Search Results

Search found 24350 results on 974 pages for 'bug a lot'.

Page 577/974 | < Previous Page | 573 574 575 576 577 578 579 580 581 582 583 584  | Next Page >

  • Fix common library functions, or abandon then?

    - by Ian Boyd
    Imagine i have a function with a bug in it: Boolean MakeLocation(String City, String State) { //Given "Springfield", "MO" //return "Springfield, MO" return City+", "+State; } So the call: MakeLocation("Springfield", "MO"); would return "Springfield, MO" Now there's a slight problem, what if the user called: MakeLocation("Springfield, MO", "OH"); The called it wrong, obviously. But the function would return "Springfield, MO, OH". The system was functioning like this for many years, until i noticed the function being used wrong, and i corrected it. And i also updated the original function to catch such an obvious mistake - in case it's happening elsewhere: Boolean MakeLocation(String City, String State) { //Given "Springfield", "MO" //return "Springfield, MO" if (City.Contains, ",") throw new EMakeLocationException("City name contains a comma. You probably didn't mean that"); return City+", "+State; } And testing showed the problem fixed. Except we missed an edge case, and the customer found it. So now the moral dillema. Do you ever add new sanity checks, safety checks, assertions to exising code? Or do you call the old function abandoned, and have a new one: Boolean MakeLocation(String City, String State) { //Given "Springfield", "MO" //return "Springfield, MO" return City+", "+State; } Boolean MakeLocation2(String City, String State) { //Given "Springfield", "MO" //return "Springfield, MO" if (City.Contains, ",") throw new EMakeLocationException("City name contains a comma. You probably didn't mean that"); return City+", "+State; } The same can apply for anything: Question FetchQuestion(Int id) { if (id == 0) throw new EFetchQuestionException("No question ID specified"); ... } Do you risk breaking existing code, at the expense of existing code being wrong?

    Read the article

  • Forms authentication in Silverlight

    - by Matt
    I have a website using forms authentication. Everything runs sweet their. I've got a Silverlight app that uses Duplex messaging to talk to a WCF service. I'd like to be able to authenticate users in my service. I realize that by doing this <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true" /> that my service would then have access to the HttpContext.Current context and I could easily authenticate a user. But herein lies the problem. aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true" combined with Duplex messaging results in very, very, very slow communication between silverlight and the website (10 seconds or more). Unless I have a configuration wrong, I'm going to assume that this is a bug in WCF / Silverlight. So basically I'm looking for a workaround. One idea I wanted to try was to read the ASPSESSID cookie from the browser and send that value over the wire. But I don't know what to do with the cookie on the service side. Is there some way to authenticate a user by sending their cookie data over duplex messaging?

    Read the article

  • Updating textfield in doctrine produces an exception

    - by james-murphy
    I have a textfield that contains say for example the following text:- "A traditional English dish comprising sausages in Yorkshire pudding batter, usually served with vegetables and gravy." This textfield is in a form that simply updates an item record using it's ID. If I edit part of the textfield and replace "and gravy." with "humous." So that the textfield now contains "A traditional English dish comprising sausages in Yorkshire pudding batter, usually served with vegetables and humous." I get the following exception:- Fatal error: Uncaught exception 'Doctrine_Query_Exception' with message 'Unknown component alias humous' in C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\database\Doctrine\Query\Abstract.php:780 Stack trace: C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\database\Doctrine\Query\Abstract.php(767): Doctrine_Query_Abstract-getQueryComponent('humous') C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\database\Doctrine\Query\Set.php(58): Doctrine_Query_Abstract-getAliasDeclaration('humous') C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\database\Doctrine\Query\Abstract.php(2092): Doctrine_Query_Set-parse('i.details = 'A ...') C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\database\Doctrine\Query.php(1058): Doctrine_Query_Abstract-_processDqlQueryPart('set', Array) C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\database\Doctrine\Query\Abstract.php(971): Doctrine_Query-getSqlQuery(Array) C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\database\Doctrine\Query\Abstract.php(1030): Doctrine_Query_Abstract-_execute(Array) C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\appl in C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\database\Doctrine\Query\Abstract.php on line 780 I'm using Doctrine 1.0.6 hooked into CodeIgniter 1.7.0 if anyone is interested. My doctrine query that actually performs the update looks as follows:- public function updateItems($id, $arrayItem) { $query = new Doctrine_Query(); $query->update('Item i'); foreach($arrayItem as $key => $value) { $query->set('i.'.$key, "'".$value."'"); } $query->where('i.id = ?', $id); return $query->execute(); } This seems bizarre because if i replace the entire string "A traditional English dish comprising sausages in Yorkshire pudding batter, usually served with vegetables and humous." with something completely different like just "test" it doesn't throw an exception and works just fine. This baffles me... is it a bug in Doctrine or have I missed something?

    Read the article

  • Subsonic 3.0.0.4 Does not Update

    - by geocine
    I tried 3 variants but doesn't seem to update (I am using Linq Templates and MSSQL) Luna.Data.GameDBDB db = new Luna.Data.GameDBDB(); db.Update<Luna.Record.TB_ITEM>() .Set(x => x.ITEM_DURABILITY == Convert.ToInt32(quantity)) .Where(x => x.ITEM_DBIDX == Convert.ToInt32(dbdidx)) .Execute(); Here is the other one var db = new Luna.Data.GameDBDB(); var query = (from p in db.TB_ITEMS where p.ITEM_DBIDX == Convert.ToInt32(dbidx) select p).Single(); query.ITEM_DURABILITY = Convert.ToInt32(quantity); db.tp TP_ITEM_UPDATE(); and the other one var db = new Luna.Data.GameDBDB(); var query = (from p in db.TB_ITEMS where p.ITEM_DBIDX == Convert.ToInt32(dbidx) select p).Single(); query.ITEM_DURABILITY = Convert.ToInt32(quantity); db.Update<Luna.Data.TB_ITEM>(); However it worked using LINQ-to-SQL LunaDataContext db = new LunaDataContext(); var query = (from p in db.TB_ITEMs where p.ITEM_DBIDX == Convert.ToInt32(dbidx) select p).Single(); query.ITEM_DURABILITY = Convert.ToInt32(quantity); db.SubmitChanges(); Is this a bug in 3.0.0.4, the database record couldn't be updated using Linq Templates and ActiveRecord.

    Read the article

  • GNU Make: How to call $(wildcard) within $(eval)

    - by bengineerd
    I'm trying to create a generic build template for my Makefiles, kind of like they discuss in the eval documentation. I can't seem to get the wildcard function to work within an eval. The basic code I'm having issues with looks like this. SRC_DIR = ./src/ PROG_NAME = test define PROGRAM_template $(1)_SRC_DIR = $(join $(SRC_DIR), $(1)/) $(1)_SRC_FILES = $(wildcard $$($(1)_SRC_DIR)*.c) endef $(eval $(call PROGRAM_template, $(PROG_NAME))) all: @echo $(test_SRC_DIR) @echo $(test_SRC_FILES) @echo $(wildcard $(wildcard $(test_SRC_DIR)*.c) When I run make with this, the output is ./src/test [correct list of all .c files in ./src/test/] Basically, the wildcard call within PROGRAM_template is not being eval'd as I expect it. The call results in an empty list. The join call is being eval'd correctly though. So, what am I doing wrong? My guess is that $$($(1)_SRC_DIR) is not correct, but I can't figure out the right way to do it. EDIT Once this was solved, it didn't take long for me to hit another issue with eval. I posted it as a new question at http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2428506/workaround-for-gnu-make-3-80-eval-bug

    Read the article

  • Firefox -- Dynamically embedding <svg> element in SVG

    - by zourtney
    I am trying dynamically to append an <svg> element within an existing SVG island on an XHTML page (Firefox 3.6.3). Done manually, this works as expected: <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg"> <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg"> ... </svg> </svg> However, if you dynamically add this element using JavaScript, the browser crashes. Simple example: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns:svg="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg"> <head> <title>SVG island example</title> <script type="text/javascript"><![CDATA[ function crash( ) { svgs = document.getElementsByTagNameNS( "http://www.w3.org/2000/svg", "svg" ); for ( var i = 0; i < svgs.length; i++ ) { var e = document.createElementNS( "http://www.w3.org/2000/svg", "svg" ); svgs[i].appendChild( e ); } } ]]></script> </head> <body> <svg id="mySVG" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg"> </svg> <button onclick="crash()">Crash Firefox</button> </body> </html> Interestingly, if I do a getElementById, it works fine. Interesting, but not particularly helpful in my situation since I'm storing pointers to SVGDocuments. Example: function doesntCrash( ) { var svg = document.getElementById( "mySVG" ); var e = document.createElementNS( "http://www.w3.org/2000/svg", "svg" ); svg.appendChild( e ); } As far as I can tell, this is a Firefox bug. Does anyone have any insight into this matter?

    Read the article

  • is it possible to add DataRelation to DataSet if child table contains rows that have no parent in pa

    - by matti
    If I fill the DataSet with DataAdapters that select all rows from Orders and Customers and call: private void CreateRelation() { // Get the DataColumn objects from two DataTable objects // in a DataSet. Code to get the DataSet not shown here. DataColumn parentColumn = DataSet1.Tables["Customers"].Columns["CustID"]; DataColumn childColumn = DataSet1.Tables["Orders"].Columns["CustID"]; // Create DataRelation. DataRelation relCustOrder; relCustOrder = new DataRelation("CustomersOrders", parentColumn, childColumn); // Add the relation to the DataSet. DataSet1.Relations.Add(relCustOrder); } (from http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.data.datarelation.aspx) there will be a runtime error if there is orders that do not have customers. This might happen when a buggy program has not deleted customer's orders when customer was deleted. What can I do except put Orders select string a additional where-condition: CUSTID IN (SELECT DISTINCT CUSTID FROM CUSTOMERS) OR: is it really that way (that all children have to have parents)? My code might have a bug also. The exception occurs when IN MY CODE I add the relation to filled DataSet. The exception is: An unhandled exception of type 'System.ArgumentException' occurred in System.Data.dll Additional information: This constraint cannot be enabled as not all values have corresponding parent values. Thanks & Best Regards - Matti

    Read the article

  • How to "DRY up" C# attributes in Models and ViewModels?

    - by DanM
    This question was inspired by my struggles with ASP.NET MVC, but I think it applies to other situations as well. Let's say I have an ORM-generated Model and two ViewModels (one for a "details" view and one for an "edit" view): Model public class FooModel // ORM generated { public int Id { get; set; } public string FirstName { get; set; } public string LastName { get; set; } public string EmailAddress { get; set; } public int Age { get; set; } public int CategoryId { get; set; } } Display ViewModel public class FooDisplayViewModel // use for "details" view { [DisplayName("ID Number")] public int Id { get; set; } [DisplayName("First Name")] public string FirstName { get; set; } [DisplayName("Last Name")] public string LastName { get; set; } [DisplayName("Email Address")] [DataType("EmailAddress")] public string EmailAddress { get; set; } public int Age { get; set; } [DisplayName("Category")] public string CategoryName { get; set; } } Edit ViewModel public class FooEditViewModel // use for "edit" view { [DisplayName("First Name")] // not DRY public string FirstName { get; set; } [DisplayName("Last Name")] // not DRY public string LastName { get; set; } [DisplayName("Email Address")] // not DRY [DataType("EmailAddress")] // not DRY public string EmailAddress { get; set; } public int Age { get; set; } [DisplayName("Category")] // not DRY public SelectList Categories { get; set; } } Note that the attributes on the ViewModels are not DRY--a lot of information is repeated. Now imagine this scenario multiplied by 10 or 100, and you can see that it can quickly become quite tedious and error prone to ensure consistency across ViewModels (and therefore across Views). How can I "DRY up" this code? Before you answer, "Just put all the attributes on FooModel," I've tried that, but it didn't work because I need to keep my ViewModels "flat". In other words, I can't just compose each ViewModel with a Model--I need my ViewModel to have only the properties (and attributes) that should be consumed by the View, and the View can't burrow into sub-properties to get at the values. Update LukLed's answer suggests using inheritance. This definitely reduces the amount of non-DRY code, but it doesn't eliminate it. Note that, in my example above, the DisplayName attribute for the Category property would need to be written twice because the data type of the property is different between the display and edit ViewModels. This isn't going to be a big deal on a small scale, but as the size and complexity of a project scales up (imagine a lot more properties, more attributes per property, more views per model), there is still the potentially for "repeating yourself" a fair amount. Perhaps I'm taking DRY too far here, but I'd still rather have all my "friendly names", data types, validation rules, etc. typed out only once.

    Read the article

  • Uploadify - Passing Information Back to The Original Form

    - by CccTrash
    I have an Send.aspx page that has an uploadify control on it. Upload.ashx handles the file upload. I am adding a file record to a sql database in the Upload.ashx file and I need to get the ID of that record back from Upload.aspx when it is done. Can't get it working with Sessions. =( Something to do with an Adobe bug? What would the best way to handle this be? Here is the uploadify control: <script type="text/javascript"> // <![CDATA[ var contestID = $('[id$=HiddenFieldContestID]').val(); var maxEntries = $('[id$=HiddenFieldMaxEntries]').val(); var userID = $('[id$=HiddenFieldUserID]').val(); $(document).ready(function() { $('#fileInput').uploadify({ 'uploader': '../uploadify/uploadify.swf', 'script': '../uploadify/Upload.ashx', 'scriptData': { 'contestID': contestID, 'maxEntries': maxEntries, 'userID': userID }, 'cancelImg': '../uploadify/cancel.png', 'auto': true, 'multi': false, 'fileDesc': 'Image Files', 'fileExt': '*.jpg;*.png;*.jpeg', 'queueSizeLimit': 1, 'sizeLimit': 4000000, 'buttonText': 'Choose Image', 'folder': '/uploads', 'onAllComplete': function(event, queueID, fileObj, response, data) { document.getElementById('<%= ButtonCleanup.ClientID %>').click(); } }); }); // ]]></script> Edit: See Answer below... Video Tutorial from start to finish: http://casonclagg.com/articles/6/video-tutorial-uploadify-asp-net-c-sharp.aspx

    Read the article

  • Setting up multiple channel types (AMF/AMFX) for Flex/BlazeDs

    - by Fergal
    We've configured our Flex client to have two channels for calling our services via BlazeDS. One channel is configured to use AMFChannel and the other for HTTPChannel. Here's the services-config.xml <channel-definition id="my-amf" class="mx.messaging.channels.AMFChannel"> <endpoint url="http://{server.name}:{server.port}/{context.root}/data/messagebroker/amf" class="flex.messaging.endpoints.AMFEndpoint" /> <properties> <polling-enabled>false</polling-enabled> </properties> </channel-definition> <channel-definition id="my-amfx" class="mx.messaging.channels.HTTPChannel"> <endpoint url="http://{server.name}:{server.port}/{context.root}/data/messagebroker/amfx" class="flex.messaging.endpoints.HTTPEndpoint" /> <properties> <polling-enabled>false</polling-enabled> </properties> </channel-definition> Our flex client is written to use either AMF or AMFX depending on how we configure it. The problem is that although the client can switch between channels it sends an AMF binary payload when attempting to call services via AMFX (expecting XML). The funny thing is that we can write services-config.xml to use either AMF or AMFX individually but Flex doesn't seem to want to let us use both. Is this a bug in Flex? If not how can we get it to use the correct protocol?

    Read the article

  • IPhone SDK - Transition to NavigationController display problem

    - by Steblo
    Hi, I am nearly finished with my first IPhone app and everything works fine - except of one very little display bug: My starscreen is an UIView (Fullscreen) without Navigationbar or Toolbar. If I tap on a start button, there is an UIViewAnimationTransitionFlipFromRight animation that flips to the main navigation controller: -(IBAction) switchViewToMainMenu { [UIView beginAnimations:@"Flip View" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:1.25]; [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveEaseInOut]; [UIView setAnimationTransition: UIViewAnimationTransitionFlipFromRight forView:self.window cache:YES]; [self.navController viewWillAppear:YES]; [self.startScreenViewController viewWillDisappear:YES]; [self.startScreenViewController.view removeFromSuperview]; [self.window addSubview:navController.view]; [self.startScreenViewController viewDidDisappear:YES]; [self.navController viewDidAppear:YES]; [UIView commitAnimations]; self.startScreenViewController=nil; [startScreenViewController release]; } This works fine except of one little problem: When the navigation controller view appears (flips in), the Navigationbar on top is some pixels too high (the is a white bar where the Navigationbar should be). When the animation finished, the Navigationbar drops down to the right position. This doesn't look very beautiful... Any ideas how to fix that problem ?

    Read the article

  • Google Maps API DirectionsRendererOptions not working?

    - by YWE
    I am trying to use DirectionsRenderer to display a DirectionsResult without the route list. According to the API version 3 documentation, there is a "hideRouteList" property of the DirectionsRendererOptions object that when set to true should hide the route list. I cannot get it to work. Is this a bug or am I just not coding this correctly? Following is my code. <html> <head> <title>Driving Directions</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://maps.google.com/maps/api/js?sensor=false"> </script> <script type="text/javascript"> <!-- function initialize() { var dirService = new google.maps.DirectionsService(); var dirRequest = { origin: "350 5th Ave, New York, NY, 10118", destination: "1 Wall St, New York, NY", travelMode: google.maps.DirectionsTravelMode.DRIVING, unitSystem: google.maps.DirectionsUnitSystem.IMPERIAL, provideTripAlternatives: true }; dirService.route(dirRequest, showDirections); } function showDirections(dirResult, dirStatus) { if (dirStatus != google.maps.DirectionsStatus.OK) { alert('Directions failed: ' + dirStatus); return; } var rendererOptions = { hideRouteList: true }; var dirRenderer = new google.maps.DirectionsRenderer(rendererOptions); dirRenderer.setPanel(document.getElementById('dir-container')); dirRenderer.setDirections(dirResult); } --> </script> </head> <body onLoad="initialize();"> <div id="dir-container"></div> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • Linq-to-sql Compiled Query returns object NOT belonging to submitted DataContext ?

    - by Vladimir Kojic
    Compiled query: public static class Machines { public static readonly Func<OperationalDataContext, short, Machine> QueryMachineById = CompiledQuery.Compile((OperationalDataContext db, short machineID) => db.Machines.Where(m => m.MachineID == machineID).SingleOrDefault() ); public static Machine GetMachineById(IUnitOfWork unitOfWork, short id) { Machine machine; // Old code (working) //var machineRepository = unitOfWork.GetRepository<Machine>(); //machine = machineRepository.Find(m => m.MachineID == id).SingleOrDefault(); // New code (making problems) machine = QueryMachineById(unitOfWork.DataContext, id); return machine; } It looks like compiled query is returning result from another data context [TestMethod] public void GetMachinesTest() { using (var unitOfWork = IoC.Get<IUnitOfWork>()) { // Compile Query var machine = Machines.GetMachineById(unitOfWork, 3); } using (var unitOfWork = IoC.Get<IUnitOfWork>()) { var machineRepository = unitOfWork.GetRepository<Machine>(); // Get From Repository var machineFromRepository = machineRepository.Find(m => m.MachineID == 2).SingleOrDefault(); var machine = Machines.GetMachineById(unitOfWork, 2); VerifyHuskyHostMachine(machineFromRepository, 2, "Machine 2", "222222", "H400RS", "MachineIconB.xaml", false, true, LicenseType.Licensed, InterfaceType.HuskyHostV2, "10.0.97.2:8080", "10.0.97.2", 8080, "4.0"); VerifyHuskyHostMachine(machine, 2, "Machine 2", "222222", "H400RS", "MachineIconB.xaml", false, true, LicenseType.Licensed, InterfaceType.HuskyHostV2, "10.0.97.2:8080", "10.0.97.2", 8080, "4.0"); Assert.AreSame(machineFromRepository, machine); // FAIL } } If I run other (complex) unit tests I'm getting as expected: An attempt has been made to Attach or Add an entity that is not new, perhaps having been loaded from another DataContext. Another Important information is that this test is under TransactionScope! UPDATE: It looks like next link is describing similar problem (is this bug solved ?): http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/linqprojectgeneral/thread/9bcffc2d-794e-4c4a-9e3e-cdc89dad0e38

    Read the article

  • Why does ICEfaces send dispose-window request on page unload when using view-scoped bean?

    - by woflrevo
    in our application ICEfaces always sends a dispose-window request just before navigating to another JSF Page. as much as i understand this should not happen when having org.icefaces.lazyWindowScope set to true and there is no window-scoped bean involved in current request. but it happens on each link and makes our UI less responsive. but we don't have any window-scoped bean in our application. is that a bug in icefaces that the dispose request is sent when using view-scoped beans? Is it possible to disable? ViewScope is defined in JSF not in ICEfaces, it should work without this dispose request i guess... @ManagedBean(name="viewScopeBean") @ViewScoped public class ViewScopeBean { public void doSomething(){ // } } And here the example jsf: <ice:form> <ice:commandButton value="doSomething" action="#{viewScopeBean.doSomething}"/> <h:link outcome="index" value="Link to same page"/> </ice:form> To reproduce do the following using the code above: open firebug's net tab and activate persist option click doSomething-Button click "link to same page" = dispose-window will be send before navigation Dispose Request Parameters: ice.submit.type=ice.dispose.window ice.window=4guthcbue javax.faces.ViewState=-8138151632882151449%3A-6709064564386098402 Environment: ICEfaces-EE 2.0.0.GA ICEpush-EE 2.0.0.GA Mojarra 2.1.1 JRockit 1.6.0_22 WebLogic Server 10.3.4.0 ICEfaces Configuration: org.icefaces.render.auto: true [default] org.icefaces.autoid: true [default] org.icefaces.aria.enabled: true [default] org.icefaces.blockUIOnSubmit: false [default] org.icefaces.compressDOM: false [default] org.icefaces.compressResources: true [default] org.icefaces.connectionLostRedirectURI: /pages/main.jsf org.icefaces.deltaSubmit: false [default] org.icefaces.lazyPush: true [default] org.icefaces.sessionExpiredRedirectURI: /pages/main.jsf org.icefaces.standardFormSerialization: false [default] org.icefaces.strictSessionTimeout: false [default] org.icefaces.windowScopeExpiration = 1000 [default] org.icefaces.mandatoryResourceConfiguration: null [default] org.icefaces.uniqueResourceURLs: true [default] org.icefaces.lazyWindowScope: true [default] org.icefaces.disableDefaultErrorPopups: false [default]

    Read the article

  • Problem with Java Applet <--> Javascript communication

    - by davr
    I'm having trouble getting a Java Applet to communicate with the Javascript code on the page the applet is hosted on. It works sometimes, but othertimes it throws an obscure exception, that googling for has not turned up any useful information, besides a few Java bug reports that were never resolved (thanks Sun). Here is the code I am using: JSObject win = JSObject.getWindow(this); Object[] args = new Object[1]; args[0] = "test argument"; String result = (String) win.call("testJSfunc", args); // XXX Here is the exception I get on the line marked // XXX. Note that it is intermittent. Often it works, but sometimes it does not, using the same exact code. Reloading the page repeatedly will produce the error pretty quickly. netscape.javascript.JSException: No registered plugin for applet ID 1 at sun.plugin2.main.client.MessagePassingJSObject.newJSException(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.main.client.MessagePassingJSObject.waitForReply(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.main.client.MessagePassingJSObject.call(Unknown Source) at TestApplet.testCallJS(TestApplet.java:159) at TestApplet.init(TestApplet.java:139) at sun.plugin2.applet.Plugin2Manager$AppletExecutionRunnable.run(Unknown Source) at java.lang.Thread.run(Unknown Source) Is there another more stable way of communicating between Java and Javascript that I should be using?

    Read the article

  • Changes in resolving .resx in Visual Studio 2010?

    - by MADMap
    Hi, I'm working on a quite simple Webpage (MVC2), using localisation based on ResourceFiles. I have the MVC2 Project and the Resources in a seperate Assembly. The Resources contains 3 languages (Resource.resx, Resource.de.resx, Resource.en.resx, Resource.ja.resx) and I'm querying them via the ResourceManager. Call from the .aspx <% Resources.Res resman = new Resources.Res(); %> <%=resman.GetString("String1", new System.Globalization.CultureInfo("en")) %><br /> <%=resman.GetString("String1", new System.Globalization.CultureInfo("ja")) %><br /> <%=resman.GetString("String1", new System.Globalization.CultureInfo("de")) %><br /> ResourceManager: public class Res { private readonly ResourceManager Manager = Resources.Resource1.ResourceManager; public string GetString(string id, CultureInfo info) { return Manager.GetString(id, info); } } And for the compiled Version in VS2008 I get smth like this: String1EN String1JA String1DE Compiled in Visual Studio 2008, this works fine: but I'm having Troubles if I compile the Solution in Visual Studio 2010 (also 3.5 as TargetFramework). There the result shows smth like: String1DEFAULT String1JA String1DEFAULT I don't know what it can be: is this still a bug from the VS2010 RC or am I doing smth. wrong here?

    Read the article

  • Indy IdSMTP and attachments in Thunderbird

    - by Lobuno
    Hello! Using the latest snapshot of Indy tiburon on D2010. A very simple project like: var stream: TFileStream; (s is TidSMTP and m is TidMessage) begin s.Connect; Stream := TFileStream.Create('c:\Test.zip', fmOpenRead or fmShareExclusive); try with TIdAttachmentMemory.Create(m.MessageParts, Stream) do begin ContentType := 'application/x-zip-compressed'; Name := ExtractFilePath('C:\'); //' FileName := 'Test.zip'; end; finally FreeAndNil(Stream); end; s.Send(m); s.Disconnect(); end; Everything works Ok in Outlook, The bat!, OE, yahoo, etc... but in Thunderbird the attachment is not shown. Looking at the source of the message in Thunderbird, the attachment is there. The only difference I can find between messages send by indy and other clients is that Indy messages have this order: Content-Type: multipart/mixed; boundary="Z\=_7oeC98yIhktvxiwiDTVyhv9R9gwkwT1" MIME-Version: 1.0 while any other clients have the order: MIME-Version: 1.0 Content-Type: multipart/mixed; boundary="Z\=_7oeC98yIhktvxiwiDTVyhv9R9gwkwT1" Don't know if THAT is the source of the problem, but if so: is this a bug on Thunderbird or is this a problem with indy which "malforms" the headers of the messages? Is this order a problem? Does that matter anyway?

    Read the article

  • Partial specialization with reference template parameter fails to compile in VS2005

    - by Blair Holloway
    I have code that boils down to the following: template struct Foo {}; template & I struct FooBar {}; //////// template struct Baz {}; template & I struct Baz< FooBar { static void func(FooBar& value); }; //////// struct MyStruct { static const Foo s_floatFoo; }; // Elsewhere: const Foo MyStruct::s_floatFoo; void callBaz() { typedef FooBar FloatFooBar; FloatFooBar myFloatFooBar; Baz::func(myFloatFooBar); } This compiles successfully under GCC, however, under VS2005, I get: error C2039: 'func' : is not a member of 'Baz' with [ T=FloatFooBar ] error C3861: 'func': identifier not found However, if I change const Foo<T>& I to const Foo<T>* I (passing I by pointer rather than by reference), and defining FloatFooBar as: typedef FooBar FloatFooBar; Both GCC and VS2005 are happy. What's going on? Is this some kind of subtle template substitution failure that VS2005 is handling differently to GCC, or a compiler bug? (The strangest thing: I thought I had the above code working in VS2005 earlier this morning. But that was before my morning coffee. I'm now not entirely certain I wasn't under some sort of caffeine-craving-induced delirium...)

    Read the article

  • Explicit behavior with checks vs. implicit behavior

    - by Silviu
    I'm not sure how to construct the question but I'm interested to know what do you guys think of the following situations and which one would you prefer. We're working at a client-server application with winforms. And we have a control that has some fields automatically calculated upon filling another field. So we're having a field currency which when filled by the user would determine an automatic filling of another field, maybe more fields. When the user fills the currency field, a Currency object would be retrieved from a cache based on the string introduced by the user. If entered currency is not found in the cache a null reference is returned by the cache object. Further down when asking the application layer to compute the other fields based on the currency, given a null currency a null specific field would be returned. This way the default, implicit behavior is to clear all fields. Which is the expected behavior. What i would call the explicit implementation would be to verify that the Currency object is null in which case the depending fields are cleared explicitly. I think that the latter version is more clear, less error prone and more testable. But it implies a form of redundancy. The former version is not as clear and it implies a certain behavior from the application layer which is not expressed in the tests. Maybe in the lower layer tests but when the need arises to modify the lower layers, so that given a null currency something else should be returned, i don't think a test that says just that without a motivation is going to be an impediment for introducing a bug in upper layers. What do you guys think?

    Read the article

  • Whats wrong with this HQL query?

    - by ManBugra
    did i encounter a hibernate bug or do i have an error i dont see: select enty.number from EntityAliasName enty where enty.myId in ( select cons.myId from Consens cons where cons.number in ( select ord.number from Orders ord where ord.customer = :customer and ord.creationDate < ( select max(ord.creationDate) from Orders ord where ord.customer = :customer ) ) ) what i do get is the following: org.hibernate.util.StringHelper.root(StringHelper.java:257) Caused by: java.lang.NullPointerException at org.hibernate.util.StringHelper.root(StringHelper.java:257) at org.hibernate.persister.entity.AbstractEntityPersister.getSubclassPropertyTableNumber(AbstractEntityPersister.java:1391) at org.hibernate.persister.entity.BasicEntityPropertyMapping.toColumns(BasicEntityPropertyMapping.java:54) at org.hibernate.persister.entity.AbstractEntityPersister.toColumns(AbstractEntityPersister.java:1367) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.tree.FromElement.getIdentityColumn(FromElement.java:320) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.tree.IdentNode.resolveAsAlias(IdentNode.java:154) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.tree.IdentNode.resolve(IdentNode.java:100) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.tree.FromReferenceNode.resolve(FromReferenceNode.java:117) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.tree.FromReferenceNode.resolve(FromReferenceNode.java:113) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.HqlSqlWalker.resolve(HqlSqlWalker.java:854) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.propertyRef(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:1172) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.propertyRefLhs(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:5167) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.propertyRef(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:1133) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.selectExpr(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:1993) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.selectExprList(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:1932) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.selectClause(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:1476) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.query(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:580) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.selectStatement(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:288) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.statement(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:231) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.QueryTranslatorImpl.analyze(QueryTranslatorImpl.java:254) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.QueryTranslatorImpl.doCompile(QueryTranslatorImpl.java:185) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.QueryTranslatorImpl.compile(QueryTranslatorImpl.java:136) at org.hibernate.engine.query.HQLQueryPlan.<init>(HQLQueryPlan.java:101) at org.hibernate.engine.query.HQLQueryPlan.<init>(HQLQueryPlan.java:80) at org.hibernate.engine.query.QueryPlanCache.getHQLQueryPlan(QueryPlanCache.java:94) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl.checkNamedQueries(SessionFactoryImpl.java:484) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl.<init>(SessionFactoryImpl.java:394) at org.hibernate.cfg.Configuration.buildSessionFactory(Configuration.java:1341) using: Hibernate 3.3.2.GA / postgresql

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC 4 async child action

    - by ShadowChaser
    I have an ASP.NET MVC 4 application targeting .NET 4.5. One of our child actions makes a call out to a web service using HttpClient. Since we're blocking on IO waiting for the HttpClient response, it makes a great deal of sense to convert the code to the async/await pattern. However, when MVC 4 attempts to execute the child action, we get the following error message: HttpServerUtility.Execute blocked while waiting for an asynchronous operation to complete. At first glance, it appears as though MVC 4 does not support async/await within a child action. The only remaining option is to run using synchronous code and force a "Wait" on the async task. As we all know, touching .Result or .Wait() on an async task in an ASP.NET context will cause an immediate deadlock. My async logic is wrapped in a class library, so I can't use the "await blah.ConfigureAwait(false)" trick. Remember, tagging "async" on the child action and using await causes an error, and that prevents me from configuring the await. I'm painted into a corner at this point. Is there any way to consume async methods in an MVC 4 child action? Seems like a flat out bug with no workarounds.

    Read the article

  • Android Camera without Preview

    - by eyurdakul
    I am writing an android 1.5 application which starts just after boot-up. This is a service and should take a picture without preview. This app will log the light density in some areas whatever. I was able to take a picture but the picture was black. After googling like crazy, i came across a bug thread about it. If you don't generate a preview, the image will be black since android camera needs preview to setup exposure and focus. I've created a surfaceview and listener but the onSurfaceCreated event never gets fired. I guess the reason is, the surface is not being created visually. I've also seen some examples of calling the camera statically with MediaStore.CAPTURE_OR_SOMETHING which takes a picture and saves in the desired folder with two lines of code but it doesn't take a picture too. Do i need to use ipc and bindservice to call this function or do you have any suggestion to achieve my goal (taking a picture without preview) and if so, would you give me a small piece of code as example?

    Read the article

  • Calculate a set of concatenated sets of n sets

    - by Andras Zoltan
    Okay - I'm not even sure that the term is right - and I'm sure there is bound to be a term for this - but I'll do my best to explain. This is not quite a cross product here, and the order of the results are absolutely crucial. Given: IEnumerable<IEnumerable<string>> sets = new[] { /* a */ new[] { "a", "b", "c" }, /* b */ new[] { "1", "2", "3" }, /* c */ new[] { "x", "y", "z" } }; Where each inner enumerable represents an instruction to produce a set of concatenations as follows (the order here is important): set a* = new string[] { "abc", "ab", "a" }; set b* = new string[] { "123", "12", "1" }; set c* = new string[] { "xyz", "xy", "x" }; I want to produce set ordered concatenations as follows: set final = new string { a*[0] + b*[0] + c*[0], /* abc123xyz */ a*[0] + b*[0] + c*[1], /* abc123xy */ a*[0] + b*[0] + c*[2], /* abc123x */ a*[0] + b*[0], /* abc123 */ a*[0] + b*[1] + c*[0], /* abc12xyz */ a*[0] + b*[1] + c*[1], /* abc12xy */ a*[0] + b*[1] + c*[2], /* abc12x */ a*[0] + b*[1], /* abc12 */ a*[0] + b*[2] + c*[0], /* abc1xyz */ a*[0] + b*[2] + c*[1], /* abc1xy */ a*[0] + b*[2] + c*[2], /* abc1x */ a*[0] + b*[2], /* abc1 */ a*[0], /* abc */ a*[1] + b*[0] + c*[0], /* ab123xyz */ /* and so on for a*[1] */ /* ... */ a*[2] + b*[0] + c*[0], /* a123xyz */ /* and so on for a*[2] */ /* ... */ /* now lop off a[*] and start with b + c */ b*[0] + c*[0], /* 123xyz */ /* rest of the combinations of b + c with b on its own as well */ /* then finally */ c[0], c[1], c[2]}; So clearly, there are going to be a lot of combinations! I can see similarities with Numeric bases (since the order is important as well), and I'm sure there are permutations/combinations lurking in here too. The question is - how to write an algorithm like this that'll cope with any number of sets of strings? Linq, non-Linq; I'm not fussed. Why am I doing this? Indeed, why!? In Asp.Net MVC - I want to have partial views that can be redefined for a given combination of back-end/front-end culture and language. The most basic of these would be, for a given base view View, we could have View-en-GB, View-en, View-GB, and View, in that order of precedence (recognising of course that the language/culture codes could be the same, so some combinations might be the same - a Distinct() will solve that). But I also have other views that, in themselves, have other possible combinations before culture is even taken into account (too long to go into - but the fact is, this algo will enable a whole bunch of really cool that I want to offer my developers!). I want to produce a search list of all the acceptable view names, iterate through the whole lot until the most specific match is found (governed by the order that this algo will produce these concatenations in) then serve up the resolved Partial View. The result of the search can later be cached to avoid the expense of running the algorithm all the time. I already have a really basic version of this working that just has one enumerable of strings. But this is a whole different kettle of seafood! Any help greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • UIAlertViewDelegate method didDismissWithButtonIndex gets called while the phone is sleeping/locked.

    - by Rob
    I have a UIAlertView who's didDismissWithButtonIndex delegate method calls pops the view controller (same class, it's the alertview delegate and the viewcontroller) to return the user to the previous screen. The issue is that when you lock the phone before the [alert show]; is called, something is calling didDismissWithButtonIndex while the phone is locked. Since the response to that is to pop the view controller, which releases and deallocs it, I crash on the callback. What is causing this phantom button press? Seems like a framework bug, but I hate jumping to that conclusion. I'm definitely not hitting the button, because I hit a breakpoint in my code right before it's displayed. Then I lock the phone. Then I continue. I see it do the show, return to the event loop, and then, while the phone is still locked, hit my breakpoint in didDismissWithButtonIndex. There are a few internet/forum postings about similar spurious delegate calls, but no concrete answers. This is on the simulator, and the device, both OS 2.2 and OS 3.0. I'm assuming I'm missing something, but what? Update: Yeah, I created a simple project with just two view controllers, where when the 2nd view controller displays it creates the alert, and shows it. Then I NSLog in the delegate method, and when the phone is locked, it fires once while locked, and then again when it's unlocked and the button is clicked...2 log messages. But when not locked, there's only one. I guess I'll open an issue, but it seems awfully obvious to have survived this long without anyone complaining. :-) I'm going to try and work around it by making an isActive flag value when the willResignActive/didBecomeActive notifications arrive, and if the app isn't active skipping the delegate body. Update I went ahead in July after I posted this and created radar 7097363 for this issue. There's been no response. The workaround in practice works quite well, checking the active status when processing the delegate, and skipping the action if the the app is inactive.

    Read the article

  • javascript removeChild(this) from input[type="submit"] onclick breaks future use of form.submit() un

    - by maximumduncan
    I have come across some strange behaviour, and I'm assuming a bug in firefox, when removing a input submit element from the DOM from within the click event. The following code reproduces the issue: <form name="test_form"> <input type="submit" value="remove me" onclick="this.parentNode.removeChild(this);" /> <input type="submit" value="submit normally" /> <input type="button" value="submit via js" onclick="document.test_form.submit();" /> </form> To reproduce: Click "remove me" Click "submit via js". Note that the form does not get submitted, this is the problem. Click "submit normally". Note that the form still gets submitted normally. It appears that, under Firefox, if you remove a submit button from within the click event it puts the form in an invalid state so that any future calls to form.submit() are simply ignored. But it is a javascript-specific issue as normal submit buttons within this form still function fine. To be honest, this is such a simple example of this issue that I was expecting the internet to be awash with other people exeriencing it, but so far searching has yealded nothing useful. Has anyone else experienced this and if so, did you get to the bottom of it? Many thanks

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 573 574 575 576 577 578 579 580 581 582 583 584  | Next Page >