Search Results

Search found 17816 results on 713 pages for 'variable names'.

Page 578/713 | < Previous Page | 574 575 576 577 578 579 580 581 582 583 584 585  | Next Page >

  • comparing strings from two different sources in javascript

    - by andy-score
    This is a bit of a specific request unfortunately. I have a CMS that allows a user to input text into a tinymce editor for various posts they have made. The editor is loaded via ajax to allow multiple posts to be edited from one page. I want to be able to check if there were edits made to the main text if cancel is clicked. Currently I get the value of the text from the database during the ajax call, json_encode it, then store it in a javascript variable during the callback, to be checked against later. When cancel is clicked the current value of the hidden textarea (used by tinymce to store the data for submission) is grabbed using jquery.val() and checked against the stored value from the previous ajax call like this: if(stored_value!=textarea.val()) { return true } It currently always returns true, even if no changes have been made. The issue seems to be that the textarea.val() uses html entities, whereas the ajax jsoned version doesn't. the response from ajax in firebug looks like this: <p>some text<\/p>\r\n<p>some more text<\/p> the textarea source code looks like this: &lt;p&gt;some text&lt;/p&gt; &lt;p&gt;some more text&lt;/p&gt; these are obviously different, but how can I get them to be treated as the same when evaluated? Is there a function that compares the final output of a string or a way to convert one string to the other using javascript? I tried using html entities in the ajax page, but this returned the string with html entities intact when alerted, I assume because json_encoding it turned them into characters. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How to use function to connect to database and how to work with queries?

    - by Abhilash Shukla
    I am using functions to work with database.. Now the way i have defined the functions are as follows:- /** * Database definations */ define ('db_type', 'MYSQL'); define ('db_host', 'localhost'); define ('db_port', '3306'); define ('db_name', 'database'); define ('db_user', 'root'); define ('db_pass', 'password'); define ('db_table_prefix', ''); /** * Database Connect */ function db_connect($host = db_host, $port = db_port, $username = db_user, $password = db_pass, $database = db_name) { if(!$db = @mysql_connect($host.':'.$port, $username, $password)) { return FALSE; } if((strlen($database) > 0) AND (!@mysql_select_db($database, $db))) { return FALSE; } // set the correct charset encoding mysql_query('SET NAMES \'utf8\''); mysql_query('SET CHARACTER_SET \'utf8\''); return $db; } /** * Database Close */ function db_close($identifier) { return mysql_close($identifier); } /** * Database Query */ function db_query($query, $identifier) { return mysql_query($query, $identifier); } Now i want to know whether it is a good way to do this or not..... Also, while database connect i am using $host = db_host Is it ok? Secondly how i can use these functions, these all code is in my FUNCTIONS.php The Database Definitions and also the Database Connect... will it do the needful for me... Using these functions how will i be able to connect to database and using the query function... how will i able to execute a query? VERY IMPORTANT: How can i make mysql to mysqli, is it can be done by just adding an 'i' to mysql....Like:- @mysql_connect @mysqli_connect

    Read the article

  • Temporary non-const istream reference in constructor (C++)

    - by Christopher Bruns
    It seems that a constructor that takes a non-const reference to an istream cannot be constructed with a temporary value in C++. #include <iostream> #include <sstream> using namespace std; class Bar { public: explicit Bar(std::istream& is) {} }; int main() { istringstream stream1("bar1"); Bar bar1(stream1); // OK on all platforms // compile error on linux, Mac gcc; OK on Windows MSVC Bar bar2(istringstream("bar2")); return 0; } This compiles fine with MSVC, but not with gcc. Using gcc I get a compile error: g++ test.cpp -o test test.cpp: In function ‘int main()’: test.cpp:18: error: no matching function for call to ‘Bar::Bar(std::istringstream)’ test.cpp:9: note: candidates are: Bar::Bar(std::istream&) test.cpp:7: note: Bar::Bar(const Bar&) Is there something philosophically wrong with the second way (bar2) of constructing a Bar object? It looks nicer to me, and does not require that stream1 variable that is only needed for a moment.

    Read the article

  • can't increment Glib::ustring::iterator (getting "invalid lvalue in increment" compiler error)

    - by davka
    in the following code: int utf8len(char* s, int len) { Glib::ustring::iterator p( string::iterator(s) ); Glib::ustring::iterator e ( string::iterator(s+len) ); int i=0; for (; p != e; p++) // ERROR HERE! i++; return i; } I get the compiler error on the for line, which is sometimes "invalid lvalue in increment", and sometimes "ISO C++ forbids incrementing a pointer of type etc... ". Yet, the follwing code: int utf8len(char* s) { Glib::ustring us(s); int i=0; for (Glib::ustring::iterator p = us.begin(); p != us.end(); p++) i++; return i; } compiles and works fine. according the Glib::ustring documentation and the include file, ustring iterator can be constructed from std::string iterator, and has operator++() defined. Weird? BONUS QUESTION :) Is there a difference in C++ between the 2 ways of defining a variable: classname ob1( initval ); classname ob1 = initval; I believed that they are synonymous; yet, if I change Glib::ustring::iterator p( string::iterator(s) ); to Glib::ustring::iterator p = string::iterator(s); I get a compiler error (gcc 4.1.2) conversion from ‘__gnu_cxx::__normal_iterator, std::allocator ’ to non-scalar type ‘Glib::ustring_Iterator<__gnu_cxx::__normal_iterator, std::allocator ’ requesed thanks a lot!

    Read the article

  • convincing C# compiler that execution will stop after a member returns

    - by Sarah Vessels
    I don't think this is currently possible or if it's even a good idea, but it's something I was thinking about just now. I use MSTest for unit testing my C# project. In one of my tests, I do the following: MyClass instance; try { instance = getValue(); } catch (MyException ex) { Assert.Fail("Caught MyException"); } instance.doStuff(); // Use of unassigned local variable 'instance' To make this code compile, I have to assign a value to instance either at its declaration or in the catch block. However, Assert.Fail will never, to the best of my knowledge, allow execution to proceed past it, hence instance will never be used without a value. Why is it then that I must assign a value to it? If I change the Assert.Fail to something like throw ex, the code compiles fine, I assume because it knows that exception will disallow execution to proceed to a point where instance would be used uninitialized. So is it a case of runtime versus compile-time knowledge about where execution will be allowed to proceed? Would it ever be reasonable for C# to have some way of saying that a member, in this case Assert.Fail, will never allow execution after it returns? Maybe that could be in the form of a method attribute. Would this be useful or an unnecessary complexity for the compiler?

    Read the article

  • warning: assignment makes pointer from integer without a cast

    - by FILIaS
    Im new in programming c with arrays and files. Im just trying to run the following code but i get warnings like that: warning: assignment makes pointer from integer without a cast Any help? It might be silly... but I cant find what's wrong. FILE *fp; FILE *cw; char filename_game[40],filename_words[40]; int main() { while(1) { /* Input filenames. */ printf("\n Enter the name of the file with the cryptwords array: \n"); gets(filename_game); printf("\n Give the name of the file with crypted words:\n"); gets(filename_words); /* Try to open the file with the game */ if (fp=fopen("crypt.txt","r")!=NULL) { printf("\n Successful opening %s \n",filename_game); fclose(fp); puts("\n Enter x to exit,any other to continue! \n "); if ( (getc(stdin))=='x') break; else continue; } else { fprintf(stderr,"ERROR!%s \n",filename_game); puts("\n Enter x to exit,any other to continue! \n"); if (getc(stdin)=='x') break; else continue; } /* Try to open the file with the names. */ if (cw=fopen("words.txt","r")!=NULL) { printf("\n Successful opening %s \n",filename_words); fclose(cw); puts("\n Enter x to exit,any other to continue \n "); if ( (getc(stdin))=='x') break; else continue; } else { fprintf(stderr,"ERROR!%s \n",filename_words); puts("\n Enter x to exit,any other to continue! \n"); if (getc(stdin)=='x') break; else continue; } } return 0; }

    Read the article

  • If Then Else Statement Condition Being Ignored?

    - by Matma
    I think im going mad but can some show me what im missing, it must be some stupidly simple i just cant see the wood for the trees. BOTH side of this if then else statement are being executed? Ive tried commenting out the true side and moving the condition to a seperate variable with the same result. However if i explicitly set the condition to 1=0 or 1=1 then the if then statement is operating as i would expect. i.e. only executing one side of the equation... The only time ive seen this sort of thing is when the compiler has crashed and is no longer compiling (without visible indication that its not) but ive restarted studio with the same results, ive cleaned the solution, built and rebuilt with no change? please show me the stupid mistake im making using vs2005 if it matters. Dim dset As DataSet = New DataSet If (CboCustomers.SelectedValue IsNot Nothing) AndAlso (CboCustomers.SelectedValue <> "") Then Dim Sql As String = "Select sal.SalesOrderNo As SalesOrder,cus.CustomerName,has.SerialNo, convert(varchar,sal.Dateofpurchase,103) as Date from [dbo].[Customer_Table] as cus " & _ " inner join [dbo].[Hasp_table] as has on has.CustomerID=cus.CustomerTag " & _ " inner join [dbo].[salesorder_table] as sal On sal.Hasp_ID =has.Hasp_ID Where cus.CustomerTag = '" & CboCustomers.SelectedValue.ToString & "'" Dim dap As SqlDataAdapter = New SqlDataAdapter(Sql, FormConnection) dap.Fill(dset, "dbo.Customer_Table") DGCustomer.DataSource = dset.Tables("dbo.Customer_Table") Else Dim erm As String = "wtf" End If

    Read the article

  • Why isn't this simple PHP/MySQL code working?

    - by Sammy
    I am very new to php/mysql and this is causing me to loose hairs, I am trying to build a multi level site navigation. In this part of my script I am readying the sub and parent categories coming from a form for insertion into the database: // get child categories $catFields = $_POST['categories']; if (is_array($catFields)) { $categories = $categories; for ($i=0; $i<count($catFields); $i++) { $categories = $categories . $catFields[$i]"; } } // get parent category $select = mysql_query ("SELECT parent FROM categories WHERE id = $categories"); while ($return = mysql_fetch_assoc($select)) { $parentId = $return['parent']; } The first part of my script works fine, it grabs all the categories that the user has chosen to assign a post by checking the checkboxes in a form and readies it for insertion into the database. But the second part does not work and I can't understand why. I am trying to match a category with a parent that is stored in it's own table, but it returns nothing even though the categories all have parents. Can anyone tell me why this is? p.s. The $categories variable contains the sub category id.

    Read the article

  • Problems with utf-8 encoding in php

    - by Addsy
    Hi, Another utf-8 related problem I believe... I am using php to update data in a mysql db then display that data elsewhere in the site. Previously I have run into utf-8 problems before where special characters are displayed as question marks when viewed in a browser but this one seems slightly different. I have a number of records to enter that contain the è character. If I enter this directly in the db then it appears correctly on the page so I take this to mean that utf-8 content is being output correctly. However when I try and update the values in the db through php, then the è character is replaced. What appears instead is & Atilde ; & uml ; (without the spaces) which appears in the browser as è I have the tables in the database set to use UTF-8. I believe this is correct cos, as mentioned, if I update the db through phpMyAdmin, its all ok. Similarly I have set the character encoding for the page which seems to be correct. I am also running the sql statement "SET NAMES 'utf8';" before trying to update the db. Anyone have any other ideas as to where the problem may lie? Many thanks

    Read the article

  • mod_python req.subprocess_env not "seeing" PythonOptions

    - by Brandon
    I'm having trouble getting an environmental variable out of apache config. (don't ask why it's being done this way, I didn't originally code it) This is what I have in the apache config. <Location "/var/www"> SetHandler python-program PythonHandler mod_python.publisher PythonOption MYSQL_PWD ########### PythonDebug On </Location> This is the problem code... #this is the problem code in question. def index(req): req.add_common_vars() os.environ["MYSQL_PWD"] = req.subprocess_env["MYSQL_PWD"] req.content_type = "text/html" statText = getStatText() here is the traceback I'm getting from executing this. Traceback (most recent call last): File "/usr/lib/python2.5/site-packages/mod_python/importer.py", line 1537, in HandlerDispatch default=default_handler, arg=req, silent=hlist.silent) File "/usr/lib/python2.5/site-packages/mod_python/importer.py", line 1229, in _process_target result = _execute_target(config, req, object, arg) File "/usr/lib/python2.5/site-packages/mod_python/importer.py", line 1128, in _execute_target result = object(arg) File "/usr/lib/python2.5/site-packages/mod_python/publisher.py", line 213, in handler published = publish_object(req, object) File "/usr/lib/python2.5/site-packages/mod_python/publisher.py", line 425, in publish_object return publish_object(req,util.apply_fs_data(object, req.form, req=req)) File "/usr/lib/python2.5/site-packages/mod_python/util.py", line 554, in apply_fs_data return object(**args) File "/var/www/admin/Stat.py", line 299, in index os.environ["MYSQL_PWD"] = req.subprocess_env["MYSQL_PWD"] KeyError: 'MYSQL_PWD'

    Read the article

  • database design suggestion needed

    - by JMSA
    I need to design a table for daily sales of pharmaceutical products. There are hundreds of types of products available {Name, code}. Thousands of sales-persons are employed to sell those products{name, code}. They collect products from different depots{name, code}. They work in different Areas - Zones - Markets - Outlets, etc. {All have names and codes} Each product has various types of prices {Production Price, Trade Price, Business Price, Discount Price, etc.}. And, sales-persons are free to choose from those combination to estimate the sales price. The problem is, daily sales requires huge amount of data-entry. Within couple of years there may be gigabytes of data (if not terabytes). If I need to show daily, weekly, monthly, quarterly and yearly sales reports there will be various types of sql queries I shall need. This is my initial design: Product {ID, Code, Name, IsActive} ProductXYZPriceHistory {ID, ProductID, Date, EffectDate, Price, IsCurrent} SalesPerson {ID, Code, Name, JoinDate, and so on..., IsActive} SalesPersonSalesAraeaHistory {ID, SalesPersonID, SalesAreaID, IsCurrent} Depot {ID, Code, Name, IsActive} Outlet {ID, Code, Name, AreaID, IsActive} AreaHierarchy {ID, Code, Name, PrentID, AreaLevel, IsActive} DailySales {ID, ProductID, SalesPersonID, OutletID, Date, PriceID, SalesPrice, Discount, etc...} Now, apart from indexing, how can I normalize my DailySales table to have a fine grained design that I shall not need to change for years to come? Please show me a sample design of only the DailySales data-entry table (from which all types of reports would be queried) on the basis of above information. I don't need a detailed design advice. I just need an advice regarding only the DailySales table. Is there any way to break this particular table to achieve granularity?

    Read the article

  • Algorithm(s) for rearranging simple symbolic algebraic expressions

    - by Gabe Johnson
    Hi, I would like to know if there is a straightforward algorithm for rearranging simple symbolic algebraic expressions. Ideally I would like to be able to rewrite any such expression with one variable alone on the left hand side. For example, given the input: m = (x + y) / 2 ... I would like to be able to ask about x in terms of m and y, or y in terms of x and m, and get these: x = 2*m - y y = 2*m - x Of course we've all done this algorithm on paper for years. But I was wondering if there was a name for it. It seems simple enough but if somebody has already cataloged the various "gotchas" it would make life easier. For my purposes I won't need it to handle quadratics. (And yes, CAS systems do this, and yes I know I could just use them as a library. I would like to avoid such a dependency in my application. I really would just like to know if there are named algorithms for approaching this problem.)

    Read the article

  • Uninitialized array offset

    - by kimmothy16
    Hey everyone, I am using PHP to create a form with an array of fields. Basically you can add an unlimited number of 'people' to the form and each person has a first name, last name, and phone number. The form requires that you add a phone number for the first person only. If you leave the phone number field blank on any others, the handler file is supposed to be programmed to use the phone number from the first person. So, my fields are: person[] - a hidden field with a value that is this person's primary key. fname[] - an input field lname[] - an input field phone[] - an input field My form handler looks like this: $people = $_POST['person'] $counter = 0; foreach($people as $person): if($phone[$counter] == '') { // use $phone[0]'s phone number } else { // use $phone[$counter] number } $counter = $counter + 1; endforeach; PHP doesn't like this though, it is throwing me an Notice: Uninitialized string offset error. I debugged it by running the is_array function on people, fname, lname, and phone and it returns true to being an array. I can also manually echo out $phone[2], etc. and get the correct value. I've also ran is_int on the $counter variable and it returned true, so I'm unsure why this isn't working as intended? Any help would be great!

    Read the article

  • Anonymous union definition/declaration in a macro GNU vs VS2008

    - by Alan_m
    I am attempting to alter an IAR specific header file for a lpc2138 so it can compile with Visual Studio 2008 (to enable compatible unit testing). My problem involves converting register definitions to be hardware independent (not at a memory address) The "IAR-safe macro" is: #define __IO_REG32_BIT(NAME, ADDRESS, ATTRIBUTE, BIT_STRUCT) \ volatile __no_init ATTRIBUTE union \ { \ unsigned long NAME; \ BIT_STRUCT NAME ## _bit; \ } @ ADDRESS //declaration //(where __gpio0_bits is a structure that names //each of the 32 bits as P0_0, P0_1, etc) __IO_REG32_BIT(IO0PIN,0xE0028000,__READ_WRITE,__gpio0_bits); //usage IO0PIN = 0x0xAA55AA55; IO0PIN_bit.P0_5 = 0; This is my comparable "hardware independent" code: #define __IO_REG32_BIT(NAME, BIT_STRUCT)\ volatile union \ { \ unsigned long NAME; \ BIT_STRUCT NAME##_bit; \ } NAME; //declaration __IO_REG32_BIT(IO0PIN,__gpio0_bits); //usage IO0PIN.IO0PIN = 0xAA55AA55; IO0PIN.IO0PIN_bit.P0_5 = 1; This compiles and works but quite obviously my "hardware independent" usage does not match the "IAR-safe" usage. How do I alter my macro so I can use IO0PIN the same way I do in IAR? I feel this is a simple anonymous union matter but multiple attempts and variants have proven unsuccessful. Maybe the IAR GNU compiler supports anonymous unions and vs2008 does not. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Need to call original function from detoured function

    - by peachykeen
    I'm using Detours to hook into an executable's message function, but I need to run my own code and then call the original code. From what I've seen in the Detours docs, it definitely sounds like that should happen automatically. The original function prints a message to the screen, but as soon as I attach a detour it starts running my code and stops printing. The original function code is roughly: void CGuiObject::AppendMsgToBuffer(classA, unsigned long, unsigned long, int, classB); My function is: void CGuiObject_AppendMsgToBuffer( [same params, with names] ); I know the memory position the original function resides in, so using: DWORD OrigPos = 0x0040592C; DetourAttach( (void*)OrigPos, CGuiObject_AppendMsgToBuffer); gets me into the function. This code works almost perfectly: my function is called with the proper parameters. However, execution leaves my function and the original code is not called. I've tried jmping back in, but that crashes the program (I'm assuming the code Detours moved to fit the hook is responsible for the crash). Edit: I've managed to fix the first issue, with no returning to program execution. By calling the OrigPos value as a function, I'm able to go to the "trampoline" function and from there on to the original code. However, somewhere along the lines the registers are changing and that is causing the program to crash with a segfault as soon as I get back into the original code.

    Read the article

  • pointer-to-pointer of derived class in multiple inheritance

    - by Abdul jalil
    i have 3 classes A,B and C. C is derived from A and B. i get pointer to pointer of class C and cast to A** , and B ** , the variable that hold the the B** has the address of A** in my example B ** BdoublePtr hold the address of A** .i am using the following code #include "conio.h" #include "stdio.h" #include "string.h" class A{ public: A() { strA=new char[30]; strcpy(strA,"class A"); } char *strA; }; class B { public: B() { strB=new char[30]; strcpy(strB,"class B"); } char *strB; }; class C :public A, public B { public: C() { strC=new char[30]; strcpy(strC,"class C"); } char *strC; }; int main(void) { C* ptrC=new C(); A * Aptr=(A*)ptrC; printf("\n class A value : %s",Aptr-strA); B * Bptr=(B*)ptrC; printf("\n class B value :%s",Bptr-strB); printf("\n\nnow with double pointer "); A ** AdoublePtr=(A **)&ptrC; Aptr=AdoublePtr; printf("\n class A value : %s",Aptr-strA); B * BdoublePtr=(B **)&ptrC; Bptr=*BdoublePtr; printf("\n class B value : %s",Bptr-strB); getch(); return 0; }

    Read the article

  • Maximizing the number of true concurrent / parrallel http requests in Silverlight

    - by Clems
    Hi all. I'm using SL 4 beta and my app needs to do a lot of small http requests to the server. I believe that when exceeding the number of allowed concurrent requests, the subsequent requests are put in a queue. I am also aware that SL 4 has both a http browser stack and a http client stack, with both different limit in terms of the number of concurrent requests. Let's say call those limits MAX_BROWSER and MAX_CLIENT. Also I think I read somewhere that the number of concurrent requests is limited per domain, not overall. But I'm sure if this applies to both the http client stack. That means that you CAN have MAX_BROWSER requests to domain1.com AND MAX_BROWSER requests to domain2.com at the same time. And I even believe that sub domains are considered different so you can also have MAX_BROWSER requests to domain1.com AND MAX_BROWSER requests to sub.domain1.com at the same time. I have ownership of the services and domain names so I could easily setup sub domains for my services. Given those considerations I'm trying to optimize the number of concurrent http requests to my server. Here are few questions ? Is is possible to use both stack at the same time ? Is the subdomain/domain story true for both stacks ? None ? If so that would mean that I could potentially have a number of concurrent requests equal to : (MAX_BROWSER + MAX_CLIENT) * NUMBER_OF_DOMAINS which would be fairly good. Is this correct ? I'm kind of sharing my morning thoughts here, hoping somebody has experimented with those things. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Javascript Object.Watch for all browsers?

    - by SeanW
    Hey all, I was looking for an easy way to monitor an object or variable for changes, and I found Object.Watch that's supported in Mozilla browsers, but not IE. So I started searching around to see if anyone had written some sort of equivalent. About the only thing I've found has been a jQuery plugin (http://plugins.jquery.com/files/jquery-watch.js.txt), but I'm not sure if that's the best way to go. I certainly use jQuery in most of my projects, so I'm not worried about the jQuery aspect... Anyway, the question: can someone show me a working example of that jQuery plugin? I'm having problems making it work... Or, does anyone know of any better alternatives that would work cross browser? Thanks! Update after answers: Thanks everyone for the responses! I tried out the code posted here: http://webreflection.blogspot.com/2009/01/internet-explorer-object-watch.html But I couldn't seem to make it work with IE. The code below works fine in FireFox, but does nothing in IE. In Firefox, each time watcher.status is changed, the document.write in watcher.watch is called and you can see the output on the page. In IE, that doesn't happen, but I can see that watcher.status is updating the value, because the last document.write shows the correct value (in both IE and FF). But, if the callback function isn't called, then that's kind of pointless... :) Am I missing something? var options = {'status': 'no status'}, watcher = createWatcher(options); watcher.watch("status", function(prop, oldValue, newValue) { document.write("old: " + oldValue + ", new: " + newValue + "<br>"); return newValue; }); watcher.status = 'asdf'; watcher.status = '1234'; document.write(watcher.status + "<br>");

    Read the article

  • What's a good plugin or guide I can use to create javascript widgets from a Rails App?

    - by nicosuria
    I've been looking around for a while now and the best guide I've seen so far is Dr Nic's DIY widgets how to (here). I haven't been able to make something like this work: Assuming this is my widget code: <script src="http://mysite/nomnoms.js"> </script> And my nomnoms controller looks like (assume that the list partial exists and simply lists down a link to the show page of each nomnom in the @nomnoms variable): class NomnomsController < ApplicationController def index @nomnoms = Nomnom.find(:all) @content = render_to_string(:partial => 'list') end end And in the index.js of my nomnoms_controller I have: page << "document.write('<div>'" page << "document.write('#{@content.to_json}')" page << "</div>" The above setup doesn't render anything :(. But when I change the second line of index.js to: page << "document.write('nomnoms should be here') ...the widget renders the text. Any help or even a point in the right direction would be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Why do I get CA1806 when I catch exception in C++/CLI?

    - by brickner
    I've recently upgraded my project from Visual Studio 2008 to Visual Studio 2010. By enabling Code Analysis and compiling in Release, I'm getting warning CA1806: Do not ignore method results. I've managed to reduce the code that produces the warning to this code: .h file: public ref class Foo { public: void Bar(); }; .cpp file: void Foo::Bar() { try { } catch (const std::exception&) // here I get the warning { } } the warning: CA1806 : Microsoft.Usage : 'Foo::Bar(void)' calls 'Global::__CxxRegisterExceptionObject(void*, void*)' but does not use the HRESULT or error code that the method returns. This could lead to unexpected behavior in error conditions or low-resource situations. Use the result in a conditional statement, assign the result to a variable, or pass it as an argument to another method. If I try to use the exception value or do catch(...) the warning still appears. If I catch managed exceptions instead or compile in Debug I don't get the warning. Why do I get this warning? UPDATE I've decided to open a bug report on Microsoft Connect.

    Read the article

  • MEF GetExports<T, TMetaDataView> returning nothing with AllowMultiple = True

    - by sohum
    I don't understand MEF very well, so hopefully this is a simple fix of how I think it works. I'm trying to use MEF to get some information about a class and how it should be used. I'm using the Metadata options to try to achieve this. My interfaces and attribute looks like this: public interface IMyInterface { } public interface IMyInterfaceInfo { Type SomeProperty1 { get; } double SomeProperty2 { get; } string SomeProperty3 { get; } } [MetadataAttribute] [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Class, AllowMultiple = true)] public class ExportMyInterfaceAttribute : ExportAttribute, IMyInterfaceInfo { public ExportMyInterfaceAttribute(Type someProperty1, double someProperty2, string someProperty3) : base(typeof(IMyInterface)) { SomeProperty1 = someProperty1; SomeProperty2 = someProperty2; SomeProperty3 = someProperty3; } public Type SomeProperty1 { get; set; } public double SomeProperty2 { get; set; } public string SomeProperty3 { get; set; } } The class that is decorated with the attribute looks like this: [ExportMyInterface(typeof(string), 0.1, "whoo data!")] [ExportMyInterface(typeof(int), 0.4, "asdfasdf!!")] public class DecoratedClass : IMyInterface { } The method that is trying to use the import looks like this: private void SomeFunction() { // CompositionContainer is an instance of CompositionContainer var myExports = CompositionContainer.GetExports<IMyInterface, IMyInterfaceInfo>(); } In my case myExports is always empty. In my CompositionContainer, I have a Part in my catalog that has two ExportDefinitions, both with the following ContractName: "MyNamespace.IMyInterface". The Metadata is also loaded correctly per my exports. If I remove the AllowMultiple setter and only include one exported attribute, the myExports variable now has the single export with its loaded metadata. What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Allowing Google to bypass CAPTCHA verification - sensible or not?

    - by edanfalls
    My web site has a database lookup; filling out a CAPTCHA gives you 5 minutes of lookup time. There is also some custom code to detect any automated scripts. I do this as I don't want someone data mining my site. The problem is that Google does not see the lookup results when it crawls my site. If someone is searching for a string that is present in the result of a lookup, I would like them to find this page by Googling it. The obvious solution to me is to use the PHP variable $_SERVER['HTTP_USER_AGENT'] to bypass the CAPTCHA and custom security code for the Google bots. My question is whether this is sensible or not. People could then use Google's cache to view the lookup results without having to fill out the CAPTCHA, but would Google's own script detection methods prevent them from data mining these pages? Or would there be some way for people to make $_SERVER['HTTP_USER_AGENT'] appear as Google to bypass the security measures? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • vb.net documentation and exception question

    - by dcp
    Let's say I have this sub in vb.net: ''' <summary> ''' Validates that <paramref name="value"/> is not <c>null</c>. ''' </summary> ''' ''' <param name="value">The object to validate.</param> ''' ''' <param name="name">The variable name of the object.</param> ''' ''' <exception cref="ArgumentNullException">If <paramref name="value"/> is <c>null</c>.</exception> Sub ValidateNotNull(ByVal value As Object, ByVal name As String) If value Is Nothing Then Throw New ArgumentNullException(name, String.Format("{0} cannot be null.", name)) End If End Sub My question is, is it proper to call this ValidateNotNull (which is what I would call it in C#) or should I stick with VB terminology and call it ValidateNotNothing instead? Also, in my exception, is it proper to say "cannot be null", or would it be better to say "cannot be Nothing"? I sort of like the way I have it, but since this is VB, maybe I should use Nothing. But since the exception itself is called ArgumentNullException, it feels weird to make the message say "cannot be Nothing". Anyway, I guess it's pretty nitkpicky, just wondered what you folks thought.

    Read the article

  • More FP-correct way to create an update sql query

    - by James Black
    I am working on access a database using F# and my initial attempt at creating a function to create the update query is flawed. let BuildUserUpdateQuery (oldUser:UserType) (newUser:UserType) = let buf = new System.Text.StringBuilder("UPDATE users SET "); if (oldUser.FirstName.Equals(newUser.FirstName) = false) then buf.Append("SET first_name='").Append(newUser.FirstName).Append("'" ) |> ignore if (oldUser.LastName.Equals(newUser.LastName) = false) then buf.Append("SET last_name='").Append(newUser.LastName).Append("'" ) |> ignore if (oldUser.UserName.Equals(newUser.UserName) = false) then buf.Append("SET username='").Append(newUser.UserName).Append("'" ) |> ignore buf.Append(" WHERE id=").Append(newUser.Id).ToString() This doesn't properly put a , between any update parts after the first, for example: UPDATE users SET first_name='Firstname', last_name='lastname' WHERE id=... I could put in a mutable variable to keep track when the first part of the set clause is appended, but that seems wrong. I could just create an list of tuples, where each tuple is oldtext, newtext, columnname, so that I could then loop through the list and build up the query, but it seems that I should be passing in a StringBuilder to a recursive function, returning back a boolean which is then passed as a parameter to the recursive function. Does this seem to be the best approach, or is there a better one?

    Read the article

  • Should I release NSString before assigning a new value to it?

    - by Elliot Chen
    Hi, Please give me some suggestions about how to change a NSString variable. At my class, I set a member var: NSString *m_movieName; ... @property(nonatomic, retain) NSString *m_movieName; At viewDidLoad method, I assign a default name to this var: -(void)viewDidLoad{ NSString *s1 = [[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"Forrest Gump"]; self.m_movieName = s1; ... [s1 release]; [super viewDidLoad] } At some function, I want to give a new name to this var, so I did like: -(void)SomeFunc{ NSString *s2 = [[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"Brave Heart"]; //[self.movieName release]; // ??????? Should perform here? self.m_moiveName = s2; [s2 release]; } I know, NSString* var is just a pointer to an allocated memory block, and 'assign' operation will increment this memory block's using count. For my situation, should I release m_movieName before assigning a value to it? If I do not release it (via [self.movieName release]), when and where will the previous block be released? Thanks for your help very much!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 574 575 576 577 578 579 580 581 582 583 584 585  | Next Page >