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• C# Byte[] to Url Friendly String

  - by LorenVS

  Hello, I'm working on a quick captcha generator for a simple site I'm putting together, and I'm hoping to pass an encrypted key in the url of the page. I could probably do this as a query string parameter easy enough, but I'm hoping not too (just because nothing else runs off the query string)... My encryption code produces a byte[], which is then transformed using Convert.ToBase64String(byte[]) into a string. This string, however, is still not quite url friendly, as it can contain things like '/' and '='. Does anyone know of a better function in the .NET framework to convert a byte array to a url friendly string? I know all about System.Web.HttpUtility.UrlEncode() and its equivalents, however, they only work properly with query string parameters. If I url encode an '=' inside of the path, my web server brings back a 400 Bad Request error. Anyways, not a critical issue, but hoping someone can give me a nice solution **EDIT: Just to be absolutely sure exactly what I'm doing with the string, I figured I would supply a little more information. The byte[] that results from my encryption algorithm should be fed through some sort of algorithm to make it into a url friendly string. After this, it becomes the content of an XElement, which is then used as the source document for an XSLT transformation, and is used as a part of the href attribute for an anchor. I don't believe the xslt transformation is causing the issues, since what is coming through on the path appears to be an encoded query string parameter, but causes the HTTP 400 I've also tried HttpUtility.UrlPathEncode() on a base64 string, but that doesn't seem to do the trick either (I still end up with '/'s in my url)**

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• Why does my Doctrine DBAL query return no results when quoted?

  - by braveterry

  I'm using the Doctrine DataBase Abstraction Layer (DBAL) to perform some queries. For some reason, when I quote a parameter before passing it to the query, I get back no rows. When I pass it unquoted, it works fine. Here's the relevant snippet of code I'm using: public function get($game) { load::helper('doctrinehelper'); $conn = doctrinehelper::getconnection(); $statement = $conn->prepare('SELECT games.id as id, games.name as name, games.link_url, games.link_text, services.name as service_name, image_url FROM games, services WHERE games.name = ? AND services.key = games.service_key'); $quotedGame = $conn->quote($game); load::helper('loghelper'); $logger = loghelper::getLogger(); $logger->debug("Quoted Game: $quotedGame"); $logger->debug("Unquoted Game: $game"); $statement->execute(array($quotedGame)); $resultsArray = $statement->fetchAll(); $logger->debug("Number of rows returned: " . count($resultsArray)); return $resultsArray; } Here's what the log shows: 01/01/11 17:00:13,269 [2112] DEBUG root - Quoted Game: 'Diablo II Lord of Destruction' 01/01/11 17:00:13,269 [2112] DEBUG root - Unquoted Game: Diablo II Lord of Destruction 01/01/11 17:00:13,270 [2112] DEBUG root - Number of rows returned: 0 If I change this line: $statement->execute(array($quotedGame)); to this: $statement->execute(array($game)); I get this in the log: 01/01/11 16:51:42,934 [2112] DEBUG root - Quoted Game: 'Diablo II Lord of Destruction' 01/01/11 16:51:42,935 [2112] DEBUG root - Unquoted Game: Diablo II Lord of Destruction 01/01/11 16:51:42,936 [2112] DEBUG root - Number of rows returned: 1 Have I fat-fingered something?

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• Why do I get CA1806 when I catch exception in C++/CLI?

  - by brickner

  I've recently upgraded my project from Visual Studio 2008 to Visual Studio 2010. By enabling Code Analysis and compiling in Release, I'm getting warning CA1806: Do not ignore method results. I've managed to reduce the code that produces the warning to this code: .h file: public ref class Foo { public: void Bar(); }; .cpp file: void Foo::Bar() { try { } catch (const std::exception&) // here I get the warning { } } the warning: CA1806 : Microsoft.Usage : 'Foo::Bar(void)' calls 'Global::__CxxRegisterExceptionObject(void*, void*)' but does not use the HRESULT or error code that the method returns. This could lead to unexpected behavior in error conditions or low-resource situations. Use the result in a conditional statement, assign the result to a variable, or pass it as an argument to another method. If I try to use the exception value or do catch(...) the warning still appears. If I catch managed exceptions instead or compile in Debug I don't get the warning. Why do I get this warning? UPDATE I've decided to open a bug report on Microsoft Connect.

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• Can I store SQL Server sort order in a variable?

  - by Steve Weet

  I have the following SQL within a stored procedure. Is there a way to remove the IF statement and pass the 'ASC'/'DESC' option as a variable? I know I could do the query a number of different ways, or return a table and sort it externally etc. I would just like to know if I can avoid duplicating the CASE statement. IF @sortOrder = 'Desc' BEGIN SELECT * FROM #t_results ORDER BY CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'surname' THEN surname END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'forename' THEN forename END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'fullName' THEN fullName END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'userId' THEN userId END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'MobileNumber' THEN MSISDN END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'DeviceStatus' THEN DeviceStatus END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'LastPosition' THEN LastPosition END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'LastAlert' THEN LastAlert END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'LastCommunication' THEN LastCommunication END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'LastPreAlert' THEN LastPreAlert END DESC END ELSE BEGIN SELECT * FROM #t_results ORDER BY CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'surname' THEN surname END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'forename' THEN forename END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'fullName' THEN fullName END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'userId' THEN userId END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'MobileNumber' THEN MSISDN END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'DeviceStatus' THEN DeviceStatus END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'LastPosition' THEN LastPosition END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'LastAlert' THEN LastAlert END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'LastCommunication' THEN LastCommunication END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'LastPreAlert' THEN LastPreAlert END DESC END END

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• Final classes in Python 3.x- something Guido isn't telling me?

  - by GlenCrawford

  This question is built on top of many assumptions. If one assumption is wrong, then the whole thing falls over. I'm still relatively new to Python and have just entered the curious/exploratory phase. It is my understanding that Python does not support the creating of classes that cannot be subclassed (final classes). However, it seems to me that the bool class in Python cannot be subclassed. This makes sense when the intent of the bool class is considered (because bool is only supposed to have two values: true and false), and I'm happy with that. What I want to know is how this class was marked as final. So my question is: how exactly did Guido manage to prevent subclassing of bool? >>> class TestClass(bool): pass Traceback (most recent call last): File "<pyshell#2>", line 1, in <module> class TestClass(bool): TypeError: type 'bool' is not an acceptable base type Related question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2172189/why-i-cant-extend-bool-in-python

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• Castle Active Record - Working with the cache

  - by David

  Hi All, im new to the Castle Active Record Pattern and Im trying to get my head around how to effectivley use cache. So what im trying to do (or want to do) is when calling the GetAll, find out if I have called it before and check the cache, else load it, but I also want to pass a bool paramter that will force the cache to clear and requery the db. So Im just looking for the final bits. thanks public static List<Model.Resource> GetAll(bool forceReload) { List<Model.Resource> resources = new List<Model.Resource>(); //Request to force reload if (forceReload) { //need to specify to force a reload (how?) XmlConfigurationSource source = new XmlConfigurationSource("appconfig.xml"); ActiveRecordStarter.Initialize(source, typeof(Model.Resource)); resources = Model.Resource.FindAll().ToList(); } else { //Check the cache somehow and return the cache? } return resources; } public static List<Model.Resource> GetAll() { return GetAll(false); }

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• How can I search an XML file without a dynamic language?

  - by jeph perro

  Let me try to explain my situation: We are using a CMS which 'bakes' a website, and you publish it to a webserver. The published site contains only static HTML ( or XML ) pages ( generated from the content in the CMS database ). I imported an XML file with the names and phone numbers from the company phone directory. Using only XSLT, can I create a way to search that directory? For example, if my XML file, directory.xml looks like this: <directory> <person> <fname>Ryan</fname> <lname>Purple</lname> <phone>887 778 5544</phone> </person> <person> <fname>Tanya</fname> <lname>Orange</lname> <phone>887 998 5541</phone> </person> <directory> Can I create a way to search for a person with the last name starting with "Pur" ? Can I pass a parameter to the XSLT? Can I search the XML tree to match the string in the parameter?

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• Extracting one word based on special character using Regular Expression in C#

  - by Jankhana

  I am not very good at regular expression but want to do some thing like this : string="c test123 d split" I want to split the word based on "c" and "d". this can be any word which i already have. The string will be given by the user. i want "test123" and "split" as my output. and there can be any number of words i.e "c test123 d split e new" etc. c d e i have already with me. I want just the next word after that word i.e after c i have test123 and after d i have split and after e i have new so i need test123 and split and new. how can I do this??? And one more thing I will pass just c first than d and than e. not together all of them. I tried string strSearchWord="c "; Regex testRegex1 = new Regex(strSearchWord); List lstValues = testRegex1.Split("c test123 d split").ToList(); But it's working only for last character i.e for d it's giving the last word but for c it includes test123 d split. How shall I do this???

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• NSArray/NSMutableArray : Passed by ref or by value???

  - by wgpubs

  Totally confused here. I have a PARENT UIViewController that needs to pass an NSMutableArray to a CHILD UIViewController. I'm expecting it to be passed by reference so that changes made in the CHILD will be reflected in the PARENT and vice-versa. But that is not the case. Both have a property declared as .. @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray *photos; Example: In PARENT: self.photos = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; ChildViewController *c = [[ChildViewController alloc] init ...]; c.photos = self.photos; ... ... ... In CHILD: [self.photos addObject:obj1]; [self.photos addObject:obj2]; NSLog(@"Count:%d", [self.photos count]) // Equals 2 as expected ... Back in PARENT: NSLog(@"Count:%d", [self.photos count]) // Equals 0 ... NOT EXPECTED I thought they'd both be accessing the same memory. Is this not the case? If it isn't ... how do I keep the two NSMutableArrays in sync?

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• Passing an instance variable through RJS?

  - by Elliot

  Hey guys here is my code (roughly): books.html.erb <% @books.each do |book| %> <% @bookid = book.id %> <div id="enter_stuff"> <%= render "input", :bookid => @bookid %> </div> <%end%> _input.html.erb <% @book = Book.find_by_id(@bookid) %> <strong>your book is: <%=h @book.name %></strong> create.rjs page.replace_html :enter_stuff, :partial => 'input', :object => @bookid The problem here is that only create.js doesn't seem to work (though, if instead of passing the partial I passed "..." it does work, so I know its that there are instance variables in the partial that aren't being reset. Any ideas?) So the final question, is how do I pass an instance variable to a partial through the create.rjs file? p.s. I know I will have duplicate div IDs, I'm not worrying about that for now though. Best, Elliot

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• TFS 2010 Build gives WorkItemStore error when Create Work Item on Failure is enabled

  - by Derek Morrison

  I'm using TFS 2010 Build. I have a build definition that uses the DefaultTemplate.xaml template that's stock in TFS 2010, and the Create Work Item on Failure property is set to True in the build definition. I deliberately made a change in my project that breaks the build. When the build runs, I see the compilation error reflected in the TFS Build log within Visual Studio, but I get the error "Value cannot be null. Parameter name: WorkItemStore" when TFS Build next tries to generate a Work Item for the broken build. I tracked down the activity in DefaultTemplate.xaml (see the rather lengthy path to it below) where the Work Item is created for a broken build, and I see it uses the Microsoft.TeamFoundation.Build.Workflow.Activities.OpenWorkItem class to create the Work Item. The appropriate values seemed to be filled out in the Properties window for the Create Work Item activity, so I don't see where I can pass WorkItemStore to it and I don't even know appropriate values for this setting. Path to the Create Work Item activity: Process Sequence Run On Agent Try Compile, Test, and Associate Changesets and Work Items Sequence Compile, Test, and Associate Changesets and Work Items Try Compile and Test Compile and Test For Each Configuration in BuildSettings.PlatformConfigurations Compile and Test for Configuration If BuildSettings.HasProjectsToBuild For Each Project in BuildSettings.ProjectsToBuild Try to Compile the Project Handle Exception If CreateWorkItem Create Work Item for non-Shelveset Builds Create Work Item

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• Improve Application Performace

  - by Gtest

  Hello, Want To Improvide Performace Of C#.Net Applicaiton.. In My Application I am using Third Party Interop/Dll To Process .doc Files. It's a Simple Operation, Which Pass Input/Output FilePath to Interop dll ...& dll will execute text form input file. To Improve Performace I have Tried, Execute 2 therad to process 32 files.(each Thread process 16 files) Execute application code by creating 2 new AppDomains(each AppDomain Code process 16 files) Execute Code Using TPL(Task Parellel Library) But all options take around same time (32 sec) to process 32 files.Manually process tooks same 32 sec to process 32 files. Just tried one thing ..when i have created sample exe to process 16 files as input & output for refrence PAth given in TextBox. ..I open 2 exe instance to process. 1 exe has differnt 16 input files & output Created with input file path 2 exe has differnt 16 input files & output Created with input file path When i click on start button of both exe ..it use 100% cpu & Utilize both core significantly & Process Completed within 16 sec for 32 files. Can we provide this kind of explicit prallism to Improve my applicaiton Peformace? Thanks.

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• Having vCam on custom classes instead of the root class.

  - by Hwang

  Maybe some of you guys know bout vCam from http://bryanheisey.com/blog/?page_id=22 I'm trying to have the script running on a custom classes instead of a MovieClip in the library. But after some trying I fail so I stick back to having the MC in the library and load the MC from the project root action-script files. Now it works fine if I run the MC on the root as files, but for more organizing purposes on my action-script files, I was thinking of calling it from a custom classes(where I can control the vCam), then call the custom classes from the root action-script files. But seems like it won't work other than the root action-script files. I'm not sure whether I'm missing any codes between the two custom classes, or its not coded to run that way. If it's not, then its fine too just that I want the things more organize. Or if you have any idea how to 'by-pass' this, please do tell me so. In case you need my code for the 2 classes, here it is: package { import flash.display.MovieClip; import classes.vCamera; public class main extends MovieClip { private var vC2:vCamera = new vCamera(); public function main():void { addChild(vC2) } } } package classes{ import flash.display.MovieClip; import flash.display.Stage; import flash.events.Event; public class vCamera extends MovieClip{ private var vC:vCam = new vCam(); public function vCamera():void{ addEventListener(Event.ADDED_TO_STAGE, add2Stage) } private function add2Stage(event:Event):void{ vC.x=stage.stageWidth/2; vC.y=stage.stageHeight/2; vC.rotation=15; addChild(vC); } } }

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• ASP.NET MVC Map String Url To A Route Value Object

  - by mwgriffiths

  I am creating a modular ASP.NET MVC application using areas. In short, I have created a greedy route that captures all routes beginning with {application}/{*catchAll}. Here is the action: // get /application/index public ActionResult Index(string application, object catchAll) { // forward to partial request to return partial view ViewData["partialRequest"] = new PartialRequest(catchAll); // this gets called in the view page and uses a partial request class to return a partial view } Example: The Url "/Application/Accounts/LogOn" will then cause the Index action to pass "/Accounts/LogOn" into the PartialRequest, but as a string value. // partial request constructor public PartialRequest(object routeValues) { RouteValueDictionary = new RouteValueDictionary(routeValues); } In this case, the route value dictionary will not return any values for the routeData, whereas if I specify a route in the Index Action: ViewData["partialRequest"] = new PartialRequest(new { controller = "accounts", action = "logon" }); It works, and the routeData values contains a "controller" key and an "action" key; whereas before, the keys are empty, and therefore the rest of the class wont work. So my question is, how can I convert the "/Accounts/LogOn" in the catchAll to "new { controller = "accounts", action = "logon" }"?? If this is not clear, I will explain more! :) Matt This is the "closest" I have got, but it obviously wont work for complex routes: // split values into array var routeParts = catchAll.ToString().Split(new char[] { '/' }, StringSplitOptions.RemoveEmptyEntries); // feels like a hack catchAll = new { controller = routeParts[0], action = routeParts[1] };

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• Position Div using Javascript on page refresh

  - by Jonathan Lyon

  Hi all I have a div that I would like to reposition each time the page is refreshed. It is currently set in the css using top and left. I wold like to pass the top and left values on page refresh. #inneriframe { position:absolute; top:-170px; left:-5px; width:1280px; height:1200px; } The content is from another site and contained in an iframe and I want the viewport of the div to change(within certain limits) each time the page is refreshed. The original page is here http://labs.ideeinc.com/multicolr#colors=8438AD; I have iFramed part of it here http://www.weninja.com/what-we-do Full code <style type="text/css"> #outerdiv { width:280px; height:150px; overflow:hidden; position:relative; } #inneriframe { position:absolute; top:-170px; left:-5px; width:1280px; height:1200px; } </style> <div id='outerdiv'> <iframe src="http://labs.ideeinc.com/multicolr#colors=8438AD;" id='inneriframe' scrolling=no></iframe> </div> <h5>Multicolr Search Lab &copy; 2008 Idee Inc</h5> So basically I just need to change the TOP and LEFT values for the div #inneriframe to have different images show - is this possible? Thanks Jonathan

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• python thread prob after build

  - by Apache

  hi expert, i'm having task to scan wifi at specific interval and send it to the server, i've it in python and its works fine when i run manually, then build it to package and when run there is no progress at all, i already ask this question before at http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2735410/python-scritp-problem-once-build-and-package-it, then, i re-modify my code as below, then i found that thread is not functioning once i build, #!/usr/bin/env python import subprocess,threading,... configFile = open('/opt/Jemapoh_Wifi/config.txt', 'r') url = configFile.readline().strip() intervalTime = configFile.readline().strip() status = configFile.readline().strip() print "url "+url print "intervalTime "+intervalTime print "Status "+status.strip() def getMacAddress(): proc = subprocess.Popen('ifconfig -a wlan0 | grep HWaddr | sed \'/^.*HWaddr */!d; s///;q\'', shell=True, stdout=subprocess.PIPE, ) macAddress = proc.communicate()[0].strip() return macAddress def getTimestamp(): from time import strftime timeStamp = strftime("%Y-%m-%d %H:%M:%S") return timeStamp def scanWifi(): try: print "Scanning..." proc = subprocess.Popen('iwlist scan 2>/dev/null', shell=True, stdout=subprocess.PIPE, ) stdout_str = proc.communicate()[0] stdout_list=stdout_str.split('\n') essid=[] rssi=[] preQuality=[] for line in stdout_list: line=line.strip() match=re.search('ESSID:"(\S+)"',line) if match: essid.append(match.group(1)) match=re.search('Quality=(\S+)',line) if match: preQuality.append(match.group(1)) for qualityConversion in preQuality: qualityConversion = qualityConversion.split()[0].split('/') temp = str(int(round(float(qualityConversion[0]) / float(qualityConversion[1]) * 100))).rjust(2) rssi.append(temp) dataToPost = '{"userId":"' + getMacAddress() + '","timestamp":"' + getTimestamp() + '","wifi":[' for no in range(len(essid)): dataToPost += '{"ssid":"' + essid[no] + '","rssi":"' + rssi[no] + '"}' if no+1 == len(essid): pass else: dataToPost += ',' dataToPost += ']}' query_args = {"data":dataToPost} request = urllib2.Request(url) request.add_data(urllib.urlencode(query_args)) request.add_header('Content-Type', 'application/x-www-form-urlencoded') print "Waiting for server response..." print urllib2.urlopen(request).read() print "Data Sent @ " + getTimestamp() print "------------------------------------------------------" t = threading.Timer(int(intervalTime), scanWifi).start() except Exception, e: print e t = threading.Timer(int(intervalTime), scanWifi) t.start() once build, its not reaching the thread, do can anyone help, why the thread is not working after build thanks

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• Really simple JSON serialization in .NET

  - by Evgeny

  I have some simple .NET objects I'd like to serialize to JSON and back again. The set of objects to be serialized is quite small and I control the implementation, so I don't need a generic solution that will work for everything. Since my assembly will be distributed as a library I'd really like to avoid a dependency on some third-party DLL: I just want to give users one assembly that they can reference. I've read the other questions I could find on converting to and from JSON in .NET. The recommended solution of JSON.NET does work, of course, but it requires distributing an extra DLL. I don't need any of the fancy features of JSON.NET. I just need to handle a simple object (or even dictionary) that contains strings, integers, DateTimes and arrays of strings and bytes. On deserializing I'm happy to get back a dictionary - it doesn't need to create the object again. Is there some really simple code out there that I could compile into my assembly to do this simple job? I've also tried System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptSerializer, but where it falls down is the byte array: I want to base64-encode it and even registering a converter doesn't let me easily accomplish that due to the way that API works (it doesn't pass in the name of the field).

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• MSTest unit test passes by itself, fails when other tests are run

  - by Sarah Vessels

  I'm having trouble with some MSTest unit tests that pass when I run them individually but fail when I run the entire unit test class. The tests test some code that SLaks helped me with earlier, and he warned me what I was doing wasn't thread-safe. However, now my code is more complicated and I don't know how to go about making it thread-safe. Here's what I have: public static class DLLConfig { private static string _domain; public static string Domain { get { return _domain = AlwaysReadFromFile ? readCredentialFromFile(DOMAIN_TAG) : _domain ?? readCredentialFromFile(DOMAIN_TAG); } } } And my test is simple: string expected = "the value I know exists in the file"; string actual = DLLConfig.Domain; Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); When I run this test by itself, it passes. When I run it alongside all the other tests in the test class (which perform similar checks on different properties), actual is null and the test fails. I note this is not a problem with a property whose type is a custom Enum type; maybe I'm having this problem with the Domain property because it is a string? Or maybe it's a multi-threaded issue with how MSTest works?

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• add row to a BindingSource gives different autoincrement value from whats saved into DB

  - by Ruben Trancoso

  I have a DataGridView that shows list of records and when I hit a insert button, a form should add a new record, edit its values and save it. I have a BindingSource bound to a DataGridView. I pass is as a parameter to a NEW RECORD form so // When the form opens it add a new row and de DataGridView display this new record at this time DataRowView currentRow; currentRow = (DataRowView) myBindindSource.AddNew(); when user confirm to save it I do a myBindindSource.EndEdit(); // inside the form and after the form is disposed the new row is saved and the bindingsorce position is updated to the new row DataRowView drv = myForm.CurrentRow; avaliadoTableAdapter.Update(drv.Row); avaliadoBindingSource.Position = avaliadoBindingSource.Find("ID", drv.Row.ItemArray[0]); The problem is that this table has a AUTOINCREMENT field and the value saved may not correspond the the value the bindingSource gives in EDIT TIME. So, when I close and open the DataGridView again the new rowd give its ID based on the available slot in the undelying DB at the momment is was saved and it just ignores the value the BindingSource generated ad EDIT TIME, Since the value given by the binding source should be used by another table as a foreingKey it make the reference insconsistent. There's a way to get the real ID was saved to the database?

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• Browser: Cookie lost on refresh

  - by Nirmal

  I am experiencing a strange behaviour of my application in Chrome browser (No problem with other browsers). When I refresh a page, the cookie is being sent properly, but intermittently the browser doesn't seem to pass the cookie on some refreshes. This is how I set my cookie: $identifier = / some weird string /; $key = md5(uniqid(rand(), true)); $timeout = number_format(time(), 0, '.', '') + 43200; setcookie('fboxauth', $identifier . ":" . $key, $timeout, "/", "fbox.mysite.com", 0); This is what I am using for page headers: header("Last-Modified: " . gmdate("D, d M Y H:i:s") . " GMT"); header("Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate"); // HTTP/1.1 header("Expires: Thu, 25 Nov 1982 08:24:00 GMT"); // Date in the past Do you see any issue here that might affect the cookie handling? Thank you for any suggestion. EDIT-01: It seems that the cookie is not being sent with some requests. This happens intermittently and I am seeing this behaviour for ALL the browsers now. Has anyone come across such situation? Is there any situation where a cookie will not be sent with the request? Thanks again, for any guideline.

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• Session Variable Not Being Updated? ASP.NET

  - by davemackey

  I have a three step wizard. On the first step I use a repeater to create a series of buttons that an individual can select from. When the user selects one of the buttons the value of the button is saved to session state. They are taken to the next step and shown a similar list of buttons that are based on what they previously selected. Thus, if you choose "Hamburger" you might receive the options of "onion", "lettuce", "tomato" while if you choose "Hot Dog" you might receive "sauerkraut" and "ketchup". Lets say an individual chooses Hamburger. This is saved into session state like so: Public Sub Button_ItemCommand(ByVal Sender As Object, ByVal e As RepeaterCommandEventArgs) ' ******** Lets pass on the results of our query in LinqDataSource1_Selecting. Session("food_select") = RTrim(e.CommandName) Wizard1.ActiveStepIndex = 1 End Sub Now, this works fine and dandy. But lets say I select hamburger and then realize I'm really hankering for a hot dog. I go back to the first wizard step and click on the hot dog button - but when the wizard progresses to the next step I still see the options for hamburgers! The session variable has not been updated. Why? Thanks!

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• Trouble with __VA_ARGS__

  - by Noah Roberts

  C++ preprocessor __VA_ARGS__ number of arguments The accepted answer there doesn't work for me. I've tried with MSVC++ 10 and g++ 3.4.5. I also crunched the example down into something smaller and started trying to get some information printed out to me in the error: template < typename T > struct print; #include <boost/mpl/vector_c.hpp> #define RSEQ_N 10,9,8,7,6,5,4,3,2,1,0 #define ARG_N(_1,_2,_3,_4,_5,_6,_7,_8,_9,_10,N,...) N #define ARG_N_(...) ARG_N(__VA_ARGS__) #define XXX 5,RSEQ_N #include <iostream> int main() { print< boost::mpl::vector_c<int, ARG_N_( XXX ) > > g; // ARG_N doesn't work either. } It appears to me that the argument for ARG_N ends up being 'XXX' instead of 5,RSEQ_N and much less 5,10,...,0. The error output of g++ more specifically says that only one argument is supplied. Having trouble believing that the answer would be proposed and then accepted when it totally fails to work, so what am I doing wrong? Why is XXX being interpreted as the argument and not being expanded? In my own messing around everything works fine until I try to pass off VA_ARGS to a macro containing some names followed by ... like so: #define WTF(X,Y,...) X , Y , __VA_ARGS__ #define WOT(...) WTF(__VA_ARGS__) WOT(52,2,5,2,2) I've tried both with and without () in the various macros that take no input.

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• How can we best represent the SDLC process as a board game?

  - by Innogetics

  I recently got interested in financial board games and saw how they can be very useful in educating children about certain concepts. It got me thinking whether it was also possible to represent certain aspects of executing a software project via a boardgame and make it fun. Here are a few things that I have come up so far: human resources and tools / techniques are represented as cards. requirements are also represented as cards, which are dealt equally to each player, and the objective is to move all requirement cards through an "SDLC" board (one per player) that represent a series of squares grouped according to phases (design all the way to deployment) the passage of time is represented in a main square board like monopoly, and completing a trip around the board (passing "Go") allows the player to move each of the requirement cards a number of steps through the SDLC board depending on the capability of the resource cards (senior programmer allows one requirement to move two squares in the dev phase, junior programmer only one, etc.) players will start with play money representing the project budget, and at every pass at "Go" is payday. the player is out of the game if he runs out of funds. the main board also has "chance" / "risk" cards, which represent things that can mess up a project. damage is applied at the roll of a die, and chance modifiers depend on whether the user has "bought" tools / techniques. I haven't implemented this idea yet as I'm still looking at more play elements that can make the game more engaging, as well as soliciting for more ideas. I am planning to release this under Creative Commons license but haven't decided on the exact license yet. Any more game play suggestions are welcome. UPDATE: This was posted in BoardGameGeek and there's now an active discussion thread there. http://www.boardgamegeek.com/article/4436694

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• Why Illegal cookies are send by Browser and received by web servers (rfc 2109, 2965)?

  - by Artyom

  Hello, According to RFC 2109, 2965 cookie's value can be either HTTP token or quoted string, and token can't include non-ASCII characters. Cookie's RFC 2109 and RFC2965 HTTP's RFC 2068 token definition: http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc2068#page-16 However I had found that Firefox browser (3.0.6) sends cookies with utf-8 string as-is and three web servers I tested (apache2, lighttpd, nginx) pass this string as-is to the application. For example, raw request from browser: $ nc -l -p 8080 GET /hello HTTP/1.1 Host: localhost:8080 User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (X11; U; Linux x86_64; en-US; rv:1.9.0.9) Gecko/2009050519 Firefox/2.0.0.13 (Debian-3.0.6-1) Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language: en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: windows-1255,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 300 Connection: keep-alive Cookie: wikipp=1234; wikipp_username=?????? Cache-Control: max-age=0 And raw response of apache, nginx and lighttpd HTTP_COOKIE CGI variable: wikipp=1234; wikipp_username=?????? What do I miss? Can somebody explain me?

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• Filling SWT table object using a separated thread class ...

  - by erlord

  Hi all I've got a code snippet by the swt team that does exactly what I need. However, there is a part I want to separate into another class, in particular, the whole inline stuff. In response to my former question, it has been suggested that Callable should be used in order to implement threaded objects. It is suggested to make use of an implementation of runnable or better callable, since I do need some kind of return. However, I don't get it. My problems are: In the original code, within the inline implementation of the method run, some of the parents objects are called. How would I do this when the thread is separated? Pass the object via the C'tor's parameter? In the original code, another runnable object is nested within the runnable implementation. What is it good for? How to implement this when having separated the code? Furthermore, this nested runnable again calls objects created by the main method. Please, have mercy with me, but I am still quite a beginner and my brain is near collapsing :-( All I want is to separate all the threaded stuff into another class and make the program do just the same thing as it already does. Help please! Again thank you very much in advance for any useful suggestions, hints, examples etc... Regs Me

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