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• Possible to direct naked domain to external IP

  - by Luke

  So I found this post: configure Bind to have a custom domain on tumblr and I was trying to ask a related question: Would it be possible to set up an A record pointing traffic to domain.com to Tumblr and feed.domain.com to the IP address of my choice? In other words, by setting up a naked domain A record to Tumblr's IP, will I inherently lose traffic to feed.domain.com? Can I write another A record for the specific subdomains I want to point to my server? I hope this makes sense.

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• Exchange\AD Authentication Using Alternate Email Domain

  - by Aaron Wurthmann

  I did this once. I can't recall how to do it anymore AND/OR it works differently in Windows 2008 than it did in Windows 2003. I recall it being an Exchange hosting feature. I would like users to login with their email addresses instead of only with their domain name. EXAMPLE: User: John Doe User logon name: [email protected] User logon name (pre-Windows 2000): DOMAIN\jdoe E-mail: [email protected] I would like for jdoe to be able to login as [email protected]

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• Replacing a W2K3 Domain Controller - what do I need to know?

  - by Marko Carter

  I have a network of around 70 machines, currently with two DCs both running Windows Server 2003 (DC0 & DC1). DC0 is a five year old Poweredge 1850 and has recently become increasingly flakey, and in the past fortnight has fallen over twice. I want to replace this machine, but I'm cautious as there is huge scope for this sort of thing to go wrong. The way I imagine doing this is building a new machine then doing a DCPROMO and running three domain controllers for a month or so until I'm happy that everything is working as it should be before retiring the old machine. Particular areas of concern are the replication of roles from the current controllers (GP settings for instance) and the ramifications of switching off the machine that has, up until now, been the 'primary'. If there are compelling reasons to use Server 2008 I'm willing to do so, however I don't know if this would cause problems with my exisiting 2003 machines. Any advice on best practice or previous experiences would be most welcome.

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• How to get rid of messages addressed to not existing subdomains?

  - by user71061

  Hi! I have small problem with my sendmail server and need your little help :-) My situation is as follow: User mailboxes are placed on MS exchanege server and all mail to and from outside world are relayed trough my sendmail box. Exchange server ----- sendmail server ------ Internet My servers accept messages for one main domain (say, my.domain.com) and for few other domains (let we narrow it too just one, say my_other.domain.com). After configuring sendmail with showed bellow abbreviated sendmail.mc file, essentially everything works ok, but there is small problem. I want to reject messages addressed to not existing recipients as soon as possible (to avoid sending non delivery reports), so my sendmail server make LDAP queries to exchange server, validating every recipient address. This works well both domains but not for subdomains. Such subdomains do not exist, but someone (I'm mean those heated spamers :-) could try addresses like this: user@any_host.my.domain.com or user@any_host.my_other.domain.com and for those addresses results are as follows: Messages to user@sendmail_hostname.my.domain.com are rejected with error "Unknown user" (due to additional LDAPROUTE_DOMAIN line in my sendmail.mc file, and this is expected behaviour) Messages to user@any_other_hostname.my.domain.com are rejected with error "Relaying denied". Little strange to me, why this time the error is different, but still ok. After all message was rejected and I don't care very much what error code will be returned to sender (spamer). Messages to user@sendmail_hostname.my_other.domain.com and user@any_other_hostname.my_other.domain.com are rejected with error "Unknown user" but only when, there is no user@my_other.domain.com mailbox (on exchange server). If such mailbox exist, then all three addresses (i.e. user@my_other.domain.com, user@sendmail_hostname.my_other.domain.com and user@any_other_hostname.my_other.domain.com) will be accepted. (adding additional line LDAPROUTE_DOMAIN(my_sendmail_host.my_other.domain.com) to my sendmail.mc file don't change anything) My abbreviated sendmail.mc file is as follows (sendmail 8.14.3-5). Both domains are listed in /etc/mail/local-host-names file (FEATURE(use_cw_file) ): define(`_USE_ETC_MAIL_')dnl include(`/usr/share/sendmail/cf/m4/cf.m4')dnl OSTYPE(`debian')dnl DOMAIN(`debian-mta')dnl undefine(`confHOST_STATUS_DIRECTORY')dnl define(`confRUN_AS_USER',`smmta:smmsp')dnl FEATURE(`no_default_msa')dnl define(`confPRIVACY_FLAGS',`needmailhelo,needexpnhelo,needvrfyhelo,restrictqrun,restrictexpand,nobodyreturn,authwarnings')dnl FEATURE(`use_cw_file')dnl FEATURE(`access_db', , `skip')dnl FEATURE(`always_add_domain')dnl MASQUERADE_AS(`my.domain.com')dnl FEATURE(`allmasquerade')dnl FEATURE(`masquerade_envelope')dnl dnl define(`confLDAP_DEFAULT_SPEC',`-p 389 -h my_exchange_server.my.domain.com -b dc=my,dc=domain,dc=com')dnl dnl define(`ALIAS_FILE',`/etc/aliases,ldap:-k (&(|(objectclass=user)(objectclass=group))(proxyAddresses=smtp:%0)) -v mail')dnl FEATURE(`ldap_routing',, `ldap -1 -T<TMPF> -v mail -k proxyAddresses=SMTP:%0', `bounce')dnl LDAPROUTE_DOMAIN(`my.domain.com')dnl LDAPROUTE_DOMAIN(`my_other.domain.com ')dnl LDAPROUTE_DOMAIN(`my_sendmail_host.my.domain.com')dnl define(`confLDAP_DEFAULT_SPEC', `-p 389 -h "my_exchange_server.my.domain.com" -d "CN=sendmail,CN=Users,DC=my,DC=domain,DC=com" -M simple -P /etc/mail/ldap-secret -b "DC=my,DC=domain,DC=com"')dnl FEATURE(`nouucp',`reject')dnl undefine(`UUCP_RELAY')dnl undefine(`BITNET_RELAY')dnl define(`confTRY_NULL_MX_LIST',true)dnl define(`confDONT_PROBE_INTERFACES',true)dnl define(`MAIL_HUB',` my_exchange_server.my.domain.com.')dnl FEATURE(`stickyhost')dnl MAILER_DEFINITIONS MAILER(smtp)dnl Could someone more experienced with sendmail advice my how to reject messages to those unwanted subdomains? P.S. Mailboxes @my_other.domain.com are used only for receiving messages and never for sending.

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• PTR Record Troubles

  - by Physikal

  I am having a hell of a time getting our PTR record right. Our current PTR zone looks like this: $ttl 38400 @ IN SOA ns1.domain.com. admin.domain.com. ( 1268669139 10800 3600 604800 38400 ) xxx.xxx.xxx.in-addr.arpa. IN NS ns2.domain.com. xxx.xxx.xxx.in-addr.arpa. IN NS ns1.domain.com. 97 IN PTR mail.domain.com. xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx.in-addr.arpa. IN PTR mail.domain.com. 97.96/28. IN PTR mail.domain.com For some reason the only thing that works is the 97.96/28. When this line is in there it actually says I have a PTR record when reporting from intodns.com. If I remove that line, it says I have no PTR. I have followed instructions from http://www.philchen.com/2007/04/04/configuring-reverse-dns and when I follow those instructions intodns.com says I have no PTR. When it does work with the line 97.96/28., the PTR kicks back as (from intodns.com) : 97.xxx.xxx.xxx.in-addr.arpa -> mail.domain.com.xxx.xxx.xxx.in-addr.arpa Which is, to my knowledge, an incorrect PTR. I want it to just kick back as mail.domain.com, without the xxx.xxx.xxx.in-addr.arpa extension. I have tried everything I can think of but I can't fix it. I can't help but think it's one of those things that is so stupid and simple I'm going to do the ol'facepalm. Any help is greatly appreciated. Thanks! In the event that the domain zone is needed, here it is: $ttl 38400 @ IN SOA domain.com. [email protected]. ( 1265221037 10800 3600 604800 38400 ) domain.com. IN A xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx www.domain.com. IN A xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx ftp.domain.com. IN A xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx m.domain.com. IN A xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx localhost.domain.com. IN A 127.0.0.1 webmail.domain.com. IN A xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx admin.domain.com. IN A xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx mail.domain.com. IN A xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx domain.com. IN MX 5 mail.domain.com. domain.com. IN TXT "v=spf1 a mx a:domain.com ip4:xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx ?all" domain.com. IN NS ns1 domain.com. IN NS ns2 ns1 IN A xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx ns2 IN A xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx Any double entries in different formats were part of my troubleshooting process.

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• How to get two seperate remote domain controllers with same IP to work?

  - by Mr. Mister

  Hi, I have a VPN setup between multiple locations. Between each location and the central point (me), is a trust between our domain controllers. It all works great.. A new location wants to join, but their AD controller is using an IP address that is already in use by another AD in a separate location. Neither locations can change their IP addresses, but apparently there is a NAT rule that could be used to allow communication between each AD controller? The central site has a Cisco 5510 firewall which could perform the NAT, but I am unsure of the logic behind the NAT rule. Is anyone able to explain or help out? Thanks.

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• How the heck is http://to./ a valid domain name?

  - by Chris

  Apparently it's a URL shortener. It resolves just fine in Chrome and Firefox. How is this a valid top-level domain? Update: for the people saying it's browser shenanigans, why is it that: http://com./ does not take me to: http://www.com/? And, do browsers ever send you a response from some place other than what's actually up in the address bar? Aside from framesets and things like that, I thought browsers tried really hard to send you content only from the site in the address bar, to help guard against phishing.

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• Permissions required to look up a domain user's group memberships

  - by adrianbanks

  I am writing some code to look up the members of particular domain groups. Does the user that this application runs as need any particular permissions on the domain to get this information? Background: I have already determined that the application needs to be run as a domain user to be able to query information from the domain. I have a list of group names and for each group, I need to look up the members of that group on the domain and get their names/usernames.

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• Enabling Remote Desktop across different domain

  - by Sriram

  Have a system with Win8 within Domain A and remote has been enabled in that. Users from Domain A are able to login reomtely using admin credentials. how ever using the same credentials users from Domain B Domain C & Domain D are not able to login. Is there any setting that needs to be done so that users from other 3 domains are able to access the system either using the system admin account or using their login (added in remote desktop users account in the remote machine) Any suggestion will be helpful

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• Adding a W2008 Authenticating Server to existing W2003 Domain?

  - by spelk

  I have an existing W2003 Domain, simple setup with one DC and a SQL Server (approx 100 users). There are issues with Windows 7 Clients and login scripts and we're now seeing much greater numbers of Windows 7 users turning up as they upgrade their PC/Laptops. What I want to do, is add another Server with W2008 on it, and authenticate the Windows 7 Clients - but leave the W2003 server running as is - to prevent disruption to the network and the existing WinXP users. Is it possible? Any advice as to how do this, without major disruption to the W2003 network?

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• Object reference not set to an instance of an object- Linked List Example

  - by Zoro Roronoa

  I am seeing following errors : Object reference not set to an instance of an object! Check to determinate if the object is null before calling the method! I'am new with C#,and I made a program for Sorted Linked Lists. Here is the code where the error comes! public void Insert(double data) { Link newLink = new Link(data); Link current = first; Link previous = null; if (first == null) { first = newLink; } else { while (data > current.DData && current != null) { previous = current; current = current.Next; } previous.Next = newLink; newLink.Next = current; } } It says that the current referenc is null while (data current.DData && current != null), but I assigned it current = first; Please Help ! The rest is the complete code of the Program! class Link { double dData; Link next=null; public Link Next { get { return next; } set { next = value; } } public double DData { get { return dData; } set { dData = value; } } public Link(double dData) { this.dData = dData; } public void DisplayLink() { Console.WriteLine("Link : "+ dData); } } class SortedList { Link first; public SortedList() { first = null; } public bool IsEmpty() { return (this.first == null); } public void Insert(double data) { Link newLink = new Link(data); Link current = first; Link previous = null; if (first == null) { first = newLink; } else { while (data > current.DData && current != null) { previous = current; current = current.Next; } previous.Next = newLink; newLink.Next = current; } } public Link Remove() { Link temp = first; first = first.Next; return temp; } public void DisplayList() { Link current; current = first; Console.WriteLine("Display the List!"); while (current != null) { current.DisplayLink(); current = current.Next; } } } class SortedListApp { public void TestSortedList() { SortedList newList = new SortedList(); newList.Insert(20); newList.Insert(22); newList.Insert(100); newList.Insert(1000); newList.Insert(15); newList.Insert(11); newList.DisplayList(); newList.Remove(); newList.DisplayList(); } }

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• htaccess/cPanel 301 redirects not working for add-on domain

  - by Clemens

  I've already looked at many samples and tutorials how to set up those 301 redirects on Apache and can't figure out why only the second one is working: Options +FollowSymlinks RewriteEngine on #doesn't work: RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^old.com$ [OR] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www.old.com$ RewriteRule ^page-still-exists.htm$ "http://www.new.com/new-target-page.htm" [R=301,L] #works: RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^old.com$ [OR] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www.old.com$ RewriteRule ^page-does-no-longer-exist.htm$ "http://www.new.com/" [R=301,L] #works: RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^old.com$ [OR] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www.old.com$ RewriteRule ^folder/otherpage.htm$ "http://www.new.com/" [R=301,L] #works: RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^old.com$ [OR] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www.old.com$ RewriteRule ^/?$ "http://www.new.com/" [R=301,L] #doesn't work: RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^old.com$ [OR] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www.old.com$ RewriteRule ^somepage.htm$ "http://www.old.com/some-page.htm" [R=301,L] I have no idea why only the second one is working. The only difference I can see is, that in the second case the old page does no longer exist on the old domain. But whenever I want to redirect any still existing page from the old domain to the new domain the page on the old domain is still used. Any input is much appreciated because this is slowly driving me crazy :) EDIT: I added the complete htaccess file. EDIT 2: So I removed almost all redirects and currently my htaccess looks like this: Options +FollowSymlinks RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^old\.com$ [OR] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www\.old\.com$ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ "http\:\/\/www\.new\.com\/$1" [R=301,L] The only redirect that is working is the simple one from old.com to new.com. A redirect like old.com/page.htm to new.com or even new.com/page.htm is not working. And actually I really don't know where this redirect is actually coming from... Can a 301 really be so complicated?

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• 1and1: Unable to host an external domain

  - by Django Reinhardt

  I'm sorry if this isn't the right place for this question, but I'm presently having difficulties with my hosting provider (1and1). Two weeks ago, two of my clients bought hosting from them on my recommendation, but as it turned out, 1and1 are having severe technical difficulties. Right now non of their hosting packages are able to accept ANY external domains. So either you pay the costs of transferring the registrar of your domain, or you use the ugly 1and1 domain name. Not any good for a hosting company of 1and1's reputation! They have been promising me for two weeks that they're going to fix the problem, but as you have probably guessed by now, that hasn't been the case. I would like to know if a) Anyone else is in the same boat as me, and b) If there are other comparably reputable hosting providers that I should consider moving to instead? Very disappointing! :( Note: This is for 1and1 in the UK. I imagine it isn't affecting users in other countries(?) Clarification: 1and1 are unable to accept ANY external domains. That means that even if you update your DNS details on your domain, their system cannot be updated to add your external domain to your account.

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• Forwarding a subdomain to main domain using Godaddy

  - by Ryan Hayes

  I have current blog, which was hosted on Tumblr at http://blog.ryanhayes.net. I'm moving it over to http://ryanhayes.net, and have all the 301 redirects set up for the blog entries to map to my new blog, which is hosted using Godaddy (domain included). When I try to set up a subdomain forward, I'm greeted with a nice 403 Forbidden response (as of this writing, you can see it at http://blog.ryanhayes.net. When I try to ping both the subdomain and domain, they point to the same IP address, so I know blog subdomain has at least switched over to point to the same content. I don't really understand why I would get a 403 Forbidden on the same content that I can see perfectly fine via another domain. Currently, I have a CNAME of blog pointing to @, which is how "www" is set up to forward, so I'm assuming it would do the same thing. My question is what is the proper way to set up my DNS to make the blog subdomain forward to my main domain (301) using the GoDaddy DNS manager? Bonus: What is the background on why I am getting a 403 error the current way? Forbidden You don't have permission to access / on this server. Additionally, a 403 Forbidden error was encountered while trying to use an ErrorDocument to handle the request. UPDATE 12/7/2010 Error on site has been fixed, you can no longer view it from my site.

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• LTS 12.04.1 will not resolve domain.local websites

  - by user108502

  I have done a brand new installation of the Ubuntu server (v12.10) with bind configured to have a dns zone of gdos.local and apache configured for said domain. With a brand new installation of Ubuntu desktop LTS I try to connect to www.gdos.local and all I get is: Server not found Firefox can't find the server at www.gdos.local. Check the address for typing errors such as ww.example.com instead of www.example.com However if I change the domain to gdos.tmp and type in www.gdos.tmp, I get the internal website. If I change it to mybusiness.local , I get the same error message. If I use a Microsoft os, this works fine, all three domains resolve to a webpage. I have searched the internet flat for the past week on dns issues but have not come up with a solution. I have followed instructions from removing dnsmasq to editing like resolv.conf (in some very strange places) and I still have no joy on getting the .local domain extension to work. I can safely say the issue is not with the server but with the desktops because if the issue was server related the Microsoft OS's would not resolve it either. I have done several installs of the desktop in an effort to make sure that I did not break anything while trying to fix this. Please can anyone point to a workable solution for fixing the .local domain extension. Thank you Mark Hollander

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• Issue updating domain name servers from BlueHost to AWS

  - by cowls

  I am trying to migrate my site hosting from bluehost to AWS cloud based service. I have the site up and running on AWS with an elastic IP configured, it loads fine when I specify the IP address in the browser. I have gone into Route 53 on the AWS console and created a "hosted zone" for the domain. I then created a new record set of type "A" using the IP address as the value. I have a domain name registered with bluehost. Ive logged into the bluehost account and updated the domain name servers to point to those specified in Route 53 in the AWS console. When I hit the IP address directly the site loads, however it doesn't load when using the domain name (I get a google chrome oops error page saying page is not found) I've tried using this site: http://dns.squish.net/ to debug but it seems to be giving me the correct results. fizaclegems.com 300 IN A 107.20.209.78 Where 107.20.209.78 matches the elastic IP configured in the AWS console. This is the result it gives for all 4 name servers. Am I missing a step here? Does anyone know what else I should be doing or looking for?

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• Getting expired domain name - most effective route?

  - by kcdwayne

  There is a domain name I have been wanting for years that was used as a parked page (read: cybersquatted) that has entered into WHOIS's redemptionPeriod stage. The domain has been expired for 61 days now - after contacting the Registar, they informed me that it would stay in redemption for 75 days. After which, it would either be sold to resellers, or sent back to the public registry. (I have since sent a followup message requesting the reseller they use.) My question is: What is the best way to proceed? I know there is at least one competitor that would love to have this name, but I'm unsure if they even know it's expiring. I did not tell the Registar the domain in question, as they seem geared towards cybersquatting, and I do not trust them. Domain Front Running sucks. Should I use a backorder service? Should I just take my chances and try to grab it after75 days? I checked an auctionhouse by manually browsing their expired domains - it wasn't there.

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• load Javascript object from file

  - by megapool020

  Hi there, I asked a question in this thread Stackoverflow, and it works perfect. So tnx to all the users who gave me a reply. But now I have a other question. I would like to have the object in a seperate file, so I only need to update the file in stead of the JS file (otherwise it will be very big). I'm using JQUERY. I now looks like this (with all the info in the JS file). IBANInfo is used to fill a selectbox var IBANInfo = { "ccAL":{ countryCode:"AL", countryName:"Albani&euml;", IBANlength:"28", bankFormCode:"0 8n 0 ", accountNum:"0 16 0 " }, "ccAD":{ countryCode:"AD", countryName:"Andorra", IBANlength:"24", bankFormCode:"0 4n 4n", accountNum:"0 12 0 " }, "ccBE":{ countryCode:"BE", countryName:"Belgi&euml;", IBANlength:"16", bankFormCode:"0 3n 0 ", accountNum:"0 7n 2n" } }; //---- then this function is used to build the selectList function createSelect(){ var selectList = ''; var key; selectList += "<option value=''>Kies een land</option>\n"; for (key in IBANInfo) { if (IBANInfo.hasOwnProperty(key)) { var countryInfo = IBANInfo[key]; selectList += "<option value='"+countryInfo.countryCode+"'>"+countryInfo.countryName+"</option>\n"; } } $('#selectBox').html(selectList); } I thought I could do it like this, but I get the message undefined in my selectbox. var IBANInfo = $.get('include/countryCodes.txt'); // also tried var IBANInfo = $.getJSON('include/countryCodes.txt'); //---- then this function is used to build the selectList function createSelect(){ var selectList = ''; var key; selectList += "<option value=''>Kies een land</option>\n"; for (key in IBANInfo) { if (IBANInfo.hasOwnProperty(key)) { var countryInfo = IBANInfo[key]; selectList += "<option value='"+countryInfo.countryCode+"'>"+countryInfo.countryName+"</option>\n"; } } $('#selectBox').html(selectList); } /* the countryCodes.txt file is like this: { "ccAL":{ countryCode:"AL", countryName:"Albani&euml;", IBANlength:"28", bankFormCode:"0 8n 0 ", accountNum:"0 16 0 " }, "ccAD":{ countryCode:"AD", countryName:"Andorra", IBANlength:"24", bankFormCode:"0 4n 4n", accountNum:"0 12 0 " }, "ccBE":{ countryCode:"BE", countryName:"Belgi&euml;", IBANlength:"16", bankFormCode:"0 3n 0 ", accountNum:"0 7n 2n" } } */ What am I doing wrong. Tnx in advance

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• help Implementing Object Oriented ansi-C approach??

  - by No Money

  Hey there, I am an Intermediate programmer in Java and know some of the basics in C++. I recently started to scam over "C language" [please note that i emphasized on C language and want to stick with C as i found it to be a perfect tool, so no need for suggestions focusing on why should i move back to C++ or Java]. Moving on, I code an Object Oriented approach in C but kindda scramble with the pointers part. Please understand that I am just a noob trying to extend my knowledge beyond what i learned in High School. Here is my code..... #include <stdio.h> typedef struct per{ int privateint; char *privateString; struct per (*New) (); void (*deleteperOBJ) (struct t_person *); void (*setperNumber) ((struct*) t_person,int); void (*setperString) ((struct*) t_person,char *); void (*dumpperState) ((struct*) t_person); }t_person; void setperNumber(t_person *const per,int num){ if(per==NULL) return; per->privateint=num; } void setperString(t_person *const per,char *string){ if(per==NULL) return; per->privateString=string; } void dumpperState(t_person *const per){ if(per==NULL) return; printf("value of private int==%d\n", per->privateint); printf("value of private string==%s\n", per->privateString); } void deleteperOBJ(struct t_person *const per){ free((void*)t_person->per); t_person ->per = NULL; } main(){ t_person *const per = (struct*) malloc(sizeof(t_person)); per = t_person -> struct per -> New(); per -> setperNumber (t_person *per, 123); per -> setperString(t_person *per, "No money"); dumpperState(t_person *per); deleteperOBJ(t_person *per); } Just to warn you, this program has several errors and since I am a beginner I couldn't help except to post this thread as a question. I am looking forward for assistance. Thanks in advance.

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• Jquery Var Returned As object

  - by alex

  I'm trying to pass a variable from one function to another, but the var elmId is being returned as an object and giving an error. When we click on any of the generated divs we should be able to change the size of the div by choosing a width / height value from the drop down menus. I'm trying to pass the clicked div id which is elmId to function displayVals but it is not working. If we replace "#"+elmId in the function displayVals with the actual id of the first div created with is "#divid1" then it works. Why is the value of var elmId not being passed to displayVals <link rel="stylesheet" href="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8.7/themes/base/jquery-ui.css" type="text/css" media="all" /> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.4/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8.7/jquery-ui.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <style> .aaa{width:100px; height:100px; background-color:#ccc;} button{width:100px; height:20px;} </style> <button class="idiv">div</button> <select id="width"> <option>100px</option> <option>200px</option> <option>300px</option> </select> <select id="height"> <option>100px</option> <option>200px</option> <option>300px</option> </select> <p></p> <script type="text/javascript"> var divId = 1; $("button").click(function(){ var elm = $('<div id=divid' + divId + ' class=aaa></div>'); elm.appendTo('p'); divId++; }); $("p").click(function(e){ var elmType = $(e.target)[0].nodeName, elmId = $(e.target)[0].id; return displayVals(elmId); }); function displayVals(elmId) { var iwidth = $("#width").val(); var iheight = $("#height").val(); $("#"+elmId).css({width:iwidth, height:iheight}); console.log(elmId); } $("select").change(displayVals); displayVals(); </script>

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• Android - Saving an object in onSaveInstanceState?

  - by Donal Rafferty

  I have created a small XML parsing application for Android that displays information in a listview and then allows a user to click on the list view and a dialog with further info will pop up. The problem is that when the screen orientation is changed when a dialog screen is open I get a null pointer error. The null pointer occurs on the following line: if(setting.getAddForPublicUserNames() == 1){ This line is part of my dialogPrepare method: @Override public void onPrepareDialog(int id, Dialog dialog) { switch(id) { case (SETTINGS_DIALOG) : afpunText = ""; if(setting.getAddForPublicUserNames() == 1){ afpunText = "Yes"; } else{ afpunText = "No"; } String Text = "Login Settings: " + "\n" + "Password: " + setting.getPassword() + "\n" + "Server: " + setting.getServerAddress() + "\n" + "Register: " + setting.getRegistrarAddress() + "\n" + "Realm: " + setting.getRealm() + "\n" + "Public UserNames: " + afpunText + "\n" + "Preference Settings: " + "\n" + "Request VDN: " + setting.getRequestVDN() + "\n" + "Handover Settings: " + "\n" + "Enable Handover: " + setting.getEnableHandover() + "\n" + "Hand Over Number: " + setting.getHandoverNum() + "\n"; AlertDialog settingsDialog = (AlertDialog)dialog; settingsDialog.setTitle("Auth ID: " + setting.getUserName()); tv = (TextView)settingsDialog.findViewById(R.id.detailsTextView); if (tv != null) tv.setText(Text); break; } } So the error is that my variable setting is null after the screen orientation changes. I have tried to use the onSaveInstance state methods to fix that as follows: @Override public void onSaveInstanceState(Bundle savedInstanceState) { for(int i = 0; i < settings.size(); i++){ savedInstanceState.putString("Username"+i, settings.get(i).getUserName()); savedInstanceState.putString("Password"+i, settings.get(i).getPassword()); savedInstanceState.putString("Server"+i, settings.get(i).getServerAddress()); savedInstanceState.putString("Registrar"+i, settings.get(i).getRegistrarAddress()); savedInstanceState.putString("Realm"+i, settings.get(i).getRealm()); savedInstanceState.putInt("PUserNames"+i, settings.get(i).getAddForPublicUserNames()); savedInstanceState.putString("RequestVDN"+i, settings.get(i).getRequestVDN()); savedInstanceState.putString("EnableHandOver"+i, settings.get(i).getEnableHandover()); savedInstanceState.putString("HandOverNum"+i, settings.get(i).getHandoverNum()); } super.onSaveInstanceState(savedInstanceState); } and @Override public void onRestoreInstanceState(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onRestoreInstanceState(savedInstanceState); //Check to see if this is required // Restore UI state from the savedInstanceState. // This bundle has also been passed to onCreate. for(int i = 0; i<settings.size(); i++){ settings.get(i).setUserName(savedInstanceState.getString("Username"+i)); settings.get(i).setPassword(savedInstanceState.getString("Password"+i)) ; settings.get(i).setServerAddress(savedInstanceState.getString("Server"+i)); settings.get(i).setRegistrarAddress(savedInstanceState.getString("Registrar"+i)); settings.get(i).setRealm(savedInstanceState.getString("Realm"+i)); settings.get(i).setAddForPublicUserNames(savedInstanceState.getInt("PUserNames"+i)); settings.get(i).setRequestVDN(savedInstanceState.getString("RequestVDN"+i)); settings.get(i).setEnableHandover(savedInstanceState.getString("EnableHandOver"+i)); settings.get(i).setHandoverNum(savedInstanceState.getString("HandOverNum"+i)); } } However the error still remains, I think I have to save the selected setting from what was selected from the ListView? But how do I save a setting object in onSavedInstance?

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• AutoMapper How To Map Object A To Object B Differently Depending On Context

  - by IanT8

  Calling all AutoMapper gurus! I'd like to be able to map object A to object B differently depending on context at runtime. In particular, I'd like to ignore certain properties in one mapping case, and have all properties mapped in another case. What I'm experiencing is that Mapper.CreateMap can be called successfully in the different mapping cases however, once CreateMap is called, the map for a particular pair of types is set and is not subsequently changed by succeeding CreateMap calls which might describe the mapping differently. I found a blog post which advocates Mapper.Reset() to get round the problem, however, the static nature of the Mapper class means that it is only a matter of time before a collision and crash occur. Is there a way to do this? What I think I need is to call Mapper.CreateMap once per appdomain, and later, be able to call Mapper.Map with hints about which properties should be included / excluded. Right now, I'm thinking about changing the source code by writing a non-static mapping class that holds the mapping config instance based. Poor performance, but thread safe. What are my options. What can be done? Automapper seems so promising.

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• Disposing underlying object from finalizer in an immutable object

  - by Juan Luis Soldi

  I'm trying to wrap around Awesomium and make it look to the rest of my code as close as possible to NET's WebBrowser since this is for an existing application that already uses the WebBrowser. In this library, there is a class called JSObject which represents a javascript object. You can get one of this, for instance, by calling the ExecuteJavascriptWithResult method of the WebView class. If you'd call it like myWebView.ExecuteJavascriptWithResult("document", string.Empty).ToObject(), then you'd get a JSObject that represents the document. I'm writing an immutable class (it's only field is a readonly JSObject object) called JSObjectWrap that wraps around JSObject which I want to use as base class for other classes that would emulate .NET classes such as HtmlElement and HtmlDocument. Now, these classes don't implement Dispose, but JSObject does. What I first thought was to call the underlying JSObject's Dispose method in my JSObjectWrap's finalizer (instead of having JSObjectWrap implement Dispose) so that the rest of my code can stay the way it is (instead of having to add using's everywhere and make sure every JSObjectWrap is being properly disposed). But I just realized if more than two JSObjectWrap's have the same underlying JSObject and one of them gets finalized this will mess up the other JSObjectWrap. So now I'm thinking maybe I should keep a static Dictionary of JSObjects and keep count of how many of each of them are being referenced by a JSObjectWrap but this sounds messy and I think could cause major performance issues. Since this sounds to me like a common pattern I wonder if anyone else has a better idea.

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• Calling Object Methods in Code

  - by Mister R2

  I'm a bit new to PHP, and I'm more experienced with strongly-typed languages such as JAVA, C# or C++.I'm currently writing a web tool in PHP, and I am having an issue trying to do what I want. The simple idea of what I want to do in code is run through some emails I used PHP-IMAP to get. I then create email objects (a class I defined), and put them in an array. Later on the code, however, I cycle through those emails to display them. However, as you might have guessed I'd have an issue with, I try to use an Email Class object method in that later loop -- and I'm pretty sure PHP doesn't know that the variables in the array happen to be Email Class objects! I wrote a toString method, and I want to call it in the loop. While I don't need to do this for the final version of this tool, I would like to find out what I'm missing. This is the class and the loop where I'm calling the method: include 'imap_email_interface.php'; class ImapEmail implements imap_email_interface { // Email data var $msgno; var $to; var $from; var $subject; var $body; var $attachment; // Email behavior /* PHP 4 ~ legacy constructor */ public function ImapEmail($message_number) { $this->__construct(); $this->msgno = $message_number; } /* PHP 5 Constructor */ public function __construct($message_number) { $this->msgno = $message_number; } public function send($send_to) { // Not Yet Needed! Seriously! } public function setHeaderDirectly($TO, $FROM, $SUBJECT) { $this->to = $TO; $this->from = $FROM; $this->subject = $SUBJECT; } public function setHeaderIndirectly($HEADER) { if (isset($HEADER->to[0]->personal)) $this->to = '"'.$HEADER->to[0]->personal.'", '.$HEADER->to[0]->mailbox.'@'.$HEADER->to[0]->host; else $this->to = $HEADER->to[0]->mailbox.'@'.$HEADER->to[0]->host; $this->from = '"'.$HEADER->from[0]->personal.'", '.$HEADER->from[0]->mailbox.'@'.$HEADER->from[0]->host; $this->subject = $HEADER->subject; } public function setBody($BODY) { $this->body = $BODY; } public function setAttachment($ATTCH) { $this->attachment = $ATTCH; } public function toString() { $str = '[TO]: ' . $this->to . '<br />' . '[FROM]: ' . $this->from . '<br />' . '[SUBJECT]: ' . $this->subject . '<br />'; $str .= '[Attachment]: '.$this->attachment.'<br />'; return $str; } } ?> The Loop: foreach ($orderFileEmails as $x) { $x->toString(); echo '<br /><br />'; } Any ideas?

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• jQuery/Javascript Cookies and variable returning with value [object Object]

  - by user1706661

  I am attempting to set a cookie to a site using jQuery, ONLY if the user came from a specific site. In this case, lets use -http://referrersite.com- as the site they must come from for the cookie to be created as an example. The cookie value is being stored in a variable and everything up to this point is working fine. There is a conditional statement checking whether the user came from the referred site, if the cookie exists already and if the cookie doesn't exist and the user did not come from the referred site. If the user came from the referred site the cookie is created and stored in a variable. If the cookie already exists, it is then stored in a variable. If the cookie does not exist and the user did not come from the referred site I am assigning the variable a static string of characters - this is where the issue lies. When the variable is alerted from the non referred site and no existing cookie, it returns: [object Object], not the static string of characters. The code I am using is below: $(document).ready(function() { var referrer = document.referrer; if(referrer == "http://referrersite.com") { $.cookie("code","123456", { expires: 90, path: '/' }); cookieContainer = $.cookie("code"); alert(cookieContainer); } else if($.cookie("code")) { cookieContainer = $.cookie("code"); alert(cookieContainer); } else if($.cookie("code") == null && referrer != "http://referrersite.com") { cookieContainer = "67890"; alert(cookieContainer); } }); Please let me know if there is something I am missing as the code to me looks like it should work. Thanks!

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