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  • Nullable Date column merge problem

    - by Vladimir
    I am using JPA with openjpa implementation beneath, on a Geronimo application server. I am also using MySQL database. I have a problem with updating object with nullable Date property. When I'm trying to merge entity with Date property set to null, no sql update script is generated (or when other fields are modified, sql update script is generated, but date field is ommited from it). If date field is set to some other not null value, update script is properly generated. Did anyone have problem like that?

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  • Opencv python and webcam

    - by Neil Benn
    Hello, I'm working with OpenCV on a beagleboard with ubuntu and OpenCV 1.1 interfaced via Python. I'm trying to set something up to capture a feed from a UVC compatible webcam (logitech C250). I have tested the webcam with luvcview and it works but only if I set the input format to YUV. If I run it in 'normal' mode I am getting back jpeg frames and something - somewhere is not happy! I'm trying to connect with the webcam in OpenCV as I want to get the image back from the webcam and run some analysis on it. As I have a limited device this seems to be the most efficient way of doing it - however I need to instruct the capturing system to capture in YUV and not jpeg. Is there a way of doing this (for example luvcview allow me to enter luvcview -f YUVY)? Cheers, Neil

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  • How do I setup FitNesse for use with .NET?

    - by Fredrik
    I'm trying to get started with FitNesse for .NET on Windows Vista. In all tutorials I find on the web I'm told to execute the run.bat file, but all i get when downloading the latest release is a .jar-file. When i run this, the filestructure is unpacked and I can reach the fitnesse server by browsing to http://localhost. Now, when I'm trying to set up a test project, according to all documentation I find I'm supposed define the path to fitsharp.dll but I can't find this file anywhere in the filestructure that was set up from the .jar-file. What am I doing wrong? Sincerely, Fredrik

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  • Custom validator not invoked when using Validation Application Block through configuration

    - by Chris
    I have set up a ruleset in my configuration file which has two validators, one of which is a built-in NotNullValidator, the other of which is a custom validator. The problem is that I see the NotNullValidator hit, but not my custom validator. The custom validator is being used to validate an Entity Framework entity object. I have used the debugger to confirm the NotNull is hit (I forced a failure condition so I saw it set an invalid result), but it never steps into the custom one. I am using MVC as the web app, so I defined the ruleset in a config file at that layer, but my custom validator is defined in another project. However, I wouldn't have thought that to be a problem because when I use the Enterprise Library Configuration tool inside Visual Studio 2008 it is able to set the type properly for the custom validator. As well, I believe the custom validator is fine as it builds ok, and the config tool can reference it properly. Does anybody have any ideas what the problem could be, or even what to do/try to debug further? Here is a stripped down version of my custom validator: [ConfigurationElementType(typeof(CustomValidatorData))] public sealed class UserAccountValidator : Validator { public UserAccountValidator(NameValueCollection attributes) : base(string.Empty, "User Account") { } protected override string DefaultMessageTemplate { get { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } protected override void DoValidate(object objectToValidate, object currentTarget, string key, ValidationResults results) { if (!currentTarget.GetType().Equals(typeof(UserAccount))) { throw new Exception(); } UserAccount userAccountToValidate = (UserAccount)currentTarget; // snipped code ... this.LogValidationResult(results, "The User Account is invalid", currentTarget, key); } } Here is the XML of my ruleset in Validation.config (the NotNull rule is only there to force a failure so I could see it getting hit, and it does): <validation> <type defaultRuleset="default" assemblyName="MyProj.Entities, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" name="MyProj.Entities.UserAccount"> <ruleset name="default"> <properties> <property name="HashedPassword"> <validator negated="true" messageTemplate="" messageTemplateResourceName="" messageTemplateResourceType="" tag="" type="Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Validation.Validators.NotNullValidator, Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Validation, Version=4.1.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35" name="Not Null Validator" /> </property> <property name="Property"> <validator messageTemplate="" messageTemplateResourceName="" messageTemplateResourceType="" tag="" type="MyProj.Entities.UserAccountValidator, MyProj.Entities, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" name="Custom Validator" /> </property> </properties> </ruleset> </type> </validation> And here is the stripped down version of the way I invoke the validation: var type = entity.GetType() var validator = ValidationFactory.CreateValidator(type, "default", new FileConfigurationSource("Validation.config")) var results = validator.Validate(entity) Any advice would be much appreciated! Thanks, Chris

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  • Http Modules are called on every request when using mvc/routing module

    - by MartinF
    I am developing a http module that hooks into the FormsAuthentication Module through the Authenticate event. While debugging i noticed that the module (and all other modules registered) gets hit every single time the client requests a resource (also when it requests images, stylesheets, javascript files (etc.)). This happens both when running on a IIS 7 server in integrated pipeline mode, and debugging through the webdev server (in non- integrated pipeline mode) As i am developing a website with a lot images which usually wont be cached by the client browser it will hit the modules a lot of unnessecary times. I am using MVC and its routing mechanishm (System.Web.Routing.UrlRoutingModule). When creating a new website the runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests attribute for the IIS 7 (system.webServer) section is per default set to true in the web.config, which as the name indicates make it call all modules for every single request. If i set the runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests attribute to false, no modules will get called. It seems that the reason for this is because of the routing module or mvc (dont know excactly why), which causes that the asp.net (aspx) handler never gets called and therefore the events and the modules never gets called (one time only like supposed). I tested this by trying to call "mydomain.com/Default.aspx" instead of just "mydomain.com/" and correctly it calls the modules only once like it is supposed. How do i fix this so it only calls the modules once when the page is requested and not also when all other resources are requested ? Is there some way i can register that all requests should fire the asp.net (aspx) handler, except requests for specific filetype extensions ? Of course that wont fix the problem if i choose to go with urls like /content/images/myimage123 for the images (without the extension). But i cant think of any other way to fix it. Is there a better way to solve this problem ? I have tried to set up an ignoreRoute like this routes.IgnoreRoute("content/{*pathInfo}"); where the content folder contains all the images, javascripts and stylesheets in seperat subfolders, but it doesnt seem to change anything. I can see there a many different possibilites when setting up a handler but I cant seem to figure out how it should be possible to setup one that will make it possible to use the routing module and have urls like /blog/post123 and not call the modules when requesting images, javascripts and stylesheets (etc.). Hope anyone out there can help me ? Martin

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  • C++ project type: unicode vs multi-byte; pros and cons

    - by Stefan Valianu
    I'm wondering what the Stack Overflow community thinks when it comes to creating a project (thinking primarily c++ here) with a unicode or a multi-byte character set. Are there pros to going Unicode straight from the start, implying all your strings will be in wide format? Are there performance issues / larger memory requirements because of a standard use of a larger character? Is there an advantage to this method? Do some processor architectures handle wide characters better? Are there any reasons to make your project Unicode if you don't plan on supporting additional languages? What reasons would one have for creating a project with a multi-byte character set? How do all of the factors above collide in a high performance environment (such as a modern video game) ?

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  • showing progressbar progress with ajax request

    - by Ygam
    Hi guys! I want to show progress with jquery ui progress bar when an ajax request fires and when it finishes. The problem is I don't know how to set values for the progress bar depending on the progress of the ajax request. Please hlep. Here's a code to start with: function ajaxnews() { $('.newstabs a').click(function(e){ var section = $(this).attr('id'); var url = base + 'news/section/' + section; $.ajax({ url : url, dataTye : 'html', start : loadNews, success : fillNews }); }); } // start callback functions function loadNews() { $('#progressbar').fadeIn(); $('#progressbar').progressbar({ //how shoud I set the values here}); } function fillNews() { $('#progressbar').progressbar('option', 'value', ?? /* how do I find this?*/); $('#progressbar').fadeOut(); }

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  • How to validate parameter values against a data source in Crystal Reports 2008

    - by mjh41
    I have a report designed in Crystal 2008. The report has a parameter field called "Member ID" that I want to use to get a string input from the user running the report. However, I want to do some sort of validation to ensure that the ID they entered is valid (it exists in a database table that I already have set up). Is there any way to do this? I know you can set up dynamic parameters that would give the user a dropdown list of Member ID values to choose from based on the data stored in my database table. But I don't want to make the user sort through thousands of IDs in a dropdown. I just want them to manually enter an ID and then have the report check the entered value against a database table. Is this possible?

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  • Default values for model fields in a Ruby on Rails form

    - by Callum Rogers
    I have a Model which has fields username, data, tags, date, votes. I have form using form_for that creates a new item and puts it into the database. However, as you can guess I want the votes field to equal 0 and the date field to equal the current date when it is placed into the database. How and where would I set/apply these values to the item? I can get it to work with hidden fields in the form but this comes with obvious issues (someone could set the votes field to a massive number.

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  • Change the null placeholder in a Cocoa binding?

    - by Monolo
    Is there a way to change (for the purpose of localization) the null placeholder in a binding in Cocoa? The bindings are set up in Interface Builder for a popup button. The two-way nature of the bindings as set up in IB is needed, so doing it programmatically is not really appealing. I am aware that the standard way of handling localizations of a nib file is by making one for each language, but since this is the only difference in the whole nib file between the language versions, it seems a bit excessive for a single string. If there is a way to modify a binding created in IB, I was thinning about doing it in the file's owner's awakeFromNib method.

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  • Google Chrome audit on caching

    - by Álvaro G. Vicario
    If I run an audit on my sites with Google Chrome, I get this message in the Leverage browser caching section: The following resources are missing a cache expiration. Resources that do not specify an expiration may not be cached by browsers: A list of all the pictures follows. I get a similar notice in Leverage proxy caching: Consider adding a "Cache-Control: public" header to the following resources: Apart from pictures, I also get a notice about HTML, CSS and JavaScript files: The following resources are explicitly non-cacheable. Consider making them cacheable if possible: Its funny because I've worked hard to cache all static contents (except for pictures, where I just left Apache's default settings). Firefox does indeed store all these items in cache. Is there anything I should improve in my HTTP headers? Here's the complete header set of some items as loaded after removing the browser caché. Pictures use default settings I didn't really check before, the rest should be cachéd for three hours. I can set headers with both .htaccess and PHP. PNG HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 12:46:14 GMT Server: Apache Last-Modified: Thu, 18 Mar 2010 21:40:54 GMT Etag: "c48024-230-4821a15d6c580" Accept-Ranges: bytes Content-Length: 560 Keep-Alive: timeout=4 Connection: Keep-Alive Content-Type: image/png HTML HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 12:46:13 GMT Server: Apache X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.11 Expires: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 15:46:13 GMT Cache-Control: max-age=10800, s-maxage=10800, must-revalidate, proxy-revalidate Content-Encoding: gzip Vary: Accept-Encoding Last-Modified: Wed, 24 Mar 2010 20:30:36 GMT Keep-Alive: timeout=4 Connection: Keep-Alive Transfer-Encoding: chunked Content-Type: text/html; charset=ISO-8859-15 CSS HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 12:48:21 GMT Server: Apache X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.11 Expires: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 15:48:21 GMT Cache-Control: max-age=10800, s-maxage=10800, must-revalidate, proxy-revalidate Content-Encoding: gzip Vary: Accept-Encoding Last-Modified: Thu, 18 Mar 2010 21:40:12 GMT Keep-Alive: timeout=4 Connection: Keep-Alive Transfer-Encoding: chunked Content-Type: text/css JavaScript HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 12:48:21 GMT Server: Apache X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.11 Expires: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 15:48:21 GMT Cache-Control: max-age=10800, s-maxage=10800, must-revalidate, proxy-revalidate Content-Encoding: gzip Vary: Accept-Encoding Last-Modified: Thu, 18 Mar 2010 21:40:12 GMT Keep-Alive: timeout=4 Connection: Keep-Alive Transfer-Encoding: chunked Content-Type: application/x-javascript Update I've tested Jumby's suggestion and set my CSS's expire to 1 year: Cache-Control:max-age=31536000, s-maxage=31536000, must-revalidate, proxy-revalidate Connection:Keep-Alive Content-Encoding:gzip Content-Length:4198 Content-Type:text/css Date:Mon, 02 Aug 2010 20:48:56 GMT Expires:Tue, 02 Aug 2011 20:48:56 GMT Keep-Alive:timeout=5, max=99 Last-Modified:Thu, 18 Mar 2010 20:40:12 GMT Server:Apache/2.2.14 (Win32) PHP/5.3.1 Vary:Accept-Encoding X-Powered-By:PHP/5.3.1 However, Chrome still claims "explicitly non-cacheable".

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  • Changing a form's action attribute in IE?

    - by Jonatan Littke
    Hey. I'm trying to set a hash value in a form's action, to keep it when the form is submitted. Firefox allows me to update the hash and redirects accordingly, but IE doesn't. I initially thought this was related to IE not allowing hash values in the action attribute at all, but it seems I can't dynamically set the action at all in IE - with a hash or not? Is that right? I'm using the following jQuery: $("#options-form").attr('action', '#' + hash); To update: <form id="options-form" action="" method="get"> (On a sidenote, this wasn't needed in Firefox, because FF appears to preserve the current hash if it was only the GET params that changed.)

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  • Datacontracts property getter running twice

    - by user321426
    I have a set of data contracts that act as wrappers to base classes that we wish to expose. A quick example is: [DataMember] public List<decimal> Points { get { return sourceObject.ListPoints(); } private set{} } We have some other properties that we have to massage the data first (we are converting object graphs and need to guard against circular references). The issue that we are seeing is that this getter will fire twice, once within the service operation, then again during serialization. This is causing two problems: We manually add to collections, since this is running twice the collections are filled with dupes. If an exception is thrown during the second run, it happens outside of the try/catch in the operation, and does not throw a fault. The service throws a cryptic timeout message, and the only way to see the error is via WCF trace logs.

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  • PyQt threads and signals - how to properly retrieve values

    - by Cawas
    Using Python 2.5 and PyQt, I couldn't find any question this specific in Python, so sorry if I'm repeating the other Qt referenced questions below, but I couldn't easily understand that C code. I've got two classes, a GUI and a thread, and I'm trying to get return values from the thread. I've used the link in here as base to write my code, which is working just fine. To sum it up and illustrate the question in code here (I don't think this code will run on itself): class MainWindow (QtGui.QWidget): # this is just a reference and not really relevant to the question def __init__ (self, parent = None): QtGui.QWidget.__init__(self, parent) self.thread = Worker() # this does not begin a thread - look at "Worker.run" for mor details self.connect(self.thread, QtCore.SIGNAL('finished()'), self.unfreezeUi) self.connect(self.thread, QtCore.SIGNAL('terminated()'), self.unfreezeUi) self.connect(self.buttonDaemon, QtCore.SIGNAL('clicked()'), self.pressDaemon) # the problem begins below: I'm not using signals, or queue, or whatever, while I believe I should def pressDaemon (self): self.buttonDaemon.setEnabled(False) if self.thread.isDaemonRunning(): self.thread.setDaemonStopSignal(True) self.buttonDaemon.setText('Daemon - converts every %s sec'% args['daemonInterval']) else: self.buttonConvert.setEnabled(False) self.thread.startDaemon() self.buttonDaemon.setText('Stop Daemon') self.buttonDaemon.setEnabled(True) # this whole class is just another reference class Worker (QtCore.QThread): daemonIsRunning = False daemonStopSignal = False daemonCurrentDelay = 0 def isDaemonRunning (self): return self.daemonIsRunning def setDaemonStopSignal (self, bool): self.daemonStopSignal = bool def __init__ (self, parent = None): QtCore.QThread.__init__(self, parent) self.exiting = False self.thread_to_run = None # which def will be running def __del__ (self): self.exiting = True self.thread_to_run = None self.wait() def run (self): if self.thread_to_run != None: self.thread_to_run(mode='continue') def startDaemon (self, mode = 'run'): if mode == 'run': self.thread_to_run = self.startDaemon # I'd love to be able to just pass this as an argument on start() below return self.start() # this will begin the thread # this is where the thread actually begins self.daemonIsRunning = True self.daemonStopSignal = False sleepStep = 0.1 # don't know how to interrupt while sleeping - so the less sleepStep, the faster StopSignal will work # begins the daemon in an "infinite" loop while self.daemonStopSignal == False and not self.exiting: # here, do any kind of daemon service delay = 0 while self.daemonStopSignal == False and not self.exiting and delay < args['daemonInterval']: time.sleep(sleepStep) # delay is actually set by while, but this holds for N second delay += sleepStep # daemon stopped, reseting everything self.daemonIsRunning = False self.emit(QtCore.SIGNAL('terminated')) Tho it's quite big, I hope this is pretty clear. The main point is on def pressDaemon. Specifically all 3 self.thread calls. The last one, self.thread.startDaemon() is just fine, and exactly as the example. I doubt that represents any issue. The problem is being able to set the Daemon Stop Signal and retrieve the value if it's running. I'm not sure that it's possible to set a stop signal on QtCore.QtThread, because I've tried doing the same way and it didn't work. But I'm pretty sure it's not possible to retrieve a return result from the emit. So, there it is. I'm using direct calls to the thread class, and I'm almost positive that's not a good design and will probably fail when running under stress. I read about that queue, but I'm not sure it's the proper solution here, or if I should be using Qt at all, since this is Python. And just maybe there's nothing wrong with the way I'm doing.

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  • In WPF RichTextBox, does overriding of Underline/Strikethrough work?

    - by Daniel Earwicker
    In a WPF RichTextBox, the effective style of a Run of text is a result of combining the properties defined on the Run with the properties it "inherits" from the enclosing Paragraph and finally the styles on the Document. So you can set FontWeight to Bold at any of those levels. You can also set it Bold on the Paragraph and then switch it to Normal (override it) for a specific Run. However, underline and strikethrough are different. They are items that can optionally appear in a list of TextDecorations, which is a property of Inline (and hence Run) and of Paragraph, but not of Document. And you can switch on Underline in the Paragraph, and it gets inherited so that all Runs within that Paragraph default appear underlined by default. Is it possible to switch it off underline in a specific Run? i.e. is there a way to insert an entry into the list of TextDecorations which would mean "Don't underline", thus overriding the Paragraph's setting?

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  • How Gridview co-operates with ObjectDataSource?

    - by sanjuro
    Hi, how Gridview co-operates with ObjectDataSource internally? When you set DataSourceID of GridView, assigned ObjectDataSource take care of such things as paging and sorting, but i don't have full control above databinding itself, on the other side when i set datasource of gridview in code-behind: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) { testGridView.DataSource = testObjectDataSource.Select(); testGridView.DataBind(); } } Now i have full control, but i have lost the advantage of comfort sorting and paging. And that co-operation between ObjectDataSource and Gridview became mystery for me. So can anybody explain me in details how ObjectDataSource and Gridview co-operates under the hood? I want to understand it in order to write my own smart code or own gridview that will mimic this co-operation. Many thanks for answers.

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  • Creating a Cross-Process EventWaitHandle

    - by Navaneeth
    I have two windows application, one is a windows service which create EventWaitHandle and wait for it. Second application is a windows gui which open it by calling EventWaitHandle.OpenExisting() and try to Set the event. But I am getting an exception in OpenExisting. The Exception is "Access to the path is denied". windows Service code EventWaitHandle wh = new EventWaitHandle(false, EventResetMode.AutoReset, "MyEventName"); wh.WaitOne(); Windows GUI code try { EventWaitHandle wh = EventWaitHandle.OpenExisting("MyEventName"); wh.Set(); } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message); } I tried the same code with two sample console application, it was working fine.

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  • When does the .NET FormAuthentication ticket get checked and how do I tap into this event?

    - by Mustafakidd
    Hello everyone - We are attempting to integrate an ASP.NET MVC site with our client's SSO system using PingFederate. I would like to use the built in FormsAuthentication framework to do this. The way I've gone about it so far is: Set up my Web.config so that my FormsAuthentication LoginURL goes to my site's "BeginAuthentication" action on a "Security" controller. From this action, I set up some session variables (what URL was being accessed, for example, since Ping won't send this info back to me), and then redirect to our client's login page on an external site (www.client.com/Login for example). From here, the authentication takes place and a cookie is generated on the same domain as the one that our application is running on which contains the unique identifier of the authenticated user, I've set it up so that once this happens, the Ping server will redirect to my "EndAuthentication" action on my "Security" controller. In this action, I call my membership class's "ValidateUser" method which takes this unique identifier from the cookie and loads in the user on our application that this ID refers to. I save that logged in user in our Session (Session["LoggedInAs"], for example) and expire the cookie that contains the id of the authenticated user that the SSO system provided for me. All of this works well. The issue I'm wondering about is what happens after our user has already authenticated and manually goes back to our client's login page (www.client.com/login) and logs in as another user. If they do that, then the flow from #2 above to number 3 happens as normal - but since there already exists an authenticated user on our site, it seems as though the FormsAuthentication system doesn't bother kicking off anything so I don't get a chance to check for the cookie I'm looking for to login as this new user. What I'd like to do is, somewhere in my Global.asax file (probably FormsAuthenticate_OnAuthenticate), check to see if the cookie that the SSO system sends to me exists, and if so, sign out of the application using FormsAuthentication.SignOut(). Another issue that seems to be related is that if I let my Session expire, the FormsAuthentication still seems to think I am authenticated and it lets me access a page even though no currently logged in user exists in my Session, so the page doesn't render correctly. Should I tap into the Session_End event and do FormsAuthentication.SignOut() here as well? Basically, I want to know when the authentication ticket created by System.Web.Security.FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(..) gets checked in the flow of a request so that I can determine whether I need to SignOut() and force revalidation or not. Thanks for any help. Sorry for the length of this message, trying to be as detailed as possible. Mustafa

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  • How do I serialize an object to xml but not have it be the root element of the xml document

    - by mezoid
    I have the following object: public class MyClass { public int Id { get; set;} public string Name { get; set; } } I'm wanting to serialize this to the following xml string: <MyClass> <Id>1</Id> <Name>My Name</Name> </MyClass> Unfortunately, when I use the XMLSerializer I get a string which looks like: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <MyClass xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <Id>1</Id> <Name>My Name</Name> </MyClass> I'm not wanting MyClass to be the root element the document, rather I'm eventually wanting to add the string with other similar serialized objects which will be within a larger xml document. i.e. Eventually I'll have a xml string which looks like this: <Classes> <MyClass> <Id>1</Id> <Name>My Name</Name> </MyClass> <MyClass> <Id>1</Id> <Name>My Name</Name> </MyClass> </Classes>" My first thought was to create a class as follows: public class Classes { public List<MyClass> MyClasses { get; set; } } ...but that just addes an additional node called MyClasses to wrap the list of MyClass.... My gut feeling is that I'm approaching this the wrong way and that my lack of experience with creating xml files isn't helping to point me to some part of the .NET framework or some other library that simplifies this.

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  • netsh http add urlacl problem

    - by BadCat914
    I'm trying to set up some ports from a WIX installer. For WinXP we use httpcfg in a custom action and this works fine. For Win7, we're trying: netsh http add urlacl url=http://127.0.0.1/8346/ user="NT AUTHORITY\Authenticated Users" sddl="D:(A;;GX;;;AU)" The WIX installer correctly executes this statement and sets up the ports - FOR THE ADMINISTRATOR who runs the .msi. Users with lesser priviliges cannot access these ports. I need to set it up for all users on the machine, but I've tried about everything I can think of with no luck. Something I find odd is that the Admin user can see the assigned ports using netstat -a, but they do not appear at all using netsh http show urlacl...is that an indicator of something wrong?

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  • MSSQL DATEDIFF accuracy

    - by jomi
    Hello, I have to store some intervals in mssql db. I'm aware that the datetime's accuracy is approx. 3.3ms (can only end 0, 3 and 7). But when I calculate intervals between datetimes I see that the result can only end with 0, 3 and 6. So the more intervals I sum up the more precision I loose. Is it possible to get an accurate DATEDIFF in milliseconds ? declare @StartDate datetime declare @EndDate datetime set @StartDate='2010-04-01 12:00:00.000' set @EndDate='2010-04-01 12:00:00.007' SELECT DATEDIFF(millisecond, @StartDate, @EndDate),@EndDate-@StartDate, @StartDate, @EndDate I would like to see 7 ad not 6. (And it should be as fast as possible) Thanks,

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  • Calling "Base-Getter" in Overriding Getter of Property

    - by scherand
    I have a base class "Parent" like this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Text; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Parent { private int parentVirtualInt = -1; public virtual int VirtualProperty { get { return parentVirtualInt; } set { if(parentVirtualInt != value) { parentVirtualInt = value; } } } } } and a child class like this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Text; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Child : Parent { public override int VirtualProperty { get { if(base.VirtualProperty > 0) { throw new ApplicationException("Dummy Ex"); } return base.VirtualProperty; } set { if(base.VirtualProperty != value) { base.VirtualProperty = value; } } } } } Note that the getter in Child is calling the getter of Parent (or at least this is what I intend). I now use the "Child" class by instantiating it, assigning a value (let's say 4) to its VirtualProperty and then reading the property again. Child c = new Child(); c.VirtualProperty = 4; Console.Out.WriteLine("Child.VirtualProperty: " + c.VirtualProperty); When I run this, I obviously get an ApplicationException saying "Dummy Ex". But if I set a breakpoint on the line if(base.VirtualProperty > 0) in Child and check the value of base.VirtualProperty (by hovering the mouse over it) before the exception can be thrown (I assume(d)), I already get the Exception. From this I convey that the statement base.VirtualProperty in the "Child-Getter calls itself"; kind of. What I would like to achieve is the same behavior I get when I change the definition of parentVirutalInt (in Parent) to protected and use base.parentVirtualInt in the Getter of Child instead of base.VirtualProperty. And I don't yet see why this is not working. Can anybody shed some light on this? I feel that overridden properties behave differently than overridden methods? By the way: I am doing something very similar with subclassing a class I do not have any control over (this is the main reason why my "workaround" is not an option). Kind regards

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  • NullPointerException with CallableStatement.getResultSet()

    - by Raj
    Hello, I have a stored proc in SQL Server 2005, which looks like the following (simplified) CREATE PROCEDURE FOO @PARAMS AS BEGIN -- STEP 1: POPULATE tmp_table DECLARE @tmp_table TABLE (...) INSERT INTO @tmp_table SELECT * FROM BAR -- STEP 2: USE @tmp_table FOR FINAL SELECT SELECT abc, pqr FROM BAZ JOIN @tmp_table ON some_criteria END When I run this proc from SQL Server Management Studio, things work fine. However, when I call the same proc from a Java program, using something like: cs = connection.prepareCall("exec proc ?,"); cs.setParam(...); rs = cs.getResultSet(); // BOOM - Null! while(rs.next()) {...} // NPE! I fail to understand why the first result set returned is NULL. Can someone explain this to me? As a workaround, if I check cs.getMoreResults() and if true, try another getResultSet() - THIS time it returns the proper result set. Any pointers please? (I'm using JTDS drivers, if it matters) Thanks, Raj

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  • ImageView scale type not working in list activity

    - by Justin
    I have used ImageView's before and understand the different scale types that can be set... However I am having an incredibly difficult time trying to get an ImageView to scale properly in the row of a ListActivity or an ExpandableListActivity. I have tried setting the android:scaleType property to every single value but the image never scales down. I have set the min and max sizes as well and they don't seem to have any effect. I have done both of these things in both the XMl and in code to no avail... Does anyone have any ideas or perhaps a workaround? Thanks in advance!

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  • Passing Custom event arguments to timer_TICK event

    - by Nimesh
    I have class //Create GroupFieldArgs as an EventArgs public class GroupFieldArgs : EventArgs { private string groupName = string.Empty; private int aggregateValue = 0; //Get the fieldName public string GroupName { set { groupName = value; } get { return groupName; } } //Get the aggregate value public int AggregateValue { set { aggregateValue = value; } get { return aggregateValue; } } } I have another class that creates a event handler public class Groupby { public event EventHandler eh; } Finally I have Timer on my form that has Timer_TICK event. I want to pass GroupFieldArgs in Timer_TICK event. What is the best way to do it?

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