(fileName); DocBderFac = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); DocBder = DocBderFac.newDocumentBuilder(); doc = DocBder.parse(file); NodeList textElmntLst = doc.getElementsByTagName(text); Element textElmnt = (Element) textElmntLst.item(0); NodeList txts = textElmnt.getChildNodes(); String txt = ((Node) txts.item(0)).getNodeValue(); System.out.println(txt); I would like that println() to produce things like &quot;3&gt;2&quot; instead of "3>2" which is what currently happens. Thanks!

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  • Using Everyauth/Express and Multiple Configurations?

    - by Zane Claes
    I'm successfully using Node.js + Express + Everyauth ( https://github.com/abelmartin/Express-And-Everyauth/blob/master/app.js ) to login to Facebook, Twitter, etc. from my application. The problem I'm trying to wrap my head around is that Everyauth seems to be "configure and forget." I set up a single everyauth object and configure it to act as middleware for express, and then forget about it. For example, if I want to create a mobile Facebook login I do: var app = express.createServer(); everyauth.facebook .appId('AAAA') .appSecret('BBBB') .entryPath('/login/facebook') .callbackPath('/callback/facebook') .mobile(true); // mobile! app.use(everyauth.middleware()); everyauth.helpExpress(app); app.listen(8000); Here's the problem: Both mobile and non-mobile clients will connect to my server, and I don't know which is connecting until the connection is made. Even worse, I need to support multiple Facebook app IDs (and, again, I don't know which one I will want to use until the client connects and I partially parse the input). Because everyauth is a singleton which in configured once, I cannot see how to make these changes to the configuration based upon the request that is made. What it seems like is that I need to create some sort of middleware which acts before the everyauth middleware to configure the everyauth object, such that everyauth subsequently uses the correct appId/appSecret/mobile parameters. I have no clue how to go about this... Suggestions? Here's the best idea I have so far, though it seems terrible: Create an everyauth object for every possible configuration using a different entryPath for each...

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  • Is there any other way of using signed applets

    - by 640KB
    Hi There, If I want to deploy high privileged applets they need to be signed. For that a certificate is created and then a jar file is signed with a jarsigner. After that in the HTML code one has to specify code,codebase AND archive (jar) which we signed before. However I wrote a servlet which acts as two things: it sits at the URL pointed by the codebase and serves class bytecode to the applet. The same servlet also uses serialization to communicate with the applet whereby whenever the applet gets a class it does not know it goes to the codebase which ends up back at the servlet. Almost like a mini RMI setup but simpler. I hope you can see the power in this. Unfortunately for signed applets one needs the archive. Now the servlet is also able to load a Certificate object and can send it to the applet too. So here is the setup: At one point the applet receives class bytecode and it also has the Certificate. It would be nice if the applet could instantiate all received classes using that certificate (otherwise code from jar is signed and outside is not which prompts nasty messages to the user). So my question to you fine Java aficionados: Would there by any way for me to use the bytecode data and the Certificate to instantiate the class as a signed object so that the plugin pops the Security dialog, accepts teh certificate and elevates the object's privileges. What I could find is that the there is a class CodeSource that accepts codebase URL and certificate and is essential to the signing process. What I am not sure is how one could intercept the class loading inside applets to install additional certificates not obtained through a JAR file via archive. What do you say? Thanks a bunch.

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  • CCNet exception during build of vs2010 project

    - by sonee
    We have two build machines. Lately, we've migrated our projects to vs2010 from vs2005. But the problem is that one of the machines occurs error during build. Another machine works well, but just one machine shows error. The differences between the machines are os and computer spec. The machine which is working well is installed windows server 2003 and the other is windows7. the error message is unhandled exception: System.NullReferenceException: Microsoft.VisualStudio.Shell.ThreadHelper.InvokeOnUIThread(InvokableBase invokable) Microsoft.VisualStudio.Shell.ThreadHelper.Invoke(Action action)Microsoft.VisualStudio.Project.VS.Implementation.VSShellServices.InvokeOnUIThread(Action method) Microsoft.VisualStudio.Project.VisualC.VCProjectEngine.ApartmentMarshaler.Invoke(Action method) Microsoft.VisualStudio.Project.VisualC.VCProjectEngine.VCConfigBuildJob.BuildCompleted(BuildSubmission ar) Microsoft.VisualStudio.Project.Contracts.Implementation.BuildProjectBase.BuildCompletedCallbackManager.BuildCompleted(BuildSubmission buildSubmission) Microsoft.Build.Execution.BuildSubmission.<CheckForCompletion>b__0(Object state) System.Threading.QueueUserWorkItemCallback.WaitCallback_Context(Object state) System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state, Boolean ignoreSyncCtx) System.Threading.QueueUserWorkItemCallback.System.Threading.IThreadPoolWorkItem.ExecuteWorkItem() System.Threading.ThreadPoolWorkQueue.Dispatch() System.Threading._ThreadPoolWaitCallback.PerformWaitCallback() Curiously enough, when I run building project in command line on the machine which occurs error, it works well. The machine just shows error when launched by ccnet. I've installed latest version of ccnet to all machines. Is there anybody who faced like this problem?

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  • What's a reasonable way to mutate a primitive variable from an anonymous Java class?

    - by Steve
    I would like to write the following code: boolean found = false; search(new SearchCallback() { @Override void onFound(Object o) { found = true; } }); Obviously this is not allowed, since found needs to be final. I can't make found a member field for thread-safety reasons. What is the best alternative? One workaround is to define final class MutableReference<T> { private T value; MutableReference(T value) { this.value = value; } T get() { return value; } void set(T value) { this.value = value; } } but this ends up taking a lot of space when formatted properly, and I'd rather not reinvent the wheel if at all possible. I could use a List<Boolean> with a single element (either mutating that element, or else emptying the list) or even a Boolean[1]. But everything seems to smell funny, since none of the options are being used as they were intended. What is a reasonable way to do this?

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  • Interchange xsd and xsi in the output of XmlSerializer

    - by Sri Kumar
    XmlSerializer serializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(IxComment)); System.IO.StringWriter aStream = new System.IO.StringWriter(); serializer.Serialize(aStream,Comments); commentsString = aStream.ToString(); Here the commentsString has the the following element in it <IxComment xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> Is there any possibility to interchange the xsi and xsd attribute and get the element as shown below <IxComment xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" > Will this cause any other issue? EDIT: Why do i need to do this? We are migrating an existing application from 1.1 to 3.0 and in the code there is a if loop int iStartTagIndex = strXMLString.IndexOf("<IxComment xmlns:xsd=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema\" xmlns:xsi=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance\">"); that check for the index of the IxComment. Here the o/p of the serializer and the condition differ in the position of xsd and xsi. So i am trying to know whether we can instruct the serializer to provided the o/p as required. I have another question here as this was an existing application does the serializer O/P differs with versions?

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  • jQuery('body').text() gives different answers in different browsers

    - by Charles Anderson
    My HTML looks like this: <html> <head> <title>Test</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="jQuery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function init() { var text = jQuery('body').text(); alert('length = ' + text.length); } </script> </head> <body onload="init()">0123456789</body> </html> When I load this in Firefox, the length is reported as 10. However, in Chrome it's 11 because it thinks there's a linefeed after the '9'. In IE it's also 11, but the last character is an escape. Meanwhile, Opera thinks there are 12 characters, with the last two being CR LF. If I change the body element to include a span: <body onload="init()"><span>0123456789</span></body> and the jQuery call to: var text = jQuery('body span').text(); then all the browsers agree that the length is 10. Clearly it's the body element that's causing the issue, but can anyone explain exactly why this is happening? I'm particularly surprised because the excellent jQuery is normally browser-independent.

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  • How to specialize template for type derived from particular type

    - by relaxxx
    I have class World which manages creation of object... After creation it calls afterCreation method and I the created object is user-defined type derived from Entity (eg. MyEntity), I want to call addEntity. I the object was something else, I want to do nothing. addEntity must be called with appropriate T, because it generates unique IDs for every derived class etc. Here is my solution: template <int v> struct ToType { enum { value = v }; }; template <typename T> void World::afterCreation(T * t) { afterCreation(t, ToType<std::is_base_of<Entity, T>::value>()); } template <typename T> void World::afterCreation(T * t, ToType<true>) { addEntity(t); //here I cant pass Entity *, I need the real type, eg. MyEntity } template <typename T> void World::afterCreation(T * t, ToType<false>) { } My question is - Can in be done better way? How can I simulate following code without ToType or similar? template <typename T> void afterCreation(){/*generic impl*/} template <typename T where T is derived from Entity> void afterCreation(){/*some specific stuff*/} "specialize" in the title is only to describe my intention, no need to solve problem with template specialization

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  • Proper status codes for JSON responses to Ajax calls?

    - by anonymous coward
    My project is returning JSON to Ajax calls from the browser. I'm wondering what the proper status code is for sending back with responses to invalid (but successfully handled) data submissions. For example, jQuery has the following two particular callbacks when making Ajax requests: success: Fired when a 200/2xx status code is delivered along with the response. error: Fired when 4xx, 5xx, etc, status codes come back with the response. If a user attempts to create a new "Person" object, I send back a JSON representation of the newly created object upon success, thus giving javascript access to the necessary unique ID's for the new object, etc. This, of course, is sent with a 200 status code. If a user submits malformed or invalid data (say, an invalid/incomplete "name" field), I would like to send back the validation error messages via JSON. (I don't see why this would be a bad thing). My question is: in doing so, should I send a 200 status code, because I successfully handled their invalid data? Therefore, I'd be using the jQuery success callback, but simply check for errors... Or, should I use a 4xx status code, perhaps 'Bad Request', because the data they sent me is invalid? (and thus, use the error callback to do the necessary client-side notifications).

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  • jQuery's draggable grid

    - by Art
    It looks like that the 'grid' option in the constructor of Draggable is relatively bound to the original coordinates of the element being dragged - so simply put, if you have three draggable divs with their top set respectively to 100, 200, 254 pixels relative to their parent: <div class="parent-div" style="position: relative;"> <div id="div1" class="draggable" style="top: 100px; position: absolute;"></div> <div id="div2" class="draggable" style="top: 200px; position: absolute;"></div> <div id="div3" class="draggable" style="top: 254px; position: absolute;"></div> </div> Adn all of them are getting enabled for dragging with 'grid' set to [1, 100]: draggables = $('.draggable'); $.each(draggables, function(index, elem) { $(elem).draggable({ containment: $('#parent-div'), opacity: 0.7, revert: 'invalid', revertDuration: 300, grid: [1, 100], refreshPositions: true }); }); Problem here is that as soon as you drag div3, say, down, it's top is increased by 100, moving it to 354px instead of being increased by just mere 46px (254 + 46 = 300), which would get it to the next stop in the grid - 300px, if we are looking at the parent-div as a point of reference and "grid holder". I had a look at the draggable sources and it seem to be an in-built flaw - they just do all the calculations relative to the original position of the draggable element. I would like to avoid monkey-patching the code of draggable library and what I am really looking for here is the way how to make the Draggable calculate the grid positions relative to containing parent. However if monkey-patching is unavoidable, I guess I'll have to live with it. Thanks!

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  • How should rules for Aggregate Roots be enforced?

    - by MylesRip
    While searching the web, I came across a list of rules from Eric Evans' book that should be enforced for aggregates: The root Entity has global identity and is ultimately responsible for checking invariants Root Entities have global identity. Entities inside the boundary have local identity, unique only within the Aggregate. Nothing outside the Aggregate boundary can hold a reference to anything inside, except to the root Entity. The root Entity can hand references to the internal Entities to other objects, but they can only use them transiently (within a single method or block). Only Aggregate Roots can be obtained directly with database queries. Everything else must be done through traversal. Objects within the Aggregate can hold references to other Aggregate roots. A delete operation must remove everything within the Aggregate boundary all at once When a change to any object within the Aggregate boundary is committed, all invariants of the whole Aggregate must be satisfied. This all seems fine in theory, but I don't see how these rules would be enforced in the real world. Take rule 3 for example. Once the root entity has given an exteral object a reference to an internal entity, what's to keep that external object from holding on to the reference beyond the single method or block? (If the enforcement of this is platform-specific, I would be interested in knowing how this would be enforced within a C#/.NET/NHibernate environment.)

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  • ASP.NEt MVC 2 application error on IIS7 works fine on local machine

    - by aspCoolguy
    My ASP.NET MVC2 application is developed using 1. VS 2010 2. Linq To SQL for Models Here is Call controller code: namespace CallTrackMVC.Controllers { public class CallController : Controller { private CallTrackRepository repository; public CallController():this(new CallTrackRepository()) { } public CallController(CallTrackRepository newRepository) { repository = newRepository; } } } Error on IIS7 when browsing the Call Create page is NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object.] CallTrackMVC.Models.ExecOfficeDataContext..ctor() in C:\ClearCase\rartadi_view\STS_Dev_TEST\CallTrackMVC\Models\ExecOffice.designer.cs:71 CallTrackMVC.Controllers.CallController..ctor() in C:\ClearCase\rartadi_view\STS_Dev_TEST\CallTrackMVC\Controllers\CallController.cs:16 [TargetInvocationException: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation.] System.RuntimeTypeHandle.CreateInstance(RuntimeType type, Boolean publicOnly, Boolean noCheck, Boolean& canBeCached, RuntimeMethodHandleInternal& ctor, Boolean& bNeedSecurityCheck) +0 System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceSlow(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipCheckThis, Boolean fillCache) +117 System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceDefaultCtor(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipVisibilityChecks, Boolean skipCheckThis, Boolean fillCache) +247 System.Activator.CreateInstance(Type type, Boolean nonPublic) +106 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) +102 [InvalidOperationException: **An error occurred when trying to create a controller of type 'CallTrackMVC.Controllers.CallController'. Make sure that the controller has a parameterless public constructor.**] System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) +541 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.CreateController(RequestContext requestContext, String controllerName) +85 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.ProcessRequestInit(HttpContextBase httpContext, IController& controller, IControllerFactory& factory) +165 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.BeginProcessRequest(HttpContextBase httpContext, AsyncCallback callback, Object state) +80 System.Web.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() +389 System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) +371 Code in Global.asax is protected void Application_Start() { AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } Any suggestion would be a great help.

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  • Can't use my form

    - by Alexandr
    I have class with my form in folder /application/forms/Auth.php it looks like class Form_Auth extends Zend_Form { public function __construct() { $this->setName(); parent::__construct(); $username = new Zend_Form_Element_Text('username'); $password = new Zend_Form_Element_Password('password'); $mail = new Zend_Form_Element_Text('mail'); $submit = new Zend_Form_Element_Submit('submit'); $this->addElements(array($username,$password,$mail,$submit)); } } When i try create object $this->view->form = new Form_Auth(); is see exeption Application error Exception information: Message: Invalid name provided; must contain only valid variable characters and be non-empty Stack trace: D:\WWW\zends\application\Forms\Auth.php(8): Zend_Form-setName() d:\WWW\zends\application\controllers\RegistrationController.php(49): Form_Auth-__construct() D:\WebServer\ZendFramework\ZendFramework\library\Zend\Controller\Action.php(513): RegistrationController-indexAction() D:\WebServer\ZendFramework\ZendFramework\library\Zend\Controller\Dispatcher\Standard.php(289): Zend_Controller_Action-dispatch('indexAction') D:\WebServer\ZendFramework\ZendFramework\library\Zend\Controller\Front.php(954): Zend_Controller_Dispatcher_Standard-dispatch(Object(Zend_Controller_Request_Http), Object(Zend_Controller_Response_Http)) D:\WebServer\ZendFramework\ZendFramework\library\Zend\Application\Bootstrap\Bootstrap.php(97): Zend_Controller_Front-dispatch() D:\WebServer\ZendFramework\ZendFramework\library\Zend\Application.php(366): Zend_Application_Bootstrap_Bootstrap-run() D:\WWW\zends\public\index.php(26): Zend_Application-run() {main} Request Parameters: array ( 'controller' = 'registration', 'action' = 'index', 'module' = 'default', ) the version zf is 1.10.3 what i do wrong ?

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  • is using private shared objects/variables on class level harmful ?

    - by haansi
    Hello, Thanks for your attention and time. I need your opinion on an basic architectural issue please. In page behind classes I am using a private and shared object and variables (list or just client or simplay int id) to temporary hold data coming from database or class library. This object is used temporarily to catch data and than to return, pass to some function or binding a control. 1st: Can this approach harm any way ? I couldn't analyze it but a thought was using such shared variables may replace data in it when multiple users may be sending request at a time? 2nd: Please comment also on using such variables in BLL (to hold data coming from DAL/database). In this example every time new object of BLL class will be made. Here is sample code: public class ClientManager { Client objclient = new Client(); //Used in 1st and 2nd method List<Client> clientlist = new List<Client>();// used in 3rd and 4th method ClientRepository objclientRep = new ClientRepository(); public List<Client> GetClients() { return clientlist = objclientRep.GetClients(); } public List<Client> SearchClients(string Keyword) { return clientlist = objclientRep.SearchClients(Keyword); } public Client GetaClient(int ClientId) { return objclient = objclientRep.GetaClient(ClientId); } public Client GetClientDetailForConfirmOrder(int UserId) { return objclientRep.GetClientDetailForConfirmOrder(UserId); } } I am really thankful to you for sparing time and paying kind attention.

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  • How to enter text into the "Write something..." box on Facebook and click Submit

    - by Peter Payne
    Hello, I am trying to manipulate Facebook pages in various ways, using Javascript browser elements. I'd need to be able to insert some text into the top "Type something..." box that shows on my site's fan page (or alternately, "click into" the field and I can type the text using GUI scripting), then click the "submit" button as if i'd done it by hand. It's tricky since the page is very Ajax heavy and I can't find the names of the elements I need to manipulate, let alone how to manipulate them as they're not using traditional form fields I'm used to. Can anyone help me figure out how to do this with javascript commands, which I'd be calling from Applescript on the Mac? Many thanks in advance. UPDATE Thanks for the comments below. Believe me, I am not trying to do anything spammy or douchy, mainly posting links to products that have gone live on page facebook page, but do it during the business day when people are on rather than at strange hours of the day. I am located in Japan so my sleep period is right when people are using FB. The solution I came up with for clicking the button was got using UI Browser, an outstanding tool if you're trying to script on the Mac. The script that clicked the button for me was: tell application "Safari" activate set thename to name of (get current tab of window 1) delay 3 tell application "System Events" tell process "Safari" try click button "Share" of group 1 of group 2 of list 3 of group 9 of UI element 1 of scroll area 1 of group 3 of window thename -- this one works on the mini? on error click button "Share" of group 1 of group 2 of list 3 of group 9 of UI element 1 of scroll area 1 of group 2 of window thename -- did not work end try end tell end tell end tell Hope this is useful to anyone.

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  • Optimizing a bin-placement algorithm

    - by user258651
    Alright, I've got two collections, and I need to place elements from collection1 into the bins (elements) of collection2, based on whether their value falls within a given bin's range. For a concrete example, assume I have a sorted collection objects (bins) which have an int range ([1...4], [5..10], etc). I need to determine the range an int falls in, and place it in the appropriate bin. foreach(element n in collection1) { foreach(bin m in collection2) { if (m.inRange(n)) { m.add(n); break; } } } So the obvious NxM complexity algorithm is there, but I really would like to see Nxlog(M). To do this I'd like to use BinarySearch in place of the inner foreach loop. To use BinarySearch, I need to implement an IComparer class to do the searching for me. The problem I'm running into is this approach would require me to make an IComparer.Compare function that compares two different types of objects (an element to its bin), and that doesn't seem possible or correct. So I'm asking, how should I write this algorithm?

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