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• I need to implement C# deep copy constructors with inheritance. What patterns are there to choose fr

  - by Tony Lambert

  I wish to implement a deepcopy of my classes hierarchy in C# public Class ParentObj : ICloneable { protected int myA; public virtual Object Clone () { ParentObj newObj = new ParentObj(); newObj.myA = theObj.MyA; return newObj; } } public Class ChildObj : ParentObj { protected int myB; public override Object Clone ( ) { Parent newObj = this.base.Clone(); newObj.myB = theObj.MyB; return newObj; } } This will not work as when Cloning the Child only a parent is new-ed. In my code some classes have large hierarchies. What is the recommended way of doing this? Cloning everything at each level without calling the base class seems wrong? There must be some neat solutions to this problem, what are they? Can I thank everyone for their answers. It was really interesting to see some of the approaches. I think it would be good if someone gave an example of a reflection answer for completeness. +1 awaiting!

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• Error with Property Validation in Form Submission in ASP.NET MVC

  - by Maxim Z.

  I have a simple form on an ASP.NET MVC site that I'm building. This form is submitted, and then I validate that the form fields aren't null, empty, or improperly formatted. However, when I use ModelState.AddModelError() to indicate validation errors from my controller code, I get an error when my view is re-rendered. In Visual Studio, I get that the following line is highlighted as being the location of the error: <%=Html.TextBox("Email")%> The error is the following: NullReferenceException was unhandled by user code - object reference not set to an instance of an object. My complete code for that textbox is the following: <p> <label for="Email">Your Email:</label> <%=Html.TextBox("Email")%> <%=Html.ValidationMessage("Email", "*") %> </p> Here's how I'm doing that validation in my controller: try { System.Net.Mail.MailAddress address = new System.Net.Mail.MailAddress(email); } catch { ModelState.AddModelError("Email", "Should not be empty or invalid"); } return View(); Note: this applies to all of my fields, not just my Email field, as long as they are invalid.

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• Accessing the stringValue from NSTextFields on different NIBs

  - by Kyle Zaragoza

  I'm having an extremely difficult time trying to access information from an object (e.g. an NSTextField) that is located on a NIB other than my "MainMenu.nib". My current setup: I have a MainMenu.xib that contains only a toolbar at the top and an NSView. I have four other .xib files containing custom NSViews and each of their File Owner's are assigned to a NSViewController subclass which I have created for each. My MainMenu.xib contains an object that is set to my WindowController subclass that takes care of swapping the fours views into the NSView on my MainMenu.xib. All of this works fantastic. Where I have a problem: I have another class that acts as the brains to my application which sends and receives data from an online server, all of the methods I have created rely on inputs from the user that are located on the individual .xibs that swap into my MainMenu.xib's NSview. Unfortunately I have no idea on how to grab the information from the NSTextFields, textViews, etc. that are located on my individual .xib files. What I've tried: I have tried setting the File Owner's of the four individual .xibs to my "brains" class and connecting outlets defined in my "brains".h, but when I call [textField stringValue] I receive a NULL response. I'm thinking this is because I'm creating multiple instances of my "brains" class but not totally sure. Any help on accessing information from textFields from other nibs would be a great benefit, thanks in advance.

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• Index out of bounds exception while iterating through a List<string>.

  - by Sergio Tapia

  I have a List of the location of images on a folder. I have five pictureBoxes that emulate a coverflow type area for users to skim through the images of a given folder. I know that the error is fired because the first image in the collection is set to the first picturebox, then if I click on cycleLeft(), there is a negative number. How can I account for this? For example, if the first image in the List is already set to the farthest left and someone clicks flip left, have that first image put on the last position of the list. Any guidance? private void leftArrow_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { cycleImagesLeft(); } private void rightArrow_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { cycleImagesRight(); } public void cycleImagesLeft() { //imageThree is the center image, that's why I use it as a frame of reference. int currentImage = pictures.IndexOf(imageThree.ImageLocation); imageOne.ImageLocation = pictures[currentImage - 3]; imageTwo.ImageLocation = pictures[currentImage - 2]; imageThree.ImageLocation = pictures[currentImage - 1]; imageFour.ImageLocation = pictures[currentImage]; imageFive.ImageLocation = pictures[currentImage + 1]; } public void cycleImagesRight() { int currentImage = pictures.IndexOf(imageThree.ImageLocation); imageOne.ImageLocation = pictures[currentImage - 1]; imageTwo.ImageLocation = pictures[currentImage]; imageThree.ImageLocation = pictures[currentImage + 1]; imageFour.ImageLocation = pictures[currentImage + 2]; imageFive.ImageLocation = pictures[currentImage + 3]; }

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• NHibernate.QueryException with dynamic-component

  - by Ken

  OK, this is going to be kind of a long shot, since it's a big system (which I don't claim to fully understand, yet), and the problem might not be with NHibernate itself, and I'm even having trouble reproducing it, but... I've got a class with a <dynamic-component section, and when I run a query on it (through my ASP.NET MVC app), it fails, but only sometimes. (Yeah, the worst kind!) The exception I'm seeing is: NHibernate.QueryException: could not resolve property: Attributes.MyAttributeName of: MyClassName at NHibernate.Persister.Entity.AbstractPropertyMapping.GetColumns(String propertyName) at NHibernate.Persister.Entity.AbstractPropertyMapping.ToColumns(String alias, String propertyName) at NHibernate.Persister.Entity.BasicEntityPropertyMapping.ToColumns(String alias, String propertyName) at NHibernate.Persister.Entity.AbstractEntityPersister.ToColumns(String alias, String propertyName) at NHibernate.Loader.Criteria.CriteriaQueryTranslator.GetColumns(String propertyName, ICriteria subcriteria) at NHibernate.Loader.Criteria.CriteriaQueryTranslator.GetColumnsUsingProjection(ICriteria subcriteria, String propertyName) at NHibernate.Criterion.CriterionUtil.GetColumnNamesUsingPropertyName(ICriteriaQuery criteriaQuery, ICriteria criteria, String propertyName, Object value, ICriterion critertion) at NHibernate.Criterion.CriterionUtil.GetColumnNamesForSimpleExpression(String propertyName, IProjection projection, ICriteriaQuery criteriaQuery, ICriteria criteria, IDictionary`2 enabledFilters, ICriterion criterion, Object value) at NHibernate.Criterion.SimpleExpression.ToSqlString(ICriteria criteria, ICriteriaQuery criteriaQuery, IDictionary`2 enabledFilters) at NHibernate.Loader.Criteria.CriteriaQueryTranslator.GetWhereCondition(IDictionary`2 enabledFilters) at NHibernate.Loader.Criteria.CriteriaJoinWalker..ctor(IOuterJoinLoadable persister, CriteriaQueryTranslator translator, ISessionFactoryImplementor factory, CriteriaImpl criteria, String rootEntityName, IDictionary`2 enabledFilters) at NHibernate.Loader.Criteria.CriteriaLoader..ctor(IOuterJoinLoadable persister, ISessionFactoryImplementor factory, CriteriaImpl rootCriteria, String rootEntityName, IDictionary`2 enabledFilters) at NHibernate.Impl.SessionImpl.List(CriteriaImpl criteria, IList results) at NHibernate.Impl.CriteriaImpl.List(IList results) at NHibernate.Impl.CriteriaImpl.UniqueResult[T]() ...my code below here... Can anybody explain exactly what this QueryException means, i.e., so I can have an idea of what exactly it thinks is going wrong? Thanks!

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• Cannot edit values of DataGridView bound to a BindingList

  - by m_oLogin

  Hello community, I have trouble editing a databound bindinglist. Let me illustrate it with the following: Say I have the Person class: public Class Person{ private string m_firstname; private string m_lastname; public string FirstName{get;set;} public string LastName{get;set;} public Person{ ... } } I then have a containing class called Population: public class Population{ private BindingList<Person> m_lstPerson = new BindingList<Person>(); private string m_countryName; public BindingList<Person> ListPerson{get; set;} public string CountryName { get; set; } } I then have on one form a first datagridview with DataSource = m_lstPopulation (BindingList). The binding works like a charm when working with the Population objects. When I double click, it opens up a dialog form showing the object details. One tab in the details holds a datagridview bound to that population's ListPerson. The second datagridview displays fine. However, I cannot edit or add cells in this datagridview. None of the columns is set to read-only. In fact, both datagridview have just about the same parameters. What am I missing? It seems that a lock has been placed on the Population object so that its inner fields cannot be edited... Please advise. Thanks.

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• python-iptables: Cryptic error when allowing incoming TCP traffic on port 1234

  - by Lucas Kauffman

  I wanted to write an iptables script in Python. Rather than calling iptables itself I wanted to use the python-iptables package. However I'm having a hard time getting some basic rules setup. I wanted to use the filter chain to accept incoming TCP traffic on port 1234. So I wrote this: import iptc chain = iptc.Chain(iptc.TABLE_FILTER,"INPUT") rule = iptc.Rule() target = iptc.Target(rule,"ACCEPT") match = iptc.Match(rule,'tcp') match.dport='1234' rule.add_match(match) rule.target = target chain.insert_rule(rule) However when I run this I get this thrown back at me: Traceback (most recent call last): File "testing.py", line 9, in <module> chain.insert_rule(rule) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/iptc/__init__.py", line 1133, in insert_rule self.table.insert_entry(self.name, rbuf, position) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/iptc/__init__.py", line 1166, in new obj.refresh() File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/iptc/__init__.py", line 1230, in refresh self._free() File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/iptc/__init__.py", line 1224, in _free self.commit() File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/iptc/__init__.py", line 1219, in commit raise IPTCError("can't commit: %s" % (self.strerror())) iptc.IPTCError: can't commit: Invalid argument Exception AttributeError: "'NoneType' object has no attribute 'get_errno'" in <bound method Table.__del__ of <iptc.Table object at 0x7fcad56cc550>> ignored Does anyone have experience with python-iptables that could enlighten on what I did wrong?

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• vector::erase with pointer member

  - by matt

  I am manipulating vectors of objects defined as follow: class Hyp{ public: int x; int y; double wFactor; double hFactor; char shapeNum; double* visibleShape; int xmin, xmax, ymin, ymax; Hyp(int xx, int yy, double ww, double hh, char s): x(xx), y(yy), wFactor(ww), hFactor(hh), shapeNum(s) {visibleShape=0;shapeNum=-1;}; //Copy constructor necessary for support of vector::push_back() with visibleShape Hyp(const Hyp &other) { x = other.x; y = other.y; wFactor = other.wFactor; hFactor = other.hFactor; shapeNum = other.shapeNum; xmin = other.xmin; xmax = other.xmax; ymin = other.ymin; ymax = other.ymax; int visShapeSize = (xmax-xmin+1)*(ymax-ymin+1); visibleShape = new double[visShapeSize]; for (int ind=0; ind<visShapeSize; ind++) { visibleShape[ind] = other.visibleShape[ind]; } }; ~Hyp(){delete[] visibleShape;}; }; When I create a Hyp object, allocate/write memory to visibleShape and add the object to a vector with vector::push_back, everything works as expected: the data pointed by visibleShape is copied using the copy-constructor. But when I use vector::erase to remove a Hyp from the vector, the other elements are moved correctly EXCEPT the pointer members visibleShape that are now pointing to wrong addresses! How to avoid this problem? Am I missing something?

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• Django FormWizard with dynamic forms

  - by krys

  I want to implement a simple 2 part FormWizard. Form 1 will by dynamically generated something like this: class BuyAppleForm(forms.Form): creditcard = forms.ChoiceField(widget = forms.RadioSelect) type = forms.ChoiceField(widget = forms.RadioSelect) def __init__(self,*args, **kwargs): user = kwargs['user'] del kwargs['user'] super(BuyAppleForm, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) credit_cards = get_credit_cards(user) self.fields['creditcard'].choices = [(card.id,str(card)) for card in credit_cards] apple_types= get_types_packages() self.fields['type'].choices = [(type.id,str(type)) for type in apple_types] This will dynamically create a form with lists of available choices. My second form, I actually want no input. I just want to display a confirmation screen containing the credit card info, apple info, and money amounts (total, tax, shipping). Once user clicks OK, I want the apple purchase to commence. I was able to implement the single form way by passing in the request.user object in the kwargs. However, with the FormWizard, I cannot figure this out. Am I approaching the problem wrong and is the FormWizard not the proper way to do this? If it is, how can the Form __init__ method access the user object from the HTTP request?

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• How to download .exe file with progress bar - VB 2012

  - by user2839828

  I am trying to create an updater for my program which automatically download's the latest version of my program from the web. Now I want this process to be done using a progress bar (so when the download progress is at 50% the progress bar is half-way through). This is my code: Private Sub client_ProgressChanged(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As DownloadProgressChangedEventArgs) Dim bytesIn As Double = Double.Parse(e.BytesReceived.ToString()) Dim totalBytes As Double = Double.Parse(e.TotalBytesToReceive.ToString()) Dim percentage As Double = bytesIn / totalBytes * 100 client.Value = Int32.Parse(Math.Truncate(percentage).ToString()) End Sub Private Sub Button1_Click(sender As Object, e As EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim url As String = "MY DOWNLOAD LINK" 'Download Dim client As WebClient = New WebClient AddHandler client.DownloadProgressChanged, AddressOf client_ProgressChanged AddHandler client.DownloadFileCompleted, AddressOf client_DownloadCompleted client.DownloadFileAsync(New Uri(url), "C:\Users\User\Desktop\BACKUP\TESTING\New folder\1.exe") End Sub End Class Now I know that the place where the file is saved has been inputed manually by me , but I will change that later. My problem currently is that the file is not being downloaded. However when I change the DownloadFileAsync method to DownloadFile , my program downloads the file. However with the DownloadFile method I will not be able to use the progress bar to track the download progress. Any help is much appreciated :-)

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• GCC/X86, Problems with relative jumps

  - by Ian Kelly

  I'm trying to do a relative jump in x86 assembly, however I can not get it to work. It seems that for some reason my jump keeps getting rewritten as an absolute jump or something. A simple example program for what I'm trying to do is this: .global main main: jmp 0x4 ret Since the jmp instruction is 4 bytes long and a relative jump is offset from the address of the jump + 1, this should be a fancy no-op. However, compiling and running this code will cause a segmentation fault. The real puzzler for me is that compiling it to the object level and then disassembling the object file shows that it looks like the assembler is correctly doing a relative jump, but after the file gets compiled the linker is changing it into another type of jump. For example if the above code was in a file called asmtest.s: $gcc -c asmtest.s $objdump -D asmtest.o ... Some info from objdump 00000000 <main>: 0: e9 00 00 00 00 jmp 5 <main+0x5> 5: c3 ret This looks like the assembler correctly made a relative jump, although it's suspicious that the jmp instruction is filled with 0s. I then used gcc to link it then disassembled it and got this: $gcc -o asmtest asmtest.o $objdump -d asmtest ...Extra info and other disassembled functions 08048394 <main>: 8048394: e9 6b 7c fb f7 jmp 4 <_init-0x8048274> 8048399: c3 ret This to me looks like the linker rewrote the jmp statement, or substituted the 5 in for another address. So my question comes down to, what am I doing wrong? Am I specifying the offset incorrectly? Am I misunderstanding how relative jumps work? Is gcc trying to make sure I don't do dangerous things in my code?

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• Really simple JSON serialization in .NET

  - by Evgeny

  I have some simple .NET objects I'd like to serialize to JSON and back again. The set of objects to be serialized is quite small and I control the implementation, so I don't need a generic solution that will work for everything. Since my assembly will be distributed as a library I'd really like to avoid a dependency on some third-party DLL: I just want to give users one assembly that they can reference. I've read the other questions I could find on converting to and from JSON in .NET. The recommended solution of JSON.NET does work, of course, but it requires distributing an extra DLL. I don't need any of the fancy features of JSON.NET. I just need to handle a simple object (or even dictionary) that contains strings, integers, DateTimes and arrays of strings and bytes. On deserializing I'm happy to get back a dictionary - it doesn't need to create the object again. Is there some really simple code out there that I could compile into my assembly to do this simple job? I've also tried System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptSerializer, but where it falls down is the byte array: I want to base64-encode it and even registering a converter doesn't let me easily accomplish that due to the way that API works (it doesn't pass in the name of the field).

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• transfer database from local machine to hosting server

  - by c11ada

  hey all, im trying to transfer my database from local machine to server, im using the publish to provider wizard in visual web developer to generate a scrip, im then using the generated script on the serever database. i keep getting the following error can some one please tell where im going wrong Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles, Line 53 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles, Line 58 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles, Line 87 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles, Line 92 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 48 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 52 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 79 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 83 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 93 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 15151, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Cannot find the object 'aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles', because it does not exist or you do not have permission. Msg 15151, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Cannot find the object 'aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles', because it does not exist or you do not have permission. thanks

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• Saving HttpResponse/Request to file system

  - by chrisjlong

  Here is my scenario. User fills out this large page which is dynamically created based off DB values. Those values can change. When the user fills out the page and hits submit we want to save a copy of the page as html on the server, this way if the text or wording changes, when they go back to view their posted information, it is historically accurate. So I basically need to do this protected void buttonSave_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //collect information into an object to save it in the db bool result = BusinessLogic.Save(myBusinessObject); if (result) //!!! Here is where I need to save this page as an html file on my servers IFS!!!! else //whatever Response.Redirect("~/SomeOtherPage.aspx"); } Any help is greatly apprciated. Also I CANNOT just request the data from the url because query string parameters are a big no no in this case. The key to pull the database info up (at its highest level) is all in session so I cant just request a url and save it. Thanks!

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• Obtaining YouTube video ID in a URL and inputting selected video ID into a URL

  - by Dave

  I've been having trouble in trying to figure this out. What I am trying to do is, obtain the ID of a video from YouTube, and input the 11 character ID into the css of a div of a specific id by using jquery. I know the URL for the thumbnail of any video, but I just need to be able to change the ID to display different video thumbnails. <script> $(document).ready(function() { function(data){ videoID = data.split('www.youtube.com/v/')[1].split('&amp')[0]; $("#304817679").append(videoID); }); $("#304817679").replaceWith("<div id=\"304817679\" style=\"background: url(http://img.youtube.com/vi/"+ $.function(data) +"/0.jpg) no-repeat middle; width: 15px; height: 150px;\"></div>"); }); }); </script> <div id="304817679"> <div style="display: none;"><object width="248" height="222"><param name="movie" value="http://www.youtube.com/v/vy90n2nNRKQ&amp;rel=0&amp;egm=0&amp;showinfo=0&amp;fs=1"></param><param name="wmode" value="transparent"></param><param name="allowFullScreen" value="true"></param><embed src="http://www.youtube.com/v/vy90n2nNRKQ&amp;rel=0&amp;egm=0&amp;showinfo=0&amp;fs=1" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" width="248" height="222" allowFullScreen="true" wmode="transparent"></embed></object></div> </div> Trying to explain this better, I want the 11 Character YouTube Video ID from the embedded code, and put it into the URL of the thumbnail (http://img.youtube.com/vi/"+ function(data) +"/0.jpg). Which, would then also replace the original div (div id="304817679"). Am I on the right track with my script? I'm entirely new to this, and I would appreciate some of the help that's offered here.

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• How can I automatically release resources RAII-style in Perl?

  - by Philip Potter

  Say I have a resource (e.g. a filehandle or network socket) which has to be freed: open my $fh, "<", "filename" or die "Couldn't open filename: $!"; process($fh); close $fh or die "Couldn't close filename: $!"; Suppose that process might die. Then the code block exits early, and $fh doesn't get closed. I could explicitly check for errors: open my $fh, "<", "filename" or die "Couldn't open filename: $!"; eval {process($fh)}; my $saved_error = $@; close $fh or die "Couldn't close filename: $!"; die $saved_error if $saved_error; but this kind of code is notoriously difficult to get right, and only gets more complicated when you add more resources. In C++ I would use RAII to create an object which owns the resource, and whose destructor would free it. That way, I don't have to remember to free the resource, and resource cleanup happens correctly as soon as the RAII object goes out of scope - even if an exception is thrown. Unfortunately in Perl a DESTROY method is unsuitable for this purpose as there are no guarantees for when it will be called. Is there a Perlish way to ensure resources are automatically freed like this even in the presence of exceptions? Or is explicit error checking the only option?

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• Using multiple named outlets and a wrapper view with no content in Emberjs

  - by user1889776

  I'm trying to use multiple named outlets with Ember.js. Is my approach below correct? Markup: <script type="text/x-handlebars" data-template-name="application"> <div id="mainArea"> {{outlet main_area}} </div> </script> <script type="text/x-handlebars" data-template-name="home"> <ul id="sections"> {{outlet sections}} </ul> <ul id="categories"> {{outlet categories}} </ul> </script> <script type="text/x-handlebars" data-template-name="sections"> {{#each section in controller}} <li><img {{bindAttr src="section.image"}}></li> {{/each}} </script> <script type="text/x-handlebars" data-template-name="categories"> {{#each category in controller}} <img {{bindAttr src="category.image"}}> {{/each}} </script>? JS Code: Here I set the content of the various controllers to data grabbed from a server and connect outlets with their corresponding views. Since the HomeController has no content, set its content to an empty object - a hack to get the rid of this error message: Uncaught Error: assertion failed: Cannot delegate set('categories' ) to the 'content' property of object proxy : its 'content' is undefined. App.Router = Ember.Router.extend({ enableLogging: false, root: Ember.Route.extend({ index: Ember.Route.extend({ route: '/', connectOutlets: function(router){ router.get('sectionsController').set('content',App.Section.find()); router.get('categoriesController').set('content', App.Category.find()); router.get('applicationController').connectOutlet('main_area', 'home'); router.get('homeController').connectOutlet('home', {}); router.get('homeController').connectOutlet('categories', 'categories'); router.get('homeController').connectOutlet('sections', 'sections'); } }) }) });

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• Getting "[Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver][SQL Server]Incorrect syntax near 'Microsoft.'

  - by brohjoe

  Hi Experts, I'm getting an error, "[Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver][SQL Server]Incorrect syntax near 'Microsoft.' Here is the code: Dim conn As ADODB.Connection Dim rst As ADODB.Recordset Dim stSQL As String Public Sub loadData() 'This was set up using Microsoft ActiveX Data Components version 6.0. 'Create ADODB connection object, open connection and construct the connection string object which is the DSN name. Set conn = New ADODB.Connection conn.ConnectionString = "sql_server" conn.Open 'conn.Execute (strSQL) On Error GoTo ErrorHandler 'Open Excel and run query to export data to SQL Server. strSQL = "SELECT * INTO SalesOrders FROM OPENDATASOURCE(Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0;" & _ "Data Source=C:\Workbook.xlsx;" & _ "Extended Properties=Excel 12.0; [Sales Orders])" conn.Execute (strSQL) 'Error handling. ErrorExit: 'Reclaim memory from the cntection objects Set rst = Nothing Set conn = Nothing Exit Sub ErrorHandler: MsgBox Err.Description, vbCritical Resume ErrorExit 'clean up and reclaim memory resources. conn.Close If CBool(cnt.State And adStateOpen) Then Set rst = Nothing Set conn = Nothing End If End Sub

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• ajax to populate an input type text

  - by kawtousse

  hi, I have an input type text that i want to populate it with a value from data base using the ajax technique. first i define my text zone like the following: <td><input type=text id='st' value=" " name='stname' onclick="donnom();" /></td> in javascript i do the following: xhr5.onreadystatechange = function(){ if(xhr5.readyState == 4 && xhr5.status == 200) { selects5 = xhr5.responseText; // On se sert de innerHTML pour rajouter les options a la liste document.getElementById('st').innerHTML = selects5; } }; xhr5.open("POST","ajaxIDentifier5.jsp",true); xhr5.setRequestHeader('Content-Type','application/x-www-form-urlencoded'); id=document.getElementById(idIdden).value; xhr5.send("id="+id); in IDentifier5.jsp i put the next code: '<%String id=request.getParameter("id"); System.out.println("idDailyTimeSheet ajaxIDentifier5 as is:"+id); Session s = null; Transaction tx; try { s= HibernateUtil.currentSession(); tx=s.beginTransaction(); Query query = s.createQuery("select from Dailytimesheet dailytimesheet where dailytimesheet.IdDailyTimeSheet="+id+" " ); for(Iterator it=query.iterate();it.hasNext();) { if(it.hasNext()) { Dailytimesheet object=(Dailytimesheet)it.next(); out.print( "<input type=\"text\" id=\"st1\" value=\""+object.getTimeFrom()+"\" name=\"starting\" onclick=\"donnom()\" ></input>"); } } }catch (HibernateException e) { e.printStackTrace();} %> i want to get only the value in the input type text populated from database because after that i will be able to change it . thanks for help.

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• How do I apply a "template" or "skeleton" of code in C# here?

  - by Scott Stafford

  In my business layer, I need many, many methods that follow the pattern: public BusinessClass PropertyName { get { if (this.m_LocallyCachedValue == null) { if (this.Record == null) { this.m_LocallyCachedValue = new BusinessClass( this.Database, this.PropertyId); } else { this.m_LocallyCachedValue = new BusinessClass( this.Database, this.Record.ForeignKeyName); } } return this.m_LocallyCachedValue; } } I am still learning C#, and I'm trying to figure out the best way to write this pattern once and add methods to each business layer class that follow this pattern with the proper types and variable names substituted. BusinessClass is a typename that must be substituted, and PropertyName, PropertyId, ForeignKeyName, and m_LocallyCachedValue are all variables that should be substituted for. Are attributes usable here? Do I need reflection? How do I write the skeleton I provided in one place and then just write a line or two containing the substitution parameters and get the pattern to propagate itself? EDIT: Modified my misleading title -- I am hoping to find a solution that doesn't involve code generation or copy/paste techniques, and rather to be able to write the skeleton of the code once in a base class in some form and have it be "instantiated" into lots of subclasses as the accessor for various properties. EDIT: Here is my solution, as suggested but left unimplemented by the chosen answerer. // I'll write many of these... public BusinessClass PropertyName { get { return GetSingleRelation(ref this.m_LocallyCachedValue, this.PropertyId, "ForeignKeyName"); } } // That all call this. public TBusinessClass GetSingleRelation<TBusinessClass>( ref TBusinessClass cachedField, int fieldId, string contextFieldName) { if (cachedField == null) { if (this.Record == null) { ConstructorInfo ci = typeof(TBusinessClass).GetConstructor( new Type[] { this.Database.GetType(), typeof(int) }); cachedField = (TBusinessClass)ci.Invoke( new object[] { this.Database, fieldId }); } else { var obj = this.Record.GetType().GetProperty(objName).GetValue( this.Record, null); ConstructorInfo ci = typeof(TBusinessClass).GetConstructor( new Type[] { this.Database.GetType(), obj.GetType()}); cachedField = (TBusinessClass)ci.Invoke( new object[] { this.Database, obj }); } } return cachedField; }

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• Powershell invoke-command with PSCredential in line

  - by jaffa

  I need to be able to run a command on another server. This script acts as a bootstrap to another script which is run on the actual server. This works great on servers on the same domain, but if I need to run this script on a remote server, I need to specify credentials. The command is kicked off from a Msbuild targets file like so: <Target Name="PreDeployment" Condition="true" BeforeTargets="MSDeployPublish"> <Exec Command="powershell.exe -ExecutionPolicy Bypass invoke-command bootstrapScript.ps1 -computername $(MyServer) -argumentlist param1, param2" /> </Target> However, I need to be able to supply the credentials by creating a new PSCredentials object with a secure password for my deployment script to run on a remote server: <Target Name="PreDeployment" Condition="true" BeforeTargets="MSDeployPublish"> <Exec Command="powershell.exe -ExecutionPolicy Bypass invoke-command bootstrapScript.ps1 -computername $(MyServer) -credential New-Object System.Management.Automation.PSCredential ('admin', (convertto-securestring $(Password) -asplaintext -force)) -argumentlist param1, param2" /> </Target> When I run the build, a dialog pops up with the username set to System.Management.Automation.PSCredential. I need to be able to create the credentials in-line on the executable target. How do I accomplish this?

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• How do I pass a LuaTable between two Lua states using LuaInterface?

  - by user316675

  I've been trying to pass a LuaTable class between two Lua states, like so: LuaManager L1 = new Lua(); LuaManager L2 = new Lua(); LuaTable table = L1.DoString("return {apple = 25}")[0]; L2["tbl"] = table; double results = L2.DoString("return tbl[\"apple\"]")[0]; Assert.AreEqual(25.0, results); The above test fails; I receive a return value of nil. Using the Immediate Window confirms that "table" is a non-null object, and that table["apple"] returns 25; it's something that's being lost in translation to L2. Interestingly, when the object is loaded back into the same state, the test works, like so: //Succeeds LuaManager lua = new Lua(); LuaTable table = lua.DoString("return {apple = 25}")[0]; lua["tbl"] = table; double results = lua.DoString("return tbl[\"apple\"]")[0]; Assert.AreEqual(25.0, results); How can I safely pass the LuaTables without hassles? Thanks in advance!

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• How does jquery display an image received from an ajax request?

  - by Gnee

  I have this working great, but I'd like a deeper understanding of what is actually going on behind the scenes. I am using Jquery's Ajax method to pull 5 blog posts (returning only the title and first photo). A PHP script grabs the blog posts' title and first photo and sticks it in an array and sends it back to my browser as JSON. Upon receiving the JSON object, Jquery grabs the first member of the JSON object and displays it's title and photo. In a gallery I made, using buttons – the user can iterate the 1-5 posts. So the actual AJAX call happens right away, and only once. I am basically using this kind of setup: $('my_div').html(json_obj[i]) and each click does a i++. So jquery is plucking these blog posts from my computers memory, my web browsers cache, or some kind of cache in the Javascript engine? One of the things it's returning is a pretty gnarly animated gif. I just wonder if it constantly running in the background (but not visible), stealing processing cycles...etc. Or Javascript just inserting (say a flash movie) into the DOM, but before hand does nothing but take up a little memory (no processing). Anyway, I'm just curious. If someone is a guru on this, I'd love to hear your take. Thanks!!

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• Change flash src with jquery?

  - by Elliott

  Hi I have a flash menu showing a few links, but when the user is logged in I want to change the menu from menu1 to menu2 ... so that it will display "My Account" rather than "Signup" The code below is for my flash: <div id="menu"> <object classid="clsid:d27cdb6e-ae6d-11cf-96b8-444553540000" codebase="http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=9,0,0,0" width="825" height="69" id="menu1" align="middle"> <param name="allowScriptAccess" value="sameDomain" /> <param name="allowFullScreen" value="false" /> <param name="movie" value="menu1.swf" /><param name="quality" value="high" /><param name="wmode" value="transparent" /><param name="bgcolor" value="#ffffff" /> <embed src="menu1.swf" quality="high" wmode="transparent" bgcolor="#ffffff" width="825" height="69" name="menu1" align="middle" allowScriptAccess="sameDomain" allowFullScreen="false" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" pluginspage="http://www.macromedia.com/go/getflashplayer" /> </object> </div> Php: if (loggedin()) { echo '<script type="text/javascript"> CHANGE FLASH LINK HERE </script>'; } Could this be done without having to write all the above code out again? Thanks :)

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• Passing an ActionScript JPG Byte Array to Javscript (and eventually to PHP)

  - by Gus

  Our web application has a feature which uses Flash (AS3) to take photos using the user's web cam, then passes the resulting byte array to PHP where it is reconstructed and saved on the server. However, we need to be able to take this web application offline, and we have chosen Gears to do so. The user takes the app offline, performs his tasks, then when he's reconnected to the server, we "sync" the data back with our central database. We don't have PHP to interact with Flash anymore, but we still need to allow users to take and save photos. We don't know how to save a JPG that Flash creates in a local database. Our hope was that we could save the byte array, a serialized string, or somehow actually persist the object itself, then pass it back to either PHP or Flash (and then PHP) to recreate the JPG. We have tried: - passing the byte array to Javascript instead of PHP, but javascript doesn't seem to be able to do anything with it (the object seems to be stripped of its methods) - stringifying the byte array in Flash, and then passing it to Javascript, but we always get the same string: ÿØÿà Now we are thinking of serializing the string in Flash, passing it to Javascript, then on the return route, passing that string back to Flash which will then pass it to PHP to be reconstructed as a JPG. (whew). Since no one on our team has extensive Flash background, we're a bit lost. Is serialization the way to go? Is there a more realistic way to do this? Does anyone have any experience with this sort of thing? Perhaps we can build a javascript class that is the same as the byte array class in AS?

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