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• How do I create a safe local development environment?

  - by docgnome

  I'm currently doing web development with another developer on a centralized development server. In the past this has worked alright, as we have two separate projects we are working on and rarely conflict. Now, however, we are adding a third (possible) developer into the mix. This is clearly going to create problems with other developers changes affecting my work and vice versa. To solve this problem, I'm thinking the best solution would be to create a virtual machine to distribute between the developers for local use. The problem I have is when it comes to the database. Given that we all develop on laptops, simply keeping a local copy of the live data is plain stupid. I've considered sanitizing the data, but I can't really figure out how to replace the real data, with data that would be representative of what people actually enter with out repeating the same information over and over again, e.g. everyone's address becomes 123 Testing Lane, Test Town, WA, 99999 or something. Is this really something to be concerned about? Are there tools to help with this sort of thing? I'm using MySQL. Ideally, if I sanitized the db it should be done from a script that I can run regularly. If I do this I'd also need a way to reduce the size of the db itself. (I figure I could select all the records created after x and whack them and all the records in corresponding tables out so that isn't really a big deal.) The second solution I've thought of is to encrypt the hard drive of the vm, but I'm unsure of how practical this is in terms of speed and also in the event of a lost/stolen laptop. If I do this, should the vm hard drive file itself be encrypted or should it be encrypted in the vm? (I'm assuming the latter as it would be portable and doesn't require the devs to have any sort of encryption capability on their OS of choice.) The third is to create a copy of the database for each developer on our development server that they are then responsible to keep the schema in sync with the canonical db by means of migration scripts or what have you. This solution seems to be the simplest but doesn't really scale as more developers are added. How do you deal with this problem?

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• C++ vector and segmentation faults

  - by Headspin

  I am working on a simple mathematical parser. Something that just reads number = 1 + 2; I have a vector containing these tokens. They store a type and string value of the character. I am trying to step through the vector to build an AST of these tokens, and I keep getting segmentation faults, even when I am under the impression my code should prevent this from happening. Here is the bit of code that builds the AST: struct ASTGen { const vector<Token> &Tokens; unsigned int size, pointer; ASTGen(const vector<Token> &t) : Tokens(t), pointer(0) { size = Tokens.size() - 1; } unsigned int next() { return pointer + 1; } Node* Statement() { if(next() <= size) { switch(Tokens[next()].type) { case EQUALS : Node* n = Assignment_Expr(); return n; } } advance(); } void advance() { if(next() <= size) ++pointer; } Node* Assignment_Expr() { Node* lnode = new Node(Tokens[pointer], NULL, NULL); advance(); Node* n = new Node(Tokens[pointer], lnode, Expression()); return n; } Node* Expression() { if(next() <= size) { advance(); if(Tokens[next()].type == SEMICOLON) { Node* n = new Node(Tokens[pointer], NULL, NULL); return n; } if(Tokens[next()].type == PLUS) { Node* lnode = new Node(Tokens[pointer], NULL, NULL); advance(); Node* n = new Node(Tokens[pointer], lnode, Expression()); return n; } } } }; ... ASTGen AST(Tokens); Node* Tree = AST.Statement(); cout << Tree->Right->Data.svalue << endl; I can access Tree->Data.svalue and get the = Node's token info, so I know that node is getting spawned, and I can also get Tree->Left->Data.svalue and get the variable to the left of the = I have re-written it many times trying out different methods for stepping through the vector, but I always get a segmentation fault when I try to access the = right node (which should be the + node) Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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• Generate A Simple Read-Only DAL?

  - by David

  I've been looking around for a simple solution to this, trying my best to lean towards something like NHibernate, but so far everything I've found seems to be trying to solve a slightly different problem. Here's what I'm looking at in my current project: We have an IBM iSeries database as a primary repository for a third party software suite used for our core business (a financial institution). Part of what my team does is write applications that report on or key off of a lot of this data in some way. In the past, we've been manually creating ADO .NET connections (we're using .NET 3.5 and Visual Studio 2008, by the way) and manually writing queries, etc. Moving forward, I'd like to simplify the process of getting data from there for the development team. Rather than creating connections and queries and all that each time, I'd much rather a developer be able to simply do something like this: var something = (from t in TableName select t); And, ideally, they'd just get some IQueryable or IEnumerable of generated entities. This would be done inside a new domain core that I'm building where these entities would live and the applications would interface with it through a request/response service layer. A few things to note are: The entities that correspond to the database tables should be generated once and we'd prefer to manually keep them updated over time. That is, if columns/tables are added to the database then we shouldn't have to do anything. (If some are deleted, of course, it will break, but that's fine.) But if we need to use a new column, we should be able to just add it to the necessary class(es) without having to re-gen the whole thing. The whole thing should be SELECT-only. We're not doing a full DAL here because we don't want to be able to break anything in the database (even accidentally). We don't need any kind of mapping between our domain objects and the generated entity types. The domain barely covers a fraction of the data that's in there, most of it we'll never need, and we would rather just create re-usable maps manually over time. I already have a logical separation for the DAL where my "repository" classes return domain objects, I'm just looking for a better alternative to manual ADO to be used inside the repository classes. Any suggestions? It seems like what I'm doing is just enough outside the normal demand for DAL/ORM tools/tutorials online that I haven't been able to find anything. Or maybe I'm just overlooking something obvious?

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• Show/hide jQuery

  - by Banderdash

  Not much experience with JavaScript, hopefully one of you gurus can help. <div id="themes"> <h2>Research Themes</h2> <ul> <li><a href="">Learn about our approach to the <strong>environment</strong></a><span><a href="#">Expand</a></span></li> <ul class="tier_2 hide"> <li><a href="">Project name numero uno goes here</a></li> <li><a href="">Project name numero dos goes here</a></li> <li><a href="">Project name numero tres goes here</a></li> </ul> <li><a href="">Learn about our approach to <strong>human health</strong></a><span><a href="#">Expand</a></span></li> <ul class="tier_2 hide"> <li><a href="">Project name numero uno goes here</a></li> <li><a href="">Project name numero dos goes here</a></li> <li><a href="">Project name numero tres goes here</a></li> </ul> <li class="last"><a href="">Learn about our approach to <strong>national defense</strong></a><span><a href="#">Expand</a></span></li> <ul class="tier_2 hide"> <li><a href="">Project name numero uno goes here</a></li> <li><a href="">Project name numero dos goes here</a></li> <li><a href="">Project name numero tres goes here</a></li> </ul> </ul> </div><!-- // end themes --> This is my markup. As you can see under each of the first tier of li's there are ul's with classes of tier_2 and hide. I've been trying to create some simple jQuery that on click will remove the hide class from it's child ul, but at the same time check that no other ul's with class of tier_2 are shown (aka the other's have the hide class). This should keep a visitor from expanding so many items at once that it will make the layout look funky. Just not sure how to accomplish this, any ideas?

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• how to increment a javascript variable title that is within a php while loop

  - by steve

  I'm building multiple countdown clocks on one page. The number of countdown clocks varies from day to day so I need to call javascript several times from within "while" code in php to produce different clocks. The following code works but it's based on knowing how many clocks are needed before I start: <script language="javascript" src="countdown.js"></script> <script language="javascript"> var cd1 = new countdown('cd1'); cd1.Div = "clock1"; cd1.TargetDate = "<?php echo "$clocktime"; ?>"; cd1.DisplayFormat = "%%D%% days, %%H%% hours, %%M%% minutes, %%S%% seconds until event AAA happens"; </script> <div id="clockwrapper"><div id="clock1">[clock]</div></div> <script language="javascript" src="countdown.js"></script> <script language="javascript"> var cd2 = new countdown('cd2'); cd2.Div = "clock2"; cd2.TargetDate = "02/01/2011 5:30:30 PM"; cd2.DisplayFormat = "%%D%% days, %%H%% hours, %%M%% minutes, %%S%% seconds until event BBB happens..."; </script> <div id="clockwrapper"><div id="clock2">[clock]</div></div> So if I keep on calling the javascript above (the code with cd1 in it) all previous "cd1" clocks change to the latest clock because it is being overwritten. Somehow I need to call javascript from within my "while" loop in php and have cd1 become cd2, then cd3 so that the clocks work as they're supposed to. How do I go about doing this? I don't know how to call the javascript several times and increment the variable cd1 within the javascript. I tried something like this but couldn't get it to work. $id=mysql_result($result,$i,"id"); while($id){ $cd = ("$cd"."$id"); ?> <script language="javascript" src="countdown.js"></script> <script language="javascript"> var <?php echo "$cd"; ?> = new countdown('<?php echo "$cd"; ?>'); .... </script> <div id="clockwrapper"><div id="<?php echo "$cd"; ?>">[clock]</div></div> <?php $id=mysql_result($result,$i,"id"); } ?> Surely there is some easy way of getting around this that I don't know about. Thanks

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• BlackBerry OS 7.1 secured TLS connection is closed after very short time

  - by MrVincenzo

  To make a long story short: Same client-server configuration, same network topology, same device (Bold 9900) - works perfectly well on OS 7.0 but doesn't work as expected on OS 7.1 and the secured tls connection is being closed by the server after a very short time. My application opens a secured tls connection to a server. The connection is kept alive by a application layer keep-alive mechanism and remains open until the client closes it. Attached is a simplified version of the actual code that opens connection and reads from the socket. The code works perfectly on OS 5.0-7.0 but doesn't work as expected on OS 7.1. When running on OS 7.1, the blocking read() returns with -1 (end of the stream has been reached) after very short time (10-45 seconds). For OS 5.0-7.0 the call to read() remains blocking until next data arrives and the connection is never closed by the server. Connection connection = Connector.open(connectionString); connInputStream = connection.openInputStream(); while (true) { try { retVal = connInputStream.read(); if (-1 == retVal) { break; // end of stream has been reached } } catch (Exception e ) { // do error handling } // data read from stream is handled here } UPDATE 1: Apparently, the problem appears only when I use secured tls connection (either using mobile network or WiFi) on OS 7.1. Everything works as expected when opening a non secured connection on OS 7.1. For tls on mobile networks I use the following connection string: connectionString = "tls://someipaddress:443;deviceside=false;ConnectionType=mds-public;EndToEndDesired"; For tls on Wifi I use the following connection string: connectionString = "tls://someipaddress:443;deviceside=true;interface=wifi;EndToEndRequired" UPDATE 2: The connection is never idle. I am constantly receiving and sending data on it. The issue appears both when using mobile connection and WiFi. The issue appears both on real OS 7.1 devices and simulators. I am starting to suspect that it is somehow related either to the connection string I am using or to the tls handshake. UPDATE 3: According to Wireshark's captures that I made with the OS 7.1 simulator, the secured tls connection is being closed by the server (client receives FIN). For the moment I don't have the server's private key therefore I unable to debug the tls handshake.

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• OpenGL ES Polygon with Normals rendering (Note the 'ES!')

  - by MarqueIV

  Ok... imagine I have a relatively simple solid that has six distinct normals but actually has close to 48 faces (8 faces per direction) and there are a LOT of shared vertices between faces. What's the most efficient way to render that in OpenGL? I know I can place the vertices in an array, then use an index array to render them, but I have to keep breaking my rendering steps down to change the normals (i.e. set normal 1... render 8 faces... set normal 2... render 8 faces, etc.) Because of that I have to maintain an array of index arrays... one for each normal! Not good! The other way I can do it is to use separate normal and vertex arrays (or even interleave them) but that means I need to have a one-to-one ratio for normals to vertices and that means the normals would be duplicated 8 times more than they need to be! On something with a spherical or even curved surface, every normal most likely is different, but for this, it really seems like a waste of memory. In a perfect world I'd like to have my vertex and normal arrays have different lengths, then when I go to draw my triangles or quads To specify the index to each array for that vertex. Now the OBJ file format lets you specify exactly that... a vertex array and a normal array of different lengths, then when you specify the face you are rendering, you specify a vertex and a normal index (as well as a UV coord if you are using textures too) which seems like the perfect solution! 48 vertices but only 8 normals, then pairs of indexes defining the shapes' faces. But I'm not sure how to render that in OpenGL ES (again, note the 'ES'.) Currently I have to 'denormalize' (sorry for the SQL pun there) the normals back to a 1-to-1 with the vertex array, then render. Just wastes memory to me. Anyone help? I hope I'm missing something very simple here. Mark

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• jQuery multiple class selection

  - by morpheous

  I am a bit confused with this: I have a page with a set of buttons (i.e. elements with class attribute 'button'. The buttons belong to one of two classes (grp1 and grp2). These are my requirements For buttons with class enabled, when the mouse hovers over them, a 'button-hover' class is added to them (i.e. the element the mouse is hovering over). Otherwise, the hover event is ignored When one of the buttons with class grp2 is clicked on (it has to be 'enabled' first), then I disable (i.e. remove the 'enabled' class for all elements with class 'enabled' (should probably selecting for elements with class 'button' AND 'enabled' - but I am having enough problems as it is, so I need to keep things simple for now). This is what my page looks like: <html> <head> <title>Demo</title> <style type="text/css" .button {border: 1px solid gray; color: gray} .enabled {border: 1px solid red; color: red} .button-hover {background-color: blue; } </style> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> </head> <body> <div class="btn-cntnr"> <span class="grp1 button enabled">button 1</span> <span class="grp2 button enabled">button 2</span> <span class="grp2 button enabled">button 3</span> <span class="grp2 button enabled">button 4</span> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> /* <![CDATA[ */ $(document).ready(function(){ $(".button.enabled").hover(function(){ $(this).toggleClass('button-hover'); }, function() { $(this).toggleClass('button-hover'); }); $('.grp2.enabled').click(function(){ $(".grp2").removeClass('enabled');} }); /* ]]> */ </script> </body> </html> Currently, when a button with class 'grp2' is clicked on, the other elements with class 'grp2' have the 'enabled' class removed (works correctly). HOWEVER, I notice that even though the class no longer have a 'enabled' class, SOMEHOW, the hover behaviour is still applied to these elemets (WRONG). Once an element has been 'disabled', I no longer want it to respond to the hover() event. How may I implement this behavior, and what is wrong with the code above (i.e. why is it not working? (I am still learning jQuery)

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• Changing the title of jQuery-UI dialog-box with in another dialog-box's function...

  - by Brian Ojeda

  Why doesn't doesn't the second jQuery-UI dialog box title change when popped. The first dialog box I change the title of the box with using the following .attr("title", "Confirm") -- it change the title of the first box to 'Confirm', like it should have. Now when the second box pops up it should change the title to 'Message' since did the same thing for the second box -- .attr("title", "Message"). Right? But it doesnt. It keep the title from before. However, the message change like it should have. I have tested in IE8, Chrome, and FF3.6. <div id="dialog-confirm" title=""></div> <-- This is the html before jQuery functions. Javascript / jQuery $('#userDelete').click(function() { $(function() { var dialogIcon = "<span class=\"ui-icon ui-icon-alert\"></span>"; var dialogMessage = dialogIcon + "Are you sure you want to delete?"; $("#dialog-confirm").attr("title", "Confirm").html(dialogMessage).dialog({ resizable: false, height: 125, width: 300, modal: true, buttons: { 'Delete': function() { $(this).dialog('close'); $.post('user_ajax.php', {action: 'delete', aId: $('[name=aId]').val() }, function(data) { if(data.success){ var dialogIcon = "<span class=\"ui-icon ui-icon-info\"></span>"; var dialogMessage = dialogIcon + data.message; $('#dialog-confirm').attr("title", "Message"); $('#dialog-confirm').html(dialogMessage); $('#dialog-confirm').dialog({ resizable: false, height: 125, width: 300, modal: true, buttons: { 'Okay': function() { $(this).dialog('close'); var url = $_httpaddress + "admin/index.php" $(location).attr('href',url); } // End of Okay Button Function } //--- End of Dialog Button Script });//--- End of Dialog Function } else { $_messageConsole.slideDown(); $_messageConsole.html(data.message); } }, 'json'); }, //--- End of Delete Button Function 'Cancel': function() { $(this).dialog('close'); } //--- End of Cancel Button Function } //--- End of Dialog Button Script }); //--- End of Dialog Script }); //--- End of Dialog Function return false; }); Thank you for you assistant, if you choose to help.

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• Store Observer not being called always

  - by Nixarn

  Has anyone else here experienced problems with their Store Observer class not being called always when the user for instance cancels a request (or purchases something) We just had our update that brought in app purchases go live last night, and before that we had obviously tested everything tons of times against the Sandbox and everything was working fine. Now however, when the update went live in a real environment we keep getting issues with the store. For instance, in a freshly booted iPhone / iPod, the first time you run the app, if you then try to make a purchase and then immediately cancel it from the first dialog, it seems as if the callback for the cancel is not getting called. If you then restart the app it seems as if it always works after that, or at least. Same thing with other callbacks, seems as if our store observer isn't listening as the callbacks aren't being registered on the phone. One example of this is if you purchase something, then nothing will happen (if this is the first time the app is launched at least). You get the purchase successful dialog from the app store but it seems as if our own code isn't called. If you then quit the app and restart it the callback gets called. Same problem happens if you for instance try to start a request to download all previous purchases and then immediately cancel it as the first dialog pops up, if you do that then the callback for a failed restore is not called, until you then restart the app and try it again, then it always seems to work. The way we have implemented our store observer is by creating a custom class that's implements the SKPaymentTransactionObserver interface. @interface StoreObserver : NSObject<SKPaymentTransactionObserver> In the class we have implemented the following methods: - (void)paymentQueue:(SKPaymentQueue *)queue updatedTransactions:(NSArray *)transactions - (void)paymentQueueRestoreCompletedTransactionsFinished:(SKPaymentQueue *)queue - (void)paymentQueue:(SKPaymentQueue *)queue restoreCompletedTransactionsFailedWithError:(NSError *)error The way our restore process works is that if you tap on the button that allows you to download all we simply run the restoreCompletedTransactions code as follows: [[SKPaymentQueue defaultQueue] restoreCompletedTransactions]; However, the callback, restoreCompletedTransactionsFailedWithError, which has been implemented in the store observer, does not always get called when we try to cancel the request. This happens when you boot the iPhone / iPod and try this for the first time. If you after that restart the app everything works fine. The StoreObserver class is created when our app is launched, just by running the following code: pStoreObserver = [[StoreObserver alloc] init]; [[SKPaymentQueue defaultQueue] addTransactionObserver:pStoreObserver]; Has anyone else had any similar experiences? Or does anyone have any suggestions on how to solve this? As I said, in the sandbox environment everything was working fine, no issues whatsoever, but now once it's gone live we're experiencing these.

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• How should I ethically approach user password storage for later plaintext retrieval?

  - by Shane

  As I continue to build more and more websites and web applications I am often asked to store user's passwords in a way that they can be retrieved if/when the user has an issue (either to email a forgotten password link, walk them through over the phone, etc.) When I can I fight bitterly against this practice and I do a lot of ‘extra’ programming to make password resets and administrative assistance possible without storing their actual password. When I can’t fight it (or can’t win) then I always encode the password in some way so that it at least isn’t stored as plaintext in the database—though I am aware that if my DB gets hacked that it won’t take much for the culprit to crack the passwords as well—so that makes me uncomfortable. In a perfect world folks would update passwords frequently and not duplicate them across many different sites—unfortunately I know MANY people that have the same work/home/email/bank password, and have even freely given it to me when they need assistance. I don’t want to be the one responsible for their financial demise if my DB security procedures fail for some reason. Morally and ethically I feel responsible for protecting what can be, for some users, their livelihood even if they are treating it with much less respect. I am certain that there are many avenues to approach and arguments to be made for salting hashes and different encoding options, but is there a single ‘best practice’ when you have to store them? In almost all cases I am using PHP and MySQL if that makes any difference in the way I should handle the specifics. Additional Information for Bounty I want to clarify that I know this is not something you want to have to do and that in most cases refusal to do so is best. I am, however, not looking for a lecture on the merits of taking this approach I am looking for the best steps to take if you do take this approach. In a note below I made the point that websites geared largely toward the elderly, mentally challenged, or very young can become confusing for people when they are asked to perform a secure password recovery routine. Though we may find it simple and mundane in those cases some users need the extra assistance of either having a service tech help them into the system or having it emailed/displayed directly to them. In such systems the attrition rate from these demographics could hobble the application if users were not given this level of access assistance, so please answer with such a setup in mind. Thanks to Everyone This has been a fun questions with lots of debate and I have enjoyed it. In the end I selected an answer that both retains password security (I will not have to keep plain text or recoverable passwords), but also makes it possible for the user base I specified to log into a system without the major drawbacks I have found from normal password recovery. As always there were about 5 answers that I would like to have marked correct for different reasons, but I had to choose the best one--all the rest got a +1. Thanks everyone!

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• How to reconcile my support of open-source software and need to feed and house myself?

  - by Guzba

  I have a bit of a dilemma and wanted to get some other developers' opinions on it and maybe some guidance. So I have created a 2D game for Android from the ground up, learning and re factoring as I went along. I did it for the experience, and have been proud of the results. I released it for free as ad supported with AdMob not really expecting much out of it, but curious to see what would happen. Its been a few of months now since release, and it has become very popular (250k downloads!). Additionally, the ad revenue is great and is driving me to make more good games and even allowing me to work less so that I can focus on my own works. When I originally began working on the game, I was pretty new to concurrency and completely new to Android (had Java experience though). The standard advice I got for starting an Android game was to look at the sample games from Google (Snake, Lunar Lander, ...) so I did. In my opinion, these Android sample games from Google are decent to see in general what your code should look like, but not actually all that great to follow. This is because some of their features don't work (saving game state), the concurrency is both unexplained and cumbersome (there is no real separation between the game thread and the UI thread since they sync lock each other out all the time and the UI thread runs game thread code). This made it difficult for me as a newbie to concurrency to understand how it was organized and what was really running what code. Here is my dilemma: After spending this past few months slowly improving my code, I feel that it could be very beneficial to developers who are in the same position that I was in when I started. (Since it is not a complex game, but clearly coded in my opinion.) I want to open up the source so that others can learn from it but don't want to lose my ad revenue stream, which, if I did open the source, I fear I would when people released versions with the ad stripped, or minor tweaks that would fragment my audience, etc. I am a CS undergrad major in college and this money is giving me the freedom to work less at summer job, thus giving me the time and will to work on more of my own projects and improving my own skills while still paying the bills. So what do I do? Open the source at personal sacrifice for the greater good, or keep it closed and be a sort of hypocritical supporter of open source?

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• Repeat Customers Each Year (Retention)

  - by spazzie

  I've been working on this and I don't think I'm doing it right. |D Our database doesn't keep track of how many customers we retain so we looked for an alternate method. It's outlined in this article. It suggests you have this table to fill in: Year Number of Customers Number of customers Retained in 2009 Percent (%) Retained in 2009 Number of customers Retained in 2010 Percent (%) Retained in 2010 .... 2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 Total The table would go out to 2012 in the headers. I'm just saving space. It tells you to find the total number of customers you had in your starting year. To do this, I used this query since our starting year is 2008: select YEAR(OrderDate) as 'Year', COUNT(distinct(billemail)) as Customers from dbo.tblOrder where OrderDate >= '2008-01-01' and OrderDate <= '2008-12-31' group by YEAR(OrderDate) At the moment we just differentiate our customers by email address. Then you have to search for the same names of customers who purchased again in later years (ours are 2009, 10, 11, and 12). I came up with this. It should find people who purchased in both 2008 and 2009. SELECT YEAR(OrderDate) as 'Year',COUNT(distinct(billemail)) as Customers FROM dbo.tblOrder o with (nolock) WHERE o.BillEmail IN (SELECT DISTINCT o1.BillEmail FROM dbo.tblOrder o1 with (nolock) WHERE o1.OrderDate BETWEEN '2008-1-1' AND '2009-1-1') AND o.BillEmail IN (SELECT DISTINCT o2.BillEmail FROM dbo.tblOrder o2 with (nolock) WHERE o2.OrderDate BETWEEN '2009-1-1' AND '2010-1-1') --AND o.OrderDate BETWEEN '2008-1-1' AND '2013-1-1' AND o.BillEmail NOT LIKE '%@halloweencostumes.com' AND o.BillEmail NOT LIKE '' GROUP BY YEAR(OrderDate) So I'm just finding the customers who purchased in both those years. And then I'm doing an independent query to find those who purchased in 2008 and 2010, then 08 and 11, and then 08 and 12. This one finds 2008 and 2010 purchasers: SELECT YEAR(OrderDate) as 'Year',COUNT(distinct(billemail)) as Customers FROM dbo.tblOrder o with (nolock) WHERE o.BillEmail IN (SELECT DISTINCT o1.BillEmail FROM dbo.tblOrder o1 with (nolock) WHERE o1.OrderDate BETWEEN '2008-1-1' AND '2009-1-1') AND o.BillEmail IN (SELECT DISTINCT o2.BillEmail FROM dbo.tblOrder o2 with (nolock) WHERE o2.OrderDate BETWEEN '2010-1-1' AND '2011-1-1') --AND o.OrderDate BETWEEN '2008-1-1' AND '2013-1-1' AND o.BillEmail NOT LIKE '%@halloweencostumes.com' AND o.BillEmail NOT LIKE '' GROUP BY YEAR(OrderDate) So you see I have a different query for each year comparison. They're all unrelated. So in the end I'm just finding people who bought in 2008 and 2009, and then a potentially different group that bought in 2008 and 2010, and so on. For this to be accurate, do I have to use the same grouping of 2008 buyers each time? So they bought in 2009 and 2010 and 2011, and 2012? This is where I'm worried and not sure how to proceed or even find such data. Any advice would be appreciated! Thanks!

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• Is a Multi-DAL Approach the way to go here?

  - by Krisc

  Working on the data access / model layer in this little MVC2 project and trying to think things out to future projects. I have a database with some basic tables and I have classes in the model layer that represent them. I obviously need something to connect the two. The easiest is to provide some sort of 'provider' that can run operations on the database and return objects. But this is for a website that would potentially be used "a lot" (I know, very general) so I want to cache results from the data layer and keep the cache updated as new data is generated. This question deals with how best to approach this problem of dual DALS. One that returns cached data when possible and goes to the data layer when there is a cache miss. But more importantly, how to integrate the core provider (thing that goes into database) with the caching layer so that it too can rely on cached objects rather than creating new ones. Right now I have the following interfaces: IDataProvider is used to reach the database. It doesn't concern itself with the meaning of the objects it produces, but simply the way to produce them. interface IDataProvider{ // Select, Update, Create, et cetera access IEnumerable<Entry> GetEntries(); Entry GetEntryById(int id); } IDataManager is a layer that sits on top of the IDataProvider layer and manages the cache interface IDataManager : IDataProvider{ void ClearCache(); } Note that in practice the IDataManager implementation will have useful helper functions to add objects to their related cache stores. (In the future I may define other functions on the interface) I guess what I am looking for is the best way to approach a loop back from the IDataProvider implementations so that they can access the cache. Or a different approach entirely may be in order? I am not very interested in 3rd party products at the moment as I am interested in the design of these things much more than this specific implementation. Edit: I realize the title may be a bit misleading. I apologize for that... not sure what to call this question.

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• Using hidden values with jQuery (and ASP.NET MVC) -- not working?

  - by SlackerCoder

  Im using a couple of JSON calls to render data, etc etc. In order to keep the proper key value, I am storing it in a tag. I have this in several places in my code, none of which cause an issue like this one is. Here is the jQuery: The call that "sets" the value: $("a[id^='planSetupAddNewPlan']").live('click', function() { var x = $(this).attr('id'); x = x.substring(19); $("#hidPlanSetupCurrentGroupKey").val(x); $.getJSON("/GroupSetup/PlanSetupAddNewList", { GroupKey: x }, function(data) { $("#planSetupAddNew").html('' + data.TableResult + ''); alert('First Inside 2 ' + x); $.blockUI({ message: $("#planSetupAddNew") }); }); }); The call that "gets" the value: $("#ddlPlanSetupAddNewProduct").live('change', function() { var a = $("#hidPlanSetupCurrentGroupKey").val(); var prod = $(this).val(); alert(a); $.getJSON("/GroupSetup/PlanSetupChangePlanList", { GroupKey: a, Product: prod }, function(data) { if (data.Message == "Success") { $("#planSetupAddNewPlan").html('' + data.TableResult + ''); } else if (data.Message == "Error") { //Do something } }); }); Here is the html in question: <div id="planSetupAddNew" style="display:none; cursor: default;"> <input type="hidden" id="hidPlanSetupCurrentGroupKey" /> <div id="planSetupAddNewData"> </div> </div> In the first section, the alert ('First Inside 2 ' + x) returns what I expect (where x = the key value), and if I add a line to display the contents of the hidden field, that works as well: ie. var key = $("#hidPlanSetupCurrentGroupKey").val(); alert(key); In the "alert(a);" call, I am getting "undefined". I have looked at the other code in the same view and it is the same and it works. I must be missing something, or have some sort of mistype that I havent caught. Just an overview of the controller events: The first call (/GroupSetup/PlanSetupAddNewList) will return an html string building a "form" for users to enter information into. The second call (/GroupSetup/PlanSetupChangePlanList) just changes a second dropdown based on the first dropdown selection (overwriting the html in the div). If you need more info, let me know! Any thoughts/tips/pointers/suggestions?!?! Thanks for all your help :)

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• Convert this curl to multi PHP

  - by user1642423

  I have this code and I want made 10 curl connections like this with multi but I don't know how to that with this specific code: What the code does? Make a curl requiest to an .asp page Uses the result to send some data in a form ($ciudad) then the page get this submit and make an internal request and show an result. Output the final result of that. function curl($header,$encoded,$cookie){ $options = array( CURLOPT_USERAGENT => $_SERVER['HTTP_USER_AGENT'], CURLOPT_TIMEOUT => 120, //CURLOPT_REFERER => '', //CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER => $header, CURLOPT_COOKIE => $cookie, CURLOPT_POST => true, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS => $encoded, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER => true, CURLOPT_HEADER => false, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION => true, ); $ch = curl_init("http://procesos.ramajudicial.gov.co/consultaprocesos/consultap.aspx"); curl_setopt_array( $ch, $options ); $output = curl_exec($ch); curl_close($ch); return $output; } $cookie = ""; foreach($_COOKIE as $k => $v) $cookie .= $k."=".$v.";"; $cookie = substr($cookie,0,strlen($cookie)-1); $encoded = ''; foreach($_POST as $name => $value) { $encoded .= urlencode($name).'='.urlencode($value).'&'; } $lk = "http://procesos.ramajudicial.gov.co/consultaprocesos/"; $header[] = 'User-Agent: '.$_SERVER['HTTP_USER_AGENT']; $header[] = 'Accept: text/xml,application/xml,application/xhtml+xml,text /html;q=0.9,text/plain;q=0.8,image/png,*/*;q=0.5'; $header[] = 'Accept-Language: en-us,en;q=0.5'; $header[] = 'Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate'; $header[] = 'Connection: keep-alive'; $header[] = 'Cookie : '.$cookie; $header[] = 'Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded'; $output = curl($header,$encoded,$cookie); $CIUDAD = urlencode("Medellin"); // to change $CORPORACION = urlencode("JUZGADOS CIVILES MUNICIPALES DE MEDELLIN"); // to change $DIGITOS = $numsus; // BEGIN STEP 1 $__VIEWSTATE = 'id="__VIEWSTATE" value="'; $i = stripos($output,$__VIEWSTATE) + strlen($__VIEWSTATE); $j = stripos($output,'"',$i); $__VIEWSTATE = substr($output,$i,$j-$i); $__EVENTVALIDATION = 'id="__EVENTVALIDATION" value="'; $i = stripos($output,$__EVENTVALIDATION) + strlen($__EVENTVALIDATION); $j = stripos($output,'"',$i); $__EVENTVALIDATION = substr($output,$i,$j-$i); $encoded = '__EVENTTARGET=DropDownList1&__EVENTARGUMENT=&__LASTFOCUS=&__VIEWSTATE='.urlencode($__VIEWSTATE).'&__EVENTVALIDATION='.urlencode($__EVENTVALIDATION).'&DropDownList1='.$CIUDAD.'&TextBox13='; $output = curl($header,$encoded,$cookie);

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• JUnit for Functions with Void Return Values

  - by RobotNerd

  I've been working on a Java application where I have to use JUnit for testing. I am learning it as I go. So far I find it to be useful, especially when used in conjunction with the Eclipse JUnit plugin. After playing around a bit, I developed a consistent method for building my unit tests for functions with no return values. I wanted to share it here and ask others to comment. Do you have any suggested improvements or alternative ways to accomplish the same goal? Common Return Values First, there's an enumeration which is used to store values representing test outcomes. public enum UnitTestReturnValues { noException, unexpectedException // etc... } Generalized Test Let's say a unit test is being written for: public class SomeClass { public void targetFunction (int x, int y) { // ... } } The JUnit test class would be created: import junit.framework.TestCase; public class TestSomeClass extends TestCase { // ... } Within this class, I create a function which is used for every call to the target function being tested. It catches all exceptions and returns a message based on the outcome. For example: public class TestSomeClass extends TestCase { private UnitTestReturnValues callTargetFunction (int x, int y) { UnitTestReturnValues outcome = UnitTestReturnValues.noException; SomeClass testObj = new SomeClass (); try { testObj.targetFunction (x, y); } catch (Exception e) { UnitTestReturnValues.unexpectedException; } return outcome; } } JUnit Tests Functions called by JUnit begin with a lowercase "test" in the function name, and they fail at the first failed assertion. To run multiple tests on the targetFunction above, it would be written as: public class TestSomeClass extends TestCase { public void testTargetFunctionNegatives () { assertEquals ( callTargetFunction (-1, -1), UnitTestReturnValues.noException); } public void testTargetFunctionZeros () { assertEquals ( callTargetFunction (0, 0), UnitTestReturnValues.noException); } // and so on... } Please let me know if you have any suggestions or improvements. Keep in mind that I am in the process of learning how to use JUnit, so I'm sure there are existing tools available that might make this process easier. Thanks!

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• string s; &s+1; Legal? UB?

  - by John Dibling

  Consider the following code: #include <cstdlib> #include <iostream> #include <string> #include <vector> #include <algorithm> using namespace std; int main() { string myAry[] = { "Mary", "had", "a", "Little", "Lamb" }; const size_t numStrs = sizeof(myStr)/sizeof(myAry[0]); vector<string> myVec(&myAry[0], &myAry[numStrs]); copy( myVec.begin(), myVec.end(), ostream_iterator<string>(cout, " ")); return 0; } Of interest here is &myAry[numStrs]: numStrs is equal to 5, so &myAry[numStrs] points to something that doesn't exist; the sixth element in the array. There is another example of this in the above code: myVec.end(), which points to one-past-the-end of the vector myVec. It's perfecly legal to take the address of this element that doesn't exist. We know the size of string, so we know where the address of the 6th element of a C-style array of strings must point to. So long as we only evaluate this pointer and never dereference it, we're fine. We can even compare it to other pointers for equality. The STL does this all the time in algorithms that act on a range of iterators. The end() iterator points past the end, and the loops keep looping while a counter != end(). So now consider this: #include <cstdlib> #include <iostream> #include <string> #include <vector> #include <algorithm> using namespace std; int main() { string myStr = "Mary"; string* myPtr = &myStr; vector<string> myVec2(myPtr, &myPtr[1]); copy( myVec2.begin(), myVec2.end(), ostream_iterator<string>(cout, " ")); return 0; } Is this code legal and well-defined? It is legal and well-defined to take the address of an array element past the end, as in &myAry[numStrs], so should it be legal and well-defined to pretend that myPtr is also an array?

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• This code appears to achieve the return of a null reference in C++

  - by Chuck

  Hi folks, My C++ knowledge is somewhat piecemeal. I was reworking some code at work. I changed a function to return a reference to a type. Inside, I look up an object based on an identifier passed in, then return a reference to the object if found. Of course I ran into the issue of what to return if I don't find the object, and in looking around the web, many people claim that returning a "null reference" in C++ is impossible. Based on this advice, I tried the trick of returning a success/fail boolean, and making the object reference an out parameter. However, I ran into the roadblock of needing to initialize the references I would pass as actual parameters, and of course there is no way to do this. I retreated to the usual approach of just returning a pointer. I asked a colleague about it. He uses the following trick quite often, which is accepted by both a recent version of the Sun compiler and by gcc: MyType& someFunc(int id) { // successful case here: // ... // fail case: return *static_cast<MyType*>(0); } // Use: ... MyType& mt = somefunc(myIdNum); if (&mt) // test for "null reference" { // whatever } ... I have been maintaining this code base for a while, but I find that I don't have as much time to look up the small details about the language as I would like. I've been digging through my reference book but the answer to this one eludes me. Now, I had a C++ course a few years ago, and therein we emphasized that in C++ everything is types, so I try to keep that in mind when thinking things through. Deconstructing the expression: "*static_cast(0);", it indeed seems to me that we take a literal zero, cast it to a pointer to MyType (which makes it a null pointer), and then apply the dereferencing operator in the context of assigning to a reference type (the return type), which should give me a reference to the same object pointed to by the pointer. This sure looks like returning a null reference to me. Any advice in explaining why this works (or why it shouldn't) would be greatly appreciated. Thanks, Chuck

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• How to get Augmented Reality: A Practical Guide examples working?

  - by Glen

  I recently bought the book: Augmented Reality: A Practical Guide (http://pragprog.com/titles/cfar/augmented-reality). It has example code that it says runs on Windows, MacOS and Linux. But I can't get the binaries to run. Has anyone got this book and got the binaries to run on ubuntu? I also can't figure out how to compile the examples in Ubuntu. How would I do this? Here is what it says to do: Compiling for Linux Refreshingly, there are no changes required to get the programs in this chapter to compile for Linux, but as with Windows, you’ll first have to find your GL and GLUT files. This may mean you’ll have to download the correct version of GLUT for your machine. You need to link in the GL, GLU, and GLUT libraries and provide a path to the GLUT header file and the files it includes. See whether there is a glut.h file in the /usr/include/GL directory; otherwise, look elsewhere for it—you could use the command find / -name "glut.h" to search your entire machine, or you could use the locate command (locate glut.h). You may need to customize the paths, but here is an example of the compile command: gcc -o opengl_template opengl_template.cpp -I /usr/include/GL -I /usr/include -lGL -lGLU -lglut gcc is a C/C++ compiler that should be present on your Linux or Unix machine. The -I /usr/include/GL command-line argument tells gcc to look in /usr/include/GL for the include files. In this case, you’ll find glut.h and what it includes. When linking in libraries with gcc, you use the -lX switch—where X is the name of your library and there is a correspond- ing libX.a file somewhere in your path. For this example, you want to link in the library files libGL.a, libGLU.a, and libglut.a, so you will use the gcc arguments -lGL -lGLU -lglut. These three files are found in the default directory /usr/lib/, so you don’t need to specify their location as you did with glut.h. If you did need to specify the library path, you would add -L to the path. To run your compiled program, type ./opengl_template or, if the current directory is in your shell’s paths, just opengl_template. When working in Linux, it’s important to know that you may need to keep your texture files to a maximum of 256 by 256 pixels or find the settings in your system to raise this limit. Often an OpenGL program will work in Windows but produce a blank white texture in Linux until the texture size is reduced. The above instructions make no sense to me. Do I have to use gcc to compile or can I use eclipse? If I use either eclipse or gcc what do I need to do to compile and run the program?

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• C - What is the proper format to allow a function to show an error was encountered?

  - by BrainSteel

  I have a question about what a function should do if the arguments to said function don't line up quite right, through no fault of the function call. Since that sentence doesn't make much sense, I'll offer my current issue. To keep it simple, here is the most relevant and basic function I have. float getYValueAt(float x, PHYS_Line line, unsigned short* error) *error = 0; if(x < line.start.x || x > line.end.x){ *error = 1; return -1; } if(line.slope.value != 0){ //line's equation: y - line.start.y = line.slope.value(x - line.start.x) return line.slope.value * (x - line.start.x) + line.start.y; } else if(line.slope.denom == 0){ if(line.start.x == x) return line.start.y; else{ *error = 1; return -1; } } else if(line.slope.num == 0){ return line.start.y; } } The function attempts to find the point on a line, given a certain x value. However, under some circumstances, this may not be possible. For example, on the line x = 3, if 5 is passed as a value, we would have a problem. Another problem arises if the chosen x value is not within the interval the line is on. For this, I included the error pointer. Given this format, a function call could work as follows: void foo(PHYS_Line some_line){ unsigned short error = 0; float y = getYValueAt(5, some_line, &error); if(error) fooey(); else do_something_with_y(y); } My question pertains to the error. Note that the value returned is allowed to be negative. Returning -1 does not ensure that an error has occurred. I know that it is sometimes preferred to use the following method to track an error: float* getYValueAt(float x, PHYS_Line line); and then return NULL if an error occurs, but I believe this requires dynamic memory allocation, which seems even less sightly than the solution I was using. So, what is standard practice for an error occurring?

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• jquery in ajax loaded content

  - by Kim Gysen

  My application is supposed to be a single page application and I have the following code that works fine: home.php: <div id="container"> </div> accordion.php: //Click functions: load content $('#parents').click(function(){ //Load parent in container $('#container').load('http://www.blabla.com/entities/parents/parents.php'); }); parents.php: <div class="entity_wrapper"> Some divs and selectors </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ //Some jQuery / javascript }); </script> So the content loads fine, while the scripts dynamically loaded execute fine as well. I apply this system repetitively and it continues to work smoothly. I've seen that there are a lot of frameworks available on SPA's (such as backbone.js) but I don't understand why I need them if this works fine. From the backbone.js website: When working on a web application that involves a lot of JavaScript, one of the first things you learn is to stop tying your data to the DOM. It's all too easy to create JavaScript applications that end up as tangled piles of jQuery selectors and callbacks, all trying frantically to keep data in sync between the HTML UI, your JavaScript logic, and the database on your server. For rich client-side applications, a more structured approach is often helpful. Well, I totally don't have the feeling that I'm going through the stuff they mention. Adding the javascript per page works really well for me. They are html containers with clear scope and the javascript is just related to that part. More over, the front end doesn't do that much, most of the logic is managed based on Ajax calls to external PHP scripts. Sometimes the js can be a bit more extended for some functionalities, but all just loads as smooth in less than a second. If you think that this is bad coding, please tell me why I cannot do this and more importantly, what is the alternative I should apply. At the moment, I really don't see a reason on why I would change this approach as it just works too well. I'm kinda stuck on this question because it just worries me sick as it seems to easy to be true. Why would people go through hard times if it would be as easy as this...

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• iPhone - NSURLConnection does not receive data

  - by Jukurrpa

  Hi, I have a pretty weird problem with NSURLRequest. I'm using them to make an asynchronous image loading in an UITableView. The first time the tableView displays, all connections from NSURLRequests open correctly but receive absolutely no data, regardless of how long I wait. But as soon as I scroll down in the tableView, the newly created requests for the new cells work perfectly! The only way for the images on top of the tableView to load is to make them disappear by scrolling down and then up again, in order to create new requests. Here is what I do in "cellForRowAtIndexPath": UITableViewCell* cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:@"Cell"]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[UITableViewCell alloc] initWIthFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 300, 60)]; AsyncUIImageView imageView = [[AsynUIImageView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 60, 60)]; imageView.tag = IMG_VIEW // an enum for tags [cell addSubView:imageView]; [imageView release]; } AsyncUIImageView imageView = (AsyncUIImageView*)[cell viewWithTag:IMG_VIEW]; // I do a few cache checks here, but if the image aint cached I do this: [imageView loadImageFromURL:@"http://someurl.com/somepix.jpg"]; // all urls are different, just an example The AsyncUIImageView inherits from UIImageView and contains an NSURLConnection which opens upon calling the loadImageFromURL method: (void) loadImageFromURL:(NSString*)filename { if (self.connection != nil) [self.connection release]; if (self.data != nil) [self.data release]; NSURLRequest* request = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:[[NSURL alloc] initWithString:fileName] cachePolicy:NSURLRequestUseProtocolCachePolicy timeoutInterval:10.0]; self.connection = [[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:request delegate:self]; if (self.connection == nil) return; self.data = [[NSMutableData data] retain]; } I've created the delegate methods "connection: didReceiveData", which appends received data to self.data and "connectionDidFinishLoading" which sets the image and closes the connection once the transfer is complete. These work, but are never called for the first requests I create. I suspect this bug to come from the main thread not giving the first requests the control so they can execute themselves, as the same behavior happens if I keep my finger on the screen after a scroll: connections open themselves, but no data is received until I stop touching the screen. What am I doing wrong?

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• Force deletion of slot in boost::signals2

  - by villintehaspam

  Hi! I have found that boost::signals2 uses sort of a lazy deletion of connected slots, which makes it difficult to use connections as something that manages lifetimes of objects. I am looking for a way to force slots to be deleted directly when disconnected. Any ideas on how to work around the problem by designing my code differently are also appreciated! This is my scenario: I have a Command class responsible for doing something that takes time asynchronously, looking something like this (simplified): class ActualWorker { public: boost::signals2<void ()> OnWorkComplete; }; class Command : boost::enable_shared_from_this<Command> { public: ... void Execute() { m_WorkerConnection = m_MyWorker.OnWorkDone.connect(boost::bind(&Command::Handle_OnWorkComplete, shared_from_this()); // launch asynchronous work here and return } boost::signals2<void ()> OnComplete; private: void Handle_OnWorkComplete() { // get a shared_ptr to ourselves to make sure that we live through // this function but don't keep ourselves alive if an exception occurs. shared_ptr<Command> me = shared_from_this(); // Disconnect from the signal, ideally deleting the slot object m_WorkerConnection.disconnect(); OnComplete(); // the shared_ptr now goes out of scope, ideally deleting this } ActualWorker m_MyWorker; boost::signals2::connection m_WorkerConnection; }; The class is invoked about like this: ... boost::shared_ptr<Command> cmd(new Command); cmd->OnComplete.connect( foo ); cmd->Execute(); // now go do something else, forget all about the cmd variable etcetera. the Command class keeps itself alive by getting a shared_ptr to itself which is bound to the ActualWorker signal using boost::bind. When the worker completes, the handler in Command is invoked. Now, since I would like the Command object to be destroyed, I disconnect from the signal as can be seen in the code above. The problem is that the actual slot object is not deleted when disconnected, it is only marked as invalid and then deleted at a later time. This in turn appears to depend on the signal to fire again, which it doesn't do in my case, leading to the slot never expiring. The boost::bind object thus never goes out of scope, holding a shared_ptr to my object that will never get deleted. I can work around this by binding using the this pointer instead of a shared_ptr and then keeping my object alive using a member shared_ptr which I then release in the handler function, but it kind of makes the design feel a bit overcomplicated. Is there a way to force signals2 to delete the slot when disconnecting? Or is there something else I could do to simplify the design? Any comments are appreciated!

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• When mocking a class with Moq, how can I CallBase for just specific methods?

  - by Daryn

  I really appreciate Moq's Loose mocking behaviour that returns default values when no expectations are set. It's convenient and saves me code, and it also acts as a safety measure: dependencies won't get unintentionally called during the unit test (as long as they are virtual). However, I'm confused about how to keep these benefits when the method under test happens to be virtual. In this case I do want to call the real code for that one method, while still having the rest of the class loosely mocked. All I have found in my searching is that I could set mock.CallBase = true to ensure that the method gets called. However, that affects the whole class. I don't want to do that because it puts me in a dilemma about all the other properties and methods in the class that hide call dependencies: if CallBase is true then I have to either Setup stubs for all of the properties and methods that hide dependencies -- Even though my test doesn't think it needs to care about those dependencies, or Hope that I don't forget to Setup any stubs (and that no new dependencies get added to the code in the future) -- Risk unit tests hitting a real dependency. Q: With Moq, is there any way to test a virtual method, when I mocked the class to stub just a few dependencies? I.e. Without resorting to CallBase=true and having to stub all of the dependencies? Example code to illustrate (uses MSTest, InternalsVisibleTo DynamicProxyGenAssembly2) In the following example, TestNonVirtualMethod passes, but TestVirtualMethod fails - returns null. public class Foo { public string NonVirtualMethod() { return GetDependencyA(); } public virtual string VirtualMethod() { return GetDependencyA();} internal virtual string GetDependencyA() { return "! Hit REAL Dependency A !"; } // [... Possibly many other dependencies ...] internal virtual string GetDependencyN() { return "! Hit REAL Dependency N !"; } } [TestClass] public class UnitTest1 { [TestMethod] public void TestNonVirtualMethod() { var mockFoo = new Mock<Foo>(); mockFoo.Setup(m => m.GetDependencyA()).Returns(expectedResultString); string result = mockFoo.Object.NonVirtualMethod(); Assert.AreEqual(expectedResultString, result); } [TestMethod] public void TestVirtualMethod() // Fails { var mockFoo = new Mock<Foo>(); mockFoo.Setup(m => m.GetDependencyA()).Returns(expectedResultString); // (I don't want to setup GetDependencyB ... GetDependencyN here) string result = mockFoo.Object.VirtualMethod(); Assert.AreEqual(expectedResultString, result); } string expectedResultString = "Hit mock dependency A - OK"; }

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