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  • Is it Possible to Use Constraints on Hierarchical Data in a Self-Referential Table?

    - by pbarney
    Suppose you have the following table, intended to represent hierarchical data: +--------+-------------+ | Field | Type | +--------+-------------+ | id | int(10) | | parent | int(10) | | name | varchar(45) | +--------+-------------+ The table is self-referential in that the parent_id refers to id. So you might have the following data: +----+--------+---------------+ | id | parent | name | +----+--------+---------------+ | 1 | 0 | fruit | | 2 | 0 | vegetable | | 3 | 1 | apple | | 4 | 1 | orange | | 5 | 3 | red delicious | | 6 | 3 | granny smith | | 7 | 3 | gala | +----+--------+---------------+ Using MySQL, I am trying to impose a (self-referential) foreign key constraint upon the data to cascade on update and prevent deletion of a record if it has any "children." So I used the following: CREATE TABLE `test`.`fruit` ( `id` INT(10) UNSIGNED NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `parent` INT(10) UNSIGNED, `name` VARCHAR(45) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), CONSTRAINT `fk_parent` FOREIGN KEY (`parent`) REFERENCES `fruit` (`id`) ON UPDATE CASCADE ON DELETE RESTRICT ) ENGINE = InnoDB; From what I understand, this should fit my requirements. (And parent must default to null to allow insertions, correct?) The problem is, if I change the id of a record, it will not cascade: Cannot delete or update a parent row: a foreign key constraint fails (`test`.`fruit`, CONSTRAINT `fk_parent` FOREIGN KEY (`parent`) REFERENCES `fruit` (`id`) ON UPDATE CASCADE) What am I missing? Feel free to correct me if my terminology is screwed up... I'm new to constraints.

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  • In which domains are message oriented middleware like AMQP useful?

    - by cocotwo
    What problem do MOM (Message Oriented Middleware) solve? Scalability? Integration? In which domain are they typically used and in which domains are they typically not used? For example, say, is Google using such solution for it's main search engine or to power GMail? What about big websites like Walmart, eBay, FedEx (pretty much a Java shop) and buy.com (pretty much an MS shop)? Does MOM solve a need there? Does it make any sense when you're writing a Webapp where you control the server-side and have an homogenous environment (say tens of Amazon EC2 instances all running Linux + Java JVMs) there and where the clients are, well, Web browsers? Does it make sense for desktop apps that need to communicate with a server? Or is it 'only' for big enterprise stuff where you typically have a happy mix of countless of different systems that needs to communicate in a way or another? I'm a bit confused as to what they're useful for and I think that with example of where they're appropriate and where they're not appropriate I could better understand their use.

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  • Google Bar Chart Time Label Interval

    - by Alex Angelini
    Hi I am using Google Bar Chart through the visualization API on my site: http://code.google.com/apis/visualization/documentation/gallery/imagebarchart.html And my x-axis is time, and every time interval is a time of day in the format (HH:MM) Here is my code for the graph: <script type="text/javascript" src="https://www.google.com/jsapi"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> %s google.load("visualization", "1", {packages:["imagebarchart"]}); google.setOnLoadCallback(drawChart); function drawChart() { var data = new google.visualization.DataTable(); data.addColumn('string', 'Date'); data.addColumn('number', 'Amount'); data.addRows({{Rows}}); %s var chart = new google.visualization.ImageBarChart(document.getElementById('chart_div')); chart.draw(data, {width: 900, height: 340, min: 0, isVertical:true, legend:'none'}); } </script> The rows of data are added later using a templating engine, but that is the jist of my chart. Because I have added my time variable as 'string' I cannot use the valueLabelsInterval option to only show every 4 labels. Because I can't do that the labels overlap and look ugly. Is there any other way to only show every other time label or every 4th one, I read through the docs but could not see how to do it. Any help would be greatly appreciated thanks

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  • Java: design for using many executors services and only few threads

    - by Guillaume
    I need to run in parallel multiple threads to perform some tests. My 'test engine' will have n tests to perform, each one doing k sub-tests. Each test result is stored for a later usage. So I have n*k processes that can be ran concurrently. I'm trying to figure how to use the java concurrent tools efficiently. Right now I have an executor service at test level and n executor service at sub test level. I create my list of Callables for the test level. Each test callable will then create another list of callables for the subtest level. When invoked a test callable will subsequently invoke all subtest callables test 1 subtest a1 subtest ...1 subtest k1 test n subtest a2 subtest ...2 subtest k2 call sequence: test manager create test 1 callable test1 callable create subtest a1 to k1 testn callable create subtest an to kn test manager invoke all test callables test1 callable invoke all subtest a1 to k1 testn callable invoke all subtest an to kn This is working fine, but I have a lot of new treads that are created. I can not share executor service since I need to call 'shutdown' on the executors. My idea to fix this problem is to provide the same fixed size thread pool to each executor service. Do you think it is a good design ? Do I miss something more appropriate/simple for doing this ?

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  • Export large amount of data from Oracle 10G to SQL Server 2005

    - by uniball
    Dear all, I need to export 100 million data rows (avg row length ~ 100 bytes) from Oracle 10G database table into SQL server (over WAN/VLAN with 6MBits/sec capacity) on a regular basis. So far, these are the options that I have tried and a quick summary. Has anyone tried this before? Are there other better options? Which option would be the best in terms of performance and reliability? The time taken has been calculated using tests on smaller amounts of data and then extrapolating it to estimate the time required. Using data import wizard on the SQL server or SSIS packages to import the data. It will take around 150 hours to complete the task. Using Oracle batch job to spool data into a comma-delimited flat-file. Then using SSIS package to FTP this file to the SQL server and then load directly from the flat-file. The issue here is the size of the flat-file which is expected to run in GBs. Although this option is drastically different, I am even considering the option of using Linked Server to query the Oracle data directly at run-time to avoid bringing in data. Performance is a big problem and I have limited control over the Oracle database in terms of creating table indexes. Regards, Uniball

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  • PHP5 getrusage() returning incorrect information?

    - by Andrew
    I'm trying to determine CPU usage of my PHP scripts. I just found this article which details how to find system and user CPU usage time (Section 4). However, when I tried out the examples, I received completely different results. The first example: sleep(3); $data = getrusage(); echo "User time: ". ($data['ru_utime.tv_sec'] + $data['ru_utime.tv_usec'] / 1000000); echo "System time: ". ($data['ru_stime.tv_sec'] + $data['ru_stime.tv_usec'] / 1000000); Results in: User time: 29.53 System time: 2.71 Example 2: for($i=0;$i<10000000;$i++) { } // Same echo statements Results: User time: 16.69 System time: 2.1 Example 3: $start = microtime(true); while(microtime(true) - $start < 3) { } // Same echo statements Results: User time: 34.94 System time: 3.14 Obviously, none of the information is correct except maybe the system time in the third example. So what am I doing wrong? I'd really like to be able to use this information, but it needs to be reliable. I'm using Ubuntu Server 8.04 LTS (32-bit) and this is the output of php -v: PHP 5.2.4-2ubuntu5.10 with Suhosin-Patch 0.9.6.2 (cli) (built: Jan 6 2010 22:01:14) Copyright (c) 1997-2007 The PHP Group Zend Engine v2.2.0, Copyright (c) 1998-2007 Zend Technologies

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  • Best way to migrate export/import from SQL Server to oracle

    - by matao
    Hi guys! I'm faced with needing access for reporting to some data that lives in Oracle and other data that lives in a SQL Server 2000 database. For various reasons these live on different sides of a firewall. Now we're looking at doing an export/import from sql server to oracle and I'd like some advice on the best way to go about it... The procedure will need to be fully automated and run nightly, so that excludes using the SQL developer tools. I also can't make a live link between databases from our (oracle) side as the firewall is in the way. The data needs to be transformed in the process from a star schema to a de-normalised table ready for reporting. What I'm thinking about is writing a monster query for SQL Server (which I mostly have already) that will denormalise and read out the data from SQL Server into a flat file using the sql server equivalent of sqlplus as a scheduled task, dump into a Well Known Location, then on the oracle side have a cron job that copies down the file and loads it with sql loader and rebuilds indexes etc. This is all doable, but very manual. Is there one or a combination of FOSS or standard oracle/SQL Server tools that could automate this for me? the Irreducible complexity is the query on one side and building indexes on the other, but I would love to not have to write the CSV dumping detail or the SQL loader script, just say dump this view out to CSV on one side, and on the other truncate and insert into this table from CSV and not worry about mapping column names and all other arcane sqlldr voodoo... best practices? thoughts? comments? edit: I have about 50+ columns all of varying types and lengths in my dataset, which is why I'd prefer to not have to write out how to generate and map each single column...

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  • Data structure to build and lookup set of integer ranges

    - by actual
    I have a set of uint32 integers, there may be millions of items in the set. 50-70% of them are consecutive, but in input stream they appear in unpredictable order. I need to: Compress this set into ranges to achieve space efficient representation. Already implemented this using trivial algorithm, since ranges computed only once speed is not important here. After this transformation number of resulting ranges is typically within 5 000-10 000, many of them are single-item, of course. Test membership of some integer, information about specific range in the set is not required. This one must be very fast -- O(1). Was thinking about minimal perfect hash functions, but they do not play well with ranges. Bitsets are very space inefficient. Other structures, like binary trees, has complexity of O(log n), worst thing with them that implementation make many conditional jumps and processor can not predict them well giving poor performance. Is there any data structure or algorithm specialized in integer ranges to solve this task?

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  • Inserting default "admin" user into database during Rails App startup

    - by gbc
    I'm building my first real rails application for a little in-house task. Most of the application tasks require authentication/authorization. The first time the app starts up (or starts with a wiped db), I'd like the process to be: User logs into the admin panel using "admin" & "admin" for authentication info. User navigates to admin credentials editing page and changes name and password to something safer so that "admin" & "admin" is no longer a valid login. To achieve this result, I'd like to stuff a default username & password combination into the database on if the application starts up and detects that there are no user credentials in the 'users' table. For example: if User.count == 0 User.create(:name => "admin", :password => "admin") end However, I'm unsure where to place that code. I tried adding an initializer script in the config/initializers, but the error I received appeared to indicate that the model classes weren't yet loaded into the application. So I'm curious to know at what point I can hook into the application startup cycle and insert data into the database through ActiveRecord before requests are dispatched.

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  • Thread management advice - Is TPL a good idea?

    - by Ian
    I'm hoping to get some advice on the use of thread managment and hopefully the task parallel library, because I'm not sure I've been going down the correct route. Probably best is that I give an outline of what I'm trying to do. Given a Problem I need to generate a Solution using a heuristic based algorithm. I start of by calculating a base solution, this operation I don't think can be parallelised so we don't need to worry about. Once the inital solution has been generated, I want to trigger n threads, which attempt to find a better solution. These threads need to do a couple of things: They need to be initalized with a different 'optimization metric'. In other words they are attempting to optimize different things, with a precedence level set within code. This means they all run slightly different calculation engines. I'm not sure if I can do this with the TPL.. If one of the threads finds a better solution that the currently best known solution (which needs to be shared across all threads) then it needs to update the best solution, and force a number of other threads to restart (again this depends on precedence levels of the optimization metrics). I may also wish to combine certain calculations across threads (e.g. keep a union of probabilities for a certain approach to the problem). This is probably more optional though. The whole system needs to be thread safe obviously and I want it to be running as fast as possible. I tried quite an implementation that involved managing my own threads and shutting them down etc, but it started getting quite complicated, and I'm now wondering if the TPL might be better. I'm wondering if anyone can offer any general guidance? Thanks...

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  • SQL server 2005 agent not working

    - by flaggers
    Sql server 2005 service pack 2 version: 9.00.3042.00 All maintenance plans fail with the same error. The details of the error are:- Execute Maintenance Plan Execute maintenance plan. test7 (Error) Messages Execution failed. See the maintenance plan and SQL Server Agent job history logs for details. The advanced information section shows the following; Job 'test7.Subplan_1' failed. (SqlManagerUI) Program Location: at Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.SqlManagerUI.MaintenancePlanMenu_Run.PerformActions() At this point the following appear in the windows event log: Event Type: Error Event Source: SQLISPackage Event Category: None Event ID: 12291 Date: 28/05/2009 Time: 16:09:08 User: 'DOMAINNAME\username' Computer: SQLSERVER4 Description: Package "test7" failed. and also this: Event Type: Warning Event Source: SQLSERVERAGENT Event Category: Job Engine Event ID: 208 Date: 28/05/2009 Time: 16:09:10 User: N/A Computer: SQLSERVER4 Description: SQL Server Scheduled Job 'test7.Subplan_1' (0x96AE7493BFF39F4FBBAE034AB6DA1C1F) - Status: Failed - Invoked on: 2009-05-28 16:09:02 - Message: The job failed. The Job was invoked by User 'DOMAINNAME\username'. The last step to run was step 1 (Subplan_1). There are no entries in the SQl Agent log at all.

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  • MySql Check if NOW() falls within a weekday/time range

    - by Niall
    I have a table as follows: CREATE TABLE `zonetimes` ( `id` int(11) unsigned NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `zone_id` int(10) unsigned NOT NULL, `active_from_day` tinyint(1) unsigned NOT NULL DEFAULT '2', `active_to_day` tinyint(1) unsigned NOT NULL DEFAULT '2', `active_from` time NOT NULL, `active_to` time NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM ; So, a user could add a time entry starting on a particular day and time and ending on a particular day and time, eg: Between Monday 08:00 and Friday 18:00 or Between Thursday 15:00 and Tuesday 15:00 (Note the crossover at the end of the week). I need to query this data and determine if a zone is currently active (NOW(), DAYOFWEEK() etc)... This is turning out to be quite tricky. If I didn't have overlaps, eg: from 'Wednesday 8pm to Tuesday 4am' or from 'Thursday 4pm to Tuesday 4pm' this would be easy with BETWEEN. Also, need to allow a user to add for the entire week, eg: Monday 8am - Monday 8am (This should be easy enough, eg: where (active_from_day=active_to_day AND active_from=active_to) OR .. Any ideas? Note: I found a similar question here Timespan - Check for weekday and time of day in mysql but it didn't get an answer. One of the suggestions was to store each day as a separate row. I would much rather store one time span for multiple days though.

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  • How to deploy to multiple redundant production servers with "cap deploy"?

    - by Chad Johnson
    Capistrano is working great to deploy to a single server. However, I have multiple production API servers for my web application. When I deploy, my code needs to get deployed to every API server at once. Specifying each server manually is NOT the solution I am looking for (e.g. I don't want to do "cap api1 deploy; cap api2 deploy"). Is there a way, using Capistrano, to deploy to all servers at once, with just a simple "cap deploy"? I'm wondering what changes I would need to make to a typical deploy.rb file, whether I'd need to create a separate file for each server, and whether and how the Capfile would need to be changed. Also, I need to be able to specify a different deploy_to path for each server. And ideally, I wouldn't have to repeat things in different config files for different servers (eg. wouldn't have to specify :repository, :application, etc. multiple times). I have spent hours searching Google on this and looking through tutorials, but I have found nothing helpful. Here is a snippet from my current deploy.rb file: set :application, "testapplication" set :repository, "ssh://domain.com//srv/hg/#{application}" set :scm, :mercurial set :deploy_to, "/srv/www/#{application}" role :web, "domain.com" role :app, "domain.com" role :db, "domain.com", :primary => true, :norelease => true Should I just use the multistage extension and do this? task :deploy_everything do system "cap api1 deploy" system "cap api2 deploy" system "cap api2 deploy" end That could work, but I feel like this isn't what this extension is meant for...

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  • How to copy files without slowing down my app?

    - by Kevin Gebhardt
    I have a bunch of little files in my assets which need to be copied to the SD-card on the first start of my App. The copy code i got from here placed in an IntentService works like a charm. However, when I start to copy many litte files, the whole app gets increddible slow (I'm not really sure why by the way), which is a really bad experience for the user on first start. As I realised other apps running normal in that time, I tried to start a child process for the service, which didn't work, as I can't acess my assets from another process as far as I understood. Has anybody out there an idea how a) to copy the files without blocking my app b) to get through to my assets from a private process (process=":myOtherProcess" in Manifest) or c) solve the problem in a complete different way Edit: To make this clearer: The copying allready takes place in a seperate thread (started automaticaly by IntentService). The problem is not to separate the task of copying but that the copying in a dedicated thread somehow affects the rest of the app (e.g. blocking to many app-specific resources?) but not other apps (so it's not blocking the whole CPU or someting) Edit2: Problem solved, it turns out, there wasn't really a problem. See my answer below.

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  • python os.mkfifo() for Windows

    - by user302099
    Hello. Short version (if you can answer the short version it does the job for me, the rest is mainly for the benefit of other people with a similar task): In python in Windows, I want to create 2 file objects, attached to the same file (it doesn't have to be an actual file on the hard-drive), one for reading and one for writing, such that if the reading end tries to read it will never get EOF (it will just block until something is written). I think in linux os.mkfifo() would do the job, but in Windows it doesn't exist. What can be done? (I must use file-objects). Some extra details: I have a python module (not written by me) that plays a certain game through stdin and stdout (using raw_input() and print). I also have a Windows executable playing the same game, through stdin and stdout as well. I want to make them play one against the other, and log all their communication. Here's the code I can write (the get_fifo() function is not implemented, because that's what I don't know to do it Windows): class Pusher(Thread): def __init__(self, source, dest, p1, name): Thread.__init__(self) self.source = source self.dest = dest self.name = name self.p1 = p1 def run(self): while (self.p1.poll()==None) and\ (not self.source.closed) and (not self.source.closed): line = self.source.readline() logging.info('%s: %s' % (self.name, line[:-1])) self.dest.write(line) self.dest.flush() exe_to_pythonmodule_reader, exe_to_pythonmodule_writer =\ get_fifo() pythonmodule_to_exe_reader, pythonmodule_to_exe_writer =\ get_fifo() p1 = subprocess.Popen(exe, shell=False, stdin=subprocess.PIPE, stdout=subprocess.PIPE) old_stdin = sys.stdin old_stdout = sys.stdout sys.stdin = exe_to_pythonmodule_reader sys.stdout = pythonmodule_to_exe_writer push1 = Pusher(p1.stdout, exe_to_pythonmodule_writer, p1, '1') push2 = Pusher(pythonmodule_to_exe_reader, p1.stdin, p1, '2') push1.start() push2.start() ret = pythonmodule.play() sys.stdin = old_stdin sys.stdout = old_stdout

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  • Is MarshalByRefObject special?

    - by Vilx-
    .NET has a thing called remoting where you can pass objects around between separate appdomains or even physical machines. I don't fully understand how the magic is done, hence this question. In remoting there are two base ways of passing objects around - either they can be serialized (converted to a bunch of bytes and the rebuilt at the other end) or they can inherit from MarshalByRefObject, in which case .NET makes some transparent proxies and all method calls are forwarded back to the original instance. This is pretty cool and works like magic. And I don't like magic in programming. Looking at the MarshalByRefObject with the Reflector I don't see anything that would set it apart from any other typical object. Not even a weird internal attribute or anything. So how is the whole transparent proxy thing organized? Can I make such a mechanism myself? Can I make an alternate MyMarshalByRefObject which would not inherit from MarshalByRefObject but would still act the same? Or is MarshalByRefObject receiving some special treatment by the .NET engine itself and the whole remoting feat is non-duplicatable by mere mortals?

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  • Should I pass a SqlDataReader by reference or not when passing it out to multiple threads.

    - by deroby
    Hi all, being new to c# I've run into this 'conundrum' when passing around a SqlDataReader between different threads. Without going into too much detail, the idea is to have a main thread fetching data from the database (a large recordset) and then have a helper-task run through this record by record and doing some stuff based upon the contents of this. There is no feedback to the recordset, it simply wades through until no records are left. This works fine, but given the nature of the job at hand it should be possible to have this job spread over different threads (CPUs) to maximize throughput (the order of execution is of no significance). The question then becomes, when I pass this recordset in a SqlDataReader, do I have to use ref or not ? It kind of boils down to the question : if I pass the object around without specifying ref, won't it create new copies in memory and have records processed n times ? Or, don't I risk having the record-position being moved forward while not all fields have been fully read yet ? The latter seems more like a 'data racing' issue and probably is covered by the lock()ing mechanism (or not?). My initial take on the problem was that it doesn't really hurt passing the variable using ref, yet as a colleague put it : "you only need ref when you're doing something wrong" =) Additionally using ref restricts me from applying a Using() construction too which isn't very nice either. I thus create a "basic" project that tackles the same approach but without the ref notation. Tests so far show that it works flawlessly on a Core2Duo (2cpu) using any number of threads, yet I'm still a bit wary... What do you experts think about this ? Use ref or not ? You can find the test-project here as it seems I can't upload it to this question directly ?!? ps: it's just a test-project and I'm new to c#, so please be gentle on me when breaking down the code =P

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  • Replace without the replace function

    - by Molly Potter
    Assignment: Let X and Y be two words. Find/Replace is a common word processing operation that finds each occurrence of word X and replaces it with word Y in a given document. Your task is to write a program that performs the Find/Replace operation. Your program will prompt the user for the word to be replaced (X), then the substitute word (Y ). Assume that the input document is named input.txt. You must write the result of this Find/Replace operation to a file named output.txt. Lastly, you cannot use the replace() string function built into Python (it would make the assignment much too easy). To test your code, you should modify input.txt using a text editor such as Notepad or IDLE to contain different lines of text. Again, the output of your code must look exactly like the sample output. This is my code: input_data = open('input.txt','r') #this opens the file to read it. output_data = open('output.txt','w') #this opens a file to write to. userStr= (raw_input('Enter the word to be replaced:')) #this prompts the user for a word userReplace =(raw_input('What should I replace all occurences of ' + userStr + ' with?')) #this prompts the user for the replacement word for line in input_data: words = line.split() if userStr in words: output_data.write(line + userReplace) else: output_data.write(line) print 'All occurences of '+userStr+' in input.txt have been replaced by '+userReplace+' in output.txt' #this tells the user that we have replaced the words they gave us input_data.close() #this closes the documents we opened before output_data.close() It won't replace anything in the output file. Help!

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  • jQuery or CSS - How do you make a link in a table row appear underlined even when the cursor is in a

    - by adam
    I have a table of 3-4 columns, the central one being task names that are also links(yet another todo app..groan). Im trying to make it so that whenever the mouse hovers over any part of the table row - not just the link itself - the link will appear underlined. Its a small detail but its been annoying me like hell and i refuse to let it get the better of me now. At first i tried jQuery with a (forgive the obvious syntax errors but this is the jist) $('#row_in_question').hover( function(){ $(this).find(...the link..).toggleClass("highlighted") }, function(){ $(this).find(...the link..).toggleClass("highlighted") } ); with this as a styling for the a element in general .highlighted { text-decoration: underlined; } and it did indeed toggle the highlighted class on that link - however css inheritance got in the way and no visual changes made. Since i previously styled that link to have no underline when not hovered it wouldnt change the style. So how do i go about this? I dont want the whole row to become clickable, I just want the text to become underlined.

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  • Why is my user control not instanciated on a postback?

    - by Antoine
    Hi, I'd like to set the trigger of an UpdatePanel to a user control outside the UpdatePanel on the same page . The user control is added at design time, not at runtime. If I statically declare the trigger, I get an error "A control with ID 'xx' cannot be found for the trigger in UpdatePanel". I tried to add the trigger at runtime in Page_Init or Page_Load, but it fails with the user control being null, although it has ViewState enabled. Has someone an idea on how to solve this? Here is the code of the user control: <%@ Control Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="ComponentDropDownControl.ascx.cs" Inherits="ComponentDropDownControl" EnableViewState="true" %> <asp:DropDownList ID="ComponentDropDown" runat="server" DataSourceID="ComponentFile" DataTextField="name" DataValueField="name" OnSelectedIndexChanged="ComponentDropDown_SelectedIndexChanged" AutoPostBack="True" EnableTheming="True"> </asp:DropDownList><asp:XmlDataSource ID="ComponentFile" runat="server" DataFile="~/App_Data/Components.xml" XPath="//component"></asp:XmlDataSource> And here it is in the aspx page: <%@ Page Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/MasterPage.master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="create.aspx.cs" Inherits="create" Title="Create task" %> <%@ Register Src="ComponentDropDownControl.ascx" TagName="ComponentDropDownControl" TagPrefix="uc1" %> ... <uc1:ComponentDropDownControl ID="CustomComponentDropDown" runat="server" EnableViewState="true" /> In the Page_Load function of the aspx page, the following lines work at first time, but fail on the first PostBack (line 2, CustomComponentDropDown is null). AsyncPostBackTrigger trigger = new AsyncPostBackTrigger(); trigger.ControlID = CustomComponentDropDown.UniqueID.ToString(); UpdatePanel1.Triggers.Add(trigger);

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  • I want tell the VC++ Compiler to compile all code. Can it be done?

    - by KGB
    I am using VS2005 VC++ for unmanaged C++. I have VSTS and am trying to use the code coverage tool to accomplish two things with regards to unit tests: See how much of my referenced code under test is getting executed See how many methods of my code under test (if any) are not unit tested at all Setting up the VSTS code coverage tool (see the link text) and accomplishing task #1 was straightforward. However #2 has been a surprising challenge for me. Here is my test code. class CodeCoverageTarget { public: std::string ThisMethodRuns() { return "Running"; } std::string ThisMethodDoesNotRun() { return "Not Running"; } }; #include <iostream> #include "CodeCoverageTarget.h" using namespace std; int main() { CodeCoverageTarget cct; cout<<cct.ThisMethodRuns()<<endl; } When both methods are defined within the class as above the compiler automatically eliminates the ThisMethodDoesNotRun() from the obj file. If I move it's definition outside the class then it is included in the obj file and the code coverage tool shows it has not been exercised at all. Under most circumstances I want the compiler to do this elimination for me but for the code coverage tool it defeats a significant portion of the value (e.g. finding untested methods). I have tried a number of things to tell the compiler to stop being smart for me and compile everything but I am stumped. It would be nice if the code coverage tool compensated for this (I suppose by scanning the source and matching it up with the linker output) but I didn't find anything to suggest it has a special mode to be turned on. Am I totally missing something simple here or is this not possible with the VC++ compiler + VSTS code coverage tool? Thanks in advance, KGB

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  • How to find out where a thread lock happend?

    - by SchlaWiener
    One of our company's Windows Forms application had a strange problem for several month. The app worked very reliable for most of our customers but on some PC's (mostly with a wireless lan connection) the app sometimes just didn't respond anymore. (You click on the UI and windows ask you to wait or kill the app). I wasn't able to track down the problem for a long time but now I figured out what happend. The app had this line of code // don't blame me for this. Wasn't my code :D Control.CheckForIllegalCrossThreadCalls = false and used some background threads to modify the controls. No I found a way to reproduce the application stopping responding bug on my dev machine and tracked it down to a line where I actually used Invoke() to run a task in the main thread. Me.Invoke(MyDelegate, arg1, arg2) Obviously there was a thread lock somewhere. After removing the Control.CheckForIllegalCrossThreadCalls = false statement and refactoring the whole programm to use Invoke() if modifying a control from a background thread, the problem is (hopefully) gone. However, I am wondering if there is a way to find such bugs without debugging every line of code (Even if I break into debugger after the app stops responding I can't tell what happend last, because the IDE didn't jump to the Invoke() statement) In other words: If my apps hangs how can I figure out which line of code has been executed last? Maybe even on the customers PC. I know VS2010 offers some backwards debugging feature, maybe that would be a solution, but currently I am using VS2008.

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  • how to let the parser print help message rather than error and exit

    - by fluter
    Hi, I am using argparse to handle cmd args, I wanna if there is no args specified, then print the help message, but now the parse will output a error, and then exit. my code is: def main(): print "in abing/start/main" parser = argparse.ArgumentParser(prog="abing")#, usage="%(prog)s <command> [args] [--help]") parser.add_argument("-v", "--verbose", action="store_true", default=False, help="show verbose output") subparsers = parser.add_subparsers(title="commands") bkr_subparser = subparsers.add_parser("beaker", help="beaker inspection") bkr_subparser.set_defaults(command=beaker_command) bkr_subparser.add_argument("-m", "--max", action="store", default=3, type=int, help="max resubmit count") bkr_subparser.add_argument("-g", "--grain", action="store", default="J", choices=["J", "RS", "R", "T", "job", "recipeset", "recipe", "task"], type=str, help="resubmit selection granularity") bkr_subparser.add_argument("job_ids", nargs=1, action="store", help="list of job id to be monitored") et_subparser = subparsers.add_parser("errata", help="errata inspection") et_subparser.set_defaults(command=errata_command) et_subparser.add_argument("-w", "--workflows", action="store_true", help="generate workflows for the erratum") et_subparser.add_argument("-r", "--run", action="store_true", help="generate workflows, and run for the erratum") et_subparser.add_argument("-s", "--start-monitor", action="store_true", help="start monitor the errata system") et_subparser.add_argument("-d", "--daemon", action="store_true", help="run monitor into daemon mode") et_subparser.add_argument("erratum", action="store", nargs=1, metavar="ERRATUM", help="erratum id") if len(sys.argv) == 1: parser.print_help() return args = parser.parse_args() args.command(args) return how can I do that? thanks.

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  • How to execute stored procedure from Access using linked tables

    - by webworm
    I have an Access 2003 database that connects to a SQL Server 2008 box via ODBC. The tables from SQL Server are connected as linked tables in Access. I have a stored procedure on the SQL Server that I am trying to execute via ADO code. The problem I have is that Access cannot seem to find the procedure. What do I have to do within Access to be able to execute this stored procedure? Some facts ... The stored procedure in question accepts one parameter which is an integer. The stored procedure returns a recordset which I am hoping to use as the datasource for a ListBox. Here is my ADO code in Access ... Private Sub LoadUserCaseList(userID As Integer) Dim cmd As ADODB.Command Set cmd = New ADODB.Command cmd.ActiveConnection = CurrentProject.Connection cmd.CommandType = adCmdStoredProc cmd.CommandText = "uspGetUserCaseSummaryList" Dim par As New ADODB.Parameter Set par = cmd.CreateParameter("userID", adInteger) cmd.Parameters.Append par cmd.Parameters("userID") = userID Dim rs As ADODB.Recordset Set rs = cmd.Execute() lstUserCases.Recordset = rs End Sub The error I get is "the microsoft jet database engine cannot find the input table or query "uspGetUserCaseSummaryList".

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  • Upcasting without any added data fields.

    - by Benjamin Manns
    In my project I have a generic Packet class. I would like to be able to upcast to other classes (like LoginPacket or MovePacket). The base class contains a command and arguments (greatly simplified): public class Packet { public String Command; public String[] Arguments; } I would like to have be able to convert from Packet to LoginPacket (or any other) based on a check if Packet.Command == "LOGIN". The login packet would not contain any new data members, but only methods for accessing specific arguments. For example: public class LoginPacket : Packet { public String Username { get { return Arguments[0]; } set { Arguments[0] == value; } } public String Password { get { return Arguments[1]; } set { Arguments[1] == value; } } } It would be great if I could run a simple code that would cast from Packet to LoginPacket with something like LoginPacket _Login = (LoginPacket)_Packet;, but that throws a System.InvalidCastException. It seems like this would be an easy task, as no new data is included, but I can't figure out any other way than copying everything from the Packet class to a new LoginPacket class.

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