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  • How to capture page with google map?

    - by Max
    I have a UIComponent with Google map in the continer. I need to capture this container for making a preview. My integration looks like the following: <mx:UIComponent id="mapContainer" width="410" height="300" /> googleMap = new Map(); mapContainer.addChild(googleMap); But if I do("this" - is my UIComponent) var bmd:BitmapData = new BitmapData(this.width, this.height, true, 0x00ffffff); bmd.draw(this); I see the following: An ActionScript error has occurred: SecurityError: Error #2123: Security sandbox violation: BitmapData.draw: http://localhost/ cannot access http://mt1.google.com/vt/lyrs=m@121&hl=en&src=api&x=1&y=1&z=1&s=Gali. No policy files granted access. at flash.display::BitmapData/draw() I now, that I can to add it host to allowed on the custom client. But I need to have working system on any computer ) I've tried to hide it: templateGoogleMapRenderer.mapContainer.setVisible(false); templateGoogleMapRenderer.mapContainer.includeInLayout = false; But it was unsuccessfully. May be I can override some method in my UIComponent, that flex use during BitmapData/draw() ? Capture with hidden map is success result for me )

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  • ASP.NET MVC - Entending the Authorize Attribute

    - by Mad Halfling
    Hi folks, currently I use [Authorize(Roles = ".....")] to secure my controller actions on my ASP.NET MVC 1 app, and this works fine. However, certain search views need to have buttons that route to these actions that need to be enabled/disabled based on the record selected on the search list, and also the security privs of the user logged in. Therefore I think I need to have a class accessing a DB table which cross-references these target controller/actions with application roles to determine the state of these buttons. This will, obviously, make things messy as privs will need to be maintained in 2 places - in that class/DB table and also on the controller actions (plus, if I want to change the access to the action I will have to change the code and compile rather than just change a DB table entry). Ideally I would like to extend the [Authorize] functionality so that instead of having to specify the roles in the [Authorize] code, it will query the security class based on the user, controller and action and that will then return a boolean allowing or denying access. Are there any good articles on this - I can't imagine it's an unusual thing to want to do, but I seem to be struggling to find anything on how to do it (could be Monday-morning brain). I've started some code doing this, looking at article http://schotime.net/blog/index.php/2009/02/17/custom-authorization-with-aspnet-mvc/ , and it seems to be starting off ok but I can't find the "correct" way to get the calling controller and action values from the httpContext - I could possibly fudge a bit of code to extract them from the request url, but that doesn't seem right to me and I'd rather do it properly. Cheers MH

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  • How do I refer to a constant URL in my route configuration?

    - by Remnant
    Suppose I have the following within a webpage <% using (Html.BeginForm("ShowData", "Summary")) %> <% { %> <div class="dropdown"><%=Html.DropDownList("CourseSelection", Model.CourseList, new { @class = "dropdown", onchange="this.form.submit();" })%> </div> <% } %> When the user makes a selection from the dropdown the form is submitted and I would like it to link to another page with a URL as follows: http://localhost:1721/Summary I have the following routes: routes.MapRoute(null, "Summary", new { controller = "Summary", action = "ShowData", CourseSelection = (string) null }); routes.MapRoute("Default", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Login", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); When a user selects an item in the dropdownlist, the URL returned is: http://localhost:1721/Summary/ShowData?CourseSelection = UserSelection Clearly the first route in the list is not being matched. I don't want the URL to show the action name and parameter. I simply want to show "Summary" which is what I have hard coded in the URL. How do I achieve this?

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  • Complex SQL query... names of returned variables

    - by Andrew P.
    Excuse me for what I'm sure is an elementary question for most of you, but I have an issue with table columns from separate tables having the same name as one another, and trying to select from both tables in the same query. Okay, so this is my code: $q_value = $mdb2->quote($_POST['query']); $field = $_POST['field']; $sql = "SELECT m.*, l.name FROM memberlist m, mail_lists l WHERE m.$field=$q_value AND l.id = m.list ORDER BY m.id"; $l_list = $mdb2->queryAll($sql, '', 'MDB2_FETCHMODE_ASSOC'); The table memberlist has the following columns: id, email, list, sex, name and the table mail_lists has the following columns: id, name After running the query, I later loop through the results with a foreach like so: foreach ($l_list as $l){ //blahblah } The problem is that the column 'name' in mail_lists refers to the names of the list, while the column 'name' in memberlist refers to the name of the member. When I later access $l-name (within the foreach), will I get m.name, or l.name? Furthermore, how do I get access to the other? Or will I just have to do two separate queries?

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  • SqlException: User does not have permission to perform this action.

    - by Oskar Kjellin
    I have been using my website (ASP.NET MVC) in visual studio but now I want to host it on my server. I published from visual studio onto the network share to be used. The server is running Windows Home Server, IIS 6 and SQL Server 2008 R2 (express). In Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio, I've attached the database and made sure that the user IUSR_SERVER is owner of the db. I also made sure that the user Network Service has access. The Web Site is configured in IIS to run anonymously as IUSR_SERVER. I have granted write and read access to IUSR_SERVER as well as Network Service and made sure that nothing is read only. The web.config has this connectionstring: <connectionStrings> <remove name="ApplicationServices" /> <add name="ApplicationServices" connectionString="Data Source=.\SQLExpress;Integrated Security=True;Initial Catalog=MyDatebase" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> </connectionStrings> However, I cannot browse my web site. I only get this error: Server Error in '/' Application. User does not have permission to perform this action. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: User does not have permission to perform this action. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [SqlException (0x80131904): User does not have permission to perform this action.] System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) +4846887 System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj) +194 Feels like I've tried everything. Would be very grateful for your aid in this.

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  • Adapting Machine Learning Algorithms to my Problem

    - by Berkay
    i'm working on a project and need your ideas, advices. First of all, let me tell my problem. There is power button and some other keys of a machine and there is only one user has authentication to use this machine.There are no other authentication methods, the machine is in public area in a company. the machine is working with the combination of pressing power button and some other keys. The order of pressing keys is secret but we don't trust it, anybody can learn the password and can access the machine. i have the capability of managing the key hold time and also some other metrics to measure the time differences between the key such as horizantal or vertical key press times (differences). and also i can measure the hold time etc. These all means i have some inputs, Now i'm trying to get a user profile by analysing these inputs. My idea is to get the authenticated user to press the password n times and create a threshold or something similar to that. This method also can be said BIOMETRICS, anyone else who knows the machine button combination, can try the password but if he is out of this range can not get access it. How can i adapt these into my algorithms? where should i start ? i don't want to delve deep into machine learning, and also i can see the in my first try i can get false positive and false negative values really high, but i can manage it by changing my inputs. thanks.

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  • Time to start returning IQueryable<T> instead of IList<T> to my Web UI / Web API Layer?

    - by JohnnyO
    I've got a multi-layer application that starts with the repository pattern for all data access and it returns IQueryable to the Services layer. The Services layer, which includes all of the business logic, returns IList to the Controllers (note: I'm using ASP.NET MVC for the UI layer). The benefit of returning IQueryable in the data access layer is that it allows my repositories to be extremely simple and the database queries to be deferred. However, I'm triggering the database queries in my services layer so that my unit tests is more reliable and I don't give flexibility to the Controllers to reshape my queries. However, I've recently encountered several situations where deferring the execution of queries down to the Controllers would have been significantly more performant because the Controllers had to do some projections on the data that was UI specific. Additionally, with the emergence of things like oData, I was starting to wonder if end points (e.g. web UI or web apis) should be working directly with IQueryable. What are your thoughts? Is it time to start returning IQueryable from the services layer to the UI layer? Or stick with IList? This thread here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/718624/to-return-iqueryablet-or-not-return-iqueryablet seems to vouch for returning IList to the UI layers, but I was wondering if things are changing because of new emerging technologies and techniques.

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  • Question - Setting dynamic HTML using Javascript to iFrames on Windows Mobile 6.1 - IE Mobile6

    - by swaroop
    Hi Experts, (excuse me if this is not the right forum to post - i couldn't find anything related to non-native programming and related to this topic) I Am trying to set a dynamic HTML into an iFrame on the webpage. I have tried a couple of things but none of them seem to work. I m able to read the innerHTML but can't seem to update it. // Able to read using document.getElementById('iFrameIdentifier').innerHTML; // On Desktop IE, this code works document.getElementById('iFrameId').contentWindow.document.open(); document.getElementById('iFrameId').contentWindow.document.write(dynamicHTML); document.getElementById('iFrameId').contentWindow.document.close(); Ideally the same function should work as how it works for div's but it says 'Object doesn't support this method or property". I have also tried document.getElementById('iFrameId').document.body.innerHTML. This apparently replaces the whole HTML of the page and not just the innerHTML. I have tried out a couple of things and they didn't work document.getElementById('iFrameId').body.innerHTML document.frames[0].document.body.innerHTML My purpose is to have a container element which can contain dynamic HTML that's set to it. I've been using it well till now when I observed that the setting innerHTML on a div is taking increasing amount of time because of the onClicks or other JS methods that are attached to the anchors and images in the dynamic HTML. Appears the JS methods or the HTML is some how not getting cleaned up properly (memory leak?) Also being discussed - http://www.experts-exchange.com/Programming/Languages/Scripting/JavaScript/Q_26185526.html#a32779090

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  • Using for or while loops

    - by Gary
    Every month, 4 or 5 text files are created. The data in the files is pulled into MS Access and used in a mailmerge. Each file contains a header. This is an example: HEADER|0000000130|0000527350|0000171250|0000058000|0000756600|0000814753|0000819455|100106 The 2nd field is the number of records contained in the file (excluding the header line). The last field is the date in the form yymmdd. Using gawk (for Windows), I've done ok with rearranging/modifying the data and writing it all out to a new file for importing into Access except for the following. I'm trying to create a unique ID number for each record. The ID number has the form 1mmddyyXXXX, where XXXX is a number, padded with leading zeros. Using the header above, the first record in the output file would get the ID number 10106100001 and the last record would get the ID 10106100130. I've tried putting the second field in the header into a variable, rearranging the last header field into the required date format and then looping with "for" statements to append the XXXX part of the ID and then outputting it all with printf but so far I've been complete rubbish at it. Thanks for your help! gary

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  • what is the best way to stream a audio file to website users/listners

    - by Naveen Chamikara Gamage
    I'm developing a music site which will stream audio files stored in a server to users, audio files will be played through flash player placed in a webpage.. As I heard I need to use a streaming media server for streaming audio files ( like 2mb to 3mb in size).. Do I need to use one? I found some streaming media server softwares like http://www.icecast.org - but as in their documentation, It is used for streaming radio stations and live streaming purposes, but I just need to stream audio files faster and in low size (low bandwidth) with good quality.. I heard I need to encode the audio files first and then send them to listeners and in their end audio files need to be decoded again. Is that true? How can I do that? if I need to use a special web server, where should I host my files? Any good hosting providers? if I host audio files in a normal web server, they will use HTTP or TCP to deliver my audio files to users/ listners but I found that HTTP and TCP are not good ways to use for multi media purposes like streaming audio and video files, and they are used for delivering HTML and stuff. I found I should use RSTP or UDP for streaming audio files.. What should I use? I know that .MP3 files has much better quality than the other formats but it also gives huge size to the audio files.. which format should I use for audio files? Most of the best quality audio files are more than 7mb so I'm planning to convert them my self using a software so I could get low size files with some level of good quality. If I'm converting my audio files what is the good BITRATE I should use for my files? Any known best softwares for converting audio files while keeping quality in a good level? Note** - I know that I will not need complex requirements at the beginning of the site but I wanted to what are the best ways like they are using for soundcloud.com

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  • In .net what are the difference between Eventlog and ManagementObject for retriving logs from remote

    - by Mitesh Patel
    I have found out following two ways for getting Application Event log entries from remote server. 1. Using EventLog object string logType = "Application"; EventLog ev = new EventLog(logType,"rspl200"); EventLogEntryCollection evColl = ev.Entries 2. Using ManagementObjectSearcher object ConnectionOptions co = new ConnectionOptions(); co.Username = "testA"; co.Password = "testA"; ManagementScope scope = new ManagementScope(@"\" + "machineName"+ @"\root\cimv2", co); scope.Connect(); SelectQuery query = new SelectQuery(@"select * from Win32_NtLogEvent"); EnumerationOptions opt = new EnumerationOptions(); opt.BlockSize = 1000; using (ManagementObjectSearcher searcher = new ManagementObjectSearcher(scope, query,opt)) { foreach (ManagementObject mo in searcher.Get()) { // write down log entries Console.Writeline(mo["EventCode"]); } } I can easily get remote eventlog using method #1 (Using EventLog object) without any security access denied exception. But using method #2 (Using ManagementObjectSearcher object) i get access denied exception. Actually I want remote event log (only application and also latest log not all application logs) to be displayed in treeview like below - ServerName - Logs + Error + Information + Warning Can anybody help me in this to find out best way from this or any other? Also the main thing is that user who reads remote logs may be in different domain than server. Thanks Mitesh Patel

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  • XML parse node value as string

    - by bharathi
    My xml file is look like this . I want to get the value node text content as like this . <property regex=".*" xpath=".*"> <value> 127.0.0.1 </value> <property regex=".*" xpath=".*"> <value> val <![CDATA[ <Valve className="org.tomcat.AccessLogValve" exclude="PASSWORD,pwd,pWord,ticket" enabled="true" serviceName="zohocrm" logDir="../logs" fileName="access" format="URI,&quot;PARAM&quot;,&quot;REFERRER&quot;,TIME_TAKEN,BYTES_OUT,STATUS,TIMESTAMP,METHOD,SESSION_ID,REMOTE_IP,&quot;INTERNAL_IP&quot;,&quot;USER_AGENT&quot;,PROTOCOL,SERVER_NAME,SERVER_PORT,BYTES_IN,ZUID,TICKET_DIGEST,THREAD_ID,REQ_ID"/> ]]> test </value> </property> I want to get text as order they specified in a file . Here is my java code . Document doc = parseDocument("properties.xml"); NodeList properties = doc.getElementsByTagName("property"); for( int i = 0 , len = properties.getLength() ; i < len ; i++) { Element property = (Element)properties.item(i); //How can i proceed further . } Output Expected : Node 1 : 127.0.0.1 Node 2 : val <Valve className="org.tomcat.AccessLogValve" exclude="PASSWORD,pwd,pWord,ticket" enabled="true" serviceName="zohocrm" logDir="../logs" fileName="access" format="URI,&quot;PARAM&quot;,&quot;REFERRER&quot;,TIME_TAKEN,BYTES_OUT,STATUS,TIMESTAMP,METHOD,SESSION_ID,REMOTE_IP,&quot;INTERNAL_IP&quot;,&quot;USER_AGENT&quot;,PROTOCOL,SERVER_NAME,SERVER_PORT,BYTES_IN,ZUID,TICKET_DIGEST,THREAD_ID,REQ_ID"/> test Please suggest your views .

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  • C# Switch-case Loop for Datagridview cells

    - by Nail Yener
    Hi, I am working on a form with datagridview and webbrowser controls. I have three columns as URL, username and password in datagridview. What I want to do is to automate the login for some websites that I use frequently. For that reason I am not sure if this is the right approach but I created the below code. The problem is with the argument of switch. I will click the row on datagridview and then click the login_button so that the username and password info will be passed to the related fields on the webpage. Why I need a switch-case loop is because all the webpages have different element IDs for username and password fields. As I said, I am not sure if datagridview allows switch-case, I searched the net but couldn't find any samples. private void login_button_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { switch (dataGridView1.Rows[e.RowIndex].Cells[e.ColumnIndex].Value.ToString()) { case "http://www.website1.com": webBrowser1.Document.GetElementById("username").InnerText = dataGridView1.Rows[3].Cells[3].Value.ToString(); webBrowser1.Document.GetElementById("password").InnerText = dataGridView1.Rows[3].Cells[4].Value.ToString(); return; case "http://www.website2.com": webBrowser1.Document.GetElementById("uname").InnerText = dataGridView1.Rows[4].Cells[3].Value.ToString(); webBrowser1.Document.GetElementById("pswd").InnerText = dataGridView1.Rows[4].Cells[4].Value.ToString(); return; } HtmlElementCollection elements = this.webBrowser1.Document.GetElementsByTagName("Form"); foreach (HtmlElement currentElement in elements) { currentElement.InvokeMember("Login"); } }

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  • Storing PLSQL stored-procedure values in Oracle memory caches for extended periods

    - by Ira Baxter
    I am collecting runtime profiling data from PLSQL stored procedures. The data is collected as certain stored procedures execute, but it needs to accumululate across multiple executions of those procedures. To minimize overhead, I'd like to store that profiling data in some PLSQL-accessable Oracle memory-resident storage somewhere for the duration of the data collection interval, and then dump out the accumulated values. The data collection interval might be seconds or hours; its ok not to store this data across system boots. Something like session state in web servers would do. What are my choices for storing such data? The only method I know about are contexts in dbms_sessions: procedure set_ctx (value in varchar8) as begin dbms_session.set_context ( 'Test_Ctx', 'AccumulatedValue', value, NULL, 'ProfilerSessionId' ); end set_ctx; This works, but takes some 50 milliseconds(!) per update to the accumulated value. What I'm hoping for is a way to access/store an array of values in some Oracle memory using vanilla PLSQL statements, with access times typical of array accesses made to package-local arrays.

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  • Looping through python-dictionary-turned-into-json in javascript.

    - by Phil
    In writing a django app, I am returning the following json on a jQuery ajax call: { "is_owner": "T", "author": "me", "overall": "the surfing lifestyle", "score": "1", "meanings": { "0": "something", "1": "something else", "3": "yet something else", "23": "something random" }, "user vote": "1" } In the javascript/jQuery callback function, I can access the is_owner, author, etc. easily enough. is_owner = json.is_owner; author = json.author; But for meanings, the numbers are different depending on what it pulls from the server. On the server side for the meanings part, right now what I'm doing is constructing a dictionary like so: meanings_dict = {} meanings = requested_tayke.meanings.all() for meaning in meanings: meanings_dict[meaning.location] = meaning.text and then returning a json I create like this: test_json = simplejson.dumps({'is_owner':is_owner, 'overall':overall, 'score':str(score),'user vote':str(user_vote), 'author': author, 'meanings' : meanings_dict }) print test_json return HttpResponse(test_json) My question is this: how do I access the 'meanings' data from my json in javascript? I need to loop through all of it. Maybe I need to be loading it into json differently. I have full control so of both the server and client side so I'm willing to change either to make it work. Also worth noting: I'm not using Django's serialize functionality. I couldn't make it work with my situation.

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  • How can I improve my real-time behavior in multi-threaded app using pthreads and condition variables

    - by WilliamKF
    I have a multi-threaded application that is using pthreads. I have a mutex() lock and condition variables(). There are two threads, one thread is producing data for the second thread, a worker, which is trying to process the produced data in a real time fashion such that one chuck is processed as close to the elapsing of a fixed time period as possible. This works pretty well, however, occasionally when the producer thread releases the condition upon which the worker is waiting, a delay of up to almost a whole second is seen before the worker thread gets control and executes again. I know this because right before the producer releases the condition upon which the worker is waiting, it does a chuck of processing for the worker if it is time to process another chuck, then immediately upon receiving the condition in the worker thread, it also does a chuck of processing if it is time to process another chuck. In this later case, I am seeing that I am late processing the chuck many times. I'd like to eliminate this lost efficiency and do what I can to keep the chucks ticking away as close to possible to the desired frequency. Is there anything I can do to reduce the delay between the release condition from the producer and the detection that that condition is released such that the worker resumes processing? For example, would it help for the producer to call something to force itself to be context switched out? Bottom line is the worker has to wait each time it asks the producer to create work for itself so that the producer can muck with the worker's data structures before telling the worker it is ready to run in parallel again. This period of exclusive access by the producer is meant to be short, but during this period, I am also checking for real-time work to be done by the producer on behalf of the worker while the producer has exclusive access. Somehow my hand off back to running in parallel again results in significant delay occasionally that I would like to avoid. Please suggest how this might be best accomplished.

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  • Adapting existing HTML/Javascript model to Titanium's latest release (v 0.9)

    - by Alan Neal
    In pre-0.9 versions of Titanium, one could simply specify an .html file (local or remote) in the tiapp.xml file and interact with it in the same manner as one would on a website. As of version 0.9, that is no the longer case. One creates their entire app dynamically. Unfortunately, this broke my previous implementation and, other than an updated Kitchen Sink, much of the new model and API calls are not covered in the documentation (e.g., createLabel). So, my question is this... What are the simplest steps for re-creating the previous effect (knowingly forgoing some of the advantages of the Titanium's latest approach if necessary)? My previous implementation was exactly as it functions on the website. The website has a single index.html file with no content other than links to JavaScript and style files. The document body's onload event called the first JavaScript function (located in the main script) and, from that point forth, the entire content was dynamically created. How can I set up the latest version of Titanium so that I am poised to do the exact same thing? BTW: Whereas I previously had the choice to keep the files local or remote, I don't believe that remote access (e.g., simply using the webView widget to point to the website) is viable. That's because pages displayed via the webView do not have access to most of the API. Since the iPhone and Safari browsers do not support the file input type, the only means for uploading files (something my app requires) is calling Titanium's function. Thanks in advance.

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  • Accessing Item Fields via Sitecore Web Service

    - by Catch
    I am creating items on the fly via Sitecore Web Service. So far I can create the items from this function: AddFromTemplate And I also tried this link: http://blog.hansmelis.be/2012/05/29/sitecore-web-service-pitfalls/ But I am finding it hard to access the fields. So far here is my code: public void CreateItemInSitecore(string getDayGuid, Oracle.DataAccess.Client.OracleDataReader reader) { if (getDayGuid != null) { var sitecoreService = new EverBankCMS.VisualSitecoreService(); var addItem = sitecoreService.AddFromTemplate(getDayGuid, templateIdRTT, "Testing", database, myCred); var getChildren = sitecoreService.GetChildren(getDayGuid, database, myCred); for (int i = 0; i < getChildren.ChildNodes.Count; i++) { if (getChildren.ChildNodes[i].InnerText.ToString() == "Testing") { var getItem = sitecoreService.GetItemFields(getChildren.ChildNodes[i].Attributes[0].Value, "en", "1", true, database, myCred); string p = getChildren.ChildNodes[i].Attributes[0].Value; } } } } So as you can see I am creating an Item and I want to access the Fields for that item. I thought that GetItemFields will give me some value, but finding it hard to get it. Any clue?

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  • SQL Compact allow only one WCF Client

    - by Andreas Hoffmann
    Hi, I write a little Chat Application. To save some infos like Username and Password I store the Data in an SQL-Compact 3.5 SP1 Database. Everything working fine, but If another (the same .exe on the same machine) Client want to access the Service. It came an EndpointNotFound exception, from the ServiceReference.Class.Open() at the Second Client. So i remove the CE Data Access Code and I get no Error (with an if (false)) Where is the Problem? I googled for this, but no one seems the same error I get :( SOLUTION I used the wrapper in http://csharponphone.blogspot.com/2007/01/keeping-sqlceconnection-open-and-thread.html for threat safty, and now it works :) Client Code: public test() { var newCompositeType = new Client.ServiceReference1.CompositeType(); newCompositeType.StringValue = "Hallo" + DateTime.Now.ToLongTimeString(); newCompositeType.Save = (Console.ReadKey().Key == ConsoleKey.J); ServiceReference1.Service1Client sc = new Client.ServiceReference1.Service1Client(); sc.Open(); Console.WriteLine("Save " + newCompositeType.StringValue); sc.GetDataUsingDataContract(newCompositeType); sc.Close(); } Server Code public CompositeType GetDataUsingDataContract(CompositeType composite) { if (composite.Save) { SqlCeConnection con = new SqlCeConnection(Properties.Settings.Default.Con); con.Open(); var com = con.CreateCommand(); com.CommandText = "SELECT * FROM TEST"; SqlCeResultSet result = com.ExecuteResultSet(ResultSetOptions.Scrollable | ResultSetOptions.Updatable); var rec = result.CreateRecord(); rec["TextField"] = composite.StringValue; result.Insert(rec); result.Close(); result.Dispose(); com.Dispose(); con.Close(); con.Dispose(); } return composite; }

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  • prompt error in jquery ui file

    - by phil
    I run the script in IE 8 and get error message after typing in the input field: //error message from IE8 Webpage error details User Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.1; Trident/4.0; SLCC2; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; .NET CLR 3.0.30729; InfoPath.2) Timestamp: Mon, 7 Jun 2010 23:13:10 UTC Message: Object expected Line: 570 Char: 394 Code: 0 URI: http://localhost/zhong/jquery-ui-1.8.2.custom.min.js <script src="jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script src="jquery-ui-1.8.2.custom.min.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="jquery-ui-1.8.2.custom.css" /> <body> Search: <input id="example" /> </body> <script> $(document).ready(function(){ var data = "Core Selectors Attributes Traversing Manipulation CSS Events Effects Ajax Utilities".split(" "); $("#example").autocomplete(data); }); </script>

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  • Problem with XML encoding of database contents with Latin characters

    - by user89691
    I have an ASP Access database that contains strings in various European languages. The database was populated prior by agents in the respective countries. It contains entries with accented etc characters as you would expect. If I open the database with MS Access these characters show up fine. For example the the German equivalent of "Open" shows as "Öffnen" (hopefully you can see an "O" with 2 dots above it!). I have ASP code that reads the database and returns records in XML. The text is passed to XMLEncode to construct the XML, but that only seems to deal with the 5 specials like "<", "&", etc. If I dump the XML the accented characters are unchanged. <English>Open</English> <German>Öffnen</German> If I look at the raw packets with Wireshark I see that the "Ö" byte is hex D6, which appears to be it's decimal Unicode and ISO 8859-1 value. The problem starts when I try to parse the XML in client-side JS. I get: "An invalid character was found in text content" from IE. FF and Chrome happily accept the XML without hiccup but the browser shows the "Ö" character as a diamond with a question mark inside. http://www.validome.org/xml/validate/ reports "encoding error." http://www.w3schools.com/dom/dom_validate.asp thinks it is fine. The XML is UTF-8 encoded. What do I need to do to have IE accept my XML without complaint? What do I need to do to have browsers display the stuff correctly?

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  • Appengine datastore phantom entity - inconsistent state?

    - by aloo
    Getting a weird error on java appengine code that used to work fine (nothing has changed but the data in the datastore). I'm trying to iterate over the results of a query and change a few properties of the entities. The query does return a set of results, however, when I try to access the first result in the list, it throws an exception when trying to access any of its properties (but its key). Here's the exception: org.datanucleus.state.JDOStateManagerImpl isLoaded: Exception thrown by StateManager.isLoaded Could not retrieve entity of kind OnTheCan with key OnTheCan(3204258) org.datanucleus.exceptions.NucleusObjectNotFoundException: Could not retrieve entity of kind OnTheCan with key OnTheCan(3204258) at org.datanucleus.store.appengine.DatastoreExceptionTranslator.wrapEntityNotFoundException(DatastoreExceptionTranslator.java:60) And here is my code: PersistenceManager pm = PMF.get().getPersistenceManager(); Query query = null; List<OnTheCan> cans; query = pm.newQuery("SELECT this FROM " + OnTheCan.class.getName() + " WHERE open == true ORDER BY onTheCanId ASC"); query.setRange(0, num); cans = (List<OnTheCan>) query.execute(); for (OnTheCan c : cans) { System.err.println(c.getOnTheCanId()); // this works fine! getting the key works c.setOpen(false); // failure here with the above exception c.setAutoClosed(true); c.setEndTime(new Date(c.getStartTime().getTime() + 600000/*10*60*1000*/)); } pm.close(); The code throws the exception when trying to execute c.setOpen(false) - thats the first time I'm accessing or setting a property that isnt the key. So it seems there is a phantom entity in my datastore with key 3204258. THis entity doesn't really exist (queried the datastore from admin console) but for some reason its being returned by the query. Could my data store be in an inconsistent state? I've managed the following workaround by placing it as the first line in my for loop. Clearly an ugly hack: if (c.getOnTheCanId() == 3204258) { continue; } Any ideas?

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  • Linking session state between servlets and EJBs?

    - by wilth
    Hello, I have servlets (in a web module) that access stateless EJB beans (in an EJB module). The EJB module is built using SEAM. Users can have different roles and the EJB services check this using Seam's Identity. I also use a customized Authenticator (although this might not be relevant here). I noticed problems with this approach and I'm suspecting that the session context in the servlets is not "linked" with the session context in the EJB beans. What I think happens is something like: User Joe access servlet A and is assigned Session W1. Servlet A calls a login function on an EJB, using the EJB session E1. Later, user Mary accesses servlet A and is assigned Session W2. When calling the EJBs, however, the EJB session E1 is used and therefore Mary is authenticated as Joe. What also happens is that when Joe is calling the servlet twice in rapid succession, the same session W1 is used, but two different sessions E1 and E2 in the business layer, causing errors. I might be wrong in my suspicion, but maybe I'm actually expecting these "sessions" to be linked together while they in fact are not. If this is true, is there any way of achieving this? I could - of course - use stateful beans and save the authentication information in the beans, but this would break the "Identity" concept of Seam (and in general, it would be preferable to be able to use the Session context in my EJB beans). Any help and pointers are very welcome - thanks! Technology: EJB3, Seam 2.1.2. The servlets are actually the server-side of a GWT app, although I don't think this matters much. I'm using JBoss 5.

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  • SSL certificate exception problem in Firefox

    - by Baztoune
    Hi there, and thanks in advance for your help or any tip that could get me out of here. I work on a JEE app with a JBoss server and an Apache. I'm not really familiar with SSL connections and certificates, I understand the basic, but I have to deal with it. So on my local configuration (localhost) I have my connection certificate configured on JBoss and Apache, and a USER_DEV.P12 file, which I import in my certificates in Firefox. I have the same configuration on a distant test server (test-server), and a USER_TEST.P12 which I also import in Firefox. When I access https://localhost/ or https://test-server/ Firefox asks me to add an exception, which is normal. After that, I select the appropriated user certificate, and can use my application normally. But for the second (let's say https://test-server/), Firefox rises me a sec_error_reused_issuer_and_serial error. Of course I googled it and founded the Mozilla help, So when I delete the "server" in my certificate manager, I can access again my second domain, but the same problem occurs for the first one. To shorten the problem, my 2 client/server certificate couples are OK but I can't have 2 certificate exceptions at the same time in Firefox for my 2 different servers/users, even though the names, server address, and MD5 are different. I notified the serial is the same (01), but it's working on my colleague's computer. So am I doing something wrong? Do I have to deal with it manually each time (or with Firefox profiles)? Thanks for your help. Bastien.

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  • ASP.Net User Control Template Instantiation

    - by Chris
    Hi, I created a user control that has a template container. <cc:SearchResultItem ID="SearchResultItem1" Customer='<%# ((Customer)(((RepeaterItem)Container).DataItem)) %>' runat="server"> <NameTemplate> <%# Container.Name %> </NameTemplate> </cc:SearchResultItem> This is control is placed in a repeater which lists some customers. The customer is than bound to the user control. When the name template is instantiated in the container, the customer object is not yet available, but I need to access its name because it needs to get parsed before. protected void Page_Init(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (nameTemplate != null ) { // customer is null here, it is avaiable only after Page_Init... NameContainer container = new NameContainer(customer.Id, Parse(customer.Name)); nameTemplate.InstantiateIn(container); placeHolder.Controls.Add(container); } } Question: How can I access properties set for the user control BEFORE the template container is instantiated? Thanks in advance!

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