Search Results

Search found 1810 results on 73 pages for 'ux matters'.

Page 60/73 | < Previous Page | 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67  | Next Page >

  • Given 4 objects, how to figure out whether exactly 2 have a certain property

    - by Cocorico
    Hi guys! I have another question on how to make most elegant solution to this problem, since I cannot afford to go to computer school right so my actual "pure programming" CS knowledge is not perfect or great. This is basically an algorhythm problem (someone please correct me if I am using that wrong, since I don't want to keep saying them and embarass myself) I have 4 objects. Each of them has an species property that can either be a dog, cat, pig or monkey. So a sample situation could be: object1.species=pig object2.species=cat object3.species=pig object4.species=dog Now, if I want to figure out if all 4 are the same species, I know I could just say: if ( (object1.species==object2.species) && (object2.species==object3.species) && (object3.species==object4.species) ) { // They are all the same animal (don't care WHICH animal they are) } But that isn't so elegant right? And if I suddenly want to know if EXACTLY 3 or 2 of them are the same species (don't care WHICH species it is though), suddenly I'm in spaghetti code. I am using Objective C although I don't know if that matters really, since the most elegant solution to this is I assume the same in all languages conceptually? Anyone got good idea? Thanks!!

    Read the article

  • Regex for removing certain variable numeric values from some text

    - by stephemurdoch
    I want to substitute all 4 instances of the number 300 from the code below, with 470. <div> <object width="300" height="300"> <embed src="link-removed" width="300" height="300"></embed> </object> <p> <a href="another-link">link</a> </p> </div> The width and height of the code being pasted might not always be 300 by 300. So I figure I probably need a regular expression that subs any numeric value that follows the strings "width=" and "height=", whilst remembering to account for the quotations marks that surround the number. Can anyone tell me if that's the best way, and if so, what would be the best regex? In case it matters, the code being pasted is stored as "text" in the db rather than as a string, as it's quite lengthy (i've removed a few hundred chars from what you see pasted here)...

    Read the article

  • If Then Else Statement Condition Being Ignored?

    - by Matma
    I think im going mad but can some show me what im missing, it must be some stupidly simple i just cant see the wood for the trees. BOTH side of this if then else statement are being executed? Ive tried commenting out the true side and moving the condition to a seperate variable with the same result. However if i explicitly set the condition to 1=0 or 1=1 then the if then statement is operating as i would expect. i.e. only executing one side of the equation... The only time ive seen this sort of thing is when the compiler has crashed and is no longer compiling (without visible indication that its not) but ive restarted studio with the same results, ive cleaned the solution, built and rebuilt with no change? please show me the stupid mistake im making using vs2005 if it matters. Dim dset As DataSet = New DataSet If (CboCustomers.SelectedValue IsNot Nothing) AndAlso (CboCustomers.SelectedValue <> "") Then Dim Sql As String = "Select sal.SalesOrderNo As SalesOrder,cus.CustomerName,has.SerialNo, convert(varchar,sal.Dateofpurchase,103) as Date from [dbo].[Customer_Table] as cus " & _ " inner join [dbo].[Hasp_table] as has on has.CustomerID=cus.CustomerTag " & _ " inner join [dbo].[salesorder_table] as sal On sal.Hasp_ID =has.Hasp_ID Where cus.CustomerTag = '" & CboCustomers.SelectedValue.ToString & "'" Dim dap As SqlDataAdapter = New SqlDataAdapter(Sql, FormConnection) dap.Fill(dset, "dbo.Customer_Table") DGCustomer.DataSource = dset.Tables("dbo.Customer_Table") Else Dim erm As String = "wtf" End If

    Read the article

  • Why are my Flex resource bundles not being loaded?

    - by Chris R
    I have an Actionscript module in the flex source folder filterModules, which is one of two additional source folders in my project (the main source folder is reports, but I'm not dealing with anything in there right now). Here's the MXML content that references the resources. ... This array is assigned to the dataProvider field of a ComboBox. It's not bound using the bindings, presumably for reasons that made sense to the original developer, and it'd be nontrivial to change the class to make that happen. I additionally have a resource property file in a folder resources/en_US and I have the source folder resources/{locale} in the project source settings. My additional compiler options are -locale en_US. The resource property file is resources/en_US/labels.properties (All paths are relative to the flash builder project root) and contains (amongst other things) these keys: metric.q3 = Overall Satisfaction metric.q5 = Personnel metric.q9a = Issue Resolution metric.q42 = Visit Duration Sat metric.q34 = Visit Duration I have written some FlexUnit tests that run in my local Flash Player that exercise these resources -- they check that every label is represented in the metrics array, for example, so I know that the resource file is loaded when run locally. However, when I copy the module .swf file over to my server, the combo box to which the array is assigned is empty. I copy the .swf like so, if it matters: rsync -rlDv --inplace -T /tmp ~/projects/flex_reports/bin-debug/rankingFilter.swf HOSTNAME:WEBROOT/flashPath/ Why is this? I am not able to debug the remote module because our surrounding site sets up a lot of context and makes some database calls to determine which module to load. I'm hoping to get some pointers on why resource bundles might not show up. I'd understand it if the array was present with wrong labels, but the array is instead completely empty, which is pretty odd.

    Read the article

  • Rails' page caching vs. HTTP reverse proxy caches

    - by John Topley
    I've been catching up with the Scaling Rails screencasts. In episode 11 which covers advanced HTTP caching (using reverse proxy caches such as Varnish and Squid etc.), they recommend only considering using a reverse proxy cache once you've already exhausted the possibilities of page, action and fragment caching within your Rails application (as well as memcached etc. but that's not relevant to this question). What I can't quite understand is how using an HTTP reverse proxy cache can provide a performance boost for an application that already uses page caching. To simplify matters, let's assume that I'm talking about a single host here. This is my understanding of how both techniques work (maybe I'm wrong): With page caching the Rails process is hit initially and then generates a static HTML file that is served directly by the Web server for subsequent requests, for as long as the cache for that request is valid. If the cache has expired then Rails is hit again and the static file is regenerated with the updated content ready for the next request With an HTTP reverse proxy cache the Rails process is hit when the proxy needs to determine whether the content is stale or not. This is done using various HTTP headers such as ETag, Last-Modified etc. If the content is fresh then Rails responds to the proxy with an HTTP 304 Not Modified and the proxy serves its cached content to the browser, or even better, responds with its own HTTP 304. If the content is stale then Rails serves the updated content to the proxy which caches it and then serves it to the browser If my understanding is correct, then doesn't page caching result in less hits to the Rails process? There isn't all that back and forth to determine if the content is stale, meaning better performance than reverse proxy caching. Why might you use both techniques in conjunction?

    Read the article

  • Sybase stored procedure - how do I create an index on a #table?

    - by DVK
    I have a stored procedure which creates and works with a temporary #table Some of the queries would be tremendously optimized if that temporary #table would have an index created on it. However, creating an index within the stored procedure fails: create procedure test1 as SELECT f1, f2, f3 INTO #table1 FROM main_table WHERE 1 = 2 -- insert rows into #table1 create index my_idx on #table1 (f1) SELECT f1, f2, f3 FROM #table1 (index my_idx) WHERE f1 = 11 -- "QUERY X" When I call the above, the query plan for "QUERY X" shows a table scan. If I simply run the code above outside the stored procedure, the messages show the following warning: Index 'my_idx' specified as optimizer hint in the FROM clause of table '#table1' does not exist. Optimizer will choose another index instead. This can be resolved when running ad-hoc (outside the stored procedure) by splitting the code above in two batches by addding "go" after index creation: create index my_idx on #table1 (f1) go Now, "QUERY X" query plan shows the use of index "my_idx". QUESTION: How do I mimique running the "create index" in a separate batch when it's inside the stored procedure? I can't insert a "go" there like I do with the ad-hoc copy above. P.S. If it matters, this is on Sybase 12.

    Read the article

  • Wait on multiple condition variables on Linux without unnecessary sleeps?

    - by Joseph Garvin
    I'm writing a latency sensitive app that in effect wants to wait on multiple condition variables at once. I've read before of several ways to get this functionality on Linux (apparently this is builtin on Windows), but none of them seem suitable for my app. The methods I know of are: Have one thread wait on each of the condition variables you want to wait on, which when woken will signal a single condition variable which you wait on instead. Cycling through multiple condition variables with a timed wait. Writing dummy bytes to files or pipes instead, and polling on those. #1 & #2 are unsuitable because they cause unnecessary sleeping. With #1, you have to wait for the dummy thread to wake up, then signal the real thread, then for the real thread to wake up, instead of the real thread just waking up to begin with -- the extra scheduler quantum spent on this actually matters for my app, and I'd prefer not to have to use a full fledged RTOS. #2 is even worse, you potentially spend N * timeout time asleep, or your timeout will be 0 in which case you never sleep (endlessly burning CPU and starving other threads is also bad). For #3, pipes are problematic because if the thread being 'signaled' is busy or even crashes (I'm in fact dealing with separate process rather than threads -- the mutexes and conditions would be stored in shared memory), then the writing thread will be stuck because the pipe's buffer will be full, as will any other clients. Files are problematic because you'd be growing it endlessly the longer the app ran. Is there a better way to do this? Curious for answers appropriate for Solaris as well.

    Read the article

  • Programming Concepts: What should be done when an exception is thrown?

    - by Dooms101
    This does not really apply to any language specifically, but if it matters I am using VB.NET in Visual Studio 2008. I can't seem to find anything really that useful using Google about this topic, but I was wondering what is common practice when an exception is thrown and caught but since it has been thrown the application cannot continue operating. For example I have exceptions that are thrown by my FileLoader class when a file cannot be found or when a file is deemed corrupt. The exception is only thrown within the class and is not handled really. If the error is detected, then the exception is thrown and whatever function is was thrown is basically quits. So in the code trying to create that object or call one of its members I use a Try...Catch statement. However, I was wondering, what should even do when this exception is caught? My application needs these files to be intact, and if they are not, the application is almost useless. So far I just pop up a message box telling the user their is an error and to reinstall. What else can I do, or better, what's common practice in these situations?

    Read the article

  • What would you write in a consitution (law book) for a programmers' country?

    - by Developer Art
    After we have got our great place to talk about professional matters and sozialize online - on SO, I believe the next logical step would be to found our own country! I invite you all to participate and bring together your available resources. We will buy an island, better even a group of island so that we could establish states like .NET territories, Java land, Linux republic etc. We will build a society of programmers (girls - we need you too). To the organizational side, we're going to need some constitution or a law book. I suggest we write it together. I make it a wiki as it should be a cooperative effort. I'll open the work. Section 1. Programmers' rights. Every citizen has a right to an Internet connection 24/7. Every citizen can freely choose the field of interest Section 2. Programmers' obligations. Every citizen must embrace the changing nature of the profession and constanly educate himself Section 3. Law enforcement. Code duplication when can be avoided is punished by limiting the bandwith speed to 64Kbit for a period of one week. Using ugly hacks instead of refactoring code is punished by cutting the Internet connection for a period of one month. Usage of technologies older than 5/10 years is punished by restricting the web access to the sites last updated 5/10 years ago for a period of one month. Please feel free to modify and extend the list. We'll need to have it ready before we proceed formally with the country foundation. A purchase fund will be established shortly. Everyone is invited to participate.

    Read the article

  • Potential g++ template bug?

    - by Evan Teran
    I've encountered some code which I think should compile, but doesn't. So I'm hoping some of the local standards experts here at SO can help :-). I basically have some code which resembles this: #include <iostream> template <class T = int> class A { public: class U { }; public: U f() const { return U(); } }; // test either the work around or the code I want... #ifndef USE_FIX template <class T> bool operator==(const typename A<T>::U &x, int y) { return true; } #else typedef A<int> AI; bool operator==(const AI::U &x, int y) { return true; } #endif int main() { A<int> a; std::cout << (a.f() == 1) << std::endl; } So, to describe what is going on here. I have a class template (A) which has an internal class (U) and at least one member function which can return an instance of that internal class (f()). Then I am attempting to create an operator== function which compares this internal type to some other type (in this case an int, but it doesn't seem to matter). When USE_FIX is not defined I get the following error: test.cc: In function 'int main()': test.cc:27:25: error: no match for 'operator==' in 'a.A<T>::f [with T = int]() == 1' Which seems odd, because I am clearly (I think) defining a templated operator== which should cover this, in fact if I just do a little of the work for the compiler (enable USE_FIX), then I no longer get an error. Unfortunately, the "fix" doesn't work generically, only for a specific instantiation of the template. Is this supposed to work as I expected? Or is this simply not allowed? BTW: if it matters I am using gcc 4.5.2.

    Read the article

  • How do I design a Wizard-based system with SoC in mind?

    - by Erik Forbes
    I'm building a Windows Forms system (in C# if it matters to anyone) that provides an application automation service. As this application is targeted at users who are not computer savvy, I've decided to break up the functions of the application into various tasks, and provide these tasks via a wizard UI. I'd like to avoid coupling the views and view engine (from which the Wizard will be built) to the automation engine. The problem I'm having is that the automation engine, which runs on a separate thread while it does its thing, needs to report status information back to the user, as well as listen for cancel or pause events from the user. Since I don't want the view engine or the automation engine to rely on each other, I'm having a hard time figuring out how to provide for this information conduit. Any insights into this issue I'm having would be greatly appreciated. I've been wracking my brain for a couple weeks now on this point, and I really don't want to give up and just couple everything together. If anyone needs additional details to help come up with some sort of idea please let me know and I'll be happy to provide them.

    Read the article

  • Legal issues in Europe: check patents ?

    - by Bugz R us
    We live in Europe and are releasing commercial software in multiple countries. Besides of the licensing issues (GPL/LGPL/...) we have a question about patents. I know that if you're in the US, before you release software, you have to check if there aren't any patents you're infringing upon. I also know most of these patents or usually irrational and form a heavy burden on developers/software engineers. Now, as far as I know, EU rules are lots more ratinal, but there has been lobbying to also apply the same rules in EU. http://www.nosoftwarepatents.com http://www.stopsoftwarepatents.eu So what's the deal actually ? For example, there's mention of a patent on a shopping cart : http://v3.espacenet.com/publicationDetails/biblio?CC=EP&NR=807891&KC=&FT=E Is that true ? Is a "shopping cart" patented ??? .................. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1396191/what-should-every-developer-know-about-legal-matters : 4.Software patent lawsuits are crap shoots. You should not, of course, knowingly violate a software patent. However, there is a small but real chance some company will sue you for violating their patent. This may happen even if you develop your software independently, you never heard of the patent, and the patent covers a technique that is intuitively obvious and almost completely unrelated to your software. There is not a lot you can do to avoid this, given the current USPTO policies, other than buy insurance. The good news is that patent trolls generally sue large companies with lots of money.

    Read the article

  • Requested operation requires an OLE DB Session object... - Connecting Excel to SQL server via ADO

    - by Frank V
    I'm attempting to take Excel 2003 and connect it to SQL Server 2000 to run a few dynamicly generated SQL Queries which ultimately filling certain cells. I'm attempting to do this via VBA via ADO (I've tried 2.8 to 2.0) but I'm getting an error while setting the ActiveConnection variable which is inside the ADODB.Connection object. I need to resolve this pretty quick... Requested operation requires an OLE DB Session object, which is not supported by the current provider. I'm honestly not sure what this error means and right now I don't care. How can get this connection to succeed so that I can run my queries? Here is my VB code: Dim SQL As String, RetValue As String SQL = " select top 1 DateTimeValue from SrcTable where x='value' " 'Not the real SQL RetValue = "" Dim RS As ADODB.Recordset Dim Con As New ADODB.Connection Dim Cmd As New ADODB.Command Con.ConnectionString = "Provider=sqloledb;DRIVER=SQL Server;Data Source=Server\Instance;Initial Catalog=MyDB_DC;User Id=<UserName>;Password=<Password>;" Con.CommandTimeout = (60 * 30) Set Cmd.ActiveConnection = Con ''Error occurs here. ' I'm not sure if the rest is right. I've just coded it. Can't get past the line above. Cmd.CommandText = SQL Cmd.CommandType = adCmdText Con.Open Set RS = Cmd.Execute() If Not RS.EOF Then RetValue = RS(0).Value Debug.Print "RetValue is: " & RetValue End If Con.Close I imagine something is wrong with the connection string but I've tried over a dozen variations. Now I'm just shooting in the dark.... Note/Update: To make matters more confusing, if I Google for the error quote above, I get a lot of hits back but nothing seems relevant or I'm not sure what information is relevant.... I've got the VBA code in "Sheet1" under "Microsoft Excel Objects." I've done this before but usually put things in a module. Could this make a difference?

    Read the article

  • Accelerometer gravity components

    - by Dvd
    Hi, I know this question is definitely solved somewhere many times already, please enlighten me if you know of their existence, thanks. Quick rundown: I want to compute from a 3 axis accelerometer the gravity component on each of these 3 axes. I have used 2 axes free body diagrams to work out the accelerometer's gravity component in the world X-Z, Y-Z and X-Y axes. But the solution seems slightly off, it's acceptable for extreme cases when only 1 accelerometer axis is exposed to gravity, but for a pitch and roll of both 45 degrees, the combined total magnitude is greater than gravity (obtained by Xa^2+Ya^2+Za^2=g^2; Xa, Ya and Za are accelerometer readings in its X, Y and Z axis). More detail: The device is a Nexus One, and have a magnetic field sensor for azimuth, pitch and roll in addition to the 3-axis accelerometer. In the world's axis (with Z in the same direction as gravity, and either X or Y points to the north pole, don't think this matters much?), I assumed my device has a pitch (P) on the Y-Z axis, and a roll (R) on the X-Z axis. With that I used simple trig to get: Sin(R)=Ax/Gxz Cos(R)=Az/Gxz Tan(R)=Ax/Az There is another set for pitch, P. Now I defined gravity to have 3 components in the world's axis, a Gxz that is measurable only in the X-Z axis, a Gyz for Y-Z, and a Gxy for X-Y axis. Gxz^2+Gyz^2+Gxy^2=2*G^2 the 2G is because gravity is effectively included twice in this definition. Oh and the X-Y axis produce something more exotic... I'll explain if required later. From these equations I obtained a formula for Az, and removed the tan operations because I don't know how to handle tan90 calculations (it's infinity?). So my question is, anyone know whether I did this right/wrong or able to point me to the right direction? Thanks! Dvd

    Read the article

  • strange run time error message from CIImage initWithContentsOfURL

    - by Adam
    When executing the following code I receive a run time error when the code executes the second line of code. The error (which shows up in the debugger) says: [NSButton initWithContentsOfURL:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x100418e10. I don't understand this message, because it looks to me (based on my source code) like the initWithContentsOfURL message is being sent to the myImage instance (of the CIImage class) ... not NSButton. Any idea what is going on? If it matters ... this code is in the Application Controller class module of an Xcode project (a Cocoa application) -- within a method that is called when I click on a button on the application window. There is only the one button on the window ... // Step1: Load the JPG file into CIImage NSURL *myURL = [NSURL fileURLWithPath:@"/Users/Adam/Documents/Images/image7.jpg"]; CIImage *myImage = [myImage initWithContentsOfURL: myURL]; if (myImage = Nil) { NSLog(@"Creating myImage failed"); return; } else { NSLog(@"Created myImage successfully"); }

    Read the article

  • What scenarios are possible where the VS C# compiler would not compile a reference of a reference?

    - by SuperKing
    Hello, I'm probably asking this question wrong (and that may be why Google isn't helping), but here goes: In Visual Studio I am compiling a C# project (let's call it Project A, the startup project) which has a reference to Project B. Project B has a reference to a Project C, so when A gets built, the dlls for B gets placed in the bin directory of A, as does the dll for C (because B requires C, and A requires B). However, I have apparently made some change recently so that the dll for Project C does not go into the bin directory of Project A when rebuilding the solution. I have no idea what I've done to make this happen. I have not modified the setup of the solution itself, and I have only added additional references to the project files. Code wise, I have commented out most of the actual code in Project B that references classes in Project C, but did not remove the reference from the project itself (I don't think this matters). I was told that perhaps the C# compiler was optimizing somehow so that it was not building Project C, but really I'm out of ideas. I would think someone has run into something similar before Any thoughts? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • SQLite dataypes lengths?

    - by XF
    I'm completely new to SQLite (actually 5 minutes ago), but I do know somewhat the Oracle and MySql backends. The question: I'm trying to know the lengths of each of the datatypes supported by SQLite, such as the differences between a bigint and a smallint. I've searched across the SQLite documentation (only talks about affinity, only matters it?), SO threads, google... and found nothing. My guess: I've just slightly revised the SQL92 specifications, which talk about datatypes and its relations but not about its lengths, which is quite obvious I assume. Yet I've come accross the Oracle and MySql datatypes specs, and the specified lengths are mostly identical for integers at least. Should I assume SQLite is using the same lengths? Aside question: Have I missed something about the SQLite docs? Or have I missed something about SQL in general? Asking this because I can't really understand why the SQLite docs don't specify something as basic as the datatypes lengths. It just doesn't make sense to me! Although I'm sure there is a simple command to discover the lengths.. but why not writing them to the docs? Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to "trick" PrintScreen, swap out the contents of my form with something else before c

    - by Lasse V. Karlsen
    I have a bit of a challenge. In an earlier version of our product, we had an error message window (last resort, unhandled exception) that showed the exception message, type, stack trace + various bits and pieces of information. This window was printscreen-friendly, in that if the user simply did a printscreen-capture, and emailed us the screenshot, we had almost everything we needed to start diagnosing the problem. However, the form was deemed too technical and "scary" for normal users, so it was toned down to a more friendly one, still showing the error message, but not the stack trace and some of the more gory details that I'd still like to get. In addition, the form was added the capabilities of emailing us a text file containing everything we had before + lots of other technical details as well, basically everything we need. However, users still use PrintScreen to capture the contents of the form and email that back to us, which means I now have a less than optimal amount of information to go on. So I was wondering. Would it be possible for me to pre-render a bitmap the same size as my form, with everything I need on it, detect that PrintScreen was hit and quickly swap out the form contents with my bitmap before capture, and then back again afterwards? And before you say "just educate the users", yes, that's not going to work. These are not out users, they're users at our customers place, so we really cannot tell them to wisen up all that much. Or, barring this, is there a way for me to detect PrintScreen, tell Windows to ignore it, and instead react to it, by dumping the aformentioned prerendered bitmap onto the clipboard ready for placing into an email? The code is C# 3.0 in .NET 3.5, if it matters, but pointers for something to look at/for is good enough.

    Read the article

  • Decoding the IE9 user agent

    - by Portman
    I installed IE9 in a Windows 7 virtual machine, and was surprised to see this user agent: Mozilla/5.0 (compatible; MSIE 9.0; Windows NT 6.1; Trident/5.0; BOIE9;ENUSMSNIP) In particular, the last two keys BOIE9 and ENUSMSNIP look very spammy. I'm used to seeing toolbars and add-ins register themselves at the end of the user agent like that, but this is on a virgin install of Windows 7 with no other software. They're defined in the registry here: HKCU\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Internet Settings\5.0\User Agent\PostPlatform That key has a value of IEAK, which is apparently the Internet Explorer Administrators Kit which according to Microsoft sends a custom user agent string. But why? I'm guessing that BOIE9 is stands for "Bing on IE9". It's the only active Add-On: As for ENUSMSNIP, I'm at a loss. My guesses are: ENUS = Locale, which for me is EN-US ("US English") MS = Microsoft NIP = ??? I tried changing my locale to EN-GB, but the user agent didn't update nor did the registry. So it appears it's only at the time of install that it matters (if I'm even right about ENUS). Does anyone know what these two user agent keys represent? Or, care to share what your IE9 user agent is, and maybe we can piece it together ourselves?

    Read the article

  • Are there solutions for streamlining the update of legacy code in multiple places?

    - by ccomet
    I'm working in some old code which was originally designed for handling two different kinds of files. I was recently tasked with adding a new kind of file to this code. Most of my problems were solved by filling out an extensive XML file with a new entry that handled everything from what lists were named to how the file is written in plural lower case. But this ended up being insufficient, as there were maybe 50 different places in 24 different code files where I had to update hardcoded switch-statements that only branched for the original two file types. Unfortunately there is no consistency in this; there are methods which operate half from the XML file, and half off of hardcode. Some of the files which look like they would operate off of the XML file don't, and some that I would expect that I'd need to update the hardcode don't need it. So the only way to find the majority of these is to run through testing the whole system when only part of it is operational, finding that one step to fix (when I'm lucky that error logging actually tells me what is going on), and then running the whole thing again. This wastes time testing the parts of the code which are already confirmed to work, time better spent testing the new parts I have to add on top of it all. It's a hassle and a half, and to my luck I can expect that I will have to add yet another new kind of file in the near future. Are there any solutions out there which can aid in this kind of endeavour? Something which I can input some parameters of current features, document what points in a whole code project actually need to be updated, and run something nice the next time I need to add a new feature to the code. It needn't even be fully automated, something that'll help me navigate straight to the specific points in everything and maybe even record what kind of parameters need to be loaded. Doubt it matters specifically, but the code is comprised of ASP.NET pages, some ASP.NET controls, hundreds of C# code files, and a handful of additional XML files. It's all currently in a couple big Visual Studio 2008 projects.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET inline code in a server control

    - by John
    Ok, we had a problem come up today at work. It is a strange one that I never would have even thought to try. <form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %>" > Ok, it is very ugly and I wouldn't have ever tried it myself. It came up in some code that was written years ago but had been working up until this weekend after a bunch of updates were installed on a client's web server where the code is hosted. The actual result of this is the following html: <form name="form1" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=&lt;%= ID %>" id="form1"> The url ends up like this: http://localhost:6735/Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %> Which as you can see, demonstrates that the "<" symbol is being encoded before ASP.NET actually processes the page. It seems strange to me as I thought that even though it is not pretty by any means, it should work. I'm confused. To make matters worse, the client insists that it is a bug in IE since it appears to work in Firefox. In fact, it is broken in Firefox as well, except for some reason Firefox treats it as a 0. Any ideas on why this happens and how to fix it easily? Everything I try to render within the server control ends up getting escaped. Edit Ok, I found a "fix" <form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action='<%# String.Format("Default.aspx?id={0}", 5) %>' > But that requires me to call DataBind which is adding more of a hack to the original hack. Guess if nobody thinks of anything else I'll have to go with that.

    Read the article

  • How can i get HWND of external application's listview? In Windows Api using c++

    - by Marko29
    So i am trying to make app to get content of my explorer listviews and get item text etc.. from it but here are the problems... If i inspect windows explorer folder(using spy++) with listview, just for testing purposes i will use random folder. It shows me that caption of the window is "FolderView" with class "SysListView32" and the top level window where this listview is nested is called "reference", this is also the title of windows explorer folder where all the files are. So what i do is.. HWND hWndLV = FindWindow(NULL, TEXT("reference")); // first i get hwnd of the main window, this is where listview window is also nested according to spy++, thats why i do this first. HWND child = FindWindowEx(hWndLV, NULL,NULL,TEXT("FolderView")); // trying to get hwnd of the listview here but it fails, same happens if i also put the class name along as HWND child = FindWindowEx(hWndLV, NULL,TEXT("SysListView32"),TEXT("FolderView")); I am using bool test = IsWindow(child); to test for fail, also VS debugger shows 0x0000000000 each time so i am sure i am reading results well. So i am stuck on this probably simple thing for most of people:( p.s. i am on vista64(if that matters anyhow) edit: It appears that this function works only if i search the first nested level of a parent window i am searching. So i assume what i need is a way to get handle with some sort of deep nested level search. I also tried to go step by step by defining hwnd of every parent then i use findwindowex on it but oh boy then i get to the point where there are 5 nested windows all with the same name and only one of them contains my listview, so nice uh?

    Read the article

  • Anonymous comments not saved in Drupal

    - by Marco
    For some reason I can no longer post a comment as an Anonymous user in my Drupal installation. I haven't tried in a while, so I'm not quite sure when this functionality was broken. I have Services installed, and I can post anonymous comments using comment.save. I have altered the Input Formats if that could break something. I have enabled both post comments and access comments on the anonymous user. The comments does not show up in the database. In fact, the native Drupal function comment_save isn't called when I try to comment as Anonymous (I check this by adding print_r($edit);die(); at the top of the comment_save function in comment.module. Also I read something that not having a User with the UID 0 would break the Anonymous commenting, this user exists (obviously, since commenting through Services works) I have tried out the AntiSpam module, and posted a comment as Anonymous that would get caught(and did) in the spamfilter, but this module is now disabled. I'm really running out of ideas here, does anyone have any other suggestions on what to do? In the meanwhile I'm going to attempt to backtrack the code to figure out why comment_save() isn't being called. Edit: Anonymous users also don't have to submit email and such to post, if that matters in any way.

    Read the article

  • How can I create/update an XML node that may or may not exist?

    - by ScottBai
    Is there a method available (i.e. without me creating my own recursive method), for a given xpath (or other method of identifying the hierarchical position) to create/update an XML node, where the node would be created if it does not exist? This would need to create the parent node if it does not exist as well. I do have an XSD which includes all possible nodes. i.e. Before: <employee> <name>John Smith</name> </employee> Would like to call something like this: CoolXmlUpdateMethod("/employee/address/city", "Los Angeles"); After: <employee> <name>John Smith</name> <address> <city>Los Angeles</city> </address> </employee> Or even a method to create a node, given an xpath, wherein it will recursively create the parent node(s) if they do not exist? As far as the application (if it matters), this is taking an existing XML doc that contains only populated nodes, and adding data to it from another system. The new data may or may not already have values populated in the source XML. Surely this is not an uncommon scenario?

    Read the article

  • Facebook IFrame Application issues for certain users

    - by Kon
    We have a strange issue with running an Facebook IFrame application (using MVC 2). When I run my app and log into Facebook, I get to the application just fine. But when my coworker does it, she gets the following error: API Error Code: 100 API Error Description: Invalid parameter Error Message: Requires valid next URL. Typically this error is resolved by updating the "New Data Permissions" setting of the Facebook application. However, in this case it doesn't help. We've also tried logging in with our accounts from different computers and it seems that neither computer nor which one the MVC ASP.NET app is running from matters. The only difference is who is logged into Facebook. We've looked at our Facebook account settings, but couldn't find any obvious differences. We both have Developer access to the FB application and we both can edit its settings. However, only one of us can actually run the application without getting the above mentioned error message. Any idea what could be happening here?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67  | Next Page >