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  • web.config + asp.net MVC + location > system.web > authorization + Integrated Security

    - by vdh_ant
    Hi guys I have an ASP.Net MVC app using Integrated Security that I need to be able grant open access to a specific route. The route in question is '~/Agreements/Upload' and the config I have setup looks like this: <configuration> ... <location path="~/Agreements/Upload"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow users="*"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location> ... </configuration> I have tried a few things and nothing has worked thus far. In IIS under Directory Security Authentication Methods I only have "Integrated Windows Authentication" selected. Now this could be part of my problem (as even though IIS allows the above IIS doesn't). But if that's the case how do I configure it so that Integrated Security works but allows people who aren't authenticated to access the given route. Cheers Anthony

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  • JSF/Seam - new component instance on submit?

    - by purecharger
    And my confusion with JSF continues. This is a continuation of a question asked yesterday, but I feel it warrants a new question. I have a single seam component that expects a URL parameter to be injected for retrieving a List<String> from a method. This works perfectly on the first navigation to the page. The List is used to display many different selectOneRadio groups that populate a <h:form/>. Now on the submit, I cannot get the URL parameter to be injected or otherwise set on the component! Adding <h:inputHidden/> causes FacesExceptions to be thrown. Then I tried setting the List as an instance variable on the object, and when the subsequent call is made on the submit (which I also do not understand why that is done) I check to see if the variable is non-null: if it isn't, return it. Now I found that a new instance of the component is created on submit!!! getList() called this.toString(): .BeanAction@5fd98420 #### This is when submit is clicked getList() called this.toString(): .BeanAction@22aacbce The component has the following annotations: Stateful @Scope(ScopeType.CONVERSATION) @Name("bean") @Restrict("#{identity.loggedIn}") Can someone explain why there is a new instance of the component created? I'm really not quite sure how to go about handling this. I thought the hidden parameter would work, because that is how I would do it with straight HTML, and I'm a little surprised that its not working for JSF/Seam.

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  • What is the best way to auto-generate INSERT statements for a SQL Server table?

    - by JosephStyons
    We are writing a new application, and while testing, we will need a bunch of dummy data. I've added that data by using MS Access to dump excel files into the relevant tables. Every so often, we want to "refresh" the relevant tables, which means dropping them all, re-creating them, and running a saved MS Access append query. The first part (dropping & re-creating) is an easy sql script, but the last part makes me cringe. I want a single setup script that has a bunch of INSERTs to regenerate the dummy data. I have the data in the tables now. What is the best way to automatically generate a big list of INSERT statements from that dataset? I'm thinking of something like in TOAD (for Oracle) where you can right-click on a grid and click Save As-Insert Statements, and it will just dump a big sql script wherever you want. The only way I can think of doing it is to save the table to an excel sheet and then write an excel formula to create an INSERT for every row, which is surely not the best way. I'm using the 2008 Management Studio to connect to a SQL Server 2005 database.

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  • web development using google sites

    - by CHID
    Hi, I have hosted a website. But now my client asks to change it to http://sites.google.com. They hav registered their domain in google. I logged in the site and saw the procedures to create a website from scratch. But is there any way to directly replace the site into google sites. Like, in my site i hav included css files in a folder called stylesheets/css and access it through the link tag. And there are several folders lik that, viz images, scripts etc. 1.Now if i have to transfer it to google sites, where do i create the folders and stuff. I have the priviliges to login to the admin part of the site. 2.And also is there anyway to create database and access it in google sites? 3.Also i see that only html pages can be created. Is there a way to add php pages or other scripting languages? 4.Going forward will google sites be usefull for professional web designing. pls give ideas on whether or not google sites is a good idea to go with

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  • Dependency Injection Question - ASP.NET

    - by Paul
    I'm starting a web application that contains the following projects: Booking.Web Booking.Services Booking.DataObjects Booking.Data I'm using the repository pattern in my data project only. All services will be the same, no matter what happens. However, if a customer wants to use Access, it will use a different data repository than if the customer wants to use SQL Server. I have StructureMap, and want to be able to do the following: Web project is unaffected. It's a web forms application that will only know about the services project and the dataobjects project. When a service is called, it will use StructureMap (by looking up the bootstrapper.cs file) to see which data repository to use. An example of a services class is the error logging class: public class ErrorLog : IErrorLog { ILogging logger; public ErrorLog() { } public ErrorLog(ILogging logger) { this.logger = logger; } public void AddToLog(string errorMessage) { try { AddToDatabaseLog(errorMessage); } catch (Exception ex) { AddToFileLog(ex.Message); } finally { AddToFileLog(errorMessage); } } private void AddToDatabaseLog(string errorMessage) { ErrorObject error = new ErrorObject { ErrorDateTime = DateTime.Now, ErrorMessage = errorMessage }; logger.Insert(error); } private void AddToFileLog(string errorMessage) { // TODO: Take this value from the web.config instead of hard coding it TextWriter writer = new StreamWriter(@"E:\Work\Booking\Booking\Booking.Web\Logs\ErrorLog.txt", true); writer.WriteLine(DateTime.Now.ToString() + " ---------- " + errorMessage); writer.Close(); } } I want to be able to call this service from my web project, without defining which repository to use for the data access. My boostrapper.cs file in the services project is defined as: public class Bootstrapper { public static void ConfigureStructureMap() { ObjectFactory.Initialize(x => { x.AddRegistry(new ServiceRegistry()); } ); } public class ServiceRegistry : Registry { protected override void configure() { ForRequestedType<IErrorLog>().TheDefaultIsConcreteType<Booking.Services.Logging.ErrorLog>(); ForRequestedType<ILogging>().TheDefaultIsConcreteType<SqlServerLoggingProvider>(); } } } What else do I need to get this to work? When I defined a test, the ILogger object was null. Thanks,

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  • How do I get the inserted id (or object) after an insert with the FormView/ObjectDataSource controls

    - by drs9222
    I have a series of classes that loosely fit the following pattern: public class CustomerInfo { public int Id {get; set;} public string Name {get; set;} } public class CustomerTable { public bool Insert(CustomerInfo info) { /*...*/ } public bool Update(CustomerInfo info) { /*...*/ } public CustomerInfo Get(int id) { /*...*/ } /*...*/ } After a successful insert the Insert method will set the Id property of the CustomerInfo object that was passed in. I've used these classes in several places and would prefer to altering them. Now I'm experimenting with writing an ASP.NET page for inserting and updating the records. I'm currently using the ObjectDataSource and FormView controls: <asp:ObjectDataSource TypeName="CustomerTable" DataObjectTypeName="CustomerInfo" InsertMethod="Insert" UpdateMethod="Update" SelectMethod="Get" /> I can successfully Insert and Update records. I would like to switch the FormView's mode from Insert to Edit after a successful insert. My first attempt was to switch the mode in the ItemInserted event. This of course did not work. I was using a QueryStringParameter for the id which of course wan't set when inserting. So, I switched to manually populating the InputParameters during the ObjectDataSource's Selecting event. The problem with this is I need to know the id of the newly inserted record which I can't find a good way to get. I understand that I can access the Insert method's return value, and out parameters in the ItemInserted event of course my method doesn't return the id using any of these methods. I can't find anyway to access the id or the CustomerInfo object that was inserted after the insert completes. The best I've been able to do is to save the CustomerInfo object in the ObjectDataSource's Inserting event. This feels like an odd way to do this. I figure that there must be a better way to do this and I'll kick myself when I see it. Any ideas?

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  • Why does my call to Activator.CreateInstance intermittently fail?

    - by Daniel Stutzbach
    I'm using the following code to access the Windows Explorer Shell's band site service: Guid GUID_TrayBandSiteService = new Guid(0xF60AD0A0, 0xE5E1, 0x45cb, 0xB5, 0x1A, 0xE1, 0x5B, 0x9F, 0x8B, 0x29, 0x34); Type shellTrayBandSiteService = Type.GetTypeFromCLSID(GUID_TrayBandSiteService, true); site = Activator.CreateInstance(shellTrayBandSiteService) as IBandSite; Mostly, it works great. A very small percentage of the time (less than 1%), the call to Activator.CreateInstance throws the following exception: System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException (0x80040154): Retrieving the COM class factory for component with CLSID {F60AD0A0-E5E1-45CB-B51A-E15B9F8B2934} failed due to the following error: 80040154. at System.RuntimeTypeHandle.CreateInstance(RuntimeType type, Boolean publicOnly, Boolean noCheck, Boolean& canBeCached, RuntimeMethodHandle& ctor, Boolean& bNeedSecurityCheck) at System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceSlow(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean fillCache) at System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceImpl(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipVisibilityChecks, Boolean fillCache) at System.Activator.CreateInstance(Type type, Boolean nonPublic) I've looked up the error code, and it appears to indicate that the service isn't registered. That's nonsense in my case, since I'm trying to access a service provided by the operating system (explorer.exe, to be specific). I'm stumped. What might cause Activator.CreateInstance fail, but only rarely?

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  • DDD and MVC: Difference between 'Model' and 'Entity'

    - by Nathan Loding
    I'm seriously confused about the concept of the 'Model' in MVC. Most frameworks that exist today put the Model between the Controller and the database, and the Model almost acts like a database abstraction layer. The concept of 'Fat Model Skinny Controller' is lost as the Controller starts doing more and more logic. In DDD, there is also the concept of a Domain Entity, which has a unique identity to it. As I understand it, a user is a good example of an Entity (unique userid, for instance). The Entity has a life-cycle -- it's values can change throughout the course of the action -- and then it's saved or discarded. The Entity I describe above is what I thought Model was supposed to be in MVC? How off-base am I? To clutter things more, you throw in other patterns, such as the Repository pattern (maybe putting a Service in there). It's pretty clear how the Repository would interact with an Entity -- how does it with a Model? Controllers can have multiple Models, which makes it seem like a Model is less a "database table" than it is a unique Entity. So, in very rough terms, which is better? No "Model" really ... class MyController { public function index() { $repo = new PostRepository(); $posts = $repo->findAllByDateRange('within 30 days'); foreach($posts as $post) { echo $post->Author; } } } Or this, which has a Model as the DAO? class MyController { public function index() { $model = new PostModel(); // maybe this returns a PostRepository? $posts = $model->findAllByDateRange('within 30 days'); while($posts->getNext()) { echo $posts->Post->Author; } } } Both those examples didn't even do what I was describing above. I'm clearly lost. Any input?

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  • SVN authz, path-based authentication woes

    - by Ronny
    [groups] developer = a,b,c doc = r,x [/doc] @doc = rw @developer = rw [/] @developer = rw * = If now a member of the group doc tries to check out the documentation, it does not work. I want members of doc just to be able to check out the sub-dir doc, anything else is forbidden. Any ideas howto achieve this? kind regards ronny [update] client: svn, version 1.5.4 (r33841) server: svn, Version 1.4.6 (r28521) access via svn+ssh:/user@host/fullpath-to-repos 1 perfectly works for two years 2 might be - see version numbers above (I'll contant our admin, immediatelly) 3 no? just ssh 4 nope 5 nope [update] using client version svn 1.4.6 (r28521) does not work either - same errors I use plain command line access. svn co svn+ssh://.... [update] server:Linux 2.6.16.60-0.39.3-default9 i686 athlon i386 GNU/Linux - suse 10? or something like that I think client: Kubuntu 9.04 connection via OpenSSH SSH client the server rejects svn:// connections from localhost - any connection --- gotta try it with a copy at home time soon [update 4] * this is not my own server, I cannot do what I want with it. It is a very old server 10 years at least running, with hundreds of users. Standard things should work. correct me if I am missing something. [update 5] believe it or not. I was using the wrong path and now everything works perfectly well, I am sorry to have wasted your time. I'll give the bounty to FoxyBOA for his efford.

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  • JMX - MBean automated registration on application deployment

    - by Gadi
    Hi All, I need some direction with JMX and J2EE. I am aware (after few weeks of research) that the JMX specification is missing as far as deployment is concerned. There are few vendor specific implementations for what I am looking for but none are cross vendor. I would like to automate the deployment of MBeans and registration with the Server. I need the server to load and register my MBeand when the application is deployed and remove when the application is un-deployed. I develop with: NetBean 6.7.1, GlassFish 2.1, J2EE5, EJB3 More specific, I need a way to manage timer service runs. My application need to run different archiving agents and batch reporting. I was hoping the JMX will give me remote access to create and manage the timer services and enable the user to create his own schedule. If the JMX is auto registered on application deployment the user can immediately connect and manage the schedule. On the other hand, how can an EJB connect/access an MBean? Many thanks in advance. Gadi.

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  • Altering lazy-loaded object's private variables

    - by Kevin Pang
    I'm running into an issue with private setters when using NHibernate and lazy-loading. Let's say I have a class that looks like this: public class User { public int Foo {get; private set;} public IList<User> Friends {get; set;} public void SetFirstFriendsFoo() { // This line works in a unit test but does nothing during a live run with // a lazy-loaded Friends list Users(0).Foo = 1; } } The SetFirstFriendsFoo call works perfectly inside a unit test (as it should since objects of the same type can access each others private properties). However, when running live with a lazy-loaded Friends list, the SetFirstFriendsFoo call silently fails. I'm guessing the reason for this is because at run-time, the Users(0).Foo object is no longer of type User, but of a proxy class that inherits from User since the Friends list was lazy-loaded. My question is this: shouldn't this generate a run-time exception? You get compile-time exceptions if you try to access another class's private properties, but when you run into a situation like this is looks like the app just ignores you and continues along its way.

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  • Java and .net interoperability

    - by dineshrekula
    I have a c# program through which i am opening cmd window as a a process. in this command window i am running a batch file. i am redirecting the output of that batch file commands to a Text File. When i run my application everything seems to be ok. But few times, Application is giving some error like "Can't access the file. it's being used by another application" at the same time cmd window is not getting closed. If we close the cmd process through the Task Manager, then it's writing the content to the file and getting closed. Even though i closed the cmd process, still file handle is not getting released. so that i am not able to run the application next time onwards.Always it's saying Can't access the file. Only after restarting the system, it's working. Here is my code: Process objProcess = new Process(); ProcessStartInfo objProInfo = new ProcessStartInfo(); objProInfo.WindowStyle = ProcessWindowStyle.Maximized; objProInfo.UseShellExecute = true; objProInfo.FileName = "Batch file path" objProInfo.Arguments = "Some Arguments"; if (Directory.Exists(strOutputPath) == false) { Directory.CreateDirectory(strOutputPath); } objProInfo.CreateNoWindow = false; objProcess.StartInfo = objProInfo; objProcess.Start(); objProcess.WaitForExit(); test.bat: java classname argument > output.txt Here is my question: I am not able to trace where the problem is.. How we can see the process which holding handle on ant file. Is there any suggestions for Java and .net interoperability

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  • Strange File Upload issue with asp.net site on a web farm

    - by Coov
    I have a basic asp.net file upload page. When I test file uploads from my local machine, it works fine. When I test file uploads from our dev machine, it works fine. When I deploy the site to our production webfarm, it behaves strangely. If I access the site from off the network, I can load file-after-file without issue. If I access the site from within our network, I can load the first file just fine but any subsequent files result it a bad sequence of commands error. I'm not sure if this is web farm issue, a network issue, or something else. It feels like a connection is not being disposed of properly but it doesn't make sense why everything works fine remotely. Markup: <asp:FileUpload ID="FileUpload1" runat="server" Width="350px" /> <asp:Button ID="btnSubmit" runat="server" Text="Upload" onclick="btnSubmit_Click" /> Code: if (FileUpload1.HasFile) { FtpWebRequest ftpRequest; FtpWebResponse ftpResponse; ftpRequest = (FtpWebRequest)FtpWebRequest.Create(new Uri("ftp://ftp.myftpsite.com/" + FileUpload1.FileName)); ftpRequest.Method = WebRequestMethods.Ftp.UploadFile; ftpRequest.Proxy = null; ftpRequest.UseBinary = true; ftpRequest.Credentials = new NetworkCredential("username", "password"); ftpRequest.KeepAlive = false; byte[] fileContents = new byte[FileUpload1.PostedFile.ContentLength]; using (Stream fr = FileUpload1.PostedFile.InputStream) { fr.Read(fileContents, 0, FileUpload1.PostedFile.ContentLength); } using (Stream writer = ftpRequest.GetRequestStream()) { writer.Write(fileContents, 0, fileContents.Length); } ftpResponse = (FtpWebResponse)ftpRequest.GetResponse(); Response.Write(ftpResponse.StatusDescription); }

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  • SQL Server insert performance

    - by Jose
    I have an insert query that gets generated like this INSERT INTO InvoiceDetail (LegacyId,InvoiceId,DetailTypeId,Fee,FeeTax,Investigatorid,SalespersonId,CreateDate,CreatedById,IsChargeBack,Expense,RepoAgentId,PayeeName,ExpensePaymentId,AdjustDetailId) VALUES(1,1,2,1500.0000,0.0000,163,1002,'11/30/2001 12:00:00 AM',1116,0,550.0000,850,NULL,@ExpensePay1,NULL); DECLARE @InvDetail1 INT; SET @InvDetail1 = (SELECT @@IDENTITY); This query is generated for only 110K rows. It takes 30 minutes for all of these query's to execute I checked the query plan and the largest % nodes are A Clustered Index Insert at 57% query cost which has a long xml that I don't want to post. A Table Spool which is 38% query cost <RelOp AvgRowSize="35" EstimateCPU="5.01038E-05" EstimateIO="0" EstimateRebinds="0" EstimateRewinds="0" EstimateRows="1" LogicalOp="Eager Spool" NodeId="80" Parallel="false" PhysicalOp="Table Spool" EstimatedTotalSubtreeCost="0.0466109"> <OutputList> <ColumnReference Database="[SkipPro]" Schema="[dbo]" Table="[InvoiceDetail]" Column="InvoiceId" /> <ColumnReference Database="[SkipPro]" Schema="[dbo]" Table="[InvoiceDetail]" Column="InvestigatorId" /> <ColumnReference Column="Expr1054" /> <ColumnReference Column="Expr1055" /> </OutputList> <Spool PrimaryNodeId="3" /> </RelOp> So my question is what is there that I can do to improve the speed of this thing? I already run ALTER TABLE TABLENAME NOCHECK CONSTRAINTS ALL Before the queries and then ALTER TABLE TABLENAME NOCHECK CONSTRAINTS ALL after the queries. And that didn't shave off hardly anything off of the time. Know I am running these queries in a .NET application that uses a SqlCommand object to send the query. I then tried to output the sql commands to a file and then execute it using sqlcmd, but I wasn't getting any updates on how it was doing, so I gave up on that. Any ideas or hints or help?

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  • Does Security Trimming work with Web Forms Routing?

    - by Slauma
    In my web.config I have configured a SiteMapProvider with securityTrimmingEnabled="true" and on my main master page is an asp:Menu control bound to an asp:SiteMapDataSource. In addition I have configured restricted access to all pages in a subfolder "Admin" (using another web.config in this subfolder). If I put a sitemapNode in Web.sitemap... <siteMapNode url="~/Admin/Default.aspx" title="Administration" description="" > ... only users in role "Admin" will have the menu item related to that siteMapNode. So this is working fine and as intended. Now I have defined a URL route in Global.asax to map the physical file to a new URL: System.Web.Routing.RouteTable.Routes.MapPageRoute("AdminHomeRoute", "Administration/Home", "~/Admin/Default.aspx"); But when I use this route-URL in the SiteMap file... <siteMapNode url="Administration/Home" title="Administration" description="" > ... it seems that security trimming does not work: The menu item is visible for all users. (Access to the page is still restricted though, so selecting the menu item by non-Admin users does not navigate to the restricted page.) Question: Is there any setting I've missed so far to make security trimming working with URL routing in ASP.NET 4.0 Web Forms? Did I do something wrong? Is there any work-around? Thank you for help!

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  • calll html button onclick event from asp server side login authenticate event

    - by CraigJSte
    Need to programmatically click an html button from a login event (code behind? the html button sends variables to Flash using method: no response - with no postback and uses ExternalInterface API via javascript. Going from SWF ASPX is great, but need to send User.Identity to SWF from ASPX via javascript after authenticate with login event which am having impossible time getting to work... (calling HTML event from Login button) tried scripting in javascript to login event with no luck, possibly because postback clears SWF variables - so perhaps keeping separate (login then html send) would work... Here is my relevant code: function sendToActionScript(value) { swfobject.getObjectById("Property").sendToActionScript(value); } </script> <object ..// SWF File embedded> </object <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:Login id="login1" OnAuthenticate="login1_Authenticate"/> </form> <form id="form" onsubmit="return false;"> <input type="text" name="input" id="input" value="" runat="server" /> <button id="btnInput" runat="server" causesvalidation="false" visible="true" style="width: 51px" onclick="sendToActionScript(this.form.input.value);" >Send</button><br /> </form> // CODE BEHIND protected void Login1_Authenticate(object sender, AuthenticateEventArgs e) { // do something to get User Id and Role //bind the string (user or role) to input.value //then call the HTML button onclick event to send it to SWF file. //which I could put in separate function and call from Login_Authenticate } Can anyone help me I am out of ideas. Craig

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  • deadlock because of foreign key?

    - by George2
    Hello everyone, I am using SQL Server 2008 Enterprise. I met with deadlock in the following store procedure, but because of my fault, I did not record the deadlock graph. But now I can not reproduce deadlock issue. I want to have a postmortem to find the root cause of deadlock to avoid deadlock in the future. The deadlock happens on delete statement. For the delete statement, Param1 is a column of table FooTable, Param1 is a foreign key of another table (refers to another primary key clustered index column of the other table). There is no index on Param1 itself for table FooTable. FooTable has another column which is used as clustered primary key, but not Param1 column. Here is my guess why there is deadlock, and I want to let people review whether my analysis is correct? Since Param1 column has no index, there will be a table scan, and will acquire table level lock, because of foreign key, the delete operation will also need to check master table (e.g. to acquire lock on master table); Some operation on master table acquires master table lock, but want to acquire lock on FooTable; (1) and (2) cause cycle lock which makes deadlock happen. My analysis correct? Any reproduce scenario? create PROCEDURE [dbo].[FooProc] ( @Param1 int ,@Param2 int ,@Param3 int ) AS DELETE FooTable WHERE Param1 = @Param1 INSERT INTO FooTable ( Param1 ,Param2 ,Param3 ) VALUES ( @Param1 ,@Param2 ,@Param3 ) DECLARE @ID bigint SET @ID = ISNULL(@@Identity,-1) IF @ID > 0 BEGIN SELECT IdentityStr FROM FooTable WHERE ID = @ID END thanks in advance, George

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  • [hibernate - jpa] @CollectionOfElements without create the apposite table

    - by blow
    Hi all. I have this: Municipality class @Entity public class Municipality implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy=GenerationType.IDENTITY) private Long id; private String country; private String province; private String name; @Column(name="cod_catasto") private String codCatastale; private String cap; @CollectionOfElements private List<Address> addressList; public Municipality() { } ... Address class @Embeddable public class Address implements Serializable { @ManyToOne(fetch=FetchType.LAZY) @Cascade(CascadeType.SAVE_UPDATE) private Municipality municipality; @Column(length=45) private String address; public Address() { } ... Address is embedded in another class Person. When i save an instance of Person, hibernate create 3 tables: PERSON, MUNICIPALITY and MUNICIPALITY_ADDRESSLIST. MUNICIPALITY_ADDRESSLIST contains 2 fields: MUNICIPALITY_ID (FK) and STREET. I don't want this table, i only want the ID of table MUNICIPALITY into table PERSON(that embeds Address), what should i do? I tried to add @JoinTable in Municipality entity like this: @CollectionOfElements @JoinTable(name="person") private List<Address> addressList; It partially worked, but i cant choose the column name of table PERSON that contains ID of the table MUNICIPALITY, it is, by hibernate choose, simply "MUNICIPALITY_ID"... Thbaks.

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  • LINQ query code for complex merging of data.

    - by Stacey
    I've posted this before, but I worded it poorly. I'm trying again with a more well thought out structure. Re-writing this a bit to make it more clear. I have the following code and I am trying to figure out the shorter linq expression to do it 'inline'. Please examine the "Run()" method near the bottom. I am attempting to understand how to join two dictionaries together based on a matching identifier in one of the objects - so that I can use the query in this sort of syntax. var selected = from a in items.List() // etc. etc. select a; This is my class structure. The Run() method is what I am trying to simplify. I basically need to do this conversion inline in a couple of places, and I wanted to simplify it a great deal so that I can define it more 'cleanly'. class TModel { public Guid Id { get; set; } } class TModels : List<TModel> { } class TValue { } class TStorage { public Dictionary<Guid, TValue> Items { get; set; } } class TArranged { public Dictionary<TModel, TValue> Items { get; set; } } static class Repository { static public TItem Single<TItem, TCollection>(Predicate<TItem> expression) { return default(TItem); // access logic. } } class Sample { public void Run() { TStorage tStorage = new TStorage(); // access tStorage logic here. Dictionary<TModel, TValue> d = new Dictionary<TModel, TValue>(); foreach (KeyValuePair<Guid, TValue> kv in tStorage.Items) { d.Add(Repository.Single<TModel, TModels>(m => m.Id == kv.Key),kv.Value); } } }

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  • Issue Querying LDAP DirectoryEntry in ASP.NET

    - by davemackey
    I have users login to my application via Active Directory and then pull from their AD information to garner information about that user like so: Dim ID as FormsIdentity = DirectCast(User.Identity, FormsIdentity) Dim ticket as FormsAuthenticationTicket = ID.Ticket Dim adDirectory as New DirectoryEntry("LDAP://DC=my,DC=domain,DC=com") Dim adTicketID as String = ticket.Name.Substring(0, 5) Session("people_id") = adDirectory.Children.Find("CN=" & adTicketID).Properties("employeeID").Value Session("person_name") = adDirectory.Children.Find("CN=" & adTicketID).Properties("displayName").Value Now, I want to be able to impersonate other users...so that I can "test" the application as them, so I added a textbox and a button to the page and when the button is clicked the text is assigned to a session variable like so: Session("impersonate_user") = TextBox1.Text When the page reloads I check to see if Session("impersonate_user") has a value other than "" and then attempt to query Active Directory using this session variable like so: If CStr(Session("impersonate_user")) <> "" Then Dim adDirectory as New DirectoryEntry(LDAP://DC=my,DC=domain,DC=com") Dim adTicketID as String = CStr(Session("impersonate_user")) Session("people_id") = adDirectory.Children.Find("CN=" & adTicketID).Properties("employeeID").Value Session("person_name")= adDirectory.Children.Find("CN=" & adTicketID).Properties("displayName").Value Else [use the actual ticket.name to get this info.] End If But this doesn't work. Instead, it throws an error on the first Session line stating, "DirectoryServicesCOMException was unhandled by user code There is no such object on the server." Why? I know I'm giving it a valid username! Is something strange happening in the casting of the session? The code is essentially the same between each method except that in one method rather than pulling from ticket.Name I pull from a session variable for the login I'll be looking up with AD.

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  • JDBC/OSGi and how to dynamically load drivers without explicitly stating dependencies in the bundle?

    - by Chris
    Hi, This is a biggie. I have a well-structured yet monolithic code base that has a primitive modular architecture (all modules implement interfaces yet share the same classpath). I realize the folly of this approach and the problems it represents when I go to deploy on application servers that may have different conflicting versions of my library. I'm dependent on around 30 jars right now and am mid-way though bnding them up. Now some of my modules are easy to declare the versioned dependencies of, such as my networking components. They statically reference classes within the JRE and other BNDded libraries but my JDBC related components instantiate via Class.forName(...) and can use one of any number of drivers. I am breaking everything up into OSGi bundles by service area. My core classes/interfaces. Reporting related components. Database access related components (via JDBC). etc.... I wish for my code to be able to still be used without OSGi via single jar file with all my dependencies and without OSGi at all (via JARJAR) and also to be modular via the OSGi meta-data and granular bundles with dependency information. How do I configure my bundle and my code so that it can dynamically utilize any driver on the classpath and/or within the OSGi container environment (Felix/Equinox/etc.)? Is there a run-time method to detect if I am running in an OSGi container that is compatible across containers (Felix/Equinox/etc.) ? Do I need to use a different class loading mechanism if I am in a OSGi container? Am I required to import OSGi classes into my project to be able to load an at-bundle-time-unknown JDBC driver via my database module? I also have a second method of obtaining a driver (via JNDI, which is only really applicable when running in an app server), do I need to change my JNDI access code for OSGi-aware app servers?

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  • VEMap and a GeoRSS feed(hosted separately)

    - by Alexis Abril
    The scenario is as follows: A WCF web service exists that outputs a valid GeoRSS feed. This lives in its own domain as a number of different applications have access to it. A web page(on a different site) has been created with an instance of a VEMap(Bing/Virtual Earth map object). Now, VEMap can accept an input feed in this format via the following: var layer = new VEShapeLayer(); var veLayerSpec = new VEShapeSourceSpecification(VEDataType.GeoRSS, "someurl", layer); map.ImportShapeLayerData(veLayerSpec, onComplete, true); onComplete is a callback function I'm using to replace the default pin graphic with something custom. The question is in regards to "someurl", which is a path to a local xml file containing the geographic information(georss simple format). I've realized this feed and the map must be hosted in the same domain, so I've created a generic handler that reads the remote feed and returns it in the same format. var veLayerSpec = new VEShapeSourceSpecification(VEDataType.GeoRSS, "/somelocalhandler.ashx", layer); When I do this, I get the VEMap error("z is null"). This is the same error one would receive when trying to access a remote feed. When I copy the feed into a local xml file(ie, "feed.xml") there is no error. The order of operations is currently: remote feed - local handler - VEMap import If I'm over complicating this procedure, let me know! I'm a bit new to the Bing Maps API and might have missed something. Any assistance is appreciated.

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  • How do I disable the network connection from .Net without needing admin priveledges?

    - by Brad Mathews
    I may be SOL on this but I thought I would give throw it out for possible solutions. I am writing a computer access control service to help me control my kids' computer use. Plan on open sourcing it when I have it working. It is written in VB.Net and needs to work on XP through 7. I am running into all sorts of security and desktop access issues on Windows 7. The service needs to run as admin to execute the NetSh command to disable the network. But I cannot interact with the desktop from the service so I IPC to a UI to handle other stuff, but I still cannot detect from the service if the desktop is locked. Argghh! I could get it all working from a hidden windows form app if I could just lick the one piece that needs admin permissions: disabling the network. It does no good if a kid logs on and denies the popup asking if the program should run as administrator and he says no. Also windows 7 will not start a program set to run as admin using HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run Anyone know how to get this working? Or have an outside the box solution? Thanks! Brad

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  • Accessing previous activity instances in a sequence activity

    - by Dan Revell
    This has a rather SharePoint spin to it but the problem is straight workflow. I've got a parallel replication activity which contains a sequence activity. The sequence activity contains a CreateTask activity, a CodeActivity, a OnTaskChanged activity and finally a CompleteTask activity. The idea is to create a task for each username passed into the ReplicatorActivity.InitialChildData property. Typically in workflow I bind a field to the CreateTask.TaskId and CreateTask.TaskProperties and inside the CreateTask.MethodInvoking I set these through the local bound fields. This works and my tasks all get created properly. However in the CodeActivity that follows, I want to then access the TaskProperties. The problem I am encountering is that this field holds the values of the final task to be created as the CreateTask runs for all the replications before the CodeActivity gets to runs. From the CodeActivity, here are two ways I've tried to access the CreateTask activity instance from the same context or instance or whatever the terminology is for the replicated sequence. CreateTask task = ((CreateTask)sender.Parent.GetActivityByName("createSoftwareRequestTask", true)); CreateTask createTask = (CreateTask)sender.Parent.Activities[0]; Unfortunately the CreateTask activities both refer back to the last task to be created and not the task from the context that the CodeActivity is executing within. Two reasons why this might be that I can think of. I'm not accessing the correct instance with my code. I am accessing the correct instance, but as the properties I require were bound to and set through local fields then their previous data was overwritten. I'm hitting a brick wall with my understanding of workflow with this and would very much appreciate some assistance here.

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  • Accesing WinCE ComboBox DroppedDown property (.NET CF 2.0)

    - by PabloG
    I'm implementing custom behavior sub-classing the form controls, but I cannot manage to access the DroppedDown property of the ComboBox. Looking in the help, it's supposed to be supported in CF.NET 2.0: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Drawing; using System.Data; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; namespace xCustomControls { public partial class xComboBox : System.Windows.Forms.ComboBox { private ComboBox comboBox1; public xComboBox() { InitializeComponent(); this.KeyDown += new KeyEventHandler(this.KeyDownHandler); } private void KeyDownHandler(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { // DroppedDown doesn't appear in the IntelliSense of ComboBox. // or this.comboBox1. if (((ComboBox)sender).DroppedDown) // fail! return; switch (e.KeyData) { case Keys.Up: case Keys.Enter: case Keys.Down: e.Handled = true; this.Parent.SelectNextControl((Control)sender, e.KeyData != Keys.Up, true, true, true); ... fails with 'System.Windows.Forms.ComboBox' does not contain a definition for 'DroppedDown' and no extension method 'DroppedDown' accepting a first argument of type 'System.Windows.Forms.ComboBox' could be found How can I access the property? TIA, Pablo

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