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• Selection Highlight in NSCollectionView

  - by Hooligancat

  On some occasions my head just hurts from banging it against the Cocoa wall. Today is one of those days. I have a working NSCollectionView with one minor, but critical, exception. Getting and highlighting the selected item within the collection. I've had all this working prior to Snow Leopard, but something appears to have changed and I can't quite place my finger on it, so I took my NSCollectionView right back to a basic test and followed Apple's documentation for creating an NSCollectionView here: http://developer.apple.com/mac/library/DOCUMENTATION/Cocoa/Conceptual/CollectionViews/Introduction/Introduction.html The collection view works fine following the quick start guide. However, this guide doesn't discuss selection other than "There are such features as incorporating image views, setting objects as selectable or not selectable and changing colors if they are selected". Using this as an example I went to the next step of binding the Array Controller to the NSCollectionView with the controller key selectionIndexes, thinking that this would bind any selection I make between the NSCollectionView and the array controller and thus firing off a KVO notification. I also set the NSCollectionView to be selectable in IB. There appears to be no selection delegate for NSCollectionView and unlike most Cocoa UI views, there appears to be no default selected highlight. So my problem really comes down to a related issue, but two distinct questions. How do I capture a selection of an item? How do I show a highlight of an item? NSCollectionView's programming guides seem to be few and far between and most searches via Google appear to pull up pre-Snow Leopard implementations, or use the view in a separate XIB file. For the latter (separate XIB file for the view), I don't see why this should be a pre-requisite otherwise I would have suspected that Apple would not have included the view in the same bundle as the collection view item. I know this is going to be a "can't see the wood for the trees" issue - so I'm prepared for the "doh!" moment. As usual, any and all help much appreciated.

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• Setting up an efficient and effective development process

  - by christopher-mccann

  I am in the midst of setting up the development environment (PHP/MySQL) for my start-up. We use three sets of servers: LIVE - the servers which provide the actual application TEST - providing a testing version before it is actually released DEV - the development servers The development servers run SVN with each developer checking out their local copy. At the end of each day completed fixes are checked in and then we use Hudson to automate our build process and then transfer it over to TEST. We then check the application still functions correctly using a tester and then if everything is fine move it to LIVE. I am happy with this process but I do have two questions: How would you recommend we do local testing - as each developer adds new pages or changes functionality I want them to be able to test what they are doing. Would you just setup local Apache and a local database and have them test locally on their own machine? How would you recommend dealing with data layer changes? Is there anything else you would recommend doing to really make our development process as easy and efficient as possible? Thanks in advance

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• css: Cross-browser, reflowing, top-to-bottom, multi-column lists

  - by Sai Emrys

  See http://cssfingerprint.com/about#stats. See also http://stackoverflow.com/questions/933645/multi-column-css-lists. I want a multi-column list that: uses no JS reflows on window size makes as many columns as fit the enclosing element therefore, does not require batching the list into manual column groups works in all browsers works for an arbitrary number of unknown-width (but single-line-height) elements makes each column fit the width of its (dynamic) contents does not create scrollbars or other overflow issues is sorted top to bottom where possible My code is currently: ul.multi, ol.multi { width: 100%; margin: 0; padding: 0; list-style: none; -moz-column-width: 12em; -webkit-column-width: 12em; column-width: 12em; -moz-column-gap: 1em; -webkit-column-gap: 1em; column-gap: 1em; } ul.multi li, ol.multi li { <!--[if IE]> float: left; <![endif]--> width: 20em; margin: 0; padding: 0; } Although this works okay, it has some problems: I have to guess the content width it is right-to-left in IE (though this is acceptable as a graceful degradation mode) it won't work at all in non-IE, non-Moz/Webkit/CSS3 browsers How can this be improved?

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• Enable button based on TextBox value (WPF)

  - by zendar

  This is MVVM application. There is a window and related view model class. There is TextBox, Button and ListBox on form. Button is bound to DelegateCommand that has CanExecute function. Idea is that user enters some data in text box, presses button and data is appended to list box. I would like to enable command (and button) when user enters correct data in TextBox. Things work like this now: CanExecute() method contains code that checks if data in property bound to text box is correct. Text box is bound to property in view model UpdateSourceTrigger is set to PropertyChanged and property in view model is updated after each key user presses. Problem is that CanExecute() does not fire when user enters data in text box. It doesn't fire even when text box lose focus. How could I make this work? Edit: Re Yanko's comment: Delegate command is implemented in MVVM toolkit template and when you create new MVVM project, there is Delegate command in solution. As much as I saw in Prism videos this should be the same class (or at least very similar). Here is XAML snippet: ... <UserControl.Resources> <views:CommandReference x:Key="AddObjectCommandReference" Command="{Binding AddObjectCommand}" /> </UserControl.Resources> ... <TextBox Text="{Binding ObjectName, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}"> </TextBox> <Button Command="{StaticResource AddObjectCommandReference}">Add</Button> ... View model: // Property bound to textbox public string ObjectName { get { return objectName; } set { objectName = value; OnPropertyChanged("ObjectName"); } } // Command bound to button public ICommand AddObjectCommand { get { if (addObjectCommand == null) { addObjectCommand = new DelegateCommand(AddObject, CanAddObject); } return addObjectCommand; } } private void AddObject() { if (ObjectName == null || ObjectName.Length == 0) return; objectNames.AddSourceFile(ObjectName); OnPropertyChanged("ObjectNames"); // refresh listbox } private bool CanAddObject() { return ObjectName != null && ObjectName.Length > 0; } As I wrote in the first part of question, following things work: property setter for ObjectName is triggered on every keypress in textbox if I put return true; in CanAddObject(), command is active (button to) It looks to me that binding is correct. Thing that I don't know is how to make CanExecute() fire in setter of ObjectName property from above code. Re Ben's and Abe's answers: CanExecuteChanged() is event handler and compiler complains: The event 'System.Windows.Input.ICommand.CanExecuteChanged' can only appear on the left hand side of += or -= there are only two more members of ICommand: Execute() and CanExecute() Do you have some example that shows how can I make command call CanExecute(). I found command manager helper class in DelegateCommand.cs and I'll look into it, maybe there is some mechanism that could help. Anyway, idea that in order to activate command based on user input, one needs to "nudge" command object in property setter code looks clumsy. It will introduce dependencies and one of big points of MVVM is reducing them. Is it possible to solve this problem by using dependency properties?

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• alphanumeric and special character sorting

  - by Kaushik Gopal

  Hi ppl, I wanted to know the different standards of sorting. To be more specific take the sample set: (Please note there's capitals, small letters, special characters, null values and numbers here) A a 3F Zx - 1Ad NULL How would the Oracle Database sort this by default? How would LINQ sort this by default? How would db2 sort this by default? (the following may get even more vague) How does the Windows platform sort this? (I mean say you have a couple of filenames, by default how would this get treated in a name sort) How does the *nix platform sort this? Is there some sort of standard for alphanumeric/special character sorting? The Windows operating system orders with numbers first, then alphabets. The Oracle database however treats alphabets first. I'm not sure of the *nix platform. It would be nice to have one place to know all these rules for the most common platforms (listed in questions above). Would the gurus throw some light on this topic? Cheers, K

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• Why is this simple jQuery hover event misbehaving in Internet Explorer 8?

  - by Siracuse

  I asked for help earlier on Stackoverflow involving highlighting spans with the same Class when a mouse hovers over any Span with that same Class. It is working great: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2709686/how-can-i-add-a-border-to-all-the-elements-that-share-a-class-when-the-mouse-has $('span[class]').hover( function() { $('.' + $(this).attr('class')).css('background-color','green'); }, function() { $('.' + $(this).attr('class')).css('background-color','yellow'); } ) Here is an example of it in usage: http://dl.dropbox.com/u/638285/0utput.html However, it doesn't appear to work properly in IE8, while it DOES work in Chrome/Firefox. Here is a screenshot of it in IE8, with my mouse hovered over the " min) { min" section in the middle. As you can see, it highlighted the span that the mouse is hovering over perfectly fine. However, it has also highlighted some random spans above and below it that don't have the same class! Only the span's with the same Class as the one where the mouse is over should be highlighted green. In this screenshot, only that middle green section should be green. Here is a screenshot of it working properly in Firefox/Chrome with my mouse in the exact same position: This screenshot is correct as the span that the mouse is over (the green section) is the only one in this section that shares that class. Why is IE8 randomly green-highlighting spans when it shouldn't be (they don't share the same class) using my little jQuery snippet? Again, if you want to see it live I have it here: http://dl.dropbox.com/u/638285/0utput.html

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• Activity Indicator display in Table View whilst row data is being fetched

  - by Tofrizer

  Hi All, I am navigating from tableview1.row to a tableview2 which has a LOT of rows being fetched. Given the load time is around 3 seconds, I want the navigation to slide into tableview2 as soon as the tableview1.row is selected, and then display a UIActivityIndicatorView above tableview2 whilst the data is fetched and then rendered in its underlying table view. Note, tableview2 is actually a subview of the parent UIView (as opposed to the parent being a UITableView). I've seen this post: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2153653/activity-indicator-shold-be-displayed-when-navigating-from-uitableview1-to-uitabl ... which gives instructions to add the activity indicator start and stopAnimating calls around the data fetch into viewDidLoad of tableview2. Thing is, I'm not sure how the above solution could work as viewDidLoad runs and completes before tableview2 visibly slides into view. Separately, I also tried adding an activity indicator over tableview2 in IB and added the IBOutlet indicator's start/stop animating code into viewDidAppear. What happens is the data fetch runs and I can see the indicator spinning but at the end of the fetch, the table view is empty. Seems like viewDidAppear is too late to add data to the table view as cellForRowAtIndexPath etc has already fired. Can anyone please suggest any pointers? I could very well be missing something obvious here (its nearly 5am where I am and think my brain is mush). Should I re-trigger cellForRowAtIndexPath etc from viewDidAppear? Is the issue that my table view is a subview and not the parent view? Thanks

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• Android SDK fails to install

  - by Paul Breed

  When I try to install the android SDK it fails to install. My OS is Windows XP I just downloaded and installed Java JDK 1.6 Java -version from the command line returns: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/ask java version "1.6.0_17" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.6.0_17-b04) Java HotSpot(TM) Client VM (build 14.3-b01, mixed mode, sharing) My environment vars have: JAVA_HOME=c:\progra~1\java\jdk1.6.0_11 I downloaded android-sdk-r04-windows.zip I unziped it in V:\AndroidInstall\ When I go to the V:\androindinstall\android-sdk-windows and type "SDK Install.exe" nothing happens... If I go this from graph When I do this from a graphical file viewer I get a quick flash that looks like a command line window and nothing.... When I try to run android list targets from the tool directory I get: Error: Error parsing the sdk. Error: V:\androindinstall\android-sdk-windows\platforms is missing. Error: Unable to parse SDK content. So the basic install setup is not happening. Additional clues: I have a G1 and Android 1.0 was running on this machine. (Almost a year ago) I've updated my G1 to 1.6 so I thought I'd update my SDK before starting new development. When I tried to upgrade it tried and then died as the "directory was in use" So I cleaned out all the android directories, rebooted and redownloaded everythign from scratch. Now it won't run at all. I've clearly got something in an unhappy state, but I've cleaned up all the directories and no remanants seem to be running I've rebooted.... I've missed somethign I just can't figure out what. Paul

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• Javascript/Greasemonkey: search for something then set result as a value

  - by thewinchester

  Ok, I'm a bit of a n00b when it comes to JS (I'm not the greatest programmer) so please be gentle - specially if my questions been asked already somewhere and I'm too stupid to find the right answer. Self deprecation out of the way, let's get to the question. Problem There is a site me and a large group of friends frequently use which doesn't display all the information we may like to know - in this case an airline bookings site and the class of travel. While the information is buried in the code of the page, it isn't displayed anywhere to the user. Using a Greasemonkey script, I'd like to liberate this piece of information and display it in a suitable format. Here's the psuedocode of what I'm looking to do. Search dom for specified element define variables Find a string of text If found Set result to a variable Write contents to page at a specific location (before a specified div) If not found Do nothing I think I've achieved most of it so far, except for the key bits of: Searching for the string: The page needs to search for the following piece of text in the page HEAD: mileageRequest += "&CLASSES=S,S-S,S-S"; The Content I need to extract and store is between the second equals (=) sign and the last comma ("). The contents of this area can be any letter between A-Z. I'm not fussed about splitting it up into an array so I could use the elements individually at this stage. Writing the result to a location: Taking that found piece of text and writing it to another location. Code so far This is what I've come up so far, with bits missing highlighted. buttons = document.getElementById('buttons'); ''Search goes here var flightClasses = document.createElement("div"); flightClasses.innerHTML = '<div id="flightClasses"> ' + '<h2>Travel classes</h2>' + 'For the above segments, your flight classes are as follows:' + 'write result here' + '</div>'; main.parentNode.insertBefore(flightClasses, buttons); If anyone could help me, or point me in the right direction to finish this off I'd appreciate it.

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• Iterating arrays in a batch file

  - by dboarman-FissureStudios

  I am writing a batch file (I asked a question on SU) to iterate over terminal servers searching for a specific user. So, I got the basic start of what I'm trying to do. Enter a user name Iterate terminal servers Display servers where user is found (they can be found on multiple servers now and again depending on how the connection is lost) Display a menu of options Iterating terminal servers I have: for /f "tokens=1" %%Q in ('query termserver') do (set __TermServers.%%Q) Now, I am getting the error... Environment variable __TermServers.SERVER1 not defined ...for each of the terminal servers. This is really the only thing in my batch file at this point. Any idea on why this error is occurring? Obviously, the variable is not defined, but I understood the SET command to do just that. I'm also thinking that in order to continue working on the iteration (each terminal server), I will need to do something like: :Search for /f "tokens=1" %%Q in ('query termserver') do (call Process) goto Break :Process for /f "tokens=1" %%U in ('query user %%username%% /server:%%Q') do (set __UserConnection = %%C) goto Search However, there are 2 things that bug me about this: Is the %%Q value still alive when calling Process? When I goto Search, will the for-loop be starting over? I'm doing this with the tools I have at my disposal, so as much as I'd like to hear about PowerShell and other ways to do this, it would be futile. I have notepad and that's it. Note: I would continue this line of questions on SuperUser, except that it seems to be getting more into programming specifics.

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• C++/CLI managed thread cleanup

  - by Guillermo Prandi

  Hi. I'm writing a managed C++/CLI library wrapper for the MySQL embedded server. The mysql C library requires me to call mysql_thread_init() for every thread that will be using it, and mysql_thread_end() for each thread that exits after using it. Debugging any given VB.Net project I can see at least seven threads; I suppose my library will see only one thread if VB doesn't explicitly create worker threads itself (any confirmations on that?). However, I need clients to my library to be able to create worker threads if they need to, so my library must be thread-aware to some degree. The first option I could think of is to expose some "EnterThread()" and "LeaveThread()" methods in my class, so the client code will explicitly call them at the beginning and before exiting their DoWork() method. This should work if (1) .Net doesn't "magically" create threads the user isn't aware of and (2) the user is careful enough to have the methods called in a try/finally structure of some sort. However, I don't like it very much to have the user handle things manually like that, and I wonder if I could give her a hand on that matter. In a pure Win32 C/C++ DLL I do have the DllMain DLL_THREAD_ATTACH and DLL_THREAD_DETACH pseudo-events, and I could use them for calling mysql_thread_init() and mysql_thread_end() as needed, but there seem to be no such thing in C++/CLI managed code. At the expense of some performance (not much, I think) I can use TLS for detecting the "usage from a new thread" case, but I can imagine no mechanism for the thread exiting case. So, my questions are: (1) could .net create application threads without the user being aware of them? and (2) is there any mechanism I could use similar to DLL_THREAD_ATTACH / DLL_THREAD_DETACH from managed C++/CLI? Thanks in advance.

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• What are the reasons to use dos batch programs in Windows?

  - by DVK

  Question What would be a good (ideally, technical) reason to ever program some non-trivial task in dos batch language on a modern Windows system as opposed to downloading either PowerShell, or ActiveState Perl? To be more specific, I make the following two assumptions for the duration of this question: anyone technical enough to be able to write a medium-complexity batch script is technical enough to install either of the scripting interpreters. Neither of those two present enough of a learning curve for basic batch replacement tasks that said curve would outweigh the pain of doing any remotely-non-trivial task in batch. Notes "You need a batch program for autoexec.bat" is not a valid reason. Your autoexec.bat may consist of simply calling non-batch script. If you disagree with either of my 2 assumptions above, that's fine, and I may be wrong. But my question is specifically "assuming those 2 assumptions are correct, what would be the reason to still stick with batch?" If it makes it easier to suspend disbelief (in case you disagree with me), add in a 3rd assumption that the question is limited to people who already posess at least some modicum of PowerShell or Perl experience. To re-iterate - this is not meant to be a subjective question about how easy it is to learn PSh or ASPerl compared to doing advanced batch coding. That is a separate question that is too subjective to be bothered with in this post. Background: I used to do some fairly complicated batch programming back in the elder days, and remember batch as one of the worst possble programming languages I had encountered. The idea for this question came after seeing a bunch of batch questions on SO, and trying to grok the answer of one of them out of sheer curiosity and giving up in pain after a minute, exclaiming mentally "why would anyone go through this pain instead of doing that in 1 line of Perl?" :) My own plausible answer I assume there may be an an likely DOS-compatible system, which has DOS interpreter but has no compatible PowerShell or Perl... I'm not aware of one but not completely impossible.

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• Nested WHILE loops in Python

  - by Guru

  I am a beginner with Python and trying few programs. I have something like the following WHILE loop construct in Python (not exact). IDLE 2.6.4 >>> a=0 >>> b=0 >>> while a < 4: a=a+1 while b < 4: b=b+1 print a, b 1 1 1 2 1 3 1 4 I am expecting the outer loop to loop through 1,2,3 and 4. And I know I can do this with FOR loop like this >>> for a in range(1,5): for b in range(1,5): print a,b 1 1 1 2 1 3 1 4 2 1 2 2 2 3 2 4 3 1 3 2 3 3 3 4 4 1 4 2 4 3 4 4 But, what is wrong with WHILE loop? I guess I am missing some thing obvious, but could not make out. P.S: Searched out SO, found few questions but none as close to this. Don't know whether this could classified as homework, the actual program was different, the problem is what puzzles me.

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• How to speed up WPF programs?

  - by Sam

  I love programming with and for Windows Presentation Framework. Mostly I write browser-like apps using WPF and XAML. But what really annoys me is the slowness of WPF. A simple page with only a few controls loads fast enough, but as soon as a page is a teeny weeny bit more complex, like containing a lot of data entry fields, one or two tab controls, and stuff, it gets painful. Loading of such a page can take more than one second. Seconds, indeed, especially on not so fast computers (read: the customers computers) it can take ages. Same with changing values on the page. Everything about the WPF UI is somehow sluggy. This is so mean! They give me this beautiful framework, but make it so excruciatingly slow so I'll have to apologize to our customers all the time! My Question: How do you speed up WPF? How do you profile bottlenecks? How do you deal with the slowness? Since this seems to be an universal problem with WPF, I'm looking for general advice, useful for many situations and problems. Some other related questions: What tools do you use for WPF development Tools to develop WPF or Silverlight applications

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• How to get rank from full-text search query with Linq to SQL?

  - by Stephen Jennings

  I am using Linq to SQL to call a stored procedure which runs a full-text search and returns the rank plus a few specific columns from the table Article. The rank column is the rank returned from the SQL function FREETEXTTABLE(). I've added this sproc to the data model designer with return type Article. This is working to get the columns I need; however, it discards the ranking of each search result. I'd like to get this information so I can display it to the user. So far, I've tried creating a new class RankedArticle which inherits from Article and adds the column Rank, then changing the return type of my sproc mapping to RankedArticle. When I try this, an InvalidOperationException gets thrown: Data member 'Int32 ArticleID' of type 'Heap.Models.Article' is not part of the mapping for type 'RankedArticle'. Is the member above the root of an inheritance hierarchy? I can't seem to find any other questions or Google results from people trying to get the rank column, so I'm probably missing something obvious here.

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• Focussing on Style Sheets and Cross Browser Compatibility.

  - by Sam

  Hello everyone, Let me begin this topic by explaining my background experience with web design. I have always been more of a back end programmer, with PHP and SQL and things. However I do have a shallow background with HTML and CSS. The problem is, I don't know it all. What I do know is, when it comes to designing (not back end dirty work) I understand basic CSS properties and I also understand HTML and I can usually throw together a sloppy web page with the two and a couple bazillion DIV tags. Anyways.. The problem I always have encountered is that when I design a website in a browser such as IE7 (and then it looks perfect on IE7), and then look at it on IE8 or IE6 or Mozilla (etc.) it gets all spacey and ugly and looks totally different than the way it should look on IE7. Question one: Basically, what I am asking everyone is what route should I take to learn how to properly build the website? Build as in put it togehter with CSS standards and HTML standards that will make my site look the same on every brwoser. (Not only learning standards but where can I learn to properly write my code?) Where is a strong free resource I can use to learn how to these things? Question two: How do I properly code my website? Do I use all external style sheets to make dynamic page design simplistic or do I hard code some things into the DIV tags on each page? What is proper? Oh, and if anyone has any tutorials on how to properly design a complete layout feel free to throw it in a response somewhere. Thank you for taking the time to read my questions, and hopefully you will understand what I am trying to get out to everyone. I need to get on the right route of the designing side of web programming so that I will know how to create successful websites in the future. Thank you, Sam Pardee

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• Using DateTime in a SqlParameter for Stored Procedure, format error

  - by Matt

  I'm trying to call a stored procedure (on a SQL 2005 server) from C#, .NET 2.0 using DateTime as a value to a SqlParameter. The SQL type in the stored procedure is 'datetime'. Executing the sproc from SQL Management Studio works fine. But everytime I call it from C# I get an error about the date format. When I run SQL Profiler to watch the calls, I then copy paste the exec call to see whats going on. These are my observations and notes about what I've attempted: 1) If I pass the DateTime in directly as a DateTime or converted to SqlDateTime, the field is surrounding by a PAIR of single quotes, such as @Date_Of_Birth=N''1/8/2009 8:06:17 PM'' 2) If I pass the DateTime in as a string, I only get the single quotes 3) Using SqlDateTime.ToSqlString() does not result in a UTC formatted datetime string (even after converting to universal time) 4) Using DateTime.ToString() does not result in a UTC formatted datetime string. 5) Manually setting the DbType for the SqlParameter to DateTime does not change the above observations. So, my questions then, is how on earth do I get C# to pass the properly formatted time in the SqlParameter? Surely this is a common use case, why is it so difficult to get working? I can't seem to convert DateTime to a string that is SQL compatable (e.g. '2009-01-08T08:22:45') EDIT RE: BFree, the code to actually execute the sproc is as follows: using (SqlCommand sprocCommand = new SqlCommand(sprocName)) { sprocCommand.Connection = transaction.Connection; sprocCommand.Transaction = transaction; sprocCommand.CommandType = System.Data.CommandType.StoredProcedure; sprocCommand.Parameters.AddRange(parameters.ToArray()); sprocCommand.ExecuteNonQuery(); } To go into more detail about what I have tried: parameters.Add(new SqlParameter("@Date_Of_Birth", DOB)); parameters.Add(new SqlParameter("@Date_Of_Birth", DOB.ToUniversalTime())); parameters.Add(new SqlParameter("@Date_Of_Birth", DOB.ToUniversalTime().ToString())); SqlParameter param = new SqlParameter("@Date_Of_Birth", System.Data.SqlDbType.DateTime); param.Value = DOB.ToUniversalTime(); parameters.Add(param); SqlParameter param = new SqlParameter("@Date_Of_Birth", SqlDbType.DateTime); param.Value = new SqlDateTime(DOB.ToUniversalTime()); parameters.Add(param); parameters.Add(new SqlParameter("@Date_Of_Birth", new SqlDateTime(DOB.ToUniversalTime()).ToSqlString())); Additional EDIT The one I thought most likely to work: SqlParameter param = new SqlParameter("@Date_Of_Birth", System.Data.SqlDbType.DateTime); param.Value = DOB; Results in this value in the exec call as seen in the SQL Profiler @Date_Of_Birth=''2009-01-08 15:08:21:813'' If I modify this to be @Date_Of_Birth='2009-01-08T15:08:21' It works, but it won't parse with pair of single quotes, and it wont convert to a datetime correctly with the space between the date and time and with the milliseconds on the end. Update and Success First and foremost, thank you everyone for the answers. I post this for the sake of completeness and accuracy on SO - because I certainly do not do it for my pride... I had copy/pasted the code above after the request from below. I trimmed things here and there to be concise. Turns out my problem was in the code I left out, which I'm sure any one of you would have spotted in an instant. I had wrapped my sproc calls inside a transaction. Turns out that I was simply not doing transaction.Commit()!!!!! I'm ashamed to say it, but there you have it. I still don't know what's going on with the syntax I get back from the profiler. A coworker watched with his own instance of the profiler from his computer, and it returned proper syntax. Watching the very SAME executions from my profiler showed the incorrect syntax. It acted as a red-herring, making me believe there was a query syntax problem instead of the much more simple and true answer, which was that I need to commit the transaction! I marked an answer below as correct, and threw in some up-votes on others because they did, after all, answer the question, even if they didn't fix my specific (brain lapse) issue. Thanks again for the help.

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• Writing an efficient cron job script utilizing Zend_Mail_Storage_Imap.

  - by fireeyedboy

  I'm new to the IMAP protocol and Zend_Mail_Storage and I'm writing a small php script for a cron job that should regularly poll an IMAP account and check for new messages, and send an e-mail if new messages have arrived. As you can imagine, I want to only poll the IMAP account for relevant messages, and I only want to send a new e-mail if new messages have arrived since the last polled new message. So I thought of keeping track of the last message I polled with some unique identifier for a message. But I'm a bit uncertain about whether the methods I want to utilize for this do what I expect them to do though. So my questions are: Does the iterator position of Zend_Mail_Storage_Imap actually resemble some IMAP unique identifier for messages, or is it simply only and internal position of Zend_Mail_Storage_Abstract? For instance, if I tell it to seek() to message 5 (which I stored from an earlier session) will it indeed seek to the appropriate message on the IMAP server, even if for instance messages have been deleted since last session? Would keeping track of this latest polled message id in a file suffice for a cron job that, say, polls the account every 5 or 10 minutes? Or is this too naive, and should I be using a database for instance. Or is there maybe a much easier way to keep track of such state with Zend_Mail_Storage_Abstract? Also, do I need to poll every IMAP folder? Or is everything accumulated when I poll INBOX? If you could shed some light on any of these matters, I'ld appreciate it. Thanks in advance.

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• What do I do about recurring billing?

  - by phidah

  This might be a subjective question, but I'll give it a go. There are already a number of questions on SO that revolves around subscription billing management. I am currently working on a SaaS solution that will require a fully automated billing system. What I am not looking for when asking this question is not advice on implementing towards a specific payment gateway or stuff like that. Instead I'd like advice on what kind of approach to take. The functionality that I need is a system that can handle upgrades, downgrades, recurring billing, cancellations, etc. Initially for one product only, but it might over time be a requirement that the system can handle multiple products (by products I mean fundamentally different products, not different variations of the same product). As I see it there are a number of possible approaches when you need a solution like this: Code a billing server yourself that supports this and is decoupled from each product so that it can handle multiple independent products. Use a hosted solution like Recurly, Chargify, Spreedly or CheddarGetter. The advantage of using a hosted solution is obviously that you don't need PCI certification, the concern is outsourced and it is a lot faster to get up and running. These advantages come at a cost however: The most important support function for your product - i.e. the billing is not in your control. Additionally you have less control and flexibility. What would you do? If we look beyond the PCI requirements I would definately prefer to have a system coded in-house that could do this kind of job. On the other hand I've heard from numerous sources that coding a system like this is a pain. Any advice is highly appreciated. Also, if you advice to code it yourself, any experiences on how to do it or if there are any opensource projects (no matter the language, what I'm after is not the code but the structure) that I can benefit from would really mean alot. Thanks in advance for your inputs! :-)

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• Try to use Window.FEATURU_CUSTOM_TITLE but got Exception:You cannot combine custom titles with other

  - by xueru

  I am trying to use a custom title to include an image button to the title bar. I got a lot of help form this post: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2569753/android-adding-button-to-the-title-of-the-app, but could not get it work for my ListActivity. In a nutshell, following is what I have: I hide the titlebar in the AndroidManifest.xml The specify a relative layout for the custom title (workorder_list_titlebar.xml) My Activity Class looks like the following: public class WorkOrderListActivity extends ListActivity { String[] orders={"WO-12022009", "WO-12302009", "WO-02122010", "02152010"}; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); requestWindowFeature(Window.FEATURE_CUSTOM_TITLE); this.getWindow().setFeatureInt(Window.FEATURE_CUSTOM_TITLE, R.layout.workorder_list_titlebar); setContentView(R.layout.workorder_list); setListAdapter(new ArrayAdapter(this,R.layout.workorder_list, R.id.label,orders)); } } When I ran the app, I got AndroidRuntimeException: You cannot combine custom titles with other title features. Base on the stack trace, the exception was thrown by com.android.internal.policy.impl.PhoneWindow.requestFeature(PhoneWindow.java:183), that was triggered by setlistAdapter call. Does anyone have the same problem with ListActivity? Also once I manage to get this work, how do I attach listeners to the image button for it to do something? Thanks in advance.

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• InvalidOperationException (Lambda parameter not in scope) when trying to Compile a Lambda Expression

  - by Moshe Levi

  Hello, I'm writing an Expression Parser to make my API more refactor friendly and less error prone. basicaly, I want the user to write code like that: repository.Get(entity => entity.Id == 10); instead of: repository.Get<Entity>("Id", 10); Extracting the member name from the left side of the binary expression was straight forward. The problems began when I tried to extract the value from the right side of the expression. The above snippet demonstrates the simplest possible case which involves a constant value but it can be much more complex involving closures and what not. After playing with that for some time I gave up on trying to cover all the possible cases myself and decided to use the framework to do all the heavy lifting for me by compiling and executing the right side of the expression. the relevant part of the code looks like that: public static KeyValuePair<string, object> Parse<T>(Expression<Func<T, bool>> expression) { var binaryExpression = (BinaryExpression)expression.Body; string memberName = ParseMemberName(binaryExpression.Left); object value = ParseValue(binaryExpression.Right); return new KeyValuePair<string, object>(memberName, value); } private static object ParseValue(Expression expression) { Expression conversionExpression = Expression.Convert(expression, typeof(object)); var lambdaExpression = Expression.Lambda<Func<object>>(conversionExpression); Func<object> accessor = lambdaExpression.Compile(); return accessor(); } Now, I get an InvalidOperationException (Lambda parameter not in scope) in the Compile line. when I googled for the solution I came up with similar questions that involved building an expression by hand and not supplying all the pieces, or trying to rely on parameters having the same name and not the same reference. I don't think that this is the case here because I'm reusing the given expression. I would appreciate if someone will give me some pointers on this. Thank you.

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• Parsing and getting specific values from CSV string

  - by Amit Ranjan

  I am having a string in CSV format. Please see my earlier question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2865861/parsing-csv-string-and-binding-it-to-listbox I can add new values to it by some mechanism. Everything will be same except the new values will have numeric part = 0. Take example I have this exsiting CSV string 1 , abc.txt , 2 , def.doc , 3 , flyaway.txt Now by some mechanism i added two more files Superman.txt and Spiderman.txt to the existing string. Now it became 1 , abc.txt , 2 , def.doc , 3 , flyaway.txt, 0, Superman.txt, 0 , Spiderman.txt What i am doing here is that this csv string is paased into SP where its splitted and inserted to db. So for inserting I have to take the files with numeric part 0 only rest will be omiited .Which will be further then converted into CSV string Array will look like this str[0]="1" str[1]="abc.txt" str[2]="2" str[3]="def.doc " str[4]="3" str[5]="flyaway.txt" str[6]="0" str[7]="Superman.txt" str[8]="0" str[9]="Spiderman.txt" So at last i want to say my input will be 1 , abc.txt , 2 , def.doc , 3 , flyaway.txt, 0, Superman.txt, 0 , Spiderman.txt Desired Output: 0, Superman.txt, 0 , Spiderman.txt

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• postfix relaying all mail through office365 problems

  - by amrith

  This is a rather long question with a long list of things tried and travails so please bear with me. The summary is this. I am able to relay email from ubuntu through office365 using postfix; the configuration works. It only works as one of the users; more specifically the user who authenticates against office365 is the only valid "from" More details follow. I have a machine in Amazon's cloud on which I run a bunch of jobs and would like to have statuses mailed over to me. I use office365 at work so I want to relay mail through office365. I'm most familiar with postfix so I used that as the MTA. Configuration is ubuntu 12.04LTS; I've installed postfix and mail-utils. For this example, let me say my company is "company.com" and the machine in question (through an elastic IP and a DNS entry) is called "plaything.company.com". hostname is set to "plaything.company.com", so is /etc/mailname On plaything, I have the following users registered alpha, bravo, and charlie. I have the following configuration files. alias_database = hash:/etc/aliases alias_maps = hash:/etc/aliases append_dot_mydomain = no biff = no config_directory = /etc/postfix inet_interfaces = all inet_protocols = ipv4 mailbox_size_limit = 0 mydestination = plaything.company.com, localhost.company.com, , localhost myhostname = plaything.company.com mynetworks = 127.0.0.0/8 [::ffff:127.0.0.0]/104 [::1]/128 myorigin = /etc/mailname readme_directory = no recipient_delimiter = + relayhost = [smtp.office365.com]:587 sender_canonical_maps = hash:/etc/postfix/sender_canonical smtp_sasl_auth_enable = yes smtp_sasl_password_maps = hash:/etc/postfix/sasl_passwd smtp_sasl_security_options = noanonymous smtp_sasl_tls_security_options = noanonymous smtp_tls_CAfile = /etc/ssl/certs/ca-certificates.crt smtp_tls_session_cache_database = btree:${data_directory}/smtp_scache smtp_use_tls = yes smtpd_banner = $myhostname ESMTP $mail_name (Ubuntu) smtpd_tls_cert_file = /etc/ssl/certs/ssl-cert-snakeoil.pem smtpd_tls_key_file = /etc/ssl/private/ssl-cert-snakeoil.key smtpd_tls_session_cache_database = btree:${data_directory}/smtpd_scache smtpd_use_tls = yes As the machine is called plaything.company.com I went through the exercise of registering all the appropriate DNS entries to make office365 recognize that I owned plaything.company.com and allowed me to create a user called [email protected] in office365. In office365, I setup [email protected] as having another email address of [email protected]. Then, I made the following sender_canonical [email protected] [email protected] I created a sasl_passwd file that reads: smtp.office365.com [email protected]:123456password123456 let's just say that the password for [email protected] is 1234...456 With all this setup, login as alpha and mail [email protected] Cc: Subject: test test and the whole thing works wonderfully. email gets sent off by postfix, TLS works like a champ, authenticates as daemon@... and [email protected] in Office365 gets an email message. The issue comes up when logged in as bravo to the machine. sender is [email protected] and office365 says: status=bounced (host smtp.office365.com[132.245.12.25] said: 550 5.7.1 Client does not have permissions to send as this sender (in reply to end of DATA command)) this is because I'm trying to send mail as bravo@... and authenticating with office365 as daemon@.... The reason it works with alpha@... is because in office365, I setup [email protected] as having another email address of [email protected]. In Postfix Relay to Office365, Miles Erickson answers the question thusly: Don't send mail to Office365 as a user from your Office365-hosted e-mail domain. Use a subdomain instead, e.g. [email protected] instead of [email protected]. It wouldn't hurt to set up an SPF record for services.mydomain.com or whatever you decide to use. Don't authenticate against mail.messaging.microsoft.com as an Office365 user. Just connect on port 25 and deliver the mail to your domain as any foreign SMTP agent would do. OK, I've done #1, I have those records on DNS but for the most part they are not relevant once Office365 recognizes that I own the domain. Here are those records: CNAME records: - msoid.plaything.company.com - autodiscover.plaything.company.com MX record: - plaything.company.com (plaything-company-com.mail.protection.outlook.com) TXT record: - plaything.company.com (v=spf1 include:spf.protection.outlook.com -all) I've tried #2 but no matter what I do, office365 just blows away the connection with "not authenticated". I can try even a simple telnet to port 25 and attempt to send and it doesn't work. 250 BY2PR01CA007.outlook.office365.com Hello [54.221.245.236] 530 5.7.1 Client was not authenticated Connection closed by foreign host. Is there someone out there who has this kind of a configuration working where multiple users on a linux machine are able to relay mail using postfix through office365? There has to be someone out there doing this who can tell me what is wrong with my setup ...

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• JOGL Double Buffering

  - by Bar

  What is eligible way to implement double buffering in JOGL (Java OpenGL)? I am trying to do that by the following code: ... /** Creating canvas. */ GLCapabilities capabilities = new GLCapabilities(); capabilities.setDoubleBuffered(true); GLCanvas canvas = new GLCanvas(capabilities); ... /** Function display(…), which draws a white Rectangle on a black background. */ public void display(GLAutoDrawable drawable) { drawable.swapBuffers(); gl = drawable.getGL(); gl.glClear(GL.GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT | GL.GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT); gl.glClearColor(0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); gl.glColor3f(1.0f, 1.0f, 1.0f); gl.glBegin(GL.GL_POLYGON); gl.glVertex2f(-0.5f, -0.5f); gl.glVertex2f(-0.5f, 0.5f); gl.glVertex2f(0.5f, 0.5f); gl.glVertex2f(0.5f, -0.5f); gl.glEnd(); } ... /** Other functions are empty. */ Questions: — When I'm resizing the window, I usually get flickering. As I see it, I have a mistake in my double buffering implementation. — I have doubt, where I must place function swapBuffers — before or after (as many sources says) the drawing? As you noticed, I use function swapBuffers (drawable.swapBuffers()) before drawing a rectangle. Otherwise, I'm getting a noise after resize. So what is an appropriate way to do that? Including or omitting the line capabilities.setDoubleBuffered(true) does not make any effect.

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• Rails test db doesn't persist record changes

  - by nathan.f77

  I've been trying to solve a problem for a few weeks now. I am running rspec tests for my Rails app, and they are working fine except for one error that I can't seem get my head around. I am using MySQL with the InnoDB engine. I have set config.use_transactional_fixtures = true in spec_helper.rb I load my test fixtures manually with the command rake spec:db:fixtures:load. The rspec test is being written for a BackgrounDRb worker, and it is testing that a record can have its state updated (through the state_machine gem). Here is my problem: I have a model called Listings. The rspec test calls the update_sold_items method within a file called listing_worker.rb. This method calls listing.sell for a particular record, which sets the listing record's 'state' column to 'sold'. So far, this is all working fine, but when the update_sold_items method finishes, my rspec test fails here: listing = Listing.find_by_listing_id(listing_id) listing.state.should == "sold" expected: "sold", got: "current" (using ==) I've been trying to track down why the state change is not persisting, but am pretty much lost. Here is the result of some debugging code that I placed in the update_sold_items method during the test: pp listing.state # => "current" listing.sell! listing.save! pp listing.state # => "sold" listing.reload pp listing.state # => "current" I cannot understand why it saves perfectly fine, but then reverts back to the original record whenever I call reload, or Listing.find etc. Thanks for reading this, and please ask any questions if I haven't given enough information. Thanks for your help, Nathan B P.S. I don't have a problem creating new records for other classes, and testing those records. It only seems to be a problem when I am updating records that already exist in the database.

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