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  • How to use VBA to colour pie chart

    - by Timon Heinomann
    I have the following code in which the code tries to create a bubble chart with pie charts as the bubbles. As in this version colour themes are used to create a different colour in each pie chart (bulbble) in the function part I have the problem that it works depending on the paths to the colour paletts. Is there an easy way to make the function in a way that it works independently of those paths either by coding a colour for each pie chart segment or by using standardize paths (probably not possible, not preferable). Sub PieMarkers() Dim chtMarker As Chart Dim chtMain As Chart Dim intPoint As Integer Dim rngRow As Range Dim lngPointIndex As Long Dim thmColor As Long Dim myTheme As String Application.ScreenUpdating = False Set chtMarker = ActiveSheet.ChartObjects("chtMarker").Chart Set chtMain = ActiveSheet.ChartObjects("chtMain").Chart Set chtMain = ActiveSheet.ChartObjects("chtMain").Chart Set rngRow = Range(ThisWorkbook.Names("PieChartValues").RefersTo) For Each rngRow In Range("PieChartValues").Rows chtMarker.SeriesCollection(1).Values = rngRow ThisWorkbook.Theme.ThemeColorScheme.Load GetColorScheme(thmColor) chtMarker.Parent.CopyPicture xlScreen, xlPicture lngPointIndex = lngPointIndex + 1 chtMain.SeriesCollection(1).Points(lngPointIndex).Paste thmColor = thmColor + 1 Next lngPointIndex = 0 Application.ScreenUpdating = True End Sub Function GetColorScheme(i As Long) As String Const thmColor1 As String = "C:\Program Files\Microsoft Office\Document Themes 15\Theme Colors\Blue Green.xml" Const thmColor2 As String = "C:\Program Files\Microsoft Office\Document Themes 15\Theme Colors\Orange Red.xml" Select Case i Mod 2 Case 0 GetColorScheme = thmColor1 Case 1 GetColorScheme = thmColor2 End Select End Function The code copies a single chart again and again on the bubbles. So I woudl like to alter the Function (now called Get colourscheme) into a fucntion that assigns a a unqiue rgb colour to each segment of each pie chart

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  • how to read in a list of custom configuration objects

    - by Johnny
    hi, I want to implement Craig Andera's custom XML configuration handler in a slightly different scenario. What I want to be able to do is to read in a list of arbitrary length of custom objects defined as: public class TextFileInfo { public string Name { get; set; } public string TextFilePath { get; set; } public string XmlFilePath { get; set; } } I managed to replicate Craig's solution for one custom object but what if I want several? Craig's deserialization code is: public class XmlSerializerSectionHandler : IConfigurationSectionHandler { public object Create(object parent, object configContext, XmlNode section) { XPathNavigator nav = section.CreateNavigator(); string typename = (string)nav.Evaluate("string(@type)"); Type t = Type.GetType(typename); XmlSerializer ser = new XmlSerializer(t); return ser.Deserialize(new XmlNodeReader(section)); } } I think I could do this if I could get Type t = Type.GetType("System.Collections.Generic.List<TextFileInfo>") to work but it throws Could not load type 'System.Collections.Generic.List<Test1.TextFileInfo>' from assembly 'Test1, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null'.

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  • .Net Entity Framework & POCO ... querying full table problem

    - by Chris Klepeis
    I'm attempting to implement a repository pattern with my poco objects auto generated from my edmx. In my repository class, I have: IObjectSet<E> _objectSet; private IObjectSet<E> objectSet { get { if (_objectSet == null) { _objectSet = this._context.CreateObjectSet<E>(); } return _objectSet; } } public IQueryable<E> GetQuery(Func<E, bool> where) { return objectSet.Where(where).AsQueryable<E>(); } public IList<E> SelectAll(Func<E, bool> where) { return GetQuery(where).ToList(); } Where E is the one of my POCO classes. When I trace the database and run this: IList<Contact> c = contactRepository.SelectAll(r => r.emailAddress == "[email protected]"); It shows up in the sql trace as a select for everything in my Contact table. Where am I going wrong here? Is there a better way to do this? Does an objectset not lazy load... so it omitted the where clause? This is the article I read which said to use objectSet's... since with POCO, I do not have EntityObject's to pass into "E" http://devtalk.dk/CommentView,guid,b5d9cad2-e155-423b-b66f-7ec287c5cb06.aspx

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  • Update database settings in properties file in Spring

    - by mvg
    Hi all, I am trying to create a Database Manager page which shows the database details on page load and updates the database settings when the user press submit I followed this tutorial and set the database settings in properties file. I managed to update the database settings in properties file programmatically. When I retrieved the database settings using the following code DriverManagerDataSource databaseSource = (DriverManagerDataSource)context.getBean("dataSource"); databaseSource.getUsername(); I managed to get the old value and unable to get the new value This is the mapping in applicationContext.xml file <bean class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer"> <property name="location"> <value>classpath:/bundle/database.properties</value> </property> </bean> <bean id="dataSource" class="org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DriverManagerDataSource"> <property name="driverClassName" value="${jdbc.driverClassName}" /> <property name="url" value="${jdbc.url}" /> <property name="username" value="${jdbc.username}" /> <property name="password" value="${jdbc.password}" /> </bean> I checked the properties file and found it to be updated with the latest input. What am I missing? Thanks in advance P.S I am using JSF1.2 with Spring 3 Update Just making my requirement simple. I am creating a setparate dbsettings page, so that when user wishes to connect to different database he/she can just enter the details in dbsettings page and connect

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  • Wordpress: How to override all default theme CSS so your custom one is loaded the last?

    - by mickael
    I have a problem where I've been able to include a custom css in the section of my wordpress theme with the following code: function load_my_style_wp_enqueue_scripts() { wp_register_style('my_styles_css', includes_url("/css/my_styles.css")); wp_enqueue_style('my_styles_css'); } add_action('wp_enqueue_scripts','load_my_style_wp_enqueue_scripts'); But the order in the source code is as follows: <link rel='stylesheet' id='my_styles_css-css' href='http://...folderA.../my_styles.css?ver=3.1' type='text/css' media='all' /> <link rel="stylesheet" id="default-css" href="http://...folderB.../default.css" type="text/css" media="screen,projection" /> <link rel="stylesheet" id="user-css" href="http://...folderC.../user.css" type="text/css" media="screen,projection" /> I want my_styles_css to be the last file to load, overriding default and user files. I've tried to achieve this by modifying wp_enqueue_style in different ways, but without any success. I've tried: wp_enqueue_style('my_styles_css', array('default','user')); or wp_enqueue_style('my_styles_css', false, array('default','user'), '1.0', 'all'); I've seen some related questions without answer or with these last 2 methods that are still failing for me. The function above is part of a plugin that I've got enabled in my wordpress installation.

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  • Creating a Multiwindowed Cocoa Program - Launching Procedure Suggestions?

    - by Jeffrey Kern
    I'm porting an application I developed in Visual Studio 2008 over to Cocoa. I'm currently doing a 'learn-as-you-go' approach to Cocoa, so I can experiment with different ideas and techniques in smaller, simpler projects and eventually combine them into one big application. My program logic is as follows (in a dumbed-down sense). Items in the list are mandated by my boss. Application is started 1a. Verify CD program is in drive. Verify license. If found and is valid, skip to step 7 Display license agreement. Display serial number prompt. Verify and save serial number. Hide all prior windows. Load main application window Intercept requests and commands from main application window, including making a duplicate main application window Exit program when requested by user What would the best bet be for this type of application? From another question I asked, I found out that I should keep the 'main application' window in a separate XIB file from the rest, because I might need to clone and interact with it. I know that since Cocoa and Objective-C is based off of C, there is a Main method somewhere. But what would you all suggest as a starting place for an application like this?

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  • CoInitialize fails in dll

    - by Quandary
    Question: I have the following program, which uses COM to use the Microsoft Speech API (SAPI) to take a text and output it as sound. Now it works fine as long as I have it in a .exe. When I load it as .dll, it fails. Why? I used dependencywalker, and saw the exe doesn't have MSVCR100D and ole32, so I loaded them like this: LoadLibraryA("MSVCR100D.DLL"); LoadLibraryA("ole32.dll"); but it didn't help... Any idea why ? #include <windows.h> #include <sapi.h> #include <cstdlib> int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { ISpVoice * pVoice = NULL; if (FAILED(::CoInitialize(NULL))) return FALSE; HRESULT hr = CoCreateInstance(CLSID_SpVoice, NULL, CLSCTX_ALL, IID_ISpVoice, (void **) &pVoice); if( SUCCEEDED( hr ) ) { hr = pVoice->Speak(L"Noobie was fragged by GSG9 Googlebot", 0, NULL); hr = pVoice->Speak(L"Test Test", 0, NULL); hr = pVoice->Speak(L"This sounds normal <pitch middle = '-10'/> but the pitch drops half way through", SPF_IS_XML, NULL ); pVoice->Release(); pVoice = NULL; } ::CoUninitialize(); return EXIT_SUCCESS; }

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  • PHP Object References in Frameworks

    - by bigstylee
    Before I dive into the disscusion part a quick question; Is there a method to determine if a variable is a reference to another variable/object? For example $foo = 'Hello World'; $bar = &$foo; echo (is_reference($bar) ? 'Is reference' : 'Is orginal'; I have been using PHP5 for a few years now (personal use only) and I would say I am moderately reversed on the topic of Object Orientated implementation. However the concept of Model View Controller Framework is fairly new to me. I have looked a number of tutorials and looked at some of the open source frameworks (mainly CodeIgnitor) to get a better understanding how everything fits together. I am starting to appreciate the real benefits of using this type of structure. I am used to implementing object referencing in the following technique. class Foo{ public $var = 'Hello World!'; } class Bar{ public function __construct(){ global $Foo; echo $Foo->var; } } $Foo = new Foo; $Bar = new Bar; I was surprised to see that CodeIgnitor and Yii pass referencs of objects and can be accessed via the following method: $this->load->view('argument') The immediate advantage I can see is a lot less code and more user friendly. But I do wonder if it is more efficient as these frameworks are presumably optimised? Or simply to make the code more user friendly? This was an interesting article Do not use PHP references.

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  • Hide table rows if Cookie is there

    - by kuswantin
    Based on my previous question here and here, I found that I can set a cookie with javascript. I want to combine it with jquery to have a cookie state set for toggled table rows. I want to keep the hidden rows hidden upon reload. Here is what I have achieved so far: // Load cookies if any if(readCookie('togState')) { $('table#toggle tr.' + readCookie('togState')).hide(); } $(function() { $('table#toggle tr.container').click(function() { var idTog = $(this).attr('id'); $(this).toggleClass('off').nextAll('.' + idTog).toggle(); setCookie('togState', idTog, 30); alert('Cookies: ' + readCookie('togState')); }); }); As you can see the cookie is read, but is not set upon browser refresh. What am I doing wrong? What I want is hide any toggled rows (having their classes equal to their parent's container ID), if the parent container is clicked, and so the cookie is set. Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Using SQL dB column as a lock for concurrent operations in Entity Framework

    - by Sid
    We have a long running user operation that is handled by a pool of worker processes. Data input and output is from Azure SQL. The master Azure SQL table structure columns are approximated to [UserId, col1, col2, ... , col N, beingProcessed, lastTimeProcessed ] beingProcessed is boolean and lastTimeProcessed is DateTime. The logic in every worker role is: public void WorkerRoleMain() { while(true) { try { dbContext db = new dbContext(); // Read foreach (UserProfile user in db.UserProfile .Where(u => DateTime.UtcNow.Subtract(u.lastTimeProcessed) > TimeSpan.FromHours(24) & u.beingProcessed == false)) { user.beingProcessed = true; // Modify db.SaveChanges(); // Write // Do some long drawn processing here ... ... ... user.lastTimeProcessed = DateTime.UtcNow; user.beingProcessed = false; db.SaveChanges(); } } catch(Exception ex) { LogException(ex); Sleep(TimeSpan.FromMinutes(5)); } } // while () } With multiple workers processing as above (each with their own Entity Framework layer), in essence beingProcessed is being used a lock for MutEx purposes Question: How can I deal with concurrency issues on the beingProcessed "lock" itself based on the above load? I think read-modify-write operation on the beingProcessed needs to be atomic but I'm open to other strategies. Open to other code refinements too.

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  • How to prevent session hijacking with SID (CGI perl)

    - by Gnippots
    I have a web app used by a small number of people (internal only) and am using a randomised sessionID that is stored under the user record and placed in various links. I have had a problem where users are sending links to each other which is allowing them to hijack the sender's session. What are some ways of preventing this from happening while still letting users send links to one another? Edit: The session ID in the link (which also contains $username) is just compared to what is stored in the User table. &incorrectLogin just prints an error followed by die; if ($sid) { $sth = $dbh->prepare("SELECT * FROM tbl_User WHERE UserID = '$username'"); $sth->execute(); $ref = $sth->fetchrow_hashref(); $session_chk = $ref->{'usr_sessionID'}; unless ($sid eq $session_chk) {&incorrectLogin;} } The problem is that if someone uses a link that is created by someone else, the page will load as them. I am not using cookies, and I recall being told in the past that CGI perl cookie handling is quite poor.

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  • Why does my App.Config codebase not help .NET locate my assembly?

    - by pkolodziej
    I have the following client application and its corresponding config file: namespace Chapter9 { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { AppDomain.CurrentDomain.ExecuteAssembly("AssemblyPrivate.exe"); } } } <configuration> <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <dependentAssembly> <codeBase href="file://C:\Users\djpiter\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\70536\AssemblyPrivate\bin\Debug\AssemblyPrivate.exe"/> </dependentAssembly> </assemblyBinding> </runtime> </configuration> The AssemblyPrivate.exe does not have a public key, nor is it located in the GAC. As far as I know, the runtime should parse the app.config file before looking for an assembly in the client app directory. The unhandled exception (wrapped for readability) is: Unhandled Exception: System.IO.FileNotFoundException: Could not load file or assembly 'file:///C:\Users\djpiter\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\70536\Chapter9\bin\Debug\AssemblyPrivate.exe' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. Why it is not working? I need to use dynamic binding (not static). Kind Regards, PK

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  • Changing a url depending on what link chosen (HTML) no asp.

    - by Ozaki
    TLDR I need to change a javascript variable on the same page after clicking a link (can be from a different page) so that the getjson request pulls different data without having to duplicate on html pages. I am using some getJSON requests with Jquery, to make calls to populate my pages. I want to be able to (in plain HTML / javascript) when the user clicks say "link 1" or "link 2" to open the same page (say page.html) but change the get request url to "link 1" or "link 2". Page.html var url = ??; $.getJSON(url, function(data){} link 1 var url = host/link1 <a href="page.html">link1</a> link2 var url = host/link2 <a href="page.html">link2</a> So I call the same page but am able to populate it with different content. Purposely staying away from asp. Was thinking maybe of inserting the content into a div after page load so the url can be set or something along those lines. Any ideas how I might go about this?

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  • User control loosing its contents when loaded programatically

    - by Phil
    I have a usercontrol which contains 2 repeaters and the code to populate them with data. If i manually insert this into the page then it works correctly, the repeaters populate etc. If I load it programatically using this method; 1) add class name to user control ClassName="ContentModule" 2) reference this in the default.aspx <%@ Reference Control="~/modules/content.ascx" %> 3) Add the code to my codebehind page_load to do the loading; Private loadmodule As ASP.ContentModule Try If themodule = "content" Then loadmodule = CType(LoadControl("~\Modules\Content.ascx"), ASP.ContentModule) Modulecontainer.Controls.Add(loadmodule) End If Catch ex As Exception Response.Write(ex.ToString & "<br />") End Try Nothing from within the usercontrol is loaded to the page. Although if I add some static text i.e "TEST" to the top of the usercontrol this is displayed ok on the default.aspx page. This makes me think that the control is loaded ok, but there is something in the way I have loaded it that is causing the contents to not properly execute. Very frustrating this one! Any help greatly appreciated!

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  • Panel not displaying while dowloading file

    - by James123
    I wrote download excel file in my code. If I click download button I need show ajax-load image (pnlPopup panel). But it is not displaying. I think because of Some "Response" statements (see below code). Download working fine, but simultaniously I want show loader panel too. <asp:Panel ID="pnlPopup" runat="server" visible="false"> <div align="center" style="margin-top: 13px;"> <asp:Image runat ="server" ID="imgDownload" src="Images/ajax-loader.gif" alt="" /> <br /> <span class="updateProgressMessage">downloading ...</span> </div> Protected Sub btnDownload_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) 'Handles btnDownload.Click' Try pnlPopup.Visible = True Dim mSurvey As New Survey Dim mUser As New User Dim dtExcel As DataTable mUser = CType(Session("user"), User) dtExcel = mSurvey.CreateExcelWorkbook(mUser.UserID, mUser.Client.ID) Dim filename As String = "Download.xls" InitializeWorkbook() GenerateData(dtExcel) Response.ContentType = "application/vnd.ms-excel" Response.AddHeader("Content-Disposition", String.Format("attachment;filename={0}", filename)) Response.Clear() Response.BinaryWrite(WriteToStream.GetBuffer) Response.End() Catch ex As Exception Finally End Try End Sub

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  • How to not cache a php file where a cachemanifest is beeing called?

    - by Volmar
    Hi, i'm building a iphone app with jqtouch and i use a cachemanifest to cache all the static files (images, css, javascript) to make it load faster. However the page uses php for the dynamic content and i don't want to cache that. So i'm generating the cachemanifest with this php-script(manifest.php): <?php header('Content-Type: text/cache-manifest'); echo "CACHE MANIFEST\n"; $hashes = ""; $lastFileWasDynamic = FALSE; $dir = new RecursiveDirectoryIterator("."); foreach(new RecursiveIteratorIterator($dir) as $file) { if ($file->IsFile() && $file != "./manifest.php" && substr($file->getFilename(), 0, 1) != ".") { if(preg_match('/.php$/', $file)) { if(!$lastFileWasDynamic) { echo "\n\nNETWORK:\n"; } $lastFileWasDynamic = TRUE; } else { if($lastFileWasDynamic) { echo "\n\nCACHE:\n"; $lastFileWasDynamic = FALSE; } } echo $file . "\n"; $hashes .= md5_file($file); } } echo "\nNETWORK:\nhttp://chart.apis.google.com/\n\n# Hash: " . md5($hashes) . "\n"; ?> This actually works really good except for one irritating thing: From what i read somewhere the file that calls the cachemanifest is automaticly included in the manifest and is beeing cached. Wich means that my start-page index.php, where i call the cachemanifest is beeing cached. This leads to very irritating problems. is there any way to deal with this or any smart workaround? The page is in the cachemanifest listed as NETWORK, but it looks like this is beeing overruled by the fact that the cachemanifest is called from the file.

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  • jQuery - select onchange to slide in / slide out div or form

    - by slayaz
    Hi, I am trying to enhance a form, by showing only relevant fields depending on initial selection via a form select field. It is an order form for 3 products and all 3 products have unique properties. My idea was to hide all the content in divs, then reveal the relevant div when the product is selected. I have found some solutions that show / hide a div, but none with any animation. It doesn't have to be a slide but just something nice! The alternative is instead of revealing a div, would be to load a seperate form, but this seems unnecessary. I am not sure whether i need a plug in, as I am pretty new to jquery. What i have in the html is: <style type="text/css"> .hide { display:none; } <select> <option value="" >Please select product below</option> <option value="pro1">Product 1</option> <option value="pro2">Product 2</option> </select> <div id="pro1" class="hide" >Product 1</div> <div id="pro2" class="hide" >Product 2</div> Many thanks in advance

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  • Is a call to the following method considered late binding?

    - by AspOnMyNet
    1) Assume: • B1 defines methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(), where former method is virtual while the latter is non-virtual • B2 derives from B1 • B2 overrides virtualM() • B2 is defined inside assembly A • Application app doesn’t have a reference to assembly A In the following code application app dynamically loads an assembly A, creates an instance of a type B2 and calls methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(): Assembly a=Assembly.Load(“A”); Type t= a.GetType(“B2”); B1 a = ( B1 ) Activator.CreateInstance ( “t” ); a.virtualM(); a.nonvirtualM(); a) Is call to a.virtualM() considered early binding or late binding? b) I assume a call to a.nonvirtualM() is resolved during compilation time? 2) Does the term late binding refer only to looking up the target method at run time or does it also refer to creating an instance of given type at runtime? thanx EDIT: 1) A a=new A(); a.M(); As far as I know, it is not known at compile time where on the heap (thus at which memory address ) will instance a be created during runtime. Now, with early binding the function calls are replaced with memory addresses during compilation process. But how can compiler replace function call with memory address, if it doesn’t know where on the heap will object a be created during runtime ( here I’m assuming the address of method a.M will also be at same memory location as a )? 2) The method slot is determined at compile time I assume that by method slot you’re referring to the entry point in V-table?

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  • What is the right pattern for a async data fetching method in .net async/await

    - by s093294
    Given a class with a method GetData. A few other clients call GetData, and instead of it fetching data each time, i would like to create a pattern where the first call starts the task to get the data, and the rest of the calls wait for the task to complete. private Task<string> _data; private async Task<string> _getdata() { return "my random data from the net"; //get_data_from_net() } public string GetData() { if(_data==null) _data=_getdata(); _data.wait(); //are there not a problem here. cant wait a task that is already completed ? if(_data.status != rantocompletion) _data.wait() is not any better, it might complete between the check and the _data.wait? return _data.Result; } How would i do the pattern correctly? (Solution) private static object _servertime_lock = new object(); private static Task<string> _servertime; private static async Task<string> servertime() { try { var thetvdb = new HttpClient(); thetvdb.Timeout = TimeSpan.FromSeconds(5); // var st = await thetvdb.GetStreamAsync("http://www.thetvdb.com/api/Updates.php?type=none"); var response = await thetvdb.GetAsync("http://www.thetvdb.com/api/Updates.php?type=none"); response.EnsureSuccessStatusCode(); Stream stream = await response.Content.ReadAsStreamAsync(); XDocument xdoc = XDocument.Load(stream); return xdoc.Descendants("Time").First().Value; } catch { return null; } } public static async Task<string> GetServerTime() { lock (_servertime_lock) { if (_servertime == null) _servertime = servertime(); } var time = await _servertime; if (time == null) _servertime = null; return time; }

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  • Problem importing Oracle .dmp file

    - by BitFiddler
    So I have looked at all the suggested ways of importing .dmp files and non of them seem to answer this question: where does the data go once you import it? Context: I created a user like so: SQL> create user IMPORTER identified by "12345"; SQL> grant connect, unlimited tablespace, resource to IMPORTER; I then ran the 'imp' command as follows: C:\>imp system/password FROMUSER=OVIEDOE TOUSER=IMPORTER file=c:\database1.dmp Now there were 9 .dmp files, after each one it asked me for the next one and then I received the message "Import terminated successfully with warnings." The warning was: Warning: the objects were exported by OVIEDOE, not by you import done in WE8MSWIN1252 character set and AL16UTF16 NCHAR character set export client uses WE8ISO8859P1 character set (possible charset conversion) IMP-00046: using FILESIZE value from export file of 2147483648 Now it says it was terminated successfully so my assumption (I am new to oracle so this may be wrong) is that the data was loaded. However, when I use SQL developer to connect to the database and look under the 'tables' node under the IMPORTER user, there is nothing there. What is going on? Did the data load? If so, where can I find it?

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  • memcache is not storing data accross requests

    - by morpheous
    I am new to using memcache, so I may be doing something wrong. I have written a wrapper class around memcache. The wrapper class has only static methods, so is a quasi singleton. The class looks something like this: class myCache { private static $memcache = null; private static $initialized = false; public static function init() { if (self::$initialized) return; self::$memcache = new Memcache(); if (self::configure()) //connects to daemon { self::store('foo', 'bar'); } else throw ConnectionError('I barfed'); } public static function store($key, $data, $flag=MEMCACHE_COMPRESSED, $timeout=86400) { if (self::$memcache->get($key)!== false) return self::$memcache->replace($key, $data, $flag, $timeout); return self::$memcache->set($key, $data, $flag, $timeout); } public static function fetch($key) { return self::$memcache->get($key); } } //in my index.php file, I use the class like this require_once('myCache.php'); myCache::init(); echo 'Stored value is: '. myCache::fetch('foo'); The problem is that the myCache::init() method is being executed in full everytime a page is requested. I then remembered that static variables do not maintain state accross page requests. So I decided instead, to store the flag that indicates whether the server contains the start up data (for our purposes, the variable 'foo', with value 'bar') in memcache itself. Once the status flag is stored in memcache itself, It solves the problem of the initialisation data being loaded for every page request (which quite frankly, defeats the purpose of memcache). However, having solved that problem, when I come to fetch the data in memcache, it is empty. I dont understand whats going on. Can anyone clarify how I can store my data once and retrieve it accross page requests? BTW, (just to clarify), the get/set is working correctly, and if I allow memcache to load the initialisation data for each page request, (which is silly), then the data is available in memcache.

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  • java GC periodically enters into several full GC cycles

    - by Peter
    Environment: sun JDK 1.6.0_16 vm settings: -XX:+DisableExplicitGC -XX:+UseConcMarkSweepGC -Xms1024 -Xmx1024M -XX:MaxNewSize=448m -XX:NewSize=448m -XX:SurvivorRatio=4(6 also checked) -XX:MaxPermSize=128M OS: windows server 2003 processor: 4 cores of INTEL XEON 5130, 2000 Hz my application description: high intensity of concurrent(java 5 concurrency used) operations completed each time by commit to oracle. it's about 20-30 threads run non stop, doing tasks. application runs in JBOSS web container. My GC starts work normally, I see a lot of small GCs and all that time CPU shows good load, like all 4 cores loaded to 40-50%, CPU graph is stable. Then , after 1 min of good work, CPU starts drop to 0% on 2 cores from 4, it's graph becomes unstable, goes up and down("teeth"). I see, that my threads work slower(I have monitoring), I see that GC starts produce a lot of FULL GC during that time and next 4-5 minutes this situation remains as is, then for short period of time, like 1 minute, it gets back to normal situation, but shortly after that all bad thing repeats. Question: Why I have so frequent full GC??? How to prevent that? I played with SurvivorRatio - does not help. I noticed, that application behaves normally until first FULL GC occurs, while I have enough memory. Then it runs badly. my GC LOG: starts good then long period of FULL GCs(many of them) 1027.861: [GC 942200K-623526K(991232K), 0.0887588 secs] 1029.333: [GC 803279K(991232K), 0.0927470 secs] 1030.551: [GC 967485K-625549K(991232K), 0.0823024 secs] 1030.634: [GC 625957K(991232K), 0.0763656 secs] 1033.126: [GC 969613K-632963K(991232K), 0.0850611 secs] 1033.281: [GC 649899K(991232K), 0.0378358 secs] 1035.910: [GC 813948K(991232K), 0.3540375 secs] 1037.994: [GC 967729K-637198K(991232K), 0.0826042 secs] 1038.435: [GC 710309K(991232K), 0.1370703 secs] 1039.665: [GC 980494K-972462K(991232K), 0.6398589 secs] 1040.306: [Full GC 972462K-619643K(991232K), 3.7780597 secs] 1044.093: [GC 620103K(991232K), 0.0695221 secs] 1047.870: [Full GC 991231K-626514K(991232K), 3.8732457 secs] 1053.739: [GC 942140K(991232K), 0.5410483 secs] 1056.343: [Full GC 991232K-634157K(991232K), 3.9071443 secs] 1061.257: [GC 786274K(991232K), 0.3106603 secs] 1065.229: [Full GC 991232K-641617K(991232K), 3.9565638 secs] 1071.192: [GC 945999K(991232K), 0.5401515 secs] 1073.793: [Full GC 991231K-648045K(991232K), 3.9627814 secs] 1079.754: [GC 936641K(991232K), 0.5321197 secs]

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  • Ninject: Shared DI/IoC container

    - by joblot
    Hi I want to share the container across various layers in my application. I started creating a static class which initialises the container and register types in the container. public class GeneralDIModule : NinjectModule { public override void Load() { Bind().To().InSingletonScope(); } } public abstract class IoC { private static IKernel _container; public static void Initialize() { _container = new StandardKernel(new GeneralDIModule(), new ViewModelDIModule()); } public static T Get<T>() { return _container.Get<T>(); } } I noticed there is a Resolve method as well. What is the difference between Resolve and Get? In my unit tests I don’t always want every registered type in my container. Is there a way of initializing an empty container and then register types I need. I’ll be mocking types as well in unit test so I’ll have to register them as well. There is an Inject method, but it says lifecycle of instance is not managed? Could someone please set me in right way? How can I register, unregister objects and reset the container. Thanks

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  • Unit Testing a rails 2.3.5 plugin

    - by brad
    I'm writing a new plugin for a rails 2.3.5 app. I've included an app directory (which makes it an engine) so i can easily load some extra routes. Not sure if that affects anything. Anyway, in the test directory i have two files: test_helper.rb and my_plugin_test.rb These files were generated automatically using script/generate plugin my_plugin When I go to vendor/plugins/my_plugin directory and run rake test they don't seem to run. I get the following console output: (in /Users/me/Repos/my_app/source/trunk/vendor/plugins/my_plugin) /Users/me/.rvm/rubies/jruby-1.4.0/bin/jruby -I"lib:lib:test" "/Users/me/.rvm/gems/jruby-1.4.0/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake/rake_test_loader.rb" "test/my_plugin_test.rb" So it obviously sees my test file, but none of the tests inside get run, I just get back to my console prompt. What am I missing here? I figured the generated code would work out of the box Here are the two files test_helper.rb require 'rubygems' require 'active_support' require 'active_support/test_case' my_plugin_test.rb require 'test_helper' class MyPluginTest < ActiveSupport::TestCase # Replace this with your real tests. test "the truth" do assert true end test "Factories are supported" do assert_not_nil Factory end end File structure vendor - plugins - my_plugin - app - config - routes.rb - generators - my_plugin - some generator files.rb - lib - my_plugin.rb - my_plugin - my_plugin_lib_file.rb - rails - init.rb - Rakefile - tasks - my_plugin_tasks.rake - test - test_helper.rb - my_plugin_test.rb

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  • Put together tiles in android sdk and use as background

    - by Jon
    In a feeble attempt to learn some Android development am I stuck at graphics. My aim here is pretty simple: Take n small images and build a random image, larger than the screen with possibility to scroll around. Have an animated object move around on it I have looked at the SDK examples, Lunar Lander especially but there are a few things I utterly fail to wrap my head around. I've got a birds view plan (which in my head seems reasonably sane): How do I merge the tiles into one large image? The background is static so I figure I should do like this: Make a 2d array with refs to the tiles Make a large Drawable and draw the tiles on it At init draw this big image as the background At each onDraw redraw the background of the previous spot of the moving object, and the moving object at its new location The problem is the hands on things. I load the small images with "Bitmap img1 = BitmapFactory.decodeResource (res, R.drawable.img1)", but then what? Should I make a canvas and draw the images on it with "canvas.drawBitmap (img1, x, y, null);"? If so how to get a Drawable/Bitmap from that? I'm totally lost here, and would really appreciate some hands on help (I would of course be grateful for general hints as well, but I'm primarily trying to understand the Graphics objects). To make you, dear reader, see my level of confusion will I add my last desperate try: Drawable drawable; Canvas canvas = new Canvas (); Bitmap img1 = BitmapFactory.decodeResource (res, R.drawable.img1); // 50 x 100 px image Bitmap img2 = BitmapFactory.decodeResource (res, R.drawable.img2); // 50 x 100 px image canvas.drawBitmap (img1, 0, 0, null); canvas.drawBitmap (img2, 50, 0, null); drawable.draw (canvas); // obviously wrong as draw == null this.setBackground (drawable); Thanks in advance

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