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  • Processing a database queue across multiple threads - design advice

    - by rwmnau
    I have a SQL Server table full of orders that my program needs to "follow up" on (call a webservice to see if something has been done with them). My application is multi-threaded, and could have instances running on multiple servers. Currently, every so often (on a Threading timer), the process selects 100 rows, at random (ORDER BY NEWID()), from the list of "unconfirmed" orders and checks them, marking off any that come back successfully. The problem is that there's a lot of overlap between the threads, and between the different processes, and their's no guarantee that a new order will get checked any time soon. Also, some orders will never be "confirmed" and are dead, which means that they get in the way of orders that need to be confirmed, slowing the process down if I keep selecting them over and over. What I'd prefer is that all outstanding orders get checked, systematically. I can think of two easy ways do this: The application fetches one order to check at a time, passing in the last order it checked as a parameter, and SQL Server hands back the next order that's unconfirmed. More database calls, but this ensures that every order is checked in a reasonable timeframe. However, different servers may re-check the same order in succession, needlessly. The SQL Server keeps track of the last order it asked a process to check up on, maybe in a table, and gives a unique order to every request, incrementing its counter. This involves storing the last order somewhere in SQL, which I wanted to avoid, but it also ensures that threads won't needlessly check the same orders at the same time Are there any other ideas I'm missing? Does this even make sense? Let me know if I need some clarification.

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  • Redirect requests only if the file is not found?

    - by ZenBlender
    I'm hoping there is a way to do this with mod_rewrite and Apache, but maybe there is another way to consider too. On my site, I have directories set up for re-skinned versions of the site for clients. If the web root is /home/blah/www, a client directory would be /home/blah/www/clients/abc. When you access the client directory via a web browser, I want it to use any requested files in the client directory if they exist. Otherwise, I want it to use the file in the web root. For example, let's say the client does not need their own index.html. Therefore, some code would determine that there is no index.html in /home/blah/www/clients/abc and will instead use the one in /home/blah/www. Keep in mind that I don't want to redirect the client to the web root at any time, I just want to use the web root's file with that name if the client directory has not specified its own copy. The web browser should still point to /clients/abc whether the file exists there or in the root. Likewise, if there is a request for news.html in the client directory and it DOES exist there, then just serve that file instead of the web root's news.html. The user's experience should be seamless. I need this to work for requests on any filename. If I need to, for example, add a new line to .htaccess for every file I might want to redirect, it rather defeats the purpose as there is too much maintenance needed, and a good chance for errors given the large number of files. In your examples, please indicate whether your code goes in the .htaccess file in the client directory, or the web root. Web root is preferred. Thanks for any suggestions! :)

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  • What can cause a spontaneous EPIPE error without either end calling close() or crashing?

    - by Hongli
    I have an application that consists of two processes (let's call them A and B), connected to each other through Unix domain sockets. Most of the time it works fine, but some users report the following behavior: A sends a request to B. This works. A now starts reading the reply from B. B sends a reply to A. The corresponding write() call returns an EPIPE error, and as a result B close() the socket. However, A did not close() the socket, nor did it crash. A's read() call returns 0, indicating end-of-file. A thinks that B prematurely closed the connection. Users have also reported variations of this behavior, e.g.: A sends a request to B. This works partially, but before the entire request is sent A's write() call returns EPIPE, and as a result A close() the socket. However B did not close() the socket, nor did it crash. B reads a partial request and then suddenly gets an EOF. The problem is I cannot reproduce this behavior locally at all. I've tried OS X and Linux. The users are on a variety of systems, mostly OS X and Linux. Things that I've already tried and considered: Double close() bugs (close() is called twice on the same file descriptor): probably not as that would result in EBADF errors, but I haven't seen them. Increasing the maximum file descriptor limit. One user reported that this worked for him, the rest reported that it did not. What else can possibly cause behavior like this? I know for certain that neither A nor B close() the socket prematurely, and I know for certain that neither of them have crashed because both A and B were able to report the error. It is as if the kernel suddenly decided to pull the plug from the socket for some reason.

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  • Run code before class instanciation in ActionScript 3

    - by soow.fr
    I need to run code in a class declaration before its instanciation. This would be especially useful to automatically register classes in a factory. See: // Main.as public class Main extends Sprite { public function Main() : void { var o : Object = Factory.make(42); } } // Factory.as public class Factory { private static var _factory : Array = new Array(); public static function registerClass(id : uint, c : Class) : void { _factory[id] = function () : Object { return new c(); }; } public static function make(id : uint) : Object { return _factory[id](); } } // Foo.as public class Foo { // Run this code before instanciating Foo! Factory.registerClass(42, Foo); } AFAIK, the JIT machine for the ActionScript language won't let me do that since no reference to Foo is made in the Main method. The Foo class being generated, I can't (and don't want to) register the classes in Main: I'd like to register all the exported classes in a specific package (or library). Ideally, this would be done through package introspection, which doesn't exist in ActionScript 3. Do you know any fix (or other solution) to my design issue?

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  • Dimension Reduction in Categorical Data with missing values

    - by user227290
    I have a regression model in which the dependent variable is continuous but ninety percent of the independent variables are categorical(both ordered and unordered) and around thirty percent of the records have missing values(to make matters worse they are missing randomly without any pattern, that is, more that forty five percent of the data hava at least one missing value). There is no a priori theory to choose the specification of the model so one of the key tasks is dimension reduction before running the regression. While I am aware of several methods for dimension reduction for continuous variables I am not aware of a similar statical literature for categorical data (except, perhaps, as a part of correspondence analysis which is basically a variation of principal component analysis on frequency table). Let me also add that the dataset is of moderate size 500000 observations with 200 variables. I have two questions. Is there a good statistical reference out there for dimension reduction for categorical data along with robust imputation (I think the first issue is imputation and then dimension reduction)? This is linked to implementation of above problem. I have used R extensively earlier and tend to use transcan and impute function heavily for continuous variables and use a variation of tree method to impute categorical values. I have a working knowledge of Python so if something is nice out there for this purpose then I will use it. Any implementation pointers in python or R will be of great help. Thank you.

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  • A public struct inside a class

    - by Koning Baard
    I am new to C++, and let's say I have two classes: Creature and Human: /* creature.h */ class Creature { private: public: struct emotion { /* All emotions are percentages */ char joy; char trust; char fear; char surprise; char sadness; char disgust; char anger; char anticipation; char love; }; }; /* human.h */ class Human : Creature { }; And I have this in my main function in main.cpp: Human foo; My question is: how can I set foo's emotions? I tried this: foo->emotion.fear = 5; But GCC gives me this compile error: error: base operand of '-' has non-pointer type 'Human' This: foo.emotion.fear = 5; Gives: error: 'struct Creature::emotion' is inaccessible error: within this context error: invalid use of 'struct Creature::emotion' Can anyone help me? Thanks P.S. No I did not forget the #includes

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  • How to model in J2EE / JEE?

    - by Harry
    Let's say, I have decided to go with J(2)EE stack for my enterprise application. Now, for domain modelling (or: for designing the M of MVC), which APIs can I safely assume and use, and which I should stay away from... say, via a layer of abstraction? For example, Should I go ahead and litter my Model with calls to Hibernate/JPA API? Or, should I build an abstraction... a persistence layer of my own to avoid hard-coding against these two specific persistence APIs? Why I ask this: Few years ago, there was this Kodo API which got superseded by Hibernate. If one had designed a persistence layer and coded the rest of the model against this layer (instead of littering the Model with calls to specific vendor API), it would have allowed one to (relatively) easily switch from Kodo to Hibernate to xyz. Is it recommended to make aggressive use of the *QL provided by your persistence vendor in your domain model? I'm not aware of any real-world issues (like performance, scalability, portability, etc) arising out of a heavy use of an HQL-like language. Why I ask this: I would like to avoid, as much as possible, writing custom code when the same could be accomplished via query language that is more portable than SQL. Sorry, but I'm a complete newbie to this area. Where could I find more info on this topic? Many thanks in advance. /HS

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  • How much does an InnoDB table benefit from having fixed-length rows?

    - by Philip Eve
    I know that dependent on the database storage engine in use, a performance benefit can be found if all of the rows in the table can be guaranteed to be the same length (by avoiding nullable columns and not using any VARCHAR, TEXT or BLOB columns). I'm not clear on how far this applies to InnoDB, with its funny table arrangements. Let's give an example: I have the following table CREATE TABLE `PlayerGameRcd` ( `User` SMALLINT UNSIGNED NOT NULL, `Game` MEDIUMINT UNSIGNED NOT NULL, `GameResult` ENUM('Quit', 'Kicked by Vote', 'Kicked by Admin', 'Kicked by System', 'Finished 5th', 'Finished 4th', 'Finished 3rd', 'Finished 2nd', 'Finished 1st', 'Game Aborted', 'Playing', 'Hide' ) NOT NULL DEFAULT 'Playing', `Inherited` TINYINT NOT NULL, `GameCounts` TINYINT NOT NULL, `Colour` TINYINT UNSIGNED NOT NULL, `Score` SMALLINT UNSIGNED NOT NULL DEFAULT 0, `NumLongTurns` TINYINT UNSIGNED NOT NULL DEFAULT 0, `Notes` MEDIUMTEXT, `CurrentOccupant` TINYINT UNSIGNED NOT NULL DEFAULT 0, PRIMARY KEY (`Game`, `User`), UNIQUE KEY `PGR_multi_uk` (`Game`, `CurrentOccupant`, `Colour`), INDEX `Stats_ind_PGR` (`GameCounts`, `GameResult`, `Score`, `User`), INDEX `GameList_ind_PGR` (`User`, `CurrentOccupant`, `Game`, `Colour`), CONSTRAINT `Constr_PlayerGameRcd_User_fk` FOREIGN KEY `User_fk` (`User`) REFERENCES `User` (`UserID`) ON DELETE CASCADE ON UPDATE CASCADE, CONSTRAINT `Constr_PlayerGameRcd_Game_fk` FOREIGN KEY `Game_fk` (`Game`) REFERENCES `Game` (`GameID`) ON DELETE CASCADE ON UPDATE CASCADE ) ENGINE=INNODB CHARACTER SET utf8 COLLATE utf8_general_ci The only column that is nullable is Notes, which is MEDIUMTEXT. This table presently has 33097 rows (which I appreciate is small as yet). Of these rows, only 61 have values in Notes. How much of an improvement might I see from, say, adding a new table to store the Notes column in and performing LEFT JOINs when necessary?

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  • There is a Default instance of form in VB.Net but not in C#, WHY?

    - by Shekhar_Pro
    I'm just curious to know that there is The (Name) property, which represents the name of the Form class.This property is used within the namespace to uniquely identify the class that the Form is an instance of and, in the case of Visual Basic, is used to access the default instance of the form. Now where this Default Instance come from, why can't C# have a equivalent method to this. Also for example to show a form in C# we do something like this: //Only method Form1 frm = new Form1(); frm.Show(); But in VB.Net we have both ways to do it: //'First common method (used slash because editor wouldn't format it properly) Form1.Show(); //'Second method Dim frm as New Form1(); frm.Show(); My question comes from this first method. What is this Form1, is it an instance of Form1 or the Form1 class itself. Now as i mentioned above the Form name is the Default instance in VB.Net. But we also know that Form1 is a class defined in Designer so how can the names be same for both the Instance and class name. If Form1 is Class then there is no (Static\Shared) method named Show(). So where does this method come from. And finally why C# can't have an equivalent of this. If there some mistake in my question Please let me know *I've checked this on stackoverflow, but couldn't find an answer to this.If you do find then please give a link to it.*

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  • Android - Parsing XML with XPath

    - by Ruben Deig Ramos
    First of all, thanks to all the people who's going to spend a little time on this question. Second, sorry for my english (not my first language! :D). Well, here is my problem. I'm learning Android and I'm making an app which uses a XML file to store some info. I have no problem creating the file, but trying to read de XML tags with XPath (DOM, XMLPullParser, etc. only gave me problems) I've been able to read, at least, the first one. Let's see the code. Here is the XML file the app generates: <dispositivo> <id>111</id> <nombre>Name</nombre> <intervalo>300</intervalo> </dispositivo> And here is the function which reads the XML file: private void leerXML() { try { XPathFactory factory=XPathFactory.newInstance(); XPath xPath=factory.newXPath(); // Introducimos XML en memoria File xmlDocument = new File("/data/data/com.example.gps/files/devloc_cfg.xml"); InputSource inputSource = new InputSource(new FileInputStream(xmlDocument)); // Definimos expresiones para encontrar valor. XPathExpression tag_id = xPath.compile("/dispositivo/id"); String valor_id = tag_id.evaluate(inputSource); id=valor_id; XPathExpression tag_nombre = xPath.compile("/dispositivo/nombre"); String valor_nombre = tag_nombre.evaluate(inputSource); nombre=valor_nombre; } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } The app gets correctly the id value and shows it on the screen ("id" and "nombre" variables are assigned to a TextView each one), but the "nombre" is not working. What should I change? :) Thanks for all your time and help. This site is quite helpful! PD: I've been searching for a response on the whole site but didn't found any.

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  • Dropdown list bound to object data source - how to update on a button click

    - by Jen
    This is probably something really stupidly simple.. I have a drop down list bound to an object data source. I have set AppendDataBoundItems to true so that I can have an initial select. <asp:DropDownList ID="Accommodations1" runat="server" AutoPostBack="true" DataTextField="AccommodationTypeDescription" DataValueField="Id" OnDataBound="Accommodations1_DataBound" onSelectedIndexChanged="Accommodations1_SelectedIndexChanged" Width="200px" DataSourceID="AccommodationDs" AppendDataBoundItems="true"> <asp:ListItem Text="Select" Value=""></asp:ListItem> </asp:DropDownList> <asp:ObjectDataSource ID="AccommodationDs" runat="server" OldValuesParameterFormatString="original_{0}" SelectMethod="ListByPropertyId" TypeName="PropertyAccommodationController"> <SelectParameters> <asp:Parameter Name="PropertyId" Type="Int32" /> </SelectParameters> </asp:ObjectDataSource> I have a button which adds an accommodaton - so after that happens I need the dropdown list to update to include the new accommodation. So I've tried calling databind on the dropdownlist, and databind on the datasource - and nothing is making this dropdown list update. eg. PropertyAccommodations1.DataBind(); Could someone please let me know what I'm doing wrong. Originally I thought it was due to an update panel issue.. but I've removed the update panel and it still doesn't work (and checked the master page doesn't include an update panel). Thanks!!

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  • How to test routes that don't include controller?

    - by Darren Green
    I'm using minitest in Rails to do testing, but I'm running into a problem that I hope a more seasoned tester can help me out with because I've tried looking everywhere for the answer, but it doesn't seem that anyone has run into this problem or if they have, they opted for an integration test. Let's say I have a controller called Foo and action in it called bar. So the foo_controller.rb file looks like this: class FooController < ApplicationController def bar render 'bar', :layout => 'application' end end The thing is that I don't want people to access the "foo/bar" route directly. So I have a route that is get 'baz' => 'foo#bar'. Now I want to test the FooController: require 'minitest_helper' class FooControllerTest < ActionController::TestCase def test_should_get_index get '/baz' end end But the test results in an error that No route matches {:controller=>"foo", :action=>"/baz"}. How do I specify the controller for the GET request? Sorry if this is a dumb question. It's been very hard for me to find the answer.

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  • Catch a PHP Object Instantiation Error

    - by Rob Wilkerson
    It's really irking me that PHP considers the failure to instantiate an object a Fatal Error (which can't be caught) for the application as a whole. I have set of classes that aren't strictly necessary for my application to function--they're really a convenience. I have a factory object that attempts to instantiate the class variant that's indicated in a config file. This mechanism is being deployed for message storage and will support multiple store types: DatabaseMessageStore FileMessageStore MemcachedMessageStore etc. A MessageStoreFactory class will read the application's preference from a config file, instantiate and return an instance of the appropriate class. It might be easy enough to slap a conditional around the instantiation to ensure that class_exists(), but MemcachedMessageStore extends PHP's Memcached class. As a result, the class_exists() test will succeed--though instantiation will fail--if the memcached bindings for PHP aren't installed. Is there any other way to test whether a class can be instantiated properly? If it can't, all I need to do is tell the user which features won't be available to them, but let them continue one with the application. Thanks.

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  • How do you unit test new code that uses a bunch of classes that cannot be instantiated in a test har

    - by trendl
    I'm writing a messaging layer that should handle communication with a third party API. The API has a bunch of classes that cannot be easily (if at all) instantiated in a test harness. I decided to wrap each class that I need in my unit tests with an adapter/wrapper and expose the members I need through this adapter class. Often I need to expose the wrapped type as well which I do by exposing it as an object. I have also provided an interface for for each or the adapter classes to be able to use them with a mocking framework. This way I can substitute the classes in test for whatever I need. The downside is that I have a bunch of adapter classes that so far server no other reason but testing. For me this is a good reason by itself but others may find this not enough. Possibly, when I write an implementation for another third party vendor's API, I may be able to reuse much of my code and only provide the adapters specific to the vendor's API. However, this is a bit of a long shot and I'm not actually sure it will work. What do you think? Is this approach viable or am I writing unnecessary code that serves no real purpose? Let me say that I do want to write unit tests for my messaging layer and I do now know how to do it otherwise.

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  • Asp.Net 2 integrated sites How to Logout second site programatically.

    - by NBrowne
    Hi , I am working with an asp.net 2.0 site (call it site 1) which has an iframe in it which loads up another site (site2) which is also an asp.net site which is developed by our team. When you log onto site 1 then behind the scenes site 2 is also logged in so that when you click the iframe tab then this displays site 2 with the user logged in (to prevent the user from having to log in twice). The problem i have is that when a user logs out of site 1 then we call some cleanup methods to perform FormsAuthentication.SignOut and clean session variables etc but at the moment no cleanup is called when the user on site 2. So the issue is that if the user opens up Site 2 from within a browser then website 2 opens with the user still logged in which is undesired. Can anyone give me some guidance as to the best approach for this?? One possible approach i though of was just that on click of logout button i could do a call to a custom page on Site 2 which would do the logout. Code below HttpWebRequest request; request = ((HttpWebRequest)(WebRequest.Create("www.mywebsite.com/Site2Logout.aspx"))); request.Method = "POST"; HttpCookie cookie = HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies[FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName]; Cookie authenticationCookie = new Cookie( FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName, cookie.Value, cookie.Path, HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.Authority); request .CookieContainer = new CookieContainer(); request .CookieContainer.Add(authenticationCookie); response.GetResponse(); Problem i am having with this code is that when i run it and debug on Site 2 and check to see if the user is Authenticated they are not which i dont understand because if i open browser and browse to Site 2 i am Still authenticated. Any ideas , different direction to take etc ??? Please let me know if you need any more info or if i something i have said dosent make sense. Thanks

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  • Best practice- How to team-split a django project while still allowing code reusal

    - by Infinity
    I know this sounds kind of vague, but please let me explain- I'm starting work on a brand new project, it will have two main components: "ACME PRODUCT" (think Gmail, Meebo, etc), and "THE SITE" (help, information, marketing stuff, promotional landing pages, etc lots of marketing-induced cruft). So basically the url /acme/* will load stuff in the uber cool ajaxy application, and every other URI will load stuff in the other site. Problem: "THE SITE" component is out of my hands, and will be handled by a consultants team that will work closely with marketing, And I and my team will work solely on the ACME PRODUCT. Question: How to set up the django project in such a way that we can have: Seperate releases. (They can push new marketing pages and functionality without having to worry about the state of our code. Maybe even separate Subversion "projects") Minimize impact (on our product) of whatever flying-unicorns-hocus-pocus the other team codes into the site. Still allow some code reusal. My main concern is that the ACME product needs to be rock solid, and therefore needs to be somewhat isolated of whatever mistakes/code bloopers the consultants make in their marketing side of the site. How have you handled this? Any ideas? Thanks!

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  • MEF instance management

    - by Lawrence A. Contreras
    I am working on application that has multiple modules and sub modules. Here's what I need to do: ModuleA has a sub module SubModuleA, SubModuleB, SubModuleC. I want to export ModuleA, SubModuleA, SubModuleB, SubModuleC. ModuleA can have multiple instances. Whenever I import ModuleA inside the sub modules, I want to get the correct instance and also when I import SubModuleA,SubModuleB and SubModuleC inside other classes. How can I manage that scenario using MEF? Do I really need to use MEF. Updated: Here's a quick example: public class School { List<Classroom> classRooms { get; set; } } [Export] public class Classroom { List<Teacher> teachers { get; set; } } public class Teacher { List<Student> students { get; set; } } public class Student { [Import] Classroom classroom { get; set; } } As you can see, I want to export the classroom class because I need to import it in the Student class, let's just say that I really need the classroom class inside the student class. I want to skip the part where we pass the classroom to the teacher and from the teacher we'll pass it to the student. But when I import classroom, I want to have the correct instance where that class room contains the teacher of the student.

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  • MVC + Is validation attributes enough?

    - by ebb
    My ViewModel has validation attributes that ensure that it wont be empty etc. - Is that enough or should I let my the code contracts I have made be in the ActionResult too? Example: // CreateCaseViewModel.cs public class CreateCaseViewModel { [Required] public string Topic { get; set; } [Required] public string Message { get; set; } } // CaseController.cs [AuthWhere(AuthorizeRole.Developer)] [HttpPost] public ActionResult Create(CreateCaseViewModel model) { if(!ModelState.IsValid) { // TODO: some cool stuff? } if (string.IsNullOrWhiteSpace(model.Message)) { throw new ArgumentException("Message cannot be null or empty", model.Message); } if (string.IsNullOrWhiteSpace(model.Topic)) { throw new ArgumentException("Topic cannot be null or empty", model.Topic); } var success = false; string message; var userId = new Guid(_membershipService.GetUserByUserName(User.Identity.Name).ProviderUserKey.ToString()); if(userId == Guid.Empty) { throw new ArgumentException("UserId cannot be empty"); } Case createCase = _caseService.CreateCase(model.Topic, model.Message); if(createCase == null) { throw new ArgumentException("Case cannot be null"); } if(_caseService.AddCase(createCase, userId)) { message = ControllerResources.CaseCreateFail; } else { success = true; message = ControllerResources.CaseCreateSuccess; } return Json(new { Success = success, Message = message, Partial = RenderPartialViewToString(ListView, GetCases) }); }

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  • how can you have the same form handle by javascript multiple times on the same page?

    - by DeChamp
    I have a thumb gallery where I am using ajax/javascript to submit a form per image to report the image as broken seamlessly along with php. The form and script is templated so the script is in the header and then the form is printed multiple times on the same page with a hidden field with a different id for the value per thumb. So basically this is what i have. javascript in header just a quick idea of the forms i have. Just a quick idea not what I actually have. image1 followed by the form image2 followed by the form So when you hit the button it basically submits all of the forms at the same time. I am sure it can be fixed with a (this) or something like that so it only submits a single form at a time. Let me know please. $(function() { $(".submit").click(function() { var imgId = $("#imgId").val(); var dataString = 'imgId='+ imgId; if(imgId==''){ $('.success').fadeOut(200).hide(); $('.error').fadeIn(200).show(); $('.error').fadeOut(200).hide(); }else{ $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "inc/brokenImgReport.php", data: dataString, success: function(){ }); $('.error').fadeOut(200).hide(); $('.success').fadeIn(200).show(); setTimeout(function() { $('.success').fadeOut(200); }, 2000); } return false; }); });

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  • LSUIElement behaves inconsistently with activateIgnoringOtherApps

    - by iconmaster
    Specifically, it behaves inconsistently regarding text field focus. I have an LSUIElement popping up a status menu. Within that menu there is a view containing a text field. The text field needs to be selectable -- not necessarily selected by default, but whichever. When the status item is clicked, it triggers [NSApp activateIgnoringOtherApps:YES]; And it works, about half the time.* The other half the status menu seems to consider itself "in the background" and won't let me put focus on the text field even by clicking on it. (I know the status item click-trigger is firing b/c there's an NSLog on it.) Is this a bug in the way Apple handles these status items, or am I mishandling activateIgnoringOtherApps? *In fact, it seems to fail only the first time after another app is activated. After that it works fine. The complete snippet: -(void)statusItemClicked:(id)sender { //show the popup menu associated with the status item. [statusItem popUpStatusItemMenu:statusMenu]; //activate *after* showing the popup menu to obtain focus for the text field. [NSApp activateIgnoringOtherApps:YES]; }

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  • When is Googling it wrong?

    - by Drahcir
    I've been going through Stack Overflow for quite a bit now and noticed certain people (usually experienced programmers) frown upon Googling (researching) certain problems. Since I myself tend to use Google quite a bit to solve certain programming related issues I found certain comments rather demoralising. Now some of you may have come here trigger happy to delete this post but I needed some clarification. I usually Google things that usually syntax related that I would have never figured out on my own. For example I once wondered how to access the properties of a class that I didn't have a direct relationship to. So after a bit of research I discovered reflection and got what I wanted. Now in another scenario is learning a new language, in my case Silverlight were it differs in certain aspects of .NET compared to say ASP.NET. A few weeks ago I had no idea how to load another Silverlight page (usercontrol) and had to Google my way to the solution which I found wasn't as simple as I had imagined. In scenario three is were I myself frown up, that is just stealing a huge chunk of code to avoid doing the work yourself, for example paging a HTML table using JavaScript, where one just copies and pastes the JavasSript code without as much as trying to understand how it works. I do admit I have done this once or twice before for trivial tasks that had very little time limit and weren't all that important but most of the time still have to throw away what I found because it took too much time to adapt it and get what I wanted out of it. In the last scenario, I sometimes have a piece of code that I would be really unhappy about, as in I find it sloppy or too overcomplicated and try to look on the Internet to see other ways to tackle the same problem, let's say filtering through a table. With the knowledge I acquire I learned new coding practices that help me work more efficiently like "Do not repeat yourself" and such. Now in your opinion when do you find it wrong to use Google (or any other researching tool) to find a solution to your problem?

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  • Saving form values to database after a user logs in

    - by redfalcon
    Hi. We have a form with ratings to submit for a certain restaurant. After the user has entered some values and wants to submit them, we check whether the user is logged in or not. If not, we display a login form and let the user put in his account data and redirect him to the restaurant he wanted to submit a rating for. The problem is, that after he successfully logged in himself, the submitted values are not saved to the database (which works fine if the user is already logged in). So I wondered if it is possible, to somehow save the data although the user is not logged in. I thought of maybe saving the filled values in a variable and have then automatically re-entered after we redirected the user. But I guess this wont work because we use before_filter :login_required, :only => [ :create ] So we couldnt even access the filled in values, since we display the login-form before the method has processed the values in the form, right? Any idea how we can make rails to save the values or at least have them automatically re-entered to the form? Thanks!

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  • Indirect property notification

    - by Carlo
    Hello, this question might look a little trivial, but it might not be. I'm just wondering which of the following two cases is better for indirect property notification, or perhaps there is an even better way. The scenario: I have two properties, the first one is an object called HoldingObject, the second one is a boolean called IsHoldingObject, which is false if HoldingObject == null, otherwise it's true. I'm just wondering what is the best notification mechanism for IsHoldingObject: Case (A) - Notify IsHoldingObject changed from the HoldingObject proeperty: public class NotifyingClass1 : INotifyPropertyChanged { private object _holdingObject; public object HoldingObject { get { return _holdingObject; } set { if (_holdingObject != value) { _holdingObject = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("HoldingObject"); // Notify from the property that is being checked NotifyPropertyChanged("IsHoldingObject"); } } } public bool IsHoldingObject { get { return this.HoldingObject == null; } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; private void NotifyPropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if (this.PropertyChanged != null) this.PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } #endregion } Case (B) - Notify IsHoldingObject changed from the IsHoldingObject directly, by setting it to false or true from HoldingObject property: public class NotifyingClass2 : INotifyPropertyChanged { private object _holdingObject; public object HoldingObject { get { return _holdingObject; } set { if (_holdingObject != value) { _holdingObject = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("HoldingObject"); // 1) Set the property here this.IsHoldingObject = _holdingObject != null; } } } private bool _isHoldingObject; public bool IsHoldingObject { get { return _isHoldingObject; } set { if (_isHoldingObject != value) { _isHoldingObject = value; // 2) Notify directly from the property NotifyPropertyChanged("IsHoldingObject"); } } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; private void NotifyPropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if (this.PropertyChanged != null) this.PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } #endregion } I personally lean to the first one because it requires less code, but I'm not sure how recommendable it is to do that. Let me know if there is another (better) way. Thanks!

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  • Is there a way for -webkit-animtion-timing-function to apply to the entire animation instead of each keyframe?

    - by Ken Sykora
    I'm a bit new to animation, so forgive me if I'm missing a huge concept here. I need to animate an arrow that is pointing to a point on a curve, let's just say it's a cubic curve for the sake of this post. The arrow moves along the curve's line, always pointing a few pixels below it. So what I did, is I setup keyframes along the curve's line using CSS3: @-webkit-keyframes ftch { 0% { opacity: 0; left: -10px; bottom: 12px; } 25% { opacity: 0.25; left: 56.5px; bottom: -7px; } 50% { opacity: 0.5; left: 143px; bottom: -20px; } 75% { opacity: 0.75; left: 209.5px; bottom: -24.5px; } 100% { opacity: 1; left: 266px; bottom: -26px; } } However, when I run this animation using -webkit-animation-timing-function: ease-in, it applies that easing to each individual keyframe, which is definitely not what I want. I want the easing to apply to the entire animation. Is there a different way that I should be doing this? Is there some property to apply the easing to the entire sequence rather than each keyframe?

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  • FDs not closed in FUSE filesystem

    - by cor
    Hi, I have a problem while implementing a fuse filesystem in python. for now i just have a proxy filesystem, exactly like a mount --bind would be. But, any file created, opened, or read on my filesystem is not released (the corresponding FD is not closed) Here is an example : yume% ./ProxyFs.py `pwd`/test yume% cd test yume% ls mdr yume% echo test test yume% ls mdr test yume% ps auxwww | grep python cor 22822 0.0 0.0 43596 4696 ? Ssl 12:57 0:00 python ./ProxyFs.py /home/cor/esl/proxyfs/test cor 22873 0.0 0.0 6352 812 pts/1 S+ 12:58 0:00 grep python yume% ls -l /proc/22822/fd total 0 lrwx------ 1 cor cor 64 2010-05-27 12:58 0 - /dev/null lrwx------ 1 cor cor 64 2010-05-27 12:58 1 - /dev/null lrwx------ 1 cor cor 64 2010-05-27 12:58 2 - /dev/null lrwx------ 1 cor cor 64 2010-05-27 12:58 3 - /dev/fuse l-wx------ 1 cor cor 64 2010-05-27 12:58 4 - /home/cor/test/test yume% Does anyone have a solution to actually really close the fds of the file I use in my fs ? I'm pretty sure it's a mistake in the implementation of the open, read, write hooks but i'm stucked... Let me know if you need more details ! Thanks a lot Cor

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