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• Spring constructor injection error

  - by Jeune

  I am getting the following error for a bean in my application context: Related cause: org.springframework.beans.factory.UnsatisfiedDependencyException: Error creating bean with name 'businessLogicContext' d efined in class path resource [activemq-jms-consumer.xml]: Unsatisfied dependency expressed through constructor argument with index 0 of type [java.lang.String]: Could not convert constructor argument value of type [java.util.ArrayList] to required type [java.lang.String]: Failed to convert value of type [java.util.ArrayList] to required type [java.lang.Stri ng]; nested exception is java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Cannot convert value of type [java.util.ArrayList] to requi red type [java.lang.String]: no matching editors or conversion strategy found at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.ConstructorResolver.createArgumentArray(ConstructorResolver.java:53 4) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.ConstructorResolver.autowireConstructor(ConstructorResolver.java:18 6) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.autowireConstructor(AbstractAuto wireCapableBeanFactory.java:855) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.createBeanInstance(AbstractAutow ireCapableBeanFactory.java:765) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.doCreateBean(AbstractAutowireCap ableBeanFactory.java:412) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory$1.run(AbstractAutowireCapableBea nFactory.java:383) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.createBean(AbstractAutowireCapab leBeanFactory.java:353) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanFactory$1.getObject(AbstractBeanFactory.java:245) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultSingletonBeanRegistry.getSingleton(DefaultSingletonBeanRegis try.java:169) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanFactory.getBean(AbstractBeanFactory.java:242) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanFactory.getBean(AbstractBeanFactory.java:164) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory.preInstantiateSingletons(DefaultListable BeanFactory.java:400) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.finishBeanFactoryInitialization(AbstractApplic ationContext.java:736) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.refresh(AbstractApplicationContext.java:369) at org.springframework.context.support.ClassPathXmlApplicationContext.<init>(ClassPathXmlApplicationContext.java :123) at org.springframework.context.support.ClassPathXmlApplicationContext.<init>(ClassPathXmlApplicationContext.java :66) Here is my bean: <bean id="businessLogicContext" class="org.springframework.context.support.ClassPathXmlApplicationContext" depends-on="resolveProperty"> <constructor-arg index="0"> <list> <value>jms-applicationContext.xml</value> <value>jms-managerBeanContext.xml</value> <value>jms-daoContext.xml</value> <value>jms-serviceContext.xml</value> </list> </constructor-arg> </bean> I don't know what's wrong, I have googled how to inject a string array via constructor injection and the way I do it above seems okay.

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• Connection hangs after time of inactivity

  - by Sinuhe

  In my application, Spring manages connection pool for database access. Hibernate uses these connections for its queries. At first glance, I have no problems with the pool: it works correctly with concurrent clients and a pool with only one connection. I can execute a lot of queries, so I think that I (or Spring) don't leave open connections. My problem appears after some time of inactivity (sometimes 30 minutes, sometimes more than 2 hours). Then, when Hibernate does some search, it lasts too much. Setting log4j level to TRACE, I get this logs: ... 18:27:01 DEBUG nsactionSynchronizationManager - Retrieved value [org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.SessionHolder@99abd7] for key [org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl@7d2897] bound to thread [http-8080-Processor24] 18:27:01 DEBUG HibernateTransactionManager - Found thread-bound Session [org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl@8878cd] for Hibernate transaction 18:27:01 DEBUG HibernateTransactionManager - Using transaction object [org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.HibernateTransactionManager$HibernateTransactionObject@1b2ffee] 18:27:01 DEBUG HibernateTransactionManager - Creating new transaction with name [com.acjoventut.service.GenericManager.findByExample]: PROPAGATION_REQUIRED,ISOLATION_DEFAULT 18:27:01 DEBUG HibernateTransactionManager - Preparing JDBC Connection of Hibernate Session [org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl@8878cd] 18:27:01 TRACE SessionImpl - setting flush mode to: AUTO 18:27:01 DEBUG JDBCTransaction - begin 18:27:01 DEBUG ConnectionManager - opening JDBC connection Here it gets frozen for about 2 - 10 minutes. But then continues: 18:30:11 DEBUG JDBCTransaction - current autocommit status: true 18:30:11 DEBUG JDBCTransaction - disabling autocommit 18:30:11 TRACE JDBCContext - after transaction begin 18:30:11 DEBUG HibernateTransactionManager - Exposing Hibernate transaction as JDBC transaction [jdbc:oracle:thin:@212.31.39.50:30998:orcl, UserName=DEVELOP, Oracle JDBC driver] 18:30:11 DEBUG nsactionSynchronizationManager - Bound value [org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.ConnectionHolder@843a9d] for key [org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource@7745fd] to thread [http-8080-Processor24] 18:30:11 DEBUG nsactionSynchronizationManager - Initializing transaction synchronization ... After that, it works with no problems, until another period of inactivity. IMHO, it seems like connection pool returns an invalid/closed connection, and when Hibernate realizes that, ask another connection to the pool. I don't know how can I solve this problem or things I can do for delimiting it. Any help achieving this will be appreciate. Thanks. EDIT: Well, it finally was due a firewall rule. Database detects the connection is lost, but pool (dbcp or c3p0) not. So, it tries to query the database with no success. What is still strange for me is that timeout period is very variable. Maybe the rule is specially strange or firewall doesn't work correctly. Anyway, I have no access to that machine and I can only wait for an explanation. :(

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• jquery, manipulate content inserted by ajax, without using the callback

  - by Cody

  I am using ajax to insert a series of informational blocks via a loop. The blocks each have a title, and long description in them that is hidden by default. They function like an accordion, only showing one description at a time amongst all of the blocks. The problem is opening the description on the first block. I would REALLY like to do it with javascript right after the loop that is creating them is done. Is it possible to manipulate elements created ofter an ajax call without using the callback? <!-- example code--> <style> .placeholder, .long_description{ display:none;} </style> </head><body> <script> /* yes, this script is in the body, dont know if it matters */ $(document).ready(function() { $(".placeholder").each(function(){ // Use the divs to get the blocks var blockname = $(this).html(); // the contents if the div is the ID for the ajax POST $.post("/service_app/dyn_block",'form='+blockname, function(data){ var divname = '#div_' + blockname; $(divname).after(data); $(this).setupAccrdFnctly(); //not the actual code }); }); /* THIS LINE IS THE PROBLEM LINE, is it possible to reference the code ajax inserted */ /* Display the long description in the first dyn_block */ $(".dyn_block").first().find(".long_description").addClass('active').slideDown('fast'); }); </script> <!-- These lines are generated by PHP --> <!-- It is POSSIBLE to display the dyn_blocks --> <!-- here but I would really rather not --> <div id="div_servicetype" class="placeholder">servicetype</div> <div id="div_custtype" class="placeholder">custtype</div> <div id="div_custinfo" class="placeholder">custinfo</div> <div id="div_businfo" class="placeholder">businfo</div> </body>

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• Initialize a Variable Again.

  - by SoulBeaver

  That may sound a little confusing. Basically, I have a function CCard newCard() { /* Used to store the string variables intermittantly */ std::stringstream ssPIN, ssBN; int picker1, picker2; int pin, bankNum; /* Choose 5 random variables, store them in stream */ for( int loop = 0; loop < 5; ++loop ) { picker1 = rand() % 8 + 1; picker2 = rand() % 8 + 1; ssPIN << picker1; ssBN << picker2; } /* Convert them */ ssPIN >> pin; ssBN >> bankNum; CCard card( pin, bankNum ); return card; } that creates a new CCard variable and returns it to the caller CCard card = newCard(); My teacher advised me that doing this is a violation of OOP principles and has to be put in the class. He told me to use this method as a constructor. Which I did: CCard::CCard() { m_Sperre = false; m_Guthaben = rand() % 1000; /* Work */ /* Convert them */ ssPIN >> m_Geheimzahl; ssBN >> m_Nummer; } All variables with m_ are member variables. However, the constructor works when I initialize the card normally CCard card(); at the start of the program. However, I also have a function, that is supposed to create a new card and return it to the user, this function is now broken. The original command: card = newCard(); isn't available anymore, and card = new CCard(); doesn't work. What other options do I have? I have a feeling using the constructor won't work, and that I probably should just create a class method newCard, but I want to see if it is somehow at all possible to do it the way the teacher wanted. This is creating a lot of headaches for me. I told the teacher that this is a stupid idea and not everything has to be classed in OOP. He has since told me that Java or C# don't allow code outside of classes, which sounds a little incredible. Not sure that you can do this in C++, especially when templated functions exist, or generic algorithms. Is it true that this would be bad code for OOP in C++ if I didn't force it into a class?

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• Memory allocation and release for UIImage in iPhone?

  - by rkbang

  Hello all, I am using following code in iPhone to get smaller cropped image as follows: - (UIImage*) getSmallImage:(UIImage*) img { CGSize size = img.size; CGFloat ratio = 0; if (size.width < size.height) { ratio = 36 / size.width; } else { ratio = 36 / size.height; } CGRect rect = CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, ratio * size.width, ratio * size.height); UIGraphicsBeginImageContext(rect.size); [img drawInRect:rect]; UIImage *tempImg = [UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext() retain]; UIGraphicsEndImageContext(); return [tempImg autorelease]; } - (UIImage*)imageByCropping:(UIImage *)imageToCrop toRect:(CGRect)rect { //create a context to do our clipping in UIGraphicsBeginImageContext(rect.size); CGContextRef currentContext = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); //create a rect with the size we want to crop the image to //the X and Y here are zero so we start at the beginning of our //newly created context CGFloat X = (imageToCrop.size.width - rect.size.width)/2; CGFloat Y = (imageToCrop.size.height - rect.size.height)/2; CGRect clippedRect = CGRectMake(X, Y, rect.size.width, rect.size.height); //CGContextClipToRect( currentContext, clippedRect); //create a rect equivalent to the full size of the image //offset the rect by the X and Y we want to start the crop //from in order to cut off anything before them CGRect drawRect = CGRectMake(0, 0, imageToCrop.size.width, imageToCrop.size.height); CGContextTranslateCTM(currentContext, 0.0, drawRect.size.height); CGContextScaleCTM(currentContext, 1.0, -1.0); //draw the image to our clipped context using our offset rect //CGContextDrawImage(currentContext, drawRect, imageToCrop.CGImage); CGImageRef tmp = CGImageCreateWithImageInRect(imageToCrop.CGImage, clippedRect); //pull the image from our cropped context UIImage *cropped = [UIImage imageWithCGImage:tmp];//UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext(); CGImageRelease(tmp); //pop the context to get back to the default UIGraphicsEndImageContext(); //Note: this is autoreleased*/ return cropped; } I am using following line of code in cellForRowAtIndexPath to update the image of the cell: cell.img.image = [self imageByCropping:[self getSmallImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"goal_image.png"]] toRect:CGRectMake(0, 0, 36, 36)]; Now when I add this table view and pop it from navigation controller, I see a memory hike.I see no leaks but memory keeps climbing. Please note that the images changes for each row and I am creating the controller using lazy initialization that is I create or alloc it whenever I need it. I saw on internet many people facing the same issue, but very rare good solutions. I have multiple views using the same way and I see almost memory raised to 4MB within 20-25 view transitions. What is the good solution to resolve this issue. tnx.

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• session management: problem displaying username in the header

  - by aeonsleo

  hi, I am working on a simple login and logout module for my website without any security. I am using wamp on a windows xp machine. I am creating session when a user submits the login informaton it redirects to a process.php file which creates the session variables and starts session. Now if the login is successful user is redirected to the welcome page which includes a header file(which displays the header involving signin logout help options) The problem is the header is not changing the signin link to logout as the user logs successfully. The below code is from process.php which initiates a login. $username = $_POST['username']; $password = $_POST['password']; //echo "{$username}:{$password}"; $connection = mysql_connect("localhost","root",""); if(!$connection) { die("Database Connection Failed".mysql_error()); } $db_select = mysql_select_db("tester",$connection); if(!$db_select) { die("Database Selection Failed".mysql_error()); } $result = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM user",$connection); if(!$result) { die("Database Selection Failed".mysql_error()); } $q = "SELECT * FROM user " ."WHERE Name='".$username."' AND Password='".$password. "' "; // Run query $r = mysql_query($q); if ( $obj = @mysql_fetch_object($r) ) { session_start(); // Login good, create session variables $_SESSION["valid_id"] = session_id(); $_SESSION["valid_user"] = $_POST["username"]; $_SESSION["valid_time"] = time(); Header('Location: welcome.php'); The following code is from header.php which is included in welcome.php </div> <div id = "userdetail"> <?php if(isset($_SESSION["valid_user"])) { echo($_SESSION["valid_user"]." " ); echo("<a href=logout.php>Logout</a>"); } else { echo("<a href = login.php>Sign In</a>"); } ?> | Help | Search <input type = "text" name = "searchbox" value = "" /> </div> </div>

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• I want to set the AutoCompleteMode property in ApplyCellStyleToEditingControl subroutine

  - by Ranjan Gupta

  Hi, I am creating a DataGridView Column. and it is working well. now I want to customise this column with AutoCompleteMode, and AutoCompleteSource properties to show the customised data. I made the properties for this columns, and these are also working well. but these properties are not working in the "ApplyCellStyleToEditingControl" subroutine. Please help me to use these column properties in the "ApplyCellStyleToEditingControl" subroutine. Public Class DataGridViewDataValueColumn Inherits DataGridViewColumn Dim m_AutoCompleteMode As AutoCompleteMode, _ m_AutoCompleteSource As AutoCompleteSource, _ m_AutoCompleteStringCollection As AutoCompleteStringCollection Public Sub New() MyBase.New(New DataValueCell()) End Sub Public Overrides Property CellTemplate() As DataGridViewCell Get Return MyBase.CellTemplate End Get Set(ByVal value As DataGridViewCell) ' Ensure that the cell used for the template is a DataValueCell. If (value IsNot Nothing) AndAlso _ Not value.GetType().IsAssignableFrom(GetType(DataValueCell)) _ Then Throw New InvalidCastException("Must be a DataValueCell") End If MyBase.CellTemplate = value End Set End Property Region "User Defined Properties" '&*--------------------------------------*&' <Description("Indicates the text completion behaviour of the combo box."), DefaultValue(AutoCompleteMode.None)> _ Public Property AutoCompleteMode() As AutoCompleteMode Get Return m_AutoCompleteMode End Get Set(ByVal value As AutoCompleteMode) m_AutoCompleteMode = value End Set End Property <Description("The source of complete strings used to automatic completion."), DefaultValue(AutoCompleteSource.None)> _ Public Property AutoCompleteSource() As AutoCompleteSource Get Return m_AutoCompleteSource End Get Set(ByVal value As AutoCompleteSource) m_AutoCompleteSource = value End Set End Property <Description("The autocomplete custom source.")> _ Public Property AutoCompleteCustomSource() As AutoCompleteStringCollection Get Return m_AutoCompleteStringCollection End Get Set(ByVal value As AutoCompleteStringCollection) m_AutoCompleteStringCollection = value End Set End Property End Region End Class '&*--------------------------------------*&' Class DataValueCell Inherits DataGridViewTextBoxCell Public Sub New() ' End Sub Public Overrides ReadOnly Property EditType As Type Get Return GetType(PCLDataGridViewTextBoxEditingControl) End Get End Property End Class '&*--------------------------------------*&' '&* Edit DataGridView Columns *&' '&*--------------------------------------*&' Class PCLDataGridViewTextBoxEditingControl Inherits DataGridViewTextBoxEditingControl Public Overrides Function EditingControlWantsInputKey(ByVal keyData As Keys, ByVal dataGridViewWantsInputKey As Boolean) As Boolean Select Case ((keyData And Keys.KeyCode)) Case Keys.Prior, Keys.Next, Keys.End, Keys.Home, Keys.Left, Keys.Up, Keys.Right, Keys.Down, Keys.Delete Return True End Select Return MyBase.EditingControlWantsInputKey(keyData, dataGridViewWantsInputKey) End Function Public Overrides Sub ApplyCellStyleToEditingControl(ByVal dataGridViewCellStyle As DataGridViewCellStyle) With DirectCast(Me, TextBox) '.AutoCompleteMode = DataGridViewDataValueColumn.AutoCompleteMode_Value '.AutoCompleteSource = DataGridViewDataValueColumn.AutoCompleteSource_Value '.AutoCompleteCustomSource = MyBase.AutoCompleteCustomSource End With End Sub End Class

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• What to name 2 methods with same signatures

  - by coffeeaddict

  Initially I had a method in our DL that would take in the object it's updating like so: internal void UpdateCash(Cash Cash) { using (OurCustomDbConnection conn = CreateConnection("UpdateCash")) { conn.CommandText = @"update Cash set captureID = @captureID, ac_code = @acCode, captureDate = @captureDate, errmsg = @errorMessage, isDebit = @isDebit, SourceInfoID = @sourceInfoID, PayPalTransactionInfoID = @payPalTransactionInfoID, CreditCardTransactionInfoID = @CreditCardTransactionInfoID where id = @cashID"; conn.AddParam("@captureID", cash.CaptureID); conn.AddParam("@acCode", cash.ActionCode); conn.AddParam("@captureDate", cash.CaptureDate); conn.AddParam("@errorMessage", cash.ErrorMessage); conn.AddParam("@isDebit", cyberCash.IsDebit); conn.AddParam("@PayPalTransactionInfoID", cash.PayPalTransactionInfoID); conn.AddParam("@CreditCardTransactionInfoID", cash.CreditCardTransactionInfoID); conn.AddParam("@sourceInfoID", cash.SourceInfoID); conn.AddParam("@cashID", cash.Id); conn.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } My boss felt that creating an object every time just to update one or two fields is overkill. But I had a couple places in code using this. He recommended using just UpdateCash and sending in the ID for CAsh and field I want to update. Well the problem is I have 2 places in code using my original method. And those 2 places are updating 2 completely different fields in the Cash table. Before I was just able to get the existing Cash record and shove it into a Cash object, then update the properties I wanted to be updated in the DB, then send back the cash object to my method above. I need some advice on what to do here. I have 2 methods and they have the same signature. I'm not quite sure what to rename these because both are updating 2 completely different fields in the Cash table: internal void UpdateCash(int cashID, int paypalCaptureID) { using (OurCustomDbConnection conn = CreateConnection("UpdateCash")) { conn.CommandText = @"update Cash set CaptureID = @paypalCaptureID where id = @cashID"; conn.AddParam("@captureID", paypalCaptureID); conn.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } internal void UpdateCash(int cashID, int PayPalTransactionInfoID) { using (OurCustomDbConnection conn = CreateConnection("UpdateCash")) { conn.CommandText = @"update Cash set PaymentSourceID = @PayPalTransactionInfoID where id = @cashID"; conn.AddParam("@PayPalTransactionInfoID", PayPalTransactionInfoID); conn.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } So I thought hmm, maybe change the names to these so that they are now unique and somewhat explain what field its updating: UpdateCashOrderID UpdateCashTransactionInfoID ok but that's not really very good names. And I can't go too generic, for example: UpdateCashTransaction(int cashID, paypalTransactionID) What if we have different types of transactionIDs that the cash record holds besides just the paypalTransactionInfoID? such as the creditCardInfoID? Then what? Transaction doesn't tell me what kind. And furthermore what if you're updating 2 fields so you have 2 params next to the cashID param: UpdateCashTransaction(int cashID, paypalTransactionID, someOtherFieldIWantToUpdate) see my frustration? what's the best way to handle this is my boss doesn't like my first route?

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• How to use Facebook graph API to retrieve fan photos uploaded to wall of fan page?

  - by Joe

  I am creating an external photo gallery using PHP and the Facebook graph API. It pulls thumbnails as well as the large image from albums on our Facebook Fan Page. Everything works perfect, except I'm only able to retrieve photos that an ADMIN posts to our page. (graph.facebook.com/myalbumid/photos) Is there a way to use graph api to load publicy uploaded photos from fans? I want to retrieve the pictures from the "Photos from" album, but trying to get the ID for the graph query is not like other albums... it looks like this: http://www.facebook.com/media/set/?set=o.116860675007039 Another note: The only way i've come close to retreiving this data is by using the "feed" option.. ie: graph.facebook.com/pageid/feed EDIT: This is about as far as I could get- it works, but has certain issues stated below. Maybe someone could expand on this, or provide a better solution. (Using FB PHP SDK) <?php require_once ('config.php'); // get all photos for album $photos = $facebook->api("/YourID/tagged"); $maxitem =10; $count = 0; foreach($photos['data'] as $photo) { if ($photo['type'] == "photo"): echo "<img src='{$photo['picture']}' />", "<br />"; endif; $count+= 1; if ($count >= "$maxitem") break; } ?> Issues with this: 1) The fact that I don't know a method for graph querying specific "types" of Tags, I had to run a conditional statement to display photos. 2) You cannot effectively use the "?limit=#" with this, because as I said the "tagged" query contains all types (photo, video, and status). So if you are going for a photo gallery and wish to avoid running an entire query by using ?limit, you will lose images. 3) The only content that shows up in the "tagged" query is from people that are not Admins of the page. This isn't the end of the world, but I don't understand why Facebook wouldn't allow yourself to be shown in this data as long as you posted it "as yourself" and not as the page.

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• Create a Color Picker, similar to Photoshop's, using Javascript and HTML Canvas

  - by André Alçada Padez

  I am not at all versed in Computer Graphics and am in need of creating a color picker as a javascript tool to embed in an HTML page. First, and looking at Photoshop's one, i thought of the RGB palette as a three-dimensional matrix. My first attempt envolved: <script type="text/javascript"> var rgCanvas = document.createElement('canvas'); rgCanvas.width = 256; rgCanvas.height = 256; rgCanvas.style.border = '3px solid black'; for (g = 0; g < 256; g++){ for (r = 0; r < 256; r++){ var context = rgCanvas.getContext('2d'); context.beginPath(); context.moveTo(r,g); context.strokeStyle = 'rgb(' + r + ', ' + g + ', 0)'; context.lineTo(r+1,g+1); context.stroke(); context.closePath(); } } var bCanvas = document.createElement('canvas'); bCanvas.width = 20; bCanvas.height = 256; bCanvas.style.border = '3px solid black'; for (b = 0; b < 256; b++){ var context = bCanvas.getContext('2d'); context.beginPath(); context.moveTo(0,b); context.strokeStyle = 'rgb(' + 0 + ', ' + 0 + ', ' + b + ')'; context.lineTo(20, b); context.stroke(); context.closePath(); } document.body.appendChild(rgCanvas); document.body.appendChild(bCanvas); </script> this results in something like My thought is this is too linear, comparing to the ones i see in Photoshop and on the web. I would like to know the logic behind the color mapping in a picker like this: I don't really need the algorythms itself, i'm mainly trying to understand the logic. Thanks

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• xml append issue in ie,chrome

  - by 3gwebtrain

  Hi, I am creating a html page, using xml data. in which i am using the following function. It works fine with firefox,opera,safari. but in case of ie7,ie8, and chrome the data what i am getting from xml, is not appending properly. any one help me to solve this issue? in case any special thing need to concentrate on append funcation as well let me know.. $(function(){ var thisPage; var parentPage; $('ul.left-navi li a').each(function(){ $('ul.left-navi li a').removeClass('current'); var pathname = (window.location.pathname.match(/[^\/]+$/)[0]); var currentPage = $(this).attr('href'); var pathArr = new Array(); pathArr = pathname.split("."); var file = pathArr[pathArr.length - 2]; thisPage = file; if(currentPage==pathname){ $(this).addClass("active"); } }) $.get('career-utility.xml',function(myData){ var myXml = $(myData).find(thisPage); parentPage = thisPage; var overviewTitle = myXml.find('overview').attr('title'); var description = myXml.find('discription').text(); var mainsublinkTitle = myXml.find('mainsublink').attr('title'); var thisTitle = myXml.find("intro").attr('title'); var thisIntro = myXml.find("introinfo").text(); $('<h3>'+overviewTitle+'</h3>').appendTo('.overViewInfo'); $('<p>'+description+'</p>').appendTo('.overViewInfo'); var sublinks = myXml.find('mainsublink').children('sublink'); $('#intro h3').append(thisTitle); $('#intro').append(thisIntro); sublinks.each(function(numsub){ var newSubLink = $(this); var sublinkPage = $(this).attr('pageto'); var linkInfo = $(this).text(); $('ul.career-link').append('<li><a href="'+sublinkPage+'">'+linkInfo+'</a></li>'); }) $(myXml).find('listgroup').each(function(index){ var count = index; var listGroup = $(this); var listGroupTitle = $(this).attr('title'); var shortNote = $(this).attr('shortnote'); var subLink = $(this).find('sublist'); var firstList = $(this).find('list'); $('.grouplist').append('<div class="list-group"><h3>'+listGroupTitle+'</h3><ul class="level-one level' + count + '"></ul></div>'); firstList.each(function(listnum) { $(this).wrapInner('<li>') .find('sublistgroup').wrapInner('<ul>').children().unwrap() .find('sublist').wrapInner('<li>').children().unwrap(); $('ul.level'+count).append($(this).children()); }); }); }); }) Thanks for advance..

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• Exporting classes containing std:: objects (vector, map, etc) from a dll

  - by RnR

  I'm trying to export classes from a DLL that contain objects such as std::vectors and std::stings - the whole class is declared as dll export through: class DLL_EXPORT FontManager { The problem is that for members of the complex types I get this warning: warning C4251: 'FontManager::m__fonts' : class 'std::map<_Kty,_Ty' needs to have dll-interface to be used by clients of class 'FontManager' with [ _Kty=std::string, _Ty=tFontInfoRef ] I'm able to remove some of the warnings by putting the following forward class declaration before them even though I'm not changing the type of the member variables themselves: template class DLL_EXPORT std::allocator<tCharGlyphProviderRef>; template class DLL_EXPORT std::vector<tCharGlyphProviderRef,std::allocator<tCharGlyphProviderRef> >; std::vector<tCharGlyphProviderRef> m_glyphProviders; Looks like the forward declaration "injects" the DLL_EXPORT for when the member is compiled but is it safe? Does it realy change anything when the client compiles this header and uses the std container on his side? Will it make all future uses of such a container DLL_EXPORT (and possibly not inline?)? And does it really solve the problem that the warning tries to warn about? Is this warning anything I should be worried about or would it be best to disable it in the scope of these constructs? The clients and the dll will always be built using the same set of libraries and compilers and those are header only classes... I'm using Visual Studio 2003 with the standard STD library. ---- Update ---- I'd like to target you more though as I see the answers are general and here we're talking about std containers and types (such as std::string) - maybe the question really is: Can we disable the warning for standard containers and types available to both the client and the dll through the same library headers and treat them just as we'd treat an int or any other built-in type? (It does seem to work correctly on my side.) If so would should be the conditions under which we can do this? Or should maybe using such containers be prohibited or at least ultra care taken to make sure no assignment operators, copy constructors etc will get inlined into the dll client? In general I'd like to know if you feel designing a dll interface having such objects (and for example using them to return stuff to the client as return value types) is a good idea or not and why - I'd like to have a "high level" interface to this functionality... maybe the best solution is what Neil Butterworth suggested - creating a static library?

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• Unlimited SMS API/Gateway (Sending and Receiving)

  - by Naif

  I am creating a chat application which requires that users be able to send and receive sms messages through a web interface. It would be somewhat similar to the text messaging service available in yahoo mail or in aol instant messenger. The situation is this: Given the high quantity of messages that would be sent and received, paying on a per message basis is not economically feasible. How is it that sites such as yahoo, aim, and twitter can send and receive unlimited sms messages? Essentially, I am looking for a way to send and receive unlimited sms from my computer. Below is a list of some approaches I've come up with but have run into problems with as well. If just one of the approaches can be utilized effectively, then I am fine. As a note on the nature of my application: I will only be sending messages to users that explicitly sign up for the service and permit the receiving of messages. They can unsubscribe at any time. This is to prevent spam. I am aware of software such as Kannel which allows one to connect to a providers smsc gateway. However, this adds the risk of not being approved by the provider which would be unacceptable. Is there any way to significantly mitigate this risk? Utilizing a gateway provider eliminates this risk, but adds the issue of per message pricing. I am also aware of email to sms. However, I have done some testing with that and it appears that this method results in many messages being undelivered or delivered VERY late. If it weren't for that, this approach would have been ideal. Is there any way to negotiate with carriers to remove me from their filters (considering the nature of my service as stated before)? I could use a gsm modem, but even with an "unilimited" plan on a sim card, there are still limits (around 100,000 messages or so). Furthermore, from my understanding, gsm modems are capable of only sending out around a dozen messages per minute. I need to be able to send out as much as several hundred messages per second. During the first 2 months, around 10 messages per second would suffice. There are ways to send out ads with messages to cover the per message costs. However, this is a deal-breaker since it has a high chance of tarnishing the quality of service. Furthermore, I know it is possible to do it without such ads since yahoo, aim, and twitter do not send ads with their messages.

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• how to design this relation in a DB schema

  - by raticulin

  I have a table Car in my db, one of the columns is purchaseDate. I want to be able to tag every car with a number of Policies (limited to 10 policies). Each policy has a time to life (ttl, a duration of time, like '5 years', '10 months' etc), that is, for how long since the car's purchaseDate the policy can be applied. I need to perform the following actions: when inserting a Car, it will be set with a number of Policies (at least one is set) sometimes a Car will be updated to add/remove a Policy searches must be done taking into account date/policies, for example: 'select all cars that are not covered by any policy as of today' My current design is (pol0..pol9 are the policies): CREATE TABLE Car ( id int NOT NULL IDENTITY(1,1), purchaseDate datetime NOT NULL, //more stuff... pol0 smallint default NULL, pol1 smallint default NULL, pol2 smallint default NULL, pol3 smallint default NULL, pol4 smallint default NULL, pol5 smallint default NULL, pol6 smallint default NULL, pol7 smallint default NULL, pol8 smallint default NULL, pol9 smallint default NULL, PRIMARY KEY (id) ) CREATE TABLE Policy ( id smallint NOT NULL, name varchar(50) collate Latin1_General_BIN NOT NULL, ttl varchar(100) collate Latin1_General_BIN NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (id) ) The problem I am facing is that the sql to perform the query above is a nightmare to write. As I don't know in which column each policy can be, so I have to check all columns for every policy etc etc. So I am wondering wether it is worth changing this. My questions are: The smallint as Policy id was chosen instead of an 'int IDENTITY' in order to save some space as there are going to be millions of Car records. It just adds complexity when creating a Policy as we must handle the id etc. Was it worth doing this? I am thinking that maybe there is a much better design? Obviously we could move the policy/car relation to its own table CarPolicy, benefits would be: no limit on 10 policies per car adding/removing etc much easier when only the default policy is applied (when no others are applied one called Default policy is applied), we could signal that by not having any entry in CarPolicy, now this is just done inserting the Default policy id in one of the columns. The cons are that we would need to change the DB, ORM classes etc. What would you recommend? Maybe there is another smart way to implement this that we are not aware without using the CarPolicy table?

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• How can I send multiple types of objects across Protobuf?

  - by cyclotis04

  I'm implementing a client-server application, and am looking into various ways to serialize and transmit data. I began working with Xml Serializers, which worked rather well, but generate data slowly, and make large objects, especially when they need to be sent over the net. So I started looking into Protobuf, and protobuf-net. My problem lies in the fact that protobuf doesn't sent type information with it. With Xml Serializers, I was able to build a wrapper which would send and receive any various (serializable) object over the same stream, since object serialized into Xml contain the type name of the object. ObjectSocket socket = new ObjectSocket(); socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(string)); // Tells the socket the types socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(int)); // of objects we will want socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(bool)); // to send and receive. socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(Person)); // When it gets data, it looks for socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(Address)); // these types in the Xml, then uses // the appropriate serializer. socket.Connect(_host, _port); socket.Send(new Person() { ... }); socket.Send(new Address() { ... }); ... Object o = socket.Read(); Type oType = o.GetType(); if (oType == typeof(Person)) HandlePerson(o as Person); else if (oType == typeof(Address)) HandleAddress(o as Address); ... I've considered a few solutions to this, including creating a master "state" type class, which is the only type of object sent over my socket. This moves away from the functionality I've worked out with Xml Serializers, though, so I'd like to avoid that direction. The second option would be to wrap protobuf objects in some type of wrapper, which defines the type of object. (This wrapper would also include information such as packet ID, and destination.) It seems silly to use protobuf-net to serialize an object, then stick that stream between Xml tags, but I've considered it. Is there an easy way to get this functionality out of protobuf or protobuf-net? I've come up with a third solution, and posted it below, but if you have a better one, please post it too!

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• Unsure how to design JavaScript / jQuery functionality which uses XML to create HTML objects

  - by Jack Roscoe

  Hi, I'm using JavScript and jQuery to read an XML document and subsequently use the information from the XML to create HTML objects. The main 'C' nodes in the XML document all have a type attribute, and depending on the type I want to run a function which will create a new html object using the other attributes assigned to that particular 'C' node node. Currently, I have a for loop which extracts each 'C' node from the XML and also it's attributes (e.g. width, height, x, y). Also inside the for loop, I have an if statement which checks the 'type' attribute of the current 'C' node being processed, and depending on the type it will run a different function which will then create a new HTML object with the attributes which have been drawn from the XML. The problem is that there may be more than one 'C' node of the same type, so for example when I'm creating the function that will run when a 'C' node of 'type=1' is detected, I cannot use the 'var p = document.createElement('p')' because if a 'C' node of the same type comes up later in the loop it will clash and override that element with that variable that has just been created. I'm not really sure how to approach this? Here is my entire script. If you need me to elaborate on any parts please ask, I'm sure it's not written in the nicest possible way: var arrayIds = new Array(); $(document).ready(function(){ $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "question.xml", dataType: "xml", success: function(xml) { $(xml).find("C").each(function(){ arrayIds.push($(this).attr('ID')); }); var svgTag = document.createElement('SVG'); // Create question type objects function ctyp3(x,y,width,height,baC) { alert('test'); var r = document.createElement('rect'); r.x = x; r.y = y; r.width = width; r.height = height; r.fillcolor = baC; svgTag.appendChild(r); } // Extract question data from XML var questions = []; for (j=0; j<arrayIds.length; j++) { $(xml).find("C[ID='" + arrayIds[j] + "']").each(function(){ // pass values questions[j] = { typ: $(this).attr('typ'), width: $(this).find("I").attr('wid'), height: $(this).find("I").attr('hei'), x: $(this).find("I").attr('x'), y: $(this).find("I").attr('x'), baC: $(this).find("I").attr('baC'), boC: $(this).find("I").attr('boC'), boW: $(this).find("I").attr('boW') } alert($(this).attr('typ')); if ($(this).attr('typ') == '3') { ctyp3(x,y,width,height,baC); // alert('pass'); } else { // Add here // alert('fail'); } }); } } }); });

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• How do you combine "Revision Control" with "WorkFlow" for R?

  - by Tal Galili

  Hello all, I remember coming across R users writing that they use "Revision control" (e.g: "Source control"), and I am curious to know: How do you combine "Revision control" with your statistical analysis WorkFlow? Two (very) interesting discussions talk about how to deal with the WorkFlow. But neither of them refer to the revision control element: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1266279/how-to-organize-large-r-programs http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1429907/workflow-for-statistical-analysis-and-report-writing A Long Update To The Question: Following some of the people's answers, and Dirk's question in the comment, I would like to direct my question a bit more. After reading the Wiki article about "revision control" (which I was previously not familiar with), it was clear to me that when using revision control, what one does is to build a development structure of his code. This structure either leads to a "final product" or to several branches. When building something like, let's say, a website. There is usually one end product you work towards (the website), with some prototypes along the way. But when doing a statistical analysis, the work (to my view) is different. Sometimes you know where you want to get to. But more often, you explore. Explore cleaning the dataset. Explore different methods for statistical analysis, and ask various questions of your data (and I am writing this, knowing how Frank Harrell, and other experience statisticians feels about Data dredging). That is way the WorkFlow question with statistical programming is (in my view) a serious and deep question, raising many issues, The simpler ones are technical: Which revision control software do you use (and why) ? Which IDE do you use(and why) ? The more interesting question are about work process: How do you structure your files? What do you keep as a separate file and what as a revision? or asking in a different way - What should be a "branch" and what should be a "sub project" in your code? For example: When starting to explore your data, should a plot be creating and then erased because it didn't lead any where (but kept as a revision) or should there be a backup file of that path? How you solve this tension was my initial curiosity. The second question is "what might I be missing?". What rules (of thumb) should one follow so to avoid common pitfalls doing statistical programming with version control? In my intuition, I feel that statistical programming is inherently different then software development (I am writing this without being a real expert in statistical programming, and even less so in software development). That's way I am unsure which of the lessons I have read here about version control would be applicable. Thanks a lot, Tal

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• Ruby: Parse, replace, and evaluate a string formula

  - by Swartz

  I'm creating a simple Ruby on Rails survey application for a friend's psychological survey project. So we have surveys, each survey has a bunch of questions, and each question has one of the options participants can choose from. Nothing exciting. One of the interesting aspects is that each answer option has a score value associated with it. And so for each survey a total score needs to be calculated based on these values. Now my idea is instead of hard-coding calculations is to allow user add a formula by which the total survey score will be calculated. Example formulas: "Q1 + Q2 + Q3" "(Q1 + Q2 + Q3) / 3" "(10 - Q1) + Q2 + (Q3 * 2)" So just basic math (with some extra parenthesis for clarity). The idea is to keep the formulas very simple such that anyone with basic math can enter them without resolving to some fancy syntax. My idea is to take any given formula and replace placeholders such as Q1, Q2, etc with the score values based on what the participant chooses. And then eval() the newly formed string. Something like this: f = "(Q1 + Q2 + Q3) / 2" # some crazy formula for this survey values = {:Q1 => 1, :Q2 => 2, :Q3 => 2} # values for substitution result = f.gsub(/(Q\d+)/) {|m| values[$1.to_sym] } # string to be eval()-ed eval(result) So my questions are: Is there a better way to do this? I'm open to any suggestions. How to handle formulas where not all placeholders were successfully replaced (e.g. one question wasn't answered)? Ex: {:Q3 = 2} wasn't in values hash? My idea is to rescue eval()... any thoughts? How to get proper result? Should be 2.5, but due to integer arithmetic, it will truncate to 2. I can't expect people who provide the correct formula (e.g. / 2.0 ) to understand this nuance. I do not expect this, but how to best protect eval() from abuse (e.g. bad formula, manipulated values coming in)? Thank you!

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• User Defined Exceptions with JMX

  - by Daniel

  I have exposed methods for remote management in my application server using JMX by creating an MXBean interface, and a class to implement it. Included in this interface are operations for setting attributes on my server, and for getting the current value of attributes. For example, take the following methods: public interface WordManagerMXBean { public void addWord(String word); public WordsObject getWords(); public void removeWord(String word); } The WordsObject is a custom, serializable class used to retrieve data about the state of the server. Then I also have a WordManager class that implements the above interface. I then create a JMX agent to manage my resource: MBeanServer mbs = ManagementFactory.getPlatformMBeanServer(); ObjectName wordManagerName = new ObjectName("com.example:type=WordManager"); mbs.registerMBean(wordManager, wordManagerName); I have created a client that invokes these methods, and this works as expected. However, I would like to extend this current configuration by adding user defined exceptions that can be sent back to my client. So I would like to change my interface to something like this: public interface WordManagerMXBean { public void addWord(String word) throws WordAlreadyExistsException; public WordsObject getWords(); public void removeWord(String word); } My WordAlreadyExistsException looks like this: public class WordAlreadyExistsException extends Exception implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = -9095552123119275304L; public WordAlreadyExistsException() { super(); } } When I call the addWord() method in my client, I would like to get back a WordAlreadyExistsException if the word already exists. However, when I do this, I get an error like this: java.rmi.UnmarshalException: Error unmarshaling return; nested exception is: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: com.example.WordAlreadyExistsException The WordAlreadyExistsException, the WordsObject and the WordManagerMXBean interface are all in a single jar file that is available to both the client and the server. If I call the getWords() method, the client has no difficulty handling the WordsObject. However, if a user defined exception, like the one above, is thrown, then the client gives the error shown above. Is it possible to configure JMX to handle this exception correctly in the client? Following some searching, I noticed that there is an MBeanException class that is used to wrap exceptions. I'm not sure if this wrapping is performed by the agent automatically, or if I'm supposed to do the wrapping myself. I tried both, but in either case I get the same error on the client. I have also tried this with both checked and unchecked exceptions, again the same error occurs. One solution to this is to simply pass back the error string inside a generic error, as all of the standard java exceptions work. But I'd prefer to get back the actual exception for processing by the client. Is it possible to handle user defined exceptions in JMX? If so, any ideas how?

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• libXcodeDebuggerSupport.dylib is missing in iOS 4.2.1 development SDK

  - by Kalle

  Note: creating a symbolic link to use the 4.2 lib seems to work fine -- maybe cd /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/DeviceSupport/4.2.1\ \(8C148\)/Symbols/ sudo ln -s ../../4.2 (8C134)/Symbols/Developer Request: See end of this question! After upgrading from 4.2.0 (beta, I believe) to 4.2.1, the libXcodeDebuggerSupport.dylib file is missing, which results in: warning: Unable to read symbols for /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/DeviceSupport/4.2.1 (8C148)/Symbols/Developer/usr/lib/libXcodeDebuggerSupport.dylib (file not found). which I guess isn't good. Looking at the directory in question I note: .../DeviceSupport/4.2 (8C134)/Symbols/Developer/usr/lib/libXcodeDebuggerSupport.dylib but .../DeviceSupport/4.2.1 (8C148)/Symbols/System/ .../DeviceSupport/4.2.1 (8C148)/Symbols/usr/ the above two dirs make up all the content in the 4.2.1 folder. No "Developer" folder. Checking the /usr/ dir there, I find no libXcodeDebuggerSupport.dylib file in the lib dir either, so ln -s'ing isn't an option. Worth mentioning: after the upgrade, I plugged the iPad in and had to click "Use for development" in Xcode organizer. Doing so, I got a message about symbols missing for that version, and Xcode proceeded to generate such, then failed. I restored the iPad and did "Use for development" again, and nothing about missing symbols appeared... Update: deletion of /Developer and reinstallation of Xcode from scratch does not fix this issue. Update 2: I just realized that after the reinstall of Xcode, .../DeviceSupport/4.2 (8C134)/Symbols is now a symbolic link, lrwxr-xr-x 1 root admin 36 Dec 3 17:17 Symbols -> ../../Developer/SDKs/iPhoneOS4.2.sdk And the directory in question has the appropriate files. Maybe this is simply a matter of linking the 4.2.1 dir in the same fashion? I'll try that and see if Xcode freaks out. If someone who has this file could provide a md5 sum that would be splendid. This is what it says for me: $ md5 /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/DeviceSupport/4.2\ \(8C134\)/Symbols/Developer/usr/lib/libXcodeDebuggerSupport.dylib MD5 (/Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/DeviceSupport/4.2 (8C134)/Symbols/Developer/usr/lib/libXcodeDebuggerSupport.dylib) = 08f93a0a2e3b03feaae732691f112688 If the MD5 sum is identical to the output of $ md5 /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/DeviceSupport/4.2.1\ \(8C148\)/Symbols/Developer/usr/lib/libXcodeDebuggerSupport.dylib then we're all set.

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• Click on notification starts activity twice

  - by Karussell

  I'm creating a notification from a service with the following code: NotificationManager notificationManager = (NotificationManager) ctx .getSystemService(Context.NOTIFICATION_SERVICE); CharSequence tickerText = "bla ..."; long when = System.currentTimeMillis(); Notification notification = new Notification(R.drawable.icon, tickerText, when); Intent notificationIntent = new Intent(ctx, SearchActivity.class). putExtra(SearchActivity.INTENT_SOURCE, MyNotificationService.class.getSimpleName()); PendingIntent contentIntent = PendingIntent.getActivity(ctx, 0, notificationIntent, 0); notification.setLatestEventInfo(ctx, ctx.getString(R.string.app_name), tickerText, contentIntent); notification.flags |= Notification.FLAG_AUTO_CANCEL; notificationManager.notify(1, notification); The logs clearly says that the the method startActivity is called twice times: 04-02 23:48:06.923: INFO/ActivityManager(2466): Starting activity: Intent { act=android.intent.action.SEARCH cmp=com.xy/.SearchActivity bnds=[0,520][480,616] (has extras) } 04-02 23:48:06.923: WARN/ActivityManager(2466): startActivity called from non-Activity context; forcing Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK for: Intent { act=android.intent.action.SEARCH cmp=com.xy/.SearchActivity bnds=[0,520][480,616] (has extras) } 04-02 23:48:06.958: INFO/ActivityManager(2466): Starting activity: Intent { act=android.intent.action.SEARCH cmp=com.xy/.SearchActivity bnds=[0,0][480,96] (has extras) } 04-02 23:48:06.958: WARN/ActivityManager(2466): startActivity called from non-Activity context; forcing Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK for: Intent { act=android.intent.action.SEARCH cmp=com.xy/.SearchActivity bnds=[0,0][480,96] (has extras) } 04-02 23:48:07.087: INFO/notification(5028): onStartCmd: received start id 2: Intent { cmp=com.xy/.NotificationService } 04-02 23:48:07.310: INFO/notification(5028): onStartCmd: received start id 3: Intent { cmp=com.xy/.NotificationService } 04-02 23:48:07.392: INFO/ActivityManager(2466): Displayed activity com.xy/.SearchActivity: 462 ms (total 462 ms) 04-02 23:48:07.392: INFO/ActivityManager(2466): Displayed activity com.xy/.SearchActivity: 318 ms (total 318 ms) Why are they started twice? There are two identical questions on stackoverflow: here and here. But they do not explain what the initial issue could be and they do not work for me. E.g. changing to launchMode singleTop is not appropriated for me and it should work without changing launchMode according to the official docs (see Invoking the search dialog). Nevertheless I also tried to add the following flags to notificationIntent Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_CLEAR_TOP | PendingIntent.FLAG_UPDATE_CURRENT but the problem remains the same.

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• Where should I initialize variables for an OO Recursive Descent Parse Tree?

  - by Vasto

  I'd like to preface this by stating that this is for a class, so please don't solve this for me. One of my labs for my cse class is creating an interpreter for a BNF that was provided. I understand most of the concepts, but I'm trying to build up my tree and I'm unsure where to initialize values. I've tried in both the constructor, and in the methods but Eclipse's debugger still only shows the left branch, even though it runs through completely. Here is my main procedure so you can get an idea of how I'm calling the methods. public class Parser { public static void main(String[] args) throws IOException { FileTokenizer instance = FileTokenizer.Instance(); FileTokenizer.main(args); Prog prog = new Prog(); prog.ParseProg(); prog.PrintProg(); prog.ExecProg(); } Now here is My Prog class: public class Prog { private DeclSeq ds; private StmtSeq ss; Prog() { ds = new DeclSeq(); ss = new StmtSeq(); } public void ParseProg() { FileTokenizer instance = FileTokenizer.Instance(); instance.skipToken(); //Skips program (1) // ds = new DeclSeq(); ds.ParseDS(); instance.skipToken(); //Skips begin (2) // ss = new StmtSeq(); ss.ParseSS(); instance.skipToken(); } I've tried having Prog() { ds = null; ss = null; } public void ParseProg() { FileTokenizer instance = FileTokenizer.Instance(); instance.skipToken(); //Skips program (1) ds = new DeclSeq(); ds.ParseDS(); ... But it gave me the same error. I need the parse tree built up so I can do a pretty print and an execute command, but like I said, I only get the left branch. Any help would be appreciated. Explanations why are even more so appreciated. Thank you, Vasto

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• How to cache queries in EJB and return result efficient (performance POV)

  - by Maxym

  I use JBoss EJB 3.0 implementation (JBoss 4.2.3 server) At the beginning I created native query all the time using construction like Query query = entityManager.createNativeQuery("select * from _table_"); Of couse it is not that efficient, I performed some tests and found out that it really takes a lot of time... Then I found a better way to deal with it, to use annotation to define native queries: @NamedNativeQuery( name = "fetchData", value = "select * from _table_", resultClass=Entity.class ) and then just use it Query query = entityManager.createNamedQuery("fetchData"); the performance of code line above is two times better than where I started from, but still not that good as I expected... then I found that I can switch to Hibernate annotation for NamedNativeQuery (anyway, JBoss's implementation of EJB is based on Hibernate), and add one more thing: @NamedNativeQuery( name = "fetchData2", value = "select * from _table_", resultClass=Entity.class, readOnly=true) readOnly - marks whether the results are fetched in read-only mode or not. It sounds good, because at least in this case of mine I don't need to update data, I wanna just fetch it for report. When I started server to measure performance I noticed that query without readOnly=true (by default it is false) returns result with each iteration better and better, and at the same time another one (fetchData2) works like "stable" and with time difference between them is shorter and shorter, and after 5 iterations speed of both was almost the same... The questions are: 1) is there any other way to speed query using up? Seems that named queries should be prepared once, but I can't say it... In fact if to create query once and then just use it it would be better from performance point of view, but it is problematic to cache this object, because after creating query I can set parameters (when I use ":variable" in query), and it changes query object (isn't it?). well, is here any way to cache them? Or named query is the best option I can use? 2) any other approaches how to make results retrieveng faster. I mean, for instance I don't need those Entities to be attached, I won't update them, all I need is just fetch collection of data. Maybe readOnly is the only available way, so I can't speed it up, but who knows :) P.S. I don't ask about DB performance, all I need now is how not to create query all the time, so use it efficient, and to "allow" EJB to do less job with the same result concerning data returning.

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• Can sorting Japanese kanji words be done programatically?

  - by Mason

  I've recently discovered, to my astonishment (having never really thought about it before), machine-sorting Japanese proper nouns is apparently not possible. I work on an application that must allow the user to select a hospital from a 3-menu interface. The first menu is Prefecture, the second is City Name, and the third is Hospital. Each menu should be sorted, as you might expect, so the user can find what they want in the menu. Let me outline what I have found, as preamble to my question: The expected sort order for Japanese words is based on their pronunciation. Kanji do not have an inherent order (there are tens of thousands of Kanji in use), but the Japanese phonetic syllabaries do have an order: ???????????????????... and on for the fifty traditional distinct sounds (a few of which are obsolete in modern Japanese). This sort order is called ???? (gojuu on jun , or '50-sound order'). Therefore, Kanji words should be sorted in the same order as they would be if they were written in hiragana. (You can represent any kanji word in phonetic hiragana in Japanese.) The kicker: there is no canonical way to determine the pronunciation of a given word written in kanji. You never know. Some kanji have ten or more different pronunciations, depending on the word. Many common words are in the dictionary, and I could probably hack together a way to look them up from one of the free dictionary databases, but proper nouns (e.g. hospital names) are not in the dictionary. So, in my application, I have a list of every prefecture, city, and hospital in Japan. In order to sort these lists, which is a requirement, I need a matching list of each of these names in phonetic form (kana). I can't come up with anything other than paying somebody fluent in Japanese (I'm only so-so) to manually transcribe them. Before I do so though: Is it possible that I am totally high on fire, and there actually is some way to do this sorting without creating my own mappings of kanji words to phonetic readings, that I have somehow overlooked? Is there a publicly available mapping of prefecture/city names, from the government or something? That would reduce the manual mapping I'd need to do to only hospital names. Does anybody have any other advice on how to approach this problem? Any programming language is fine--I'm working with Ruby on Rails but I would be delighted if I could just write a program that would take the kanji input (say 40,000 proper nouns) and then output the phonetic representations as data that I could import into my Rails app. ??????????

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• Voicexml how to store input into a global variable

  - by Tyzak

  Hello, I'm creating a voicexml appliacation. I want to store an user input into a global variable. I wondered, the input should be stored in the fieldvar. shouldn't it? After I tried it with this, i tried to store it in an global variable: <assign name="myvar" expr="'myinput'"/> but somehow it didn't work. I used value expr="var" as expr. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <vxml xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2001/vxml" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.w3.org/2001/vxml http://www.w3.org/TR/voicexml20/vxml.xsd" version="2.0"> <var name="myProdukt" /> <form id="test"> <field name="var"> <prompt bargein="true" bargeintype="hotword" >Sagen Sie ein Produkt</prompt> <grammar root="main" version="1.0" xml:lang="de-DE"> <rule id="main" scope="public"> <one-of> <item> p1 </item> <item> p2 </item> <item> p3 </item> <item> p4 </item> </one-of> </rule> </grammar> <filled> <assign name="myProdukt" expr="<value expr="var"/>"/> </filled> </field> </form> <<!--[...] Here i want to use the input.--> </vxml> thanks in advance

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