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  • How can I make VS2010 insert using statements in the order dictated by StyleCop rules.

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    The related default StyleCop rules are: Place using statements inside namespace. Sort using statements alphabetically. But ... System using come first (still trying to figure out if that means just using System; or using System[.*];). So, my use case: I find a bug and decide that I need to at least add an intelligible Assert to make debugging less painful for the next guy. So I start typing Debug.Assert( and intellisense marks it in Red. I hover mouse over Debug and between using System.Diagnostics; and System.Diagnostics.Debug I choose the former. This inserts using System.Diagnostics; after all other using statements. It would be nice if VS2010 did not assist me in writing code that won't build due to warnings as errors. How can I make VS2010 smarter? Is there some sort of setting, or does this require a full-fledged add-in of some sort?

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  • Is there a more memory efficient way to search through a Core Data database?

    - by Kristian K
    I need to see if an object that I have obtained from a CSV file with a unique identifier exists in my Core Data Database, and this is the code I deemed suitable for this task: NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity; entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"ICD9" inManagedObjectContext:passedContext]; [fetchRequest setEntity:entity]; NSPredicate *pred = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"uniqueID like %@", uniqueIdentifier]; [fetchRequest setPredicate:pred]; NSError *err; NSArray* icd9s = [passedContext executeFetchRequest:fetchRequest error:&err]; [fetchRequest release]; if ([icd9s count] > 0) { for (int i = 0; i < [icd9s count]; i++) { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc]init]; NSString *name = [[icd9s objectAtIndex:i] valueForKey:@"uniqueID"]; if ([name caseInsensitiveCompare:uniqueIdentifier] == NSOrderedSame && name != nil) { [pool release]; return [icd9s objectAtIndex:i]; } [pool release]; } } return nil; After more thorough testing it appears that this code is responsible for a huge amount of leaking in the app I'm writing (it crashes on a 3GS before making it 20 percent through the 1459 items). I feel like this isn't the most efficient way to do this, any suggestions for a more memory efficient way? Thanks in advance!

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  • C++ Loop - Need variable to accumulate sum

    - by user1780064
    I'm writing a program to ask the user to enter a value between 5 and 21 (inclusive). If the number entered is not in this range, it prints, "Please try again". If the number is within the range, I need to take that number, and print the sum of all the numbers from 1 to the value entered. So if the user entered "7", the sum would be "28". I successfully wrote the first loop, in the case of the number not being within the range, but cannot figure out how to run the second loop- whether to use a while, do-while, or for loop. Please advise. #include <iostream> int main () { int uservalue; int count; int sum; //Prompt user for input do { cout << "Enter a value from 5 to 21: "; cin >> uservalue; if (uservalue < 5 || uservalue > 21) cout << "Value out of range. Try again..." << endl; } while (uservalue < 5 || uservalue > 21); cout << endl; //Loop to accumulate sum for (count = 1, count < uservalue, count++;) { sum = uservalue + count; if (uservalue <= 5 || uservalue <= 21) cout << the sum is " << sum << endl; } return 0; }

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  • perl multithreading issue for autoincrement

    - by user3446683
    I'm writing a multi threaded perl script and storing the output in a csv file. I'm trying to insert a field called sl.no. in the csv file for each row entered but as I'm using threads, the sl. no. overlaps in most. Below is an idea of my code snippet. for ( my $count = 1 ; $count <= 10 ; $count++ ) { my $t = threads->new( \&sub1, $count ); push( @threads, $t ); } foreach (@threads) { my $num = $_->join; } sub sub1 { my $num = shift; my $start = '...'; #distributing data based on an internal logic my $end = '...'; #distributing data based on an internal logic my $next; for ( my $x = $start ; $x <= $end ; $x++ ) { my $count = $x + 1; #part of code from which I get @data which has name and age my $j = 0; if ( $x != 0 ) { $count = $next; } foreach (@data) { #j is required here for some extra code flock( OUTPUT, LOCK_EX ); print OUTPUT $count . "," . $name . "," . $age . "\n"; flock( OUTPUT, LOCK_UN ); $j++; $count++; } $next = $count; } return $num; } I need the count to be incremented which is the serial number for the rows that would be inserted in the csv file. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • C# Convert string to nullable type (int, double, etc...)

    - by Nathan Koop
    I am attempting to do some data conversion. Unfortunately, much of the data is in strings, where it should be int's or double, etc... So what I've got is something like: double? amount = Convert.ToDouble(strAmount); The problem with this approach is if strAmount is empty, if it's empty I want it to amount to be null, so when I add it into the database the column will be null. So I ended up writing this: double? amount = null; if(strAmount.Trim().Length>0) { amount = Convert.ToDouble(strAmount); } Now this works fine, but I now have five lines of code instead of one. This makes things a little more difficult to read, especially when I have a large amount of columns to convert. I thought I'd use an extension to the string class and generic's to pass in the type, this is because it could be a double, or an int, or a long. So I tried this: public static class GenericExtension { public static Nullable<T> ConvertToNullable<T>(this string s, T type) where T: struct { if (s.Trim().Length > 0) { return (Nullable<T>)s; } return null; } } But I get the error: Cannot convert type 'string' to 'T?' Is there a way around this? I am not very familiar with creating methods using generics.

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  • Using Generics to return a literal string or from Dictionary<string, object>

    - by Mike
    I think I outsmarted myself this time. Feel free to edit the title also I could not think of a good one. I am reading from a file and then in that file will be a string because its like an xml file. But in the file will be a literal value or a "command" to get the value from the workContainer so <Email>[email protected]</Email> or <Email>[? MyEmail ?]</Email> What I wanted to do instead of writing ifs all over the place to put it in a generic function so logic is If Container command grab from container else grab string and convert to desired type Its up to the user to ensure the file is ok and the type is correct so another example is so <Answer>3</Answer> or <Answer>[? NumberOfSales ?]</Answer> This is the procedure I started to work on public class WorkContainer:Dictionary<string, object> { public T GetKeyValue<T>(string Parameter) { if (Parameter.StartsWith("[? ")) { string key = Parameter.Replace("[? ", "").Replace(" ?]", ""); if (this.ContainsKey(key)) { return (T)this[key]; } else { // may throw error for value types return default(T); } } else { // Does not Compile if (typeof(T) is string) { return Parameter } // OR return (T)Parameter } } } The Call would be mail.To = container.GetKeyValue<string>("[email protected]"); or mail.To = container.GetKeyValue<string>("[? MyEmail ?]"); int answer = container.GetKeyValue<int>("3"); or answer = container.GetKeyValue<int>("[? NumberOfSales ?]"); But it does not compile?

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  • How to set buffer size in client-server app using sockets?

    - by nelly
    First of all i am new to networking so i may say dumb thing in here. Considering a client-server application using sockets(.net with c# if that matters). The client sends some data, the server process it and sends back a string. The client sends some other data, the serve process it, queries the db and sends back several hundreds of items from the database The client sends some other type of data and the server notifies some other clients . My question is how to set the buffer size correctly for reading/writing operation. Should i do something like this: byte[] buff = new byte[client.ReceiveBufferSize] ? I am thinking of something like this: Client sends data to the server(and the server will follow the same pattern) byte[] bytesToSend=new byte[2048] //2048 to be standard for any command send by the client bytes 0..1 ->command type bytes 1..2047 ->command parameters byte[] bytesToReceive=new byte[8]/byte[64]/byte[8192] //switch(command type) But..what is happening when a client is notified by the server without sending data? What is the correct way to accomplish what i am trying to do? Thanks for reading.

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  • .NET Application with SQL Server CE Database

    - by blu
    I just started using SQL Server CE 3.5 in my WinForms Application (C# in VS 2008 SP1). I've noticed a couple of interesting things I'd like some input on: 1. Copying of sdf file to bin My sdf file is located inside of an Infrastructure project that houses my repository implementations. When the application is first debugged the sdf was copied to debug\bin. This is where all future reads/writes operate. At some point when this is deployed the file will go into a data folder using Click Once, but during development where should I be putting this sdf? Is having it in the bin typical, or are there any other recommendations? 2. Updating sdf It appears that writing to the sdf file does not immediately update the database. I am using Linq-to-SQL and am calling SubmitChanges, but on read the values are not returned. However if I close the application and re-open it the added value is there. Is there an additional flush step I need to take? What is causing this, file locking, buffering, something else? Update 3. Unit Tests I have an MS test project, and the sdf file is not being copied to the correct output directory. I have the settings: Build Action: Content Copy to Output Directory: Copy Always The message is: System.Data.SqlServerCe.SqlCeException: The database file cannot be found. Check the path to the database. I appreciate any guidance on these questions, thanks. If there is a tutorial other than what is on MSDN that you know about that would be great too. Working with CE is proving to be a difficult task and I welcome any help I can find.

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  • How to make ActiveRecord work with legacy partitioned/sharded databases/tables?

    - by Utensil
    thanks for your time first...after all the searching on google, github and here, and got more confused about the big words(partition/shard/fedorate),I figure that I have to describe the specific problem I met and ask around. My company's databases deals with massive users and orders, so we split databases and tables in various ways, some are described below: way database and table name shard by (maybe it's should be called partitioned by?) YZ.X db_YZ.tb_X order serial number last three digits YYYYMMDD. db_YYYYMMDD.tb date YYYYMM.DD db_YYYYMM.tb_ DD date too The basic concept is that databases and tables are seperated acording to a field(not nessissarily the primary key), and there are too many databases and too many tables, so that writing or magically generate one database.yml config for each database and one model for each table isn't possible or at least not the best solution. I looked into drnic's magic solutions, and datafabric, and even the source code of active record, maybe I could use ERB to generate database.yml and do database connection in around filter, and maybe I could use named_scope to dynamically decide the table name for find, but update/create opertions are bounded to "self.class.quoted_table_name" so that I couldn't easily get my problem solved. And even I could generate one model for each table, because its amount is up to 30 most. But this is just not DRY! What I need is a clean solution like the following DSL: class Order < ActiveRecord::Base shard_by :order_serialno do |key| [get_db_config_by(key), #because some or all of the databaes might share the same machine in a regular way or can be configed by a hash of regex, and it can also be a const get_db_name_by(key), get_tb_name_by(key), ] end end Can anybody enlight me? Any help would be greatly appreciated~~~~

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  • Javascript Graph Layout Engine

    - by GJK
    I'm looking for a Javascript library/engine that can do graph layouts. (And when I say layouts, I mean logically position vertices nicely.) The graphs I'm working with are all m-ary trees. M is usually no more than 5 or 6, but it can be greater in some cases. I do have something that I use now, Graphviz's node program, and it works perfectly. The problem is, when running a web app, I have to send a request to the server every time I want a layout. Preferably, I would like something written in Javascript that can be quickly run on the client side. All it needs to do is provide layout information (relative positioning and whatnot). I don't need it to draw to a canvas or use SVG or anything, all I'm interested in is the layout. Library use like jQuery or RaphaelJS is fine by me. I'll work with it. I'm just looking for something to speed things along a little. Also, I'd consider writing my own if I could find a nice description of an algorithm to do the layouts. But I really don't want to spend too much time. I have something that works now, so getting it on the client side is just a bonus, not a necessity.

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  • Can I get a reference to an object created in a jQuery plugin?

    - by gargantaun
    Perhaps my brain is fried, but I'm writing a plugin that created an tweaks an element, but also creates an object that i'd like access to. So the plugin looks like this (function ($) { $.fn.myPlugin = function () { return this.each(function () { // do some stuff to the element... this.objectInstance = new usefulObject(); }); }; })(jQuery); function usefulObject(){ // useful object properties and methods.... this.doSomething = function(){ alert("Don't google Google. You'll break the internet."); } } so when I call the plugin, I also want to be able to get access to that usefulObject that I created. I thought something like this might work.... tweakedElement = $("#someDiv").myPlugin(); tweakedElement.objectInstance.doSomething(); ... but that's not working. How can I achieve this? Can I achieve this? Answers on a postcard, or down below, whichever suits you.

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  • How to limit TCP writes to particular size and then block untlil the data is read

    - by ustulation
    {Qt 4.7.0 , VS 2010} I have a Server written in Qt and a 3rd party client executable. Qt based server uses QTcpServer and QTcpSocket facilities (non-blocking). Going through the articles on TCP I understand the following: the original implementation of TCP mentioned the negotiable window size to be a 16-bit value, thus maximum being 65535 bytes. But implementations often used the RFC window-scale-extension that allows the sliding window size to be scalable by bit-shifting to yield a maximum of 1 gigabyte. This is implementation defined. This could have resulted in majorly different window sizes on receiver and sender end as the server uses Qt facilities without hardcoding any window size limit. Client 1st asks for all information it can based on the previous messages from the server before handling the new (accumulating) incoming messages. So at some point Server receives a lot of messages each asking for data of several MB's. This the server processes and puts it into the sender buffer. Client however is unable to handle the messages at the same pace and it seems that client’s receiver buffer is far smaller (65535 bytes maybe) than sender’s transmit window size. The messages thus get accumulated at sender’s end until the sender’s buffer is full too after which the TCP writes on sender would block. This however does not happen as sender buffer is much larger. Hence this manifests as increase in memory consumption on the sender’s end. To prevent this from happening, I used Qt’s socket’s waitForBytesWritten() with timeout set to -1 for infinite waiting period. This as I see from the behaviour blocks the thread writing TCP data until the data has actually been sensed by the receiver’s window (which will happen when earlier messages have been processed by the client at application level). This has caused memory consumption at Server end to be almost negligible. is there a better alternative to this (in Qt) if i want to restrict the memory consumption at server end to say x MB's? Also please point out if any of my understandings is incorrect.

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  • What is a recommended Android utility class collection?

    - by Sebastian Roth
    I often find myself writing very similar code across projects. And more often than not, I copy stuff over from old projects. Things like: Create images with round corners read density into a static variable & re-use. 4 lines.. disable / hide multiple views / remote views at once. Example: } public static void disableViews(RemoteViews views, int... ids) { for (int id : ids) { views.setInt(id, SET_VISIBILITY, View.GONE); } } public static void showViews(RemoteViews views, int... ids) { for (int id : ids) { views.setInt(id, SET_VISIBILITY, View.VISIBLE); } } I'd love to package these kind of functions into 1 letter / 2 letter class names, i.e. V.showViews(RemoteViews views, int... ids) would be easy to write & remember I hope. I'm searching for Github recommendations, links and if nothing is found, I perhaps will start a small project on github to collect.

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  • What is the purpose of the QAbstractButton::checkStateSet() method?

    - by darkadept
    I'm writing my own 4 state button and I'm not quite sure what to put in the checkStateSet() method, if anything. Here is what I've got so far: SyncDirectionButton::SyncDirectionButton(QWidget *parent) : QAbstractButton(parent) { setCheckable(true); setToolTip(tr("Click to change the sync direction")); _state = NoSync; } void SyncDirectionButton::paintEvent(QPaintEvent *e) { static QPixmapCache::Key noneKey; static QPixmapCache::Key bothKey; static QPixmapCache::Key leftKey; static QPixmapCache::Key rightKey; QPainter p(this); QPixmap pix; if (checkState() == SyncLeft) { if (!QPixmapCache::find(leftKey, &pix)) { pix.load(":/icons/sync-left.png"); leftKey = QPixmapCache::insert(pix); } } else if (checkState() == SyncBoth) { if (!QPixmapCache::find(rightKey, &pix)) { pix.load(":/icons/sync-right.png"); rightKey = QPixmapCache::insert(pix); } } else if (checkState() == SyncRight) { if (!QPixmapCache::find(bothKey, &pix)) { pix.load(":/icons/sync-both.png"); bothKey = QPixmapCache::insert(pix); } } else if (checkState() == NoSync) { if (!QPixmapCache::find(noneKey, &pix)) { pix.load(":/icons/application-exit.png"); noneKey = QPixmapCache::insert(pix); } } p.drawPixmap(0,0,pix); } SyncDirectionButton::DirectionState SyncDirectionButton::checkState() const { return _state; } void SyncDirectionButton::setCheckState(DirectionState state) { setChecked(state != NoSync); if (state != _state) { _state = state; } } QSize SyncDirectionButton::sizeHint() const { return QSize(180,90); } void SyncDirectionButton::checkStateSet() { } void SyncDirectionButton::nextCheckState() { setCheckState((DirectionState)((checkState()+1)%4)); }

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  • When using Direct3D, how much math is being done on the CPU?

    - by zirgen
    Context: I'm just starting out. I'm not even touching the Direct3D 11 API, and instead looking at understanding the pipeline, etc. From looking at documentation and information floating around the web, it seems like some calculations are being handled by the application. That, is, instead of simply presenting matrices to multiply to the GPU, the calculations are being done by a math library that operates on the CPU. I don't have any particular resources to point to, although I guess I can point to the XNA Math Library or the samples shipped in the February DX SDK. When you see code like mViewProj = mView * mProj;, that projection is being calculated on the CPU. Or am I wrong? If you were writing a program, where you can have 10 cubes on the screen, where you can move or rotate cubes, as well as viewpoint, what calculations would you do on the CPU? I think I would store the geometry for the a single cube, and then transform matrices representing the actual instances. And then it seems I would use the XNA math library, or another of my choosing, to transform each cube in model space. Then get the coordinates in world space. Then push the information to the GPU. That's quite a bit of calculation on the CPU. Am I wrong? Am I reaching conclusions based on too little information and understanding? What terms should I Google for, if the answer is STFW? Or if I am right, why aren't these calculations being pushed to the GPU as well?

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  • Noise with multi-threaded raytracer

    - by herber88
    This is my first multi-threaded implementation, so it's probably a beginners mistake. The threads handle the rendering of every second row of pixels (so all rendering is handled within each thread). The problem persists if the threads render the upper and lower parts of the screen respectively. Both threads read from the same variables, can this cause any problems? From what I've understood only writing can cause concurrency problems... Can calling the same functions cause any concurrency problems? And again, from what I've understood this shouldn't be a problem... The only time both threads write to the same variable is when saving the calculated pixel color. This is stored in an array, but they never write to the same indices in that array. Can this cause a problem? Multi-threaded rendered image (Spam prevention stops me from posting images directly..) Ps. I use the exactly same implementation in both cases, the ONLY difference is a single vs. two threads created for the rendering.

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  • Cross-browser method for getting width and height of a DIV?

    - by thinkthank
    This is my first post, so please go easy on me. I'm sure I'm doing everything wrong. However, I couldn't find any posts that answered the question above. I use jQuery. I'm trying to find a way to get the current width and height of a DIV element, even if they're set to "auto". I've found many ways to do this, but no method returns the same width in IE. It is important that this method is cross-browser, as it will break the layout of the page if different numbers are returned in different browsers. .width() and .height() do not work because in IE, padding is subtracted (e.g. width() returns 25 where width is 30 and padding is 5). .outerWidth() and .outerHeight() are not consistent either. While they work IE (believe it or not) in FF, the padding is added again to the full width (e.g. outerWidth() returns 110 in FF where width is 100px and padding is 10px). Is there any way out of this mess without writing complex browser checks? Thanks!

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  • Updating a Database from DataBound Controls

    - by Avatar_Squadron
    Hi. I'm currently creating a WinForm in VB.NET bound to an access database. Basically what i have are two forms: one is a search form used to search the database, and the other is a details form. You run a search on the searchForm and it returns a list of Primary Keys and a few other identifying values. You then double click on the entry you want to view, and it loads the details form. The Details form has a collection of databound controls to display the data: mostly text boxes and checkboxs. The way i've set it up is i used the UI to build the form and then set the DataBindings Property of each control to "TblPropertiesBindingSource - " where value name is one of the values in the table (such as PropertyID or HasWoodFloor). Then, when you double click an entry in the searchform, I handle the event by parsing the Primary Key (PropertyID) out of the selected row and then storing this to the details form: Note: Detail is the details form that is opened to display the info Private Sub propView_CellDoubleClick(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewCellEventArgs) Handles propView.CellDoubleClick Dim detail As frmPropertiesDetail = New frmPropertiesDetail detail.id = propView.Rows(e.RowIndex).Cells(0).Value detail.Show() End Sub Then, upon loading the details form, it set's the filter on the BindSource as such: TblPropertiesBindingSource.Filter() = "PropertyID=" & id This works great so far. All the controls on the details form will display the correct info. The problem is updating changes. Scenario: If i have the user load the details for say, property 10001, it will show a description in a textBox named descriptionBox which is identical to the value of the description value of for that entry in the database. I want the user to then be able to change the text of the text box (which they can currently do) and click the save button (saveBut) and have the form update all the values in the controls to the database. Theorectically, it should do this as the controls are DataBound, thus i can avoid writing code that tells each entry in the database row to take the value of the aligned control. I've tried calleding PropertiesTableAdapter.Update(PropertiesBindingSource.DataSource), but that doesnt seem to do it.

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  • Detect Application Shutdown in C# NET?

    - by Michael Pfiffer
    I am writing a small console application (will be ran as a service) that basically starts a Java app when it is running, shuts itself down if the Java app closes, and shuts down the Java app if it closes. I think I have the first two working properly, but I don't know how to detect when the .NET application is shutting down so that I can shutdown the Java app prior to that happening. Google search just returns a bunch of stuff about detecting Windows shutting down. Can anyone tell me how I can handle that part and if the rest looks fine? namespace MinecraftDaemon { class Program { public static void LaunchMinecraft(String file, String memoryValue) { String memParams = "-Xmx" + memoryValue + "M" + " -Xms" + memoryValue + "M "; String args = memParams + "-jar " + file + " nogui"; ProcessStartInfo processInfo = new ProcessStartInfo("java.exe", args); processInfo.CreateNoWindow = true; processInfo.UseShellExecute = false; try { using (Process minecraftProcess = Process.Start(processInfo)) { minecraftProcess.WaitForExit(); } } catch { // Log Error } } static void Main(string[] args) { Arguments CommandLine = new Arguments(args); if (CommandLine["file"] != null && CommandLine["memory"] != null) { // Launch the Application LaunchMinecraft(CommandLine["file"], CommandLine["memory"]); } else { LaunchMinecraft("minecraft_server.jar", "1024"); } } } }

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  • How to import a module from PyPI when I have another module with the same name

    - by kuzzooroo
    I'm trying to use the lockfile module from PyPI. I do my development within Spyder. After installing the module from PyPI, I can't import it by doing import lockfile. I end up importing anaconda/lib/python2.7/site-packages/spyderlib/utils/external/lockfile.py instead. Spyder seems to want to have the spyderlib/utils/external directory at the beginning of sys.path, or at least none of the polite ways I can find to add my other paths get me in front of spyderlib/utils/external. I'm using python2.7 but with from __future__ import absolute_import. Here's what I've already tried: Writing code that modifies sys.path before running import lockfile. This works, but it can't be the correct way of doing things. Circumventing the normal mechanics of importing in Python using the imp module (I haven't gotten this to work yet, but I'm guessing it could be made to work) Installing the package with something like pip install --install-option="--prefix=modules_with_name_collisions" package_name. I haven't gotten this to work yet either, but I'm guess it could be made to work. It looks like this option is intended to create an entirely separate lib tree, which is more than I need. Source Using pip install --target=lockfile_from_pip. The files show up in the directory where I tell them to go, but import doesn't find them. And in fact pip uninstall can't find them either. I get Cannot uninstall requirement lockfile-from-pip, not installed and I guess I will just delete the directories and hope that's clean. Source So what's the preferred way for me to get access to the PyPI lockfile module?

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  • how can i make sure only a single record is inserted when multiple apache threads are trying to acce

    - by Ed Gl
    I have a web service (xmlrpc service to be exact) that handles among other things writing data into the database. Here's the scenario: I often receive requests to either update or insert a record. What I would do is this: If the record already exists, append to the record, If not, create a new record The issue is that there are certain times I would get a 'burst' of requests, which spawns several apache threads to handle the request. These 'bursts' would come within less than milliseconds of each other. I now have several threads performing #1 and #2. Often two threads would would 'pass' number #1 and actually create two duplicate records (except for the primary key). I'd like to use some locking mechanism to prevent other threads from accessing the table while the other thread finishes its work. I'm just afraid of using it because if something happens I don't want to leave the table locked. Is there a solid way of handling this? I'm open to using locks if I can do it properly. Thanks,

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  • object not getting released in iphone

    - by Jaimin
    i m writing this code in my code to store the data in database.. Search *objSearchDetail = [[Search alloc] init]; objSearchDetail = [xmlResponseDetail objectAtIndex:i]; sql = "INSERT INTO tblsearchdetail(tblrecentsearch_id,name,address,email,url,street,postcode,city,telephone,mobile) VALUES(?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?)"; returnValue = sqlite3_prepare_v2(database, sql, -1, &insertStatement, NULL); if(returnValue == SQLITE_OK){ sqlite3_bind_int(insertStatement, 1, intLastRecentSearchId); sqlite3_bind_text(insertStatement, 2, [objSearchDetail.strName UTF8String], -1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(insertStatement, 3, [objSearchDetail.strAddress UTF8String], -1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(insertStatement, 4, [objSearchDetail.strEmail UTF8String], -1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(insertStatement, 5, [objSearchDetail.strUrl UTF8String], -1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(insertStatement, 6, [objSearchDetail.strStreet UTF8String], -1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(insertStatement, 7, [objSearchDetail.strPostCode UTF8String], -1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(insertStatement, 8, [objSearchDetail.strPlace UTF8String], -1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(insertStatement, 9, [objSearchDetail.strTelephone UTF8String], -1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(insertStatement, 10, [objSearchDetail.strMobile UTF8String], -1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); if(sqlite3_step(insertStatement)==SQLITE_DONE) { //Data; } } NSLog(@"count %d",[objSearchDetail retainCount]); [objSearchDetail release]; now the nslog shows refrence count as 2 so even if i release the refrence count will still be one and the object will not be destroyed.. plz help me....

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  • My Rails session is getting reset when I have concurrent requests

    - by alex_c
    I think I might be misunderstanding something about Rails sessions, so please bear with me, I might not be phrasing my question the best way. I'm working on an iPhone app with a Ruby on Rails backend. I have a web view which by default goes to the index action of one controller (and uses sessions), and in the background a bunch of API calls going to a different controller (and which don't need to use sessions). The problem is, the sessions set by my web view seem to be overwitten by the API calls. My staging server is pretty slow, so there's lots of time for the requests to overlap each other - what I see in the logs is basically this: Request A (first controller) starts. Session is empty. Request B (second controller) starts. Session is empty. Request A finishes. Request A has done authentication, and stored the user ID in the session. Session contains user ID. Request B finishes. Session is empty. Request C starts. Session is empty - not what I want. Now, the strange thing is that request B should NOT be writing anything to the session. I do have before and after filters which READ from the session - things like: user = User.find_by_id(session[:id]) or logger.debug session.inspect and if I remove all of those, then everything works as expected - session contents get set by request A, and they're still there when request C starts. So. I think I'm missing something about how sessions work. Why would reading from the session overwrite it? Should I be accessing it some other way? Am I completely on the wrong track and the problem is elsewhere? Thank you for any insights!

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  • In need of a Smarter Environmental Package Configuration

    - by Jeremy Liberman
    I am trying to set up a package template in SSIS, following the Wrox Programmer to Programmer book, SQL Server 2008 Integration Services: Problem - Design - Solution. I'm really liking this book even though it is 2008 and we're using SQL Server 2005. I've got a working package template that uses an Indirect XML package configuration to identify what environment (local developer, dev, QA, production, etc) the package is being run in. That locates the SQL Server package configuration for the environment. That set-up is great and all except for the environment variable at the very front of it all. My team would prefer it if the package could use the same environment resource locator as all our other applications and tools use, so we don't two environment markers with essentially the same information in them. Normally we look up a registry key in HKey_Local_Machine but the Registry Package Configuration type only lets you look up the HKey_Current_User registries. My first thought was to write a new Package Configuration Type class that extends the Registry type; after all we'd had such luck writing our own custom log provider. SSIS is super extendable, right? So there doesn't seem to be a way to write your own Package Configuration Types. Is there still some way I can configure my SSIS SQL Server package configuration from a HKLM registry key connection string? If this is not possible, what other workarounds are available? My idea is to write a PowerShell script that will create/modify the Environment Variable that the package will use by fetching the connection string from the registry. This way there's still two markers, but at least then it's automatically maintained and automated. Is this kind of workaround necessary? Thank you for your time.

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  • Using a variable derived from a drop-down list as the column name in a select statement ... Access DB

    - by user1459698
    I'm working with the world's worst DB that was already here so don't blame me for that. So, here's what I have so far ... module = txtModule.value presstype = txtPressType.value SQL_query = "SELECT * FROM tbl_spareparts WHERE '"& module &"' <> '""' AND '"& module &"' = '"& presstype &"' AND Manufacturer = '"& txtsrch.value &"' ORDER BY SAP_Part_No" Set rsData = conn.Execute(SQL_query) This brings up the following SQL statement: SELECT * FROM tbl_spareparts WHERE 'Banyan_Module' <> '"' AND 'Banyan_Module' = 'PB' AND Manufacturer = 'Tester' ORDER BY SAP_Part_No Is there any way I can use the module variable as a column name - obviously the ''s around the column name are causing an error. This is really bothering me. BTW, I'm writing this in VBScript inside a .HTA application page as it has to run locally on tech PCs. Thanks. R.

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