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  • How do I ensure a Flex dataProvider processes the data synchronously?

    - by Matt Calthrop
    I am using an component, and currently have a dataProvider working that is an ArrayCollection (have a separate question about how to make this an XML file... but I digress). Variable declaration looks like this: [Bindable] private var _dpImageList : ArrayCollection = new ArrayCollection([ {"location" : "path/to/image1.jpg"}, {"location" : "path/to/image2.jpg"}, {"location" : "path/to/image3.jpg"} ]); I then refer to like this: <s:List id="lstImages" width="100%" dataProvider="{_dpImageList}" itemRenderer="path.to.render.ImageRenderer" skinClass="path.to.skins.ListSkin" > <s:layout> <s:HorizontalLayout gap="2" /> </s:layout> </s:List> Currently, it would appear that each item is processed asynchronously. However, I want them to be processed synchronously. Reason: I am displaying a list of images, and I want the leftmost one rendered first, followed by the one to its right, and so on. Edit: I just found this answer. Do you think that could be the same issue?

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  • Should I strip the XML declaration from suds output before parsing with lxml?

    - by mikl
    I’m trying to implement a SOAP webservice in Python 2.6 using the suds library. That is working well, but I’ve run into a problem when trying to parse the output with lxml. Suds returns a suds.sax.text.Text object with the reply from the SOAP service. The suds.sax.text.Text class is a subclass of the Python built-in Unicode class. In essence, it would be comparable with this Python statement: u'<?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?><root><lotsofelements \></root>' Which is incongrous, since if the XML declaration is correct, the contents are UTF-8 encoded, and thus not a Python Unicode object (because those are stored in some internal encoding like UCS4). lxml will refuse to parse this, as documented, since there is no clear answer to what encoding it should be interpreted as. As I see it, there are two ways out of this bind: Strip the <?xml> declaration, including the encoding. Convert the output from Suds into a bytestring, using the specified encoding. Currently, the data I’m receiving from the webservice is within the ASCII-range, so either way will work, but both feels very much like ugly hacks to me, and I’m not quite sure what would happen, if I start to receive data that would need a wider range of Unicode characters. Any good ideas? I can’t imagine I’m the first one in this position…

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  • In Inform 7, is it possible to use a second noun construct with "pull"?

    - by Beska
    I'll eat my hat if I get a good answer to this...I suspect that although I'm a rank beginner in Inform 7, and I'm guessing this isn't that hard, but there are probably not many people here who are familiar with Inform 7. Still, nothing ventured... I'm trying to create a custom response to a "pull" action. Unfortunately, I think the "pull" action doesn't normally expect a second noun. So I'm trying something like this: The nails are some things in the Foyer. The nails are scenery. Instead of pulling the nails: If the second noun is nothing: say "How? Are you going to pull the nails with your teeth?"; otherwise: say "I don't think that's going to do the job." But while this compiles, and the first part works, the "I don't think..." section is never called...the interpreter just responds "I only understood you as far as wanting to pull the nails." Do I have to create my own custom action for this? Overwrite the standard pull action? Am I missing something simple that will allow me to get this to work?

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  • Stored Procedures In Source Control - Automate Build/Deployment Process

    - by Alex
    My company provides a large .NET service-oriented solution. The services layer interact with a T-SQL back-end consisting of hundreds of tables and stored procedures. Our C# code is in version-control (SVN) but our stored procedures and schema are not. After much lobbying of expedient upper-management, I was allowed to review our (non-existent) build/deployment process to accomplish the following goals: Place schema and stored procedures under source-control. Automate the build/deployment process. I would like to proceed per the accepted answer's strategy in this post but have additional questions: I would like to use Hudson as my build server. Is this a reasonable choice for a C#/SQL solution? What better alternatives should I explore? Assuming I have all triggers, stored-procedures, schema, etc... under source control, and that they are scripted to individual files, how do I generate a build script which will take into account dependencies/references between these items? (SQL Server does this automatically, but it generates one giant script) What does the workflow of performing an update at the client look like? i.e. I have to keep existing table data. How do I roll-back schema changes? I am the only programmer. Several other pseudo-technical staff like to make changes directly inside SQL Management Studio. Is it realistic to expect others to adhere to this solution -- how can I enforce this? Thank you in advance for your help.

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  • How to implement a 'safe' periodical executer without using the Rails helpers?

    - by Robbie
    I am very new to Ruby on Rails and was never really big on writing JavaScript, so the built in helpers were like a tiny silce of heaven. However I have recently learned that using the helper methods creates "obtrusive javascript" so I am doing a tiny bit of refactoring to get all this messy code out of my view. I'm also using the Prototype API to figure out what all these functions do. Right now, I have: <%= periodically_call_remote(:url => {:action => "tablerefresh", :id => 1 }, :frequency => '5', :complete => "load('26', 'table1', request.responseText)")%> Which produces: <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ new PeriodicalExecuter(function() {new Ajax.Request('/qrpsdrail/grids/tablerefresh/1', {asynchronous:true, evalScripts:true, onComplete:function(request){load('26', 'table1', request.responseText)}, parameters:'authenticity_token=' + encodeURIComponent('dfG7wWyVYEpelfdZvBWk7MlhzZoK7VvtT/HDi3w7gPM=')})}, 5) //]]> </script> My concern is that the "encodeURIComponent" and the presence of "authenticity_token" are generated by Rails. I'm assuming these are used to assure the validity of a request. (Ensuring a request comes from a currently active session?) If that is the case, how can I implement this in application.js 'safely'? It seems that the built in method, although obtrusive, does add some beneficial security. Thanks, in advance, to all who answer.

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  • Why does instanceof seem to work in a static generic function sometimes?

    - by michael
    Greetings. This is my first post in this site. I thought that because of type erasure, one could not expect the following code to compile, and indeed, it did not compile on an earlier version of Eclipse. My understanding was that instanceof was a run-time operator and could not know about the generic type which would be, by run-time, compiled away: public static <E extends Comparable<? super E>> void SampleForQuestion(E e) { if ( !(e instanceof String) ) System.out.println("I am not a String"); else System.out.println("I am a String"); } However, I was surprised to see that one of your threads actually included some code like this in an answer, and my latest Eclipse (Galileo on Windows with JVM 1.6 rev 20) is perfectly happy with it -- and it works, too. (I did notice that someone said it worked on Eclipse but not in another IDE/JDK in that thread, but don't remember the specifics.) Can someone explain why it works, and more importantly, because I have to guide my students, whether it should be expected to work in the future. Thank you. (I hope the code formatting comes through correctly - it looks indented correctly from my perspective and there are no tabs.)

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  • Barcode to Product Name Converter

    - by spagetticode
    Hi All, We are designing a mobile shopping system. The camera on the phone will read the barcode and then we have to convert the barcode to a standard product name in order to save it to our database. We are saving it to our database because we are connecting to a web service of local e-commerce sites to get their price about the related product. We are sending the product name to get the price from them, so that the user can see the prices, compare and buy. We cannot send barcode number to get the data from the e-commerce sites because some sites do not have the info of the barcode number. I have to somehow get the product name by only knowing the barcode. Google returns the result when barcode number is searched. But how am I going to parse the data? or how am I going to know which answer of google search best suits my input? Is there a site that sells barcode and product name data match? We are designing the system with C# Thanks alot.

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  • How to have an iCalendar (RFC 2445) repeat YEARLY with duration

    - by Todd Brooks
    I have been unsuccessful in formulating a RRULE that would allow an event as shown below: Repeats YEARLY, from first Sunday of April to last day of May, occuring on Monday, Wednesday and Friday, until forever. FREQ=YEARLY;BYMONTH=4;BYDAY=SU (gives me the first Sunday of April repeating yearly) and FREQ=YEARLY;BYMONTH=5;BYMONTHDAY=-1 (gives me the last day of May repeating yearly) But I can't figure out how to have the event repeat yearly between those dates for Monday, Wednesday and Friday. Suggestions? Update: Comments don't have enough space to respond to Chris' answer, so I am editing the question with further information. Unfortunately, no. I don't know if it is the DDay.iCal library I'm using, or what, but that doesn't work either. I've found that the date start can't be an ordinal date (first Sunday, etc.)..it has to be a specific date, which makes it difficult for my requirements. Even using multiple RRULE's it doesn't seem to work: BEGIN:VCALENDAR VERSION:2.0 PRODID:-//DDay.iCal//NONSGML ddaysoftware.com//EN BEGIN:VEVENT CREATED:20090717T033307Z DTSTAMP:20090717T033307Z DTSTART:20090101T000000 RRULE:FREQ=YEARLY;WKST=SU;BYDAY=MO,WE,FR;BYMONTH=4,5 RRULE:FREQ=YEARLY;WKST=SU;BYDAY=1SU;BYMONTH=4 RRULE:FREQ=YEARLY;WKST=SU;BYMONTH=5;BYMONTHDAY=-1 SEQUENCE:0 UID:352ed9d4-04d0-4f06-a094-fab7165e5c74 END:VEVENT END:VCALENDAR That looks right on the face (I'm even starting the event on 1/1/2009), but when I start testing whether certain days are valid, I get incorrect results. For example, 4/1/2009 12:00:00 AM = True // Should be False 4/6/2009 12:00:00 AM = True 4/7/2009 12:00:00 AM = False 4/8/2009 12:00:00 AM = True 5/1/2009 12:00:00 AM = True 5/2/2009 12:00:00 AM = False 5/29/2009 12:00:00 AM = True 5/31/2009 12:00:00 AM = True // Should be False 6/1/2009 12:00:00 AM = False I'm using Douglas Day's DDay.iCal software, but I don't think it is a bug in that library. I think this might be a limitation in iCalendar (RFC 2445). Thoughts?

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  • Is the size of a struct required to be an exact multiple of the alignment of that struct?

    - by Steve314
    Once again, I'm questioning a longstanding belief. Until today, I believed that the alignment of the following struct would normally be 4 and the size would normally be 5... struct example { int m_Assume_32_Bits; char m_Assume_8_Bit_Bytes; }; Because of this assumption, I have data structure code that uses offsetof to determine the distance in bytes between two adjacent items in an array. Today, I spotted some old code that was using sizeof where it shouldn't, couldn't understand why I hadn't had bugs from it, coded up a unit test - and the test surprised me by passing. A bit of investigation showed that the sizeof the type I used for the test (similar to the struct above) was an exact multiple of the alignment - ie 8 bytes. It had padding after the final member. Here is an example of why I never expected this... struct example2 { example m_Example; char m_Why_Cant_This_Be_At_Offset_6_Bytes; }; A bit of Googling showed examples that make it clear that this padding after the final member is allowed - for example http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Data_structure_alignment#Data_structure_padding (the "or at the end of the structure" bit). This is a bit embarrassing, as I recently posted this comment - Use of struct padding (my first comment to that answer). What I can't seem to determine is whether this padding to an exact multiple of the alignment is guaranteed by the C++ standard, or whether it is just something that is permitted and that some (but maybe not all) compilers do. So - is the size of a struct required to be an exact multiple of the alignment of that struct according to the C++ standard? If the C standard makes different guarantees, I'm interested in that too, but the focus is on C++.

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  • Supersede users need to press enter after inputting a string in python 3.0

    - by Cimex
    I've been attempting to create a simple Rock, Paper, Scissors game in python 3.0 -- very standard task for anybody learning programming. But, as I finish up to a point, I think,"wow, that'd be awesome", or,"it'd be cool to do this!" So anyways, I keep building upon the project... I've developed a menu, a single player game vs the computer, and just finished the multiplayer game. But, I've realized, that the multiplayer game isn't very effective. It just dosen't work like the analog version of the game. Currently, it'll ask for player1's input, then player2's input, compare them, and spit out the result and the current score. What I'd rather have happen is that the program asks for both players input at the same time and both players input their choice at the same time. I understand that I can easily do that by just grabbing the index of the first and second answer and compare the 2 inputs -- easy. But what I'd rather have happen is that after both players enter their one character answers at the same time (r for rock, p for paper, or s for scissors), then the program will auto enter the input. Not needing someone to press enter. The input would be dictated by the fact that 2 characters have been entered. I guess my question is: Is there any way to dictate what can be used as an input for 'enter'?

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  • Django: How can I identify the calling view from a template?

    - by bryan
    Short version: Is there a simple, built-in way to identify the calling view in a Django template, without passing extra context variables? Long (original) version: One of my Django apps has several different views, each with its own named URL pattern, that all render the same template. There's a very small amount of template code that needs to change depending on the called view, too small to be worth the overhead of setting up separate templates for each view, so ideally I need to find a way to identify the calling view in the template. I've tried setting up the views to pass in extra context variables (e.g. "view_name") to identify the calling view, and I've also tried using {% ifequal request.path "/some/path/" %} comparisons, but neither of these solutions seems particularly elegant. Is there a better way to identify the calling view from the template? Is there a way to access to the view's name, or the name of the URL pattern? Update 1: Regarding the comment that this is simply a case of me misunderstanding MVC, I understand MVC, but Django's not really an MVC framework. I believe the way my app is set up is consistent with Django's take on MVC: the views describe which data is presented, and the templates describe how the data is presented. It just happens that I have a number of views that prepare different data, but that all use the same template because the data is presented the same way for all the views. I'm just looking for a simple way to identify the calling view from the template, if this exists. Update 2: Thanks for all the answers. I think the question is being overthought -- as mentioned in my original question, I've already considered and tried all of the suggested solutions -- so I've distilled it down to a "short version" now at the top of the question. And right now it seems that if someone were to simply post "No", it'd be the most correct answer :) Update 3: Carl Meyer posted "No" :) Thanks again, everyone.

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  • How to accept confirmation Automatically in PowerShell for Outlook

    - by user2919845
    How to accept confirmation Automatically in PowerShell for Outlook I have script for Export attachments from email from Outlook - see next It works correctly on one PC, but on another PC is there a problem: Outlook gives message and wants answer: Permit Denny Help If I manually click on Permit or Denny it works correctly. I want to automate it. Can you give me some suggestion how to do it in PowerShell? I have tried to set Outlook to not give this message but I didn’t success. My script: # <-- Script ---------> # script works with outlook Inbox folder # check if email have attachments with ".txt" and save those attachments to $filepath # path for exported files - attachments $filepath = "d:\Exported_files\" # create object outlook $o = New-Object -comobject outlook.application $n = $o.GetNamespace("MAPI") # $f - folder „dorucena posta“ 6 - Inbox $f = $n.GetDefaultFolder(6) # 6 - Inbox # select newest 10 emails, from it olny this one with attachments $f.Items| select -last 10| Where {$_.Attachments}| foreach { # process only unreaded mail if($_.unread -eq $True) { # processed mail set as read, not to process this mail again next day $_.unread = $False $SenderName = $_.SenderName Write-Host "Email from: ", $SenderName # process all attachments $_.attachments|foreach { $a = $_.filename If ($a.Contains(".txt")) { Write-Host $SenderName," ", $a # copy *.txt attachments to folder $filepath $_.saveasfile((Join-Path $filepath "$a")) } } } } Write-Host "Finish" # <------ End Script ---------------------------------->

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  • Parse a CSV file using python (to make a decision tree later)

    - by Margaret
    First off, full disclosure: This is going towards a uni assignment, so I don't want to receive code. :). I'm more looking for approaches; I'm very new to python, having read a book but not yet written any code. The entire task is to import the contents of a CSV file, create a decision tree from the contents of the CSV file (using the ID3 algorithm), and then parse a second CSV file to run against the tree. There's a big (understandable) preference to have it capable of dealing with different CSV files (I asked if we were allowed to hard code the column names, mostly to eliminate it as a possibility, and the answer was no). The CSV files are in a fairly standard format; the header row is marked with a # then the column names are displayed, and every row after that is a simple series of values. Example: # Column1, Column2, Column3, Column4 Value01, Value02, Value03, Value04 Value11, Value12, Value13, Value14 At the moment, I'm trying to work out the first part: parsing the CSV. To make the decisions for the decision tree, a dictionary structure seems like it's going to be the most logical; so I was thinking of doing something along these lines: Read in each line, character by character If the character is not a comma or a space Append character to temporary string If the character is a comma Append the temporary string to a list Empty string Once a line has been read Create a dictionary using the header row as the key (somehow!) Append that dictionary to a list However, if I do things that way, I'm not sure how to make a mapping between the keys and the values. I'm also wondering whether there is some way to perform an action on every dictionary in a list, since I'll need to be doing things to the effect of "Everyone return their values for columns Column1 and Column4, so I can count up who has what!" - I assume that there is some mechanism, but I don't think I know how to do it. Is a dictionary the best way to do it? Would I be better off doing things using some other data structure? If so, what?

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  • Checking if any of a list of values falls within a table of ranges

    - by Conspicuous Compiler
    I'm looking to check whether any of a list of integers fall in a list of ranges. The ranges are defined in a table defined something like: # Extra Type Field Default Null Key 0 int(11) rangeid 0 NO PRI 1 int(11) max 0 NO MUL 2 int(11) min 0 NO MUL Using MySQL 5.1 and Perl 5.10. I can check whether a single value, say 7, is in any of the ranges with a statement like SELECT 1 FROM range WHERE 7 BETWEEN min AND max If 7 is in any of those ranges, I get a single row back. If it isn't, no rows are returned. Now I have a list of, say, 50 of these values, not stored in a table at present. I assemble them using map: my $value_list = '(' . ( join ', ', map { int $_ } @values ) . ')' ; I want to see if any of the items in the list fall inside of any of the ranges, but am not particularly concerned with which number nor which range. I'd like to use a syntax such as: SELECT 1 FROM range WHERE (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 42, 309, 10000) BETWEEN min AND max MySQL kindly chastises me for such syntax: Operand should contain 1 column(s) I pinged #mysql who were quite helpful. However, having already written this up by the time they responded and thinking it'd be helpful to fix the answer in a more permanent medium, I figured I'd post the question anyhow. Maybe SO will provide a different solution?

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  • Expanding DIV slides behind DIV beneath it...

    - by Paddy
    I'm not sure that I'm going to get an answer here, as I'd need to post a lot of CSS and html to get a working recreation, however... I have structure something like this: <fieldset> <legend>Test A</legend> <h3>Test A</h3> <p> Something here. </p> <div style="display:hidden;">I'm dynamically displayed</div> </fieldset> <fieldset> <legend>Test B</legend> <h3>Test B</h3> <p> Something B here. </p> </fieldset> I have code that toggles the display of my hidden div using jQuery and .show(). This works fine in IE8, firefox and Safari, but when I stick IE8 into compatibility mode, then the first fieldset (Test A) will expand, but the expansion happens behind the second fieldset, which doesn't move (i.e. it slides down behind it). I have quite a bit of CSS in use here, and I'm going to have to go back and unpick the whold lot, which isn't a fun idea. If anybody has any idea of one of the IE7 rendering issues that might be affecting this, then I'd very much appreciate it. (note that there is more to the content in these fieldsets than shown, including floated divs). Quick note - if I stick IE7 into quirks mode, it works (but wrecks the rest of my layout) - in standards mode, I get the above behaviour.

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  • iPhone OpenGL ES Texture2D Masking

    - by Robert Neagu
    What's the best choice when trying to mask a texture like ColorSplash or other apps like iSteam, etc? I started learning OPENGL ES like... 4 days ago (I'm a total rookie) and tried the following approach: 1) I created a colored texture2D, a grayscale version of the first texture and a third texture2D called mask 2) I also created a texture2D for the brush... which is grayscale and it's opaque (brush = black = 0,0,0,1 and surroundings = white = 1,1,1,1). My intention was to create an antialiased brush with smooth edges but i'm fine with a normal one right now 3) I searched for masking techniques on the internet and found this tutorial ZeusCMD - Design and Development Tutorials : OpenGL ES Programming Tutorials - Masking about masking. The tutorial tells me to use blending to achieve masking... first draw colored, then mask with glBlendFunc(GL_DST_COLOR, GL_ZERO) and then grayscale with glBlendFunc(GL_ONE, GL_ONE) ... and this gives me something close to what i want... but not exactly what i want. The result is masked but it's somehow overbright-ed 4) For drawing to the mask texture i used an extra frame buffer object (FBO) I'm not really happy with the resulting image (overbright-ed picture) nor with the speed achieved with this method. I think the normal way was to draw directly to the grayscale (overlay) texture2D affecting only it's alpha channel in the places where the brush hits. Is there a fast way to achieve this? I have searched a lot and never got an answer that's clear and understandable. Then, in the main draw loop I could only draw the colored texture and then blend the grayscale ontop with glBlendFunc(GL_SRC_ALPHA, GL_ONE_MINUS_SRC_ALPHA). I just want to learn to use OPENGL ES and it's driving me nuts because i can't get it to work properly. An advice, a link to a tutorial would be much appreciated.

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  • How to configure a subproject dependency in Maven without deploying jars?

    - by MikeHoss
    I googled this and it seems that no one has an answer, yet it seems like such an elementary thing that it should be possible. I have the following project structure: parent ---sub-project1 ---sub-project2 sub-project2 needs to have sub-project1 as a dependency. So I have this in sub-project2's pom: <dependencies> <dependency> <artifactId>sub-project1</artifactId> <groupId>mygroup</groupId> <version>1.0-SNAPSHOT</version> </dependency> .... When I do this, Maven tries to dowload the sub-project1.jar file, which does not exist because it's not ready for the repo yet. I tried to put a <scope>import</scope> in the dependency, but that didn't work either -- same result. So what do I have to do to get Maven to look at sub-project1 when building sub-project2?

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  • SQL Server 2005 - Enabling both Named Pipes & TCP/IP protocols?

    - by Clinemi
    We have a SQL Server 2005 database, and currently all our users are connecting to the database via the TCP/IP protocol. The SQL Server Configuration Manager allows you to "enable" both Named Pipes, and TCP/IP connections at the same time. Is this a good idea? My question is not whether we should use named pipes instead of TCP/IP, but are there problems associated with enabling both? One of our client's IT guys, says that enabling database communication with both protocols will limit the bandwidth that either protocol can use - to like 50% of the total. I would think that the bandwidth that TCP/IP could use would be directly tied (inversely) to the amount of traffic that Named Pipes (or any of the other types of traffic) were occupying on the network at that moment. However, this IT person is indicating that the fact that we have enabled two protocols on the server, artificially limits the bandwidth that TCP/IP can use. Is this correct? I did Google searches but could not come up with an answer to this question. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Is there some formal way to update the browser detection files for ASP.Net?

    - by Deane
    I have an ASP.Net site on which we're using control adapters. We have the adapters mapped to a "refID" of "Default." These adapters are working fine on all browsers except Chrome and Safari. For those browsers, they do not execute. I've given up trying to figure out why -- I have a question here on SO that no one has been able to answer, and I've been researching it for days now. It's just inexplicable. I have tested the same code in my local environment, and it works just fine. Additionally, no one else can replicate my problem on other servers. It seems to be somehow confined to the machines at my client's site. Could they be somehow out-of-date? If this is the case, is there some way to "update" the .browser files? I'm half-tempted to just copy the .browser files out of the Framework directory from my machine over to theirs, but I'm curious is there's something more formal than this? Is there some other source of data that ASP.Net uses for browser detection other than these files?

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  • scanf a byte then print it out?

    - by Sarah
    I've searched around to see if I can find this answer but I can't seem to (please let me know if I'm wrong). I am trying to use scanf to read in a byte, an unsigned int and a char in one .c file and I am trying to access this byte in a different .c file and print it out. (I have already checked to make sure I have included all the appropriate parameters everywhere) But I keep getting errors. The warnings are: database.c: In function ‘addCitizen’: database.c:23:2: warning: format ‘%hhu’ expects argument of type ‘int’, but argument 2 has type ‘byte *’ [-Wformat] database.c:24:2: warning: format ‘%u’ expects argument of type ‘unsigned int’, but argument 2 has type ‘int *’ [-Wformat] database.c:25:2: warning: format ‘%c’ expects argument of type ‘int’, but argument 2 has type ‘char *’ [-Wformat] where I'm scanf'ing: // Request loop while (count-- != 0) { while (1){ // Get values from the user int error = scanf ("%79s %hhu %u %c", tname, &tdist, &tyear, &tgender); addCitizen(db, tname, &tdist, &tyear, &tgender); where I'm printing: void addCitizen(Database *db, char *tname, byte *tdist, int *tyear, char *tgender){ //needs to find the right place in memory to put this stuff and then put it there printf("\nName is: %79s\n", tname); printf("District is: %hhu\n", tdist); printf("Year of birth is: %u\n", tyear); printf("Gender is:%c\n", tgender); I'm not sure where I'm going wrong?

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  • C# class can not disguise to be another class because GetType method cannot be override

    - by zinking
    there is a statement in the CLR via C# saying in C#, one class cannot disguise to be another, because GetType is virutal and thus it cannot be override but I think in C# we can still hide the parent implementation of GetType. I must missed something if I hide the base GetType implementation then I can disguise my class to be another class, is that correct? The key here is not whether GetType is virutal or not, the question is can we disguise one class to be another in C# Following is the NO.4 answer from the possible duplicate, so My question is more on this. is this kind of disguise possible, if so, how can we say that we can prevent class type disguise in C# ? regardless of the GetType is virtual or not While its true that you cannot override the object.GetType() method, you can use "new" to overload it completely, thereby spoofing another known type. This is interesting, however, I haven't figured out how to create an instance of the "Type" object from scratch, so the example below pretends to be another type. public class NotAString { private string m_RealString = string.Empty; public new Type GetType() { return m_RealString.GetType(); } } After creating an instance of this, (new NotAString()).GetType(), will indeed return the type for a string. share|edit|flag answered Mar 15 at 18:39 Dr Snooze 213 By almost anything that looks at GetType has an instance of object, or at the very least some base type that they control or can reason about. If you already have an instance of the most derived type then there is no need to call GetType on it. The point is as long as someone uses GetType on an object they can be sure it's the system's implementation, not any other custom definition. – Servy Mar 15 at 18:54 add comment

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  • Converting ntext to nvcharmax(max) - Getting around size limitation

    - by Overflew
    Hi all, I'm trying to change an existing SQL NText column to nvcharmax(max), and encountering an error on the size limit. There's a large amount of existing data, some of which is more than the 8k limit, I believe. We're looking to convert this, so that the field is searchable in LINQ. The 2x SQL statements I've tried are: update Table set dataNVarChar = convert(nvarchar(max), dataNtext) where dataNtext is not null update Table set dataNVarChar = cast(dataNtext as nvarchar(max)) where dataNtext is not null And the error I get is: Cannot create a row of size 8086 which is greater than the allowable maximum row size of 8060. This is using SQL Server 2008. Any help appreciated, Thanks. Update / Solution: The marked answer below is correct, and SQL 2008 can change the column to the correct data type in my situation, and there are no dramas with the LINQ-utilising application we use on top of it: alter table [TBL] alter column [COL] nvarchar(max) I've also been advised to follow it up with: update [TBL] set [COL] = [COL] Which completes the conversion by moving the data from the lob structure to the table (if the length in less than 8k), which improves performance / keeps things proper.

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  • Modifying C# dictionary value

    - by minjang
    I'm a C++ expert, but not at all for C#. I created a Dictionary<string, STATS>, where STATS is a simple struct. Once I built the dictionary with initial string and STATS pairs, I want to modify the dictionary's STATS value. In C++, it's very clear: Dictionary<string, STATS*> benchmarks; Initialize it... STATS* stats = benchmarks[item.Key]; // Touch stats directly However, I tried like this in C#: Dictionary<string, STATS> benchmarks = new Dictionary<string, STATS>(); // Initialize benchmarks with a bunch of STATS foreach (var item in _data) benchmarks.Add(item.app_name, item); foreach (KeyValuePair<string, STATS> item in benchmarks) { // I want to modify STATS value inside of benchmarks dictionary. STATS stat_item = benchmarks[item.Key]; ParseOutputFile("foo", ref stat_item); // But, not modified in benchmarks... stat_item is just a copy. } This is a really novice problem, but wasn't easy to find an answer. EDIT: I also tried like the following: STATS stat_item = benchmarks[item.Key]; ParseOutputFile(file_name, ref stat_item); benchmarks[item.Key] = stat_item; However, I got the exception since such action invalidates Dictionary: Unhandled Exception: System.InvalidOperationException: Collection was modified; enumeration operation may not execute. at System.ThrowHelper.ThrowInvalidOperationException(ExceptionResource resource) at System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary`2.Enumerator.MoveNext() at helper.Program.Main(String[] args) in D:\dev\\helper\Program.cs:line 75

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  • Achieving Thread-Safety

    - by Smasher
    Question How can I make sure my application is thread-safe? Are their any common practices, testing methods, things to avoid, things to look for? Background I'm currently developing a server application that performs a number of background tasks in different threads and communicates with clients using Indy (using another bunch of automatically generated threads for the communication). Since the application should be highly availabe, a program crash is a very bad thing and I want to make sure that the application is thread-safe. No matter what, from time to time I discover a piece of code that throws an exception that never occured before and in most cases I realize that it is some kind of synchronization bug, where I forgot to synchronize my objects properly. Hence my question concerning best practices, testing of thread-safety and things like that. mghie: Thanks for the answer! I should perhaps be a little bit more precise. Just to be clear, I know about the principles of multithreading, I use synchronization (monitors) throughout my program and I know how to differentiate threading problems from other implementation problems. But nevertheless, I keep forgetting to add proper synchronization from time to time. Just to give an example, I used the RTL sort function in my code. Looked something like FKeyList.Sort (CompareKeysFunc); Turns out, that I had to synchronize FKeyList while sorting. It just don't came to my mind when initially writing that simple line of code. It's these thins I wanna talk about. What are the places where one easily forgets to add synchronization code? How do YOU make sure that you added sync code in all important places?

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  • Changing default compiler in Linux, using SCons

    - by ereOn
    On my Linux platform, I have several versions of gcc. Under usr/bin I have: gcc34 gcc44 gcc Here are some outputs: $ gcc --version gcc (GCC) 4.1.2 20080704 (Red Hat 4.1.2-48) $ gcc44 --version gcc44 (GCC) 4.4.0 20090514 (Red Hat 4.4.0-6) I need to use the 4.4 version of gcc however the default seems to the 4.1 one. I there a way to replace /usr/bin/gcc and make gcc44 the default compiler not using a symlink to /usr/bin/gcc44 ? The reason why I can't use a symlink is because my code will have to be shipped in a RPM package using mock. mock creates a minimal linux installation from scratch and just install the specified dependencies before compiling my code in it. I cannot customize this "minimal installation". Ideally, the perfect solution would be to install an official RPM package that replaces gcc with gcc44 as the default compiler. Is there such a package ? Is this even possible/good ? Additional information I have to use SCons (a make alternative) and it doesn't let me specify the binary to use for gcc. I will also accept any answer that will tell me how to specify the gcc binary in my SConstruct file.

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