Search Results

Search found 19966 results on 799 pages for 'wild thing'.

Page 604/799 | < Previous Page | 600 601 602 603 604 605 606 607 608 609 610 611  | Next Page >

  • Best way to close nested streams in Java?

    - by dirtyvagabond
    What is considered the best, most comprehensive way to close nested streams in Java? For example, consider the setup: FileOutputStream fos = new FileOutputStream(...) BufferedOS bos = new BufferedOS(fos); ObjectOutputStream oos = new ObjectOutputStream(bos); I understand the close operation needs to be insured (probably by using a finally clause). What I wonder about is, is it necessary to explicitly make sure the nested streams are closed, or is it enough to just make sure to close the outer stream (oos)? One thing I notice, at least dealing with this specific example, is that the inner streams only seem to throw FileNotFoundExceptions. Which would seem to imply that there's not technically a need to worry about closing them if they fail. Here's what a colleague wrote: Technically, if it were implemented right, closing the outermost stream (oos) should be enough. But the implementation seems flawed. Example: BufferedOutputStream inherits close() from FilterOutputStream, which defines it as: 155 public void close() throws IOException { 156 try { 157 flush(); 158 } catch (IOException ignored) { 159 } 160 out.close(); 161 } However, if flush() throws a runtime exception for some reason, then out.close() will never be called. So it seems "safest" (but ugly) to mostly worry about closing FOS, which is keeping the file open. What is considered to be the hands-down best, when-you-absolutely-need-to-be-sure, approach to closing nested streams? And are there any official Java/Sun docs that deal with this in fine detail?

    Read the article

  • Starting CLI application programmatically does not work depending on arguments

    - by Daniel Beck
    I try to start plink.exe (PuTTY Link, the command line utility/version of PuTTY) from a C# application to establish an SSH reverse tunnel, but it does no longer work as soon as I pass the correct parameters. What does that mean? The following works as expected: it opens a command line window, displays that I forgot to pass the password for the -pw argument quits, and shows the prompt. I know it got the arguments, since it specifically requests the one thing I did not provide. Uri uri = omitted; ProcessStartInfo info = new ProcessStartInfo(); info.FileName = "cmd"; info.Arguments = "/k \"C:\\Program Files (x86)\\PuTTY\\plink.exe\" -R 3389:" + uri.Host + ":" + uri.Port + " -N -l username -pw"; // TODO pwd Process p = Process.Start(info); I tried the same think with calling plink.exe directly instead of cmd.exe /k, but the window closes immediately, which is unfortunate for bug-hunting. BUT when I pass a password in the arguments, plink.exe displays the program help (showing available parameters) and quits: Uri uri = omitted; ProcessStartInfo info = new ProcessStartInfo(); info.FileName = "cmd"; info.Arguments = "/k \"C:\\Program Files (x86)\\PuTTY\\plink.exe\" -R 3389:" + uri.Host + ":" + uri.Port + " -N -l username -pw secretpassword"; Process p = Process.Start(info); No indication of missing parameters. Both the cmd /k and plink.exe variants do not work (the latter closes immediately, so no information regarding different behaviour). When I launch the application from the Windows 7 Start Menu launcher with the identical parameters, it opens a cmd.exe window and establishes the connection as requested. What's wrong? Is there a way plink.exe notices it's not running in a real shell? If yes, how can I circumvent it, like the Start Menu "prompt" does? I hope this question is right on SO, since it, though specifically for a single application, revolves around launching it successfully programmatically.

    Read the article

  • Post a form from asp to asp.Net

    - by Atomiton
    I have a classic asp application. I want to post a contest form from that page to an Asp.Net form. The reason is that I want to use a lot of logic i have built into an Asp.Net page for validation before entering into the database and I don't know asp very well. Not to mention asp.Net being more secure. What's the best way to accomplish this goal? My thoughts are as follows: My asp Page: <html> <body> <form action="/Contests/entry.aspx" method="post"> Name: <input type="text" name="fname" size="20" /> Last Name: <input type="text" name="lname" size="20" /> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> </form> </body> </html> aspx page is running in a Virtual Directory and would handle anything posted to it. Is this possible, or does aspx prevent this kind of thing? I ( preferably ) don't want to create the form in aspx as my colleague wants to have control of the page and build the html himself and I don't want the hassle of constantly changing it. Are there caveats I need to consider? What roadblocks will I run into? How do I access the Posted Form Values? Request.Form?

    Read the article

  • Async trigger for an update panel refreshes entire page when triggering too much in too short of tim

    - by Matt
    I have a search button tied to an update panel as a trigger like so: <asp:Panel ID="CRM_Search" runat="server"> <p>Search:&nbsp;<asp:TextBox ID="CRM_Search_Box" CssClass="CRM_Search_Box" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:Button ID="CRM_Search_Button" CssClass="CRM_Search_Button" runat="server" Text="Search" OnClick="SearchLeads" /></p> </asp:Panel> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="CRM_Search_Button" /> </Triggers> <ContentTemplate> /* Content Here */ </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> In my javascript I use jQuery to grab the search box and tie it's keyup to make the search button click: $($(".CRM_Search_Box")[0]).keyup( function () { $($(".CRM_Search_Button")[0]).click(); } ); This works perfectly, except when I start typing too fast. As soon as I type too fast (my guess is if it's any faster than the data actually returns) the entire page refreshes (doing a postback?) instead of just the update panel. I've also found that instead of typing, if I just click the button really fast it starts doing the same thing. Is there any way to prevent it from doing this? Possibly prevent 2nd requests until the first has been completed? If I'm not on the right track then anyone have any other ideas? Thanks, Matt

    Read the article

  • Custom model validation of dependent properties using Data Annotations

    - by Darin Dimitrov
    Since now I've used the excellent FluentValidation library to validate my model classes. In web applications I use it in conjunction with the jquery.validate plugin to perform client side validation as well. One drawback is that much of the validation logic is repeated on the client side and is no longer centralized at a single place. For this reason I'm looking for an alternative. There are many examples out there showing the usage of data annotations to perform model validation. It looks very promising. One thing I couldn't find out is how to validate a property that depends on another property value. Let's take for example the following model: public class Event { [Required] public DateTime? StartDate { get; set; } [Required] public DateTime? EndDate { get; set; } } I would like to ensure that EndDate is greater than StartDate. I could write a custom validation attribute extending ValidationAttribute in order to perform custom validation logic. Unfortunately I couldn't find a way to obtain the model instance: public class CustomValidationAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { // value represents the property value on which this attribute is applied // but how to obtain the object instance to which this property belongs? return true; } } I found that the CustomValidationAttribute seems to do the job because it has this ValidationContext property that contains the object instance being validated. Unfortunately this attribute has been added only in .NET 4.0. So my question is: can I achieve the same functionality in .NET 3.5 SP1? UPDATE: It seems that FluentValidation already supports clientside validation and metadata in ASP.NET MVC 2. Still it would be good to know though if data annotations could be used to validate dependent properties.

    Read the article

  • uninstall string

    - by Sakhawat Ali
    Hi experts, I am developing an desktop based application using VB.NET, similar to add/remove program. everything was working fine until i start working on uninstall feature. Now what am i doing is that i get the uninstall string of the specific application from the registry and use System.Diagnostics.Process to run UninstallString. Dim proc As New Process() proc.StartInfo.FileName =UninstallString proc.Start() proc.WaitForExit() proc.Close() latter i found that it only work for straight file paths only, i mean with no command line argument like: C:\program files\someApp\uninstall.exe I make a list of list of all UninstallStrings of all application installed on my machine. i found few things like application installed using MSI, some were with rundll32 and few were with straight file path with some command argument like: My Silverlight SDK UninstallString, MSI Example MsiExec.exe /X{2012098D-EEE9-4769-8DD3-B038050854D4} My JetAudio UninstallString, RunDll32 Example RunDll32 C:\PROGRA~1\COMMON~1\INSTAL~1\engine\6\INTEL3~1\Ctor.dll,LaunchSetup "C:\Program Files\InstallShield Installation Information{91F34319-08DE-457A-99C0-0BCDFAC145B9}\Setup.exe" -l0x9 My Google Chrome UninstallString, straight file path with command argument example "C:\Program Files\Google\Chrome\Application\5.0.375.55\Installer\setup.exe" -uninstall The code i mentioned above does not work for these. i did some string parsing, separate two thing from UninstallString one is Filename and other is Arguments. like for MSI, filename is MSIEXEC.EXE and argument will be rest of the string, same for RunDLL32, same for straight file path with command argument. Now what am i facing is that, after every 2 or 3 days i come to know that this type of unistallstring is also not working. and why is that not working because it is a new type maybe abc C:\program files\someapp.exe -ddd so parse it too. is there any better way of doing that rather then parsing the string.

    Read the article

  • iPhone UI addSubview causing concurrency exception

    - by Eli
    This is really odd... I run my app, and while it is opening and the views are constructing I get: Collection <CALayerArray: 0x124650> was mutated while being enumerated. The code trace goes through the following: main UIApplicationMain -[UIApplication _run] CFRunLoopRunInMode CFRunLoopRunSpecific _UIApplicationHandleEvent -[UIApplication sendEvent:] -[UIApplication handleEvent:withNewEvent:] -[UIApplication _runWithURL:sourceBundleID:] -[UIApplication _performInitilizationWithURL:sourceBundleID:] -[AppDelegate applicationDidFinishLaunching:] +[Controller initializeController] //This is my own function [window addSubview: pauseMenuController.view] //This is the last point of my code it goes through -[UIView(Hierarchy) addSubview:] -[UIView(Internal) _addSubview:positioned:relativeTo:] -[UIView(Hierarchy) _makeSubtreePerformSelector:withObject:] -[UIView(Hierarchy) _makeSubtreePerformSelector:withObject:withObject:copySublayers:] -[UIView(Hierarchy) _makeSubtreePerformSelector:withObject:withObject:copySublayers:] _NSFastEnumerationMutationHandler objc_exception_throw I've run the game lots and lots and lots of times and I've never seen this, then suddenly it popped up. The weird thing is that I'm not creating any other threads (that I know of) until after this code all gets called. It'll be easier for me to debug this if someone can give me some explanation of what might be getting modified while it's being accessed in a UIView. Does it have something to do with adding something to the view while it's already adding something, maybe? Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Suggestions for GUI of a multiledia messaging application in J2ME

    - by awaghad-ashish
    Hello everyone, We have developed a messaging application in j2me which adds text message, gets pictures from gallery and attaches them to the message etc and sends it over to a server after encryption, i.e. the client wants the messages to be encrypted. The app is ready but the only problem is that the GUI of the app looks miserable compared to the GUI of native messaging application on Nokia phones. Our GUI consists of a texfield for adding recipients i.e. the user clicks "options" to "add recipients" and is taken to a new form where contacts are shown. but the textfield is not in one line (like in case of native app). Also, we need the user to input the text message in a textField since we cannot have textbox inside a form (but the native app has a textbox as well as a textField ). Are there any ways to achieve such GUIs (one-line textfields, textbox like thing inside a form)? I hope you all understand what I mean, any kind of help will be appreciated. Thanks and regards, Ashish.

    Read the article

  • Windows Azure WebRole stuck in a deployment loop

    - by Rob G
    I've been struggling with this one for a couple of days now. My current Windows Azure WebRole is stuck in a loop where the status keeps changing between Initializing, Busy, Stopping and Stopped. It never goes live, and I can can never see the website as a result. The WebRole is an "out of the box" MVC 2 application with Copy Local set to true on the Mvc dll and I haven't even tried hooking up a storage or WorkerRole yet, and there is nothing really happening inside the Start method that I can see would crash. I've really tried going back to basics to ensure nothing can complicate the process and the website launches without a problem on the Dev Fabric and yes it looks just like the standard "Home", "About" MVC app - just can't get it running in the cloud! Funny thing is, a few days ago, this exact package worked on the staging area in the cloud, and I could even see it in the browser - but could never get it swapped over to production, so I deleted everything and started from scratch, and now I can't even get it running on staging... Does anyone have any ideas on what I could do to diagnose this problem myself because since logging this problem on the forums 2 days ago, there has been no improvement or feedback. Any help appreciated, Regards, Rob G

    Read the article

  • iPhone app: How to implement in-app purchased game levels

    - by Wonderflonium
    So, I understand that it's possible to set up in-app purchases for iPhone apps to purchase non-consumables like game levels. I understand the logic behind the purchase part, but what I don't understand is, how can I deliver the new game level. For example: I build an app that contains the first level and they purchase additional levels. Is it better to build all the other levels into the app and whenever they purchase the app, it unlocks it with a plist entry or something? That doesn't seem very update-able to me. Every time I come up with a new level, I'd have to update the app. So, what I don't understand then, is what is how do I package up a level and download it as a separate entity that can accessed by the game? Would the level just be some XML with images in a ZIP folder or something? How does the level get added to the game? What are best practices for this type of thing? I Googled and have found NOTHING about this. I'm a little bit confused by the concept and any help would be appreciated. I'm not looking for someone to write the game for me, I just need pointed in the right direction so I can develop it on my own.

    Read the article

  • Make an image transparent in IE to show non-transparent background

    - by Select0r
    Hi, I'm trying to get this thing to work in IE (any version - works in FF, Opera, Safari, Chrome ...): I have a DIV with a background-image. The DIV also contains an image that should be transparent onMouseOver. The expected behaviour now is that the DIV-background would shine through the transparent image (which it does in all browsers but IE). Instead it looks like the image is getting transparent but on a white background, I can't see the DIV's background through the image. Here's some code: <div><a href="#" class"dragItem"><img /></a></div> And some CSS: .dojoDndItemOver { cursor : pointer; filter : alpha(opacity = 50); opacity : 0.5; -moz-opacity : 0.5; -khtml-opacity : 0.5; } .dragItem:hover { filter : alpha(opacity = 30); opacity : 0.3; -moz-opacity : 0.3; -khtml-opacity : 0.3; background : none; } All of this is embedded in a Dojo Drag-n-Drop-system, so dojoDndItemOver will automatically be set to the DIV on MouseOver, dragItem is set to the href around the image (using the same class on the image directly doesn't work at all as IE doesn't support "hover" on other items that href). Any ideas? Or is it an IE-speciality to just "simulate" transparency on images by somehow just greying them out instead of providing real transparency and showing whatever is beneath?

    Read the article

  • ruby nl2br outside <code> ... </code>

    - by Julien P.
    Hi everyone, I've been struggling on this thing for a week without being able to find what I'm looking for. Here is what I'd like to do: I'm setting up a wiki where I can post all my knowledge to (yes, I know a couple things :p) but I can't render it the way I'd like to. The bodies of my posts are text fields. In order to render them the right way I run the following command: @post.body.gsub("\n", "<br />") I also have some tags with some code inside that looks like this < code my code < /code. Here come's the issue. Every line between the < code and < /code tags are changed to but it doesn'r render properly since I'm using a code render template. Therefore, I'd like to know if there is a way to change all \n to < br / except for those between < code and < /code Thank you everyone for reading this and helping me out. PS: Please do not consider the spaces after the < in each tag. I had to do this to "espace" them. Julien

    Read the article

  • C++: Check istream has non-space, non-tab, non-newline characters left without extracting chars

    - by KRao
    I am reading a std::istream and I need to verify without extracting characters that: 1) The stream is not "empty", i.e. that trying to read a char will not result in an fail state (solved by using peek() member function and checking fail state, then setting back to original state) 2) That among the characters left there is at least one which is not a space, a tab or a newline char. The reason for this is, is that I am reading text files containing say one int per line, and sometimes there may be extra spaces / new-lines at the end of the file and this causes issues when I try get back the data from the file to a vector of int. A peek(int n) would probably do what I need but I am stuck with its implementation. I know I could just read istream like: while (myInt << myIstream) {...} //Will fail when I am at the end but the same check would fail for a number of different conditions (say I have something which is not an int on some line) and being able to differentiate between the two reading errors (unexpected thing, nothing left) would help me to write more robust code, as I could write: while (something_left(myIstream)) { myInt << myIstream; if (myStream.fail()) {...} //Horrible things happened } Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Help with dynamic-wind and call/cc

    - by josh
    I am having some trouble understanding the behavior of the following Scheme program: (define c (dynamic-wind (lambda () (display 'IN)(newline)) (lambda () (call/cc (lambda (k) (display 'X)(newline) k))) (lambda () (display 'OUT)(newline)))) As I understand, c will be bound to the continution created right before "(display 'X)". But using c seems to modify itself! The define above prints (as I expected) IN, X and OUT: IN X OUT And it is a procedure: #;2> c #<procedure (a9869 . results1678)> Now, I would expect that when it is called again, X would be printed, and it is not! #;3> (c) IN OUT And now c is not a procedure anymore, and a second invokation of c won't work! #;4> c ;; the REPL doesn't answer this, so there are no values returned #;5> (c) Error: call of non-procedure: #<unspecified> Call history: <syntax> (c) <eval> (c) <-- I was expecting that each invokation to (c) would do the same thing -- print IN, X, and OUT. What am I missing?

    Read the article

  • Perl OO frameworks and program design - Moose and Conway's inside-out objects (Class::Std)

    - by Emmel
    This is more of a use-case type of question... but also generic enough to be more broadly applicable: In short, I'm working on a module that's more or less a command-line wrapper; OO naturally. Without going into too many details (unless someone wants them), there isn't a crazy amount of complexity to the system, but it did feel natural to have three or four objects in this framework. Finally, it's an open source thing I'll put out there, rather than a module with a few developers in the same firm working on it. First I implemented the OO using Class::Std, because Perl Best Practices (Conway, 2005) made a good argument for why to use inside-out objects. Full control over what attributes get accessed and so on, proper encapsulation, etc. Also his design is surprisingly simple and clever. I liked it, but then noticed that no one really uses this; in fact it seems Conway himself doesn't really recommend this anymore? So I moved to everyone's favorite, Moose. It's easy to use, although way way overkill feature-wise for what I want to do. The big, major downside is: it's got a slew of module dependencies that force users of my module to download them all. A minor downside is it's got way more functionality than I really need. What are recommendations? Inconvenience fellow developers by forcing them to use a possibly-obsolete module, or force every user of the module to download Moose and all its dependencies? Is there a third option for a proper Perl OO framework that's popular but neither of these two?

    Read the article

  • Shell script to emulate warnings-as-errors?

    - by talkaboutquality
    Some compilers let you set warnings as errors, so that you'll never leave any compiler warnings behind, because if you do, the code won't build. This is a Good Thing. Unfortunately, some compilers don't have a flag for warnings-as-errors. I need to write a shell script or wrapper that provides the feature. Presumably it parses the compilation console output and returns failure if there were any compiler warnings (or errors), and success otherwise. "Failure" also means (I think) that object code should not be produced. What's the shortest, simplest UNIX/Linux shell script you can write that meets the explicit requirements above, as well as the following implicit requirements of otherwise behaving just like the compiler: - accepts all flags, options, arguments - supports redirection of stdout and stderr - produces object code and links as directed Key words: elegant, meets all requirements. Extra credit: easy to incorporate into a GNU make file. Thanks for your help. === Clues === This solution to a different problem, using shell functions (?), Append text to stderr redirects in bash, might figure in. Wonder how to invite litb's friend "who knows bash quite well" to address my question? === Answer status === Thanks to Charlie Martin for the short answer, but that, unfortunately, is what I started out with. A while back I used that, released it for office use, and, within a few hours, had its most severe drawback pointed out to me: it will PASS a compilation with no warnings, but only errors. That's really bad because then we're delivering object code that the compiler is sure won't work. The simple solution also doesn't meet the other requirements listed. Thanks to Adam Rosenfield for the shorthand, and Chris Dodd for introducing pipefail to the solution. Chris' answer looks closest, because I think the pipefail should ensure that if compilation actually fails on error, that we'll get failure as we should. Chris, does pipefail work in all shells? And have any ideas on the rest of the implicit requirements listed above?

    Read the article

  • Multiple model forms with some pre-populated fields

    - by jimbocooper
    Hi! Hope somebody can help me, since I've been stuck for a while with this... I switched to another task, but now back to the fight I still can't figure out how to come out from the black hole xD The thing is as follows: Let's say I've got a product model, and then a set of Clients which have rights to submit data for the products they've been subscribed (Many to Many from Client to Product). Whenever my client is going to submit data, I need to create as many forms as products he's subscribed, and pre-populate each one of them with the "product" field as long as perform a quite simple validation (some optional fields have to be completed if it's client's first submission). I would like one form "step" for each product submission, so I've tried formWizards... but the problem is you can't pre-assign values to the forms... this can be solved afterwards when submitting, though... but not the problem that it doesn't allow validation either, so at the end of each step I can check some data before rendering next step. Then I've tried model formsets, but then there's no way to pre-populate the needed fields. I came across some django plugins, but I'm not confident yet if any of them will make it.... Did anybody has a similar problem so he can give me a ray of light? Thanks a lot in advance!! :) edit: The code I used in the formsets way is as follows: prods = Products.objects.filter(Q(start_date__lte=today) & Q(end_date__gte=today), requester=client) num = len(prods) PriceSubmissionFormSet = modelformset_factory(PriceSubmission, extra=num) formset = PriceSubmissionFormSet(queryset=PriceSubmission.objects.none())

    Read the article

  • How does 'lazy' work?

    - by Matt Fenwick
    What is the difference between these two functions? I see that lazy is intended to be lazy, but I don't understand how that is accomplished. -- | Identity function. id :: a -> a id x = x -- | The call '(lazy e)' means the same as 'e', but 'lazy' has a -- magical strictness property: it is lazy in its first argument, -- even though its semantics is strict. lazy :: a -> a lazy x = x -- Implementation note: its strictness and unfolding are over-ridden -- by the definition in MkId.lhs; in both cases to nothing at all. -- That way, 'lazy' does not get inlined, and the strictness analyser -- sees it as lazy. Then the worker/wrapper phase inlines it. -- Result: happiness Tracking down the note in MkId.lhs (hopefully this is the right note and version, sorry if it's not): Note [lazyId magic] ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ lazy :: forall a?. a? -> a? (i.e. works for unboxed types too) Used to lazify pseq: pseq a b = a `seq` lazy b Also, no strictness: by being a built-in Id, all the info about lazyId comes from here, not from GHC.Base.hi. This is important, because the strictness analyser will spot it as strict! Also no unfolding in lazyId: it gets "inlined" by a HACK in CorePrep. It's very important to do this inlining after unfoldings are exposed in the interface file. Otherwise, the unfolding for (say) pseq in the interface file will not mention 'lazy', so if we inline 'pseq' we'll totally miss the very thing that 'lazy' was there for in the first place. See Trac #3259 for a real world example. lazyId is defined in GHC.Base, so we don't have to inline it. If it appears un-applied, we'll end up just calling it. I don't understand that because it refers to lazyId instead of lazy. How does lazy work?

    Read the article

  • When using Data Annotations with MVC, Pro and Cons of using an interface vs. a MetadataType

    - by SkippyFire
    If you read this article on Validation with the Data Annotation Validators, it shows that you can use the MetadataType attribute to add validation attributes to properties on partial classes. You use this when working with ORMs like LINQ to SQL, Entity Framework, or Subsonic. Then you can use the "automagic" client and server side validation. It plays very nicely with MVC. However, a colleague of mine used an interface to accomplish exactly the same result. it looks almost exactly the same, and functionally accomplishes the same thing. So instead of doing this: [MetadataType(typeof(MovieMetaData))] public partial class Movie { } public class MovieMetaData { [Required] public object Title { get; set; } [Required] [StringLength(5)] public object Director { get; set; } [DisplayName("Date Released")] [Required] public object DateReleased { get; set; } } He did this: public partial class Movie :IMovie { } public interface IMovie { [Required] object Title { get; set; } [Required] [StringLength(5)] object Director { get; set; } [DisplayName("Date Released")] [Required] object DateReleased { get; set; } } So my question is, when does this difference actually matter? My thoughts are that interfaces tend to be more "reusable", and that making one for just a single class doesn't make that much sense. You could also argue that you could design your classes and interfaces in a way that allows you to use interfaces on multiple objects, but I feel like that is trying to fit your models into something else, when they should really stand on their own. What do you think?

    Read the article

  • Problem with oracle stored procedure - parameters

    - by Nicole
    I have this stored procedure: CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE "LIQUIDACION_OBTENER" ( p_Cuenta IN NUMBER, p_Fecha IN DATE, p_Detalle OUT LIQUIDACION.FILADETALLE%TYPE ) IS BEGIN SELECT FILADETALLE INTO p_Detalle FROM Liquidacion WHERE (FILACUENTA = p_Cuenta) AND (FILAFECHA = p_Fecha); END; / ...and my c# code: string liquidacion = string.Empty; OracleCommand command = new OracleCommand("Liquidacion_Obtener"); command.BindByName = true; command.Parameters.Add(new OracleParameter("p_Cuenta", OracleDbType.Int64)); command.Parameters["p_Cuenta"].Value = cuenta; command.Parameters.Add(new OracleParameter("p_Fecha", OracleDbType.Date)); command.Parameters["p_Fecha"].Value = fecha; command.Parameters.Add("p_Detalle", OracleDbType.Varchar2, ParameterDirection.Output); OracleConnectionHolder connection = null; connection = this.GetConnection(); command.Connection = connection.Connection; command.CommandTimeout = 30; command.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; OracleDataReader lector = command.ExecuteReader(); while (lector.Read()) { liquidacion += ((OracleString)command.Parameters["p_Detalle"].Value).Value; } the thing is that when I try to put a value into the parameter "Fecha" (that is a date) the code gives me this error (when the line command.ExecuteReader(); is executed) Oracle.DataAccess.Client.OracleException : ORA-06502: PL/SQL: numeric or value error ORA-06512: at "SYSTEM.LIQUIDACION_OBTENER", line 9 ORA-06512: at line 1 I tried with the datetime and was not the problem, I eve tried with no input parameters and just the output and still got the same error. Aparently the problem is with the output parameter. I already tried putting p_Detalle OUT VARCHAR2 instead of p_Detalle OUT LIQUIDACION.FILADETALLE%TYPE but it didn't work either I hope my post is understandable.. thanks!!!!!!!!!!

    Read the article

  • English Error Messages in German Visual Studio 2008 / ASP.NET

    - by BlaM
    This might be a bit weird question, but I'll give it a shot: HELP, my Visual Studio 2008 / ASP.NET is giving me GERMAN error messages. Besides the fact that translations tend to be not as good as the original text, I can't search for those and find relevant answers to my problems on the internet. So: How do I switch my German Visual Studio 2008 Standard Edition to English locals? Update - Just to make it clear: I am a German developer, working with a German Windows Vista... I also have a German version of Visual Studio, so it is not surprising, that everything is German. Is just don't want it that way... There must be a way to install english locals into my Visual Studio, though? Or uninstall german ones, so that default english is used?!? (BTW: Same thing for SQL Server Management Studio, too. F**k "Sichten". I want "Views". That's how you really call them. No one says "Sichten", not even here in Germany, and not even though it is translated correctly).

    Read the article

  • Developing a rich internet application

    - by Serge
    Hello, I have been a desktop developer for a few years mostly doing object oriented stuff. I am trying to branch out into web development, and as a hobby project trying to put a web application together. I have been reading quite alot of information, but I still can't seem to decide on the path to take and would really like some advice. Basically, I want to build something like this: http://mon.itor.us/ I have found this as well: http://www.trilancer.com/jpolite/#t1 But so far it is of little use as I am trying to grasp Javascript. I have been using visual studio for that, is that a good IDE for this tye of thing or should I try expression blend? Jpolite seems to do everything with javascript, which seems kind of cool, but I if I want to make a chart inside a widget that connects to a database, do I need something more? Is this where ASP.NET comes in? I am familiar with .NET, but if I use ASP.NET for my website, do I have to host it on IIS and windows server as opposed to Apache since mono is still being ironed out? Because that would cost more, so would PHP be a better choice? Also, for charting these guys as well as google seem to use flex: http://www.google.com/finance I have found this: http://www.reynoldsftw.com/2009/03/javascript-chart-alternatives/ Would that be sufficient to implement something like google fiance purely in javascript or is there a good reason they use flex? SOrry for the long post but I was trying to be as detailed as possible. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Implementing Struts 2 Interceptors using Struts 1

    - by Andriy Zakharchuk
    Hello all, I have a legacy application written with Struts 1. The only feature I was asked to add is to protect some actions. Currently any user can do whatever he/she wants. The idea is to allows all user see the data, but block modification operation, i.e. to modify data a user should log in. I know Struts2 has interceptors, so I could attach them to required actions and forward users to log in page when needed. But how can I do similar thing in Struts 1 application? My first idea was to create my own abstract Action class: public class AuthenticatedAction { public ActionForward execute( ActionMapping mapping, ActionForm form, HttpServletRequest theRequest, HttpServletResponse theResponse) { if (!logged) { // forward to log in form } else { doExecute(mapping, form, request, response); } } public abstract ActionForward doExecute( ActionMapping mapping, ActionForm form, HttpServletRequest theRequest, HttpServletResponse theResponse); } Then change all actions that require authentication from extends Action to extends AuthenticatedAction then add login form, login action (which performs authentications and puts this status into the session) and change JSP header tile to display authentication block, e.g., "You are (not logged in)/", Login/Logout. As I guess this should solve the problem. If this doesn't solve the problem, please explain me why. Is there any better (more elegant like interceptors are) way to do this? Thank you in advance.

    Read the article

  • Doctrine unsigned validation error storing created_at

    - by Alex Dean
    Hi, I'm having problems with the Timestampable functionality in Doctrine 1.2.2. The error I get on trying to save() my Record is: Uncaught exception 'Doctrine_Validator_Exception' with message 'Validation failed in class XXX 1 field had validation error: * 1 validator failed on created_at (unsigned) ' in ... I've created the relevant field in the MySQL table as: created_at DATETIME NOT NULL, Then in setTableDefinition() I have: $this->hasColumn('created_at', 'timestamp', null, array( 'type' => 'timestamp', 'fixed' => false, 'unsigned' => false, 'primary' => false, 'notnull' => true, 'autoincrement' => false, )); Which is taken straight from the output of generateModelsFromDb(). And finally my setUp() looks like: public function setUp() { parent::setUp(); $this->actAs('Timestampable', array( 'created' => array( 'name' => 'created_at', 'type' => 'timestamp', 'format' => 'Y-m-d H:i:s', 'disabled' => false, 'options' => array() ), 'updated' => array( 'disabled' => true ))); } (I've tried not defining all of those fields for 'created', but I get the same problem.) I'm a bit stumped as to what I'm doing wrong - for one thing I can't see why Doctrine would be running any unsigned checks against a 'timestamp' datatype... Any help gratefully received! Alex

    Read the article

  • Java & Maven generating -and using- my own archetype

    - by Random
    Hello again! I have been busy in my project creating a webapp (in struts) that manages maven, using maven-2.2.1-uber.jar link text. The problem comes when the boss says it has to use some archetypes the company has created (so no predefined archetypes for you naughty boy!). So ok, I use the -DarchetypeRepository option (with ServletWrapper I get my complete web direction, becouse the repository will be inside the app), and the log seems to find it, but then the build fails -miserably- with this little text 'Build Failure - The defined artifact is not an archetype' as simple as that. Of course I have a lot of INFO lines that say abslutily nothig related. I have read the maven definitive guide searching for some kind of help, but it has been disapointing at best. My thoughts are thatmaybe I am missing in somewhere of all the folders tree some xml that actually sais maven that my pom.xml is an archetype not a project. But I really, really, can't find anything on the net or in the manuals that explains easy-handed how the archetype:generate (with special parameters) works and where I have to put every folder and/or file. So just to say my thoughts aloud (and hopefully you understand what I am trying to ask): I have a template where I do some xml changes (variables, etc...), then I have to call maen and do an archetype:generate with a variable project. The problem seems to be that my actual confuguration doesn't like what I am doing. After the generation of the archetype, witch luckly will create some directory trees and leave me a POM.xml somewhere I still have to do some variable changes and more xml manage stuff, so it whould be very kind from maven to don't destroy anything in this process. Any ideas why this maven-thing is not happly-ever-after asuming that my archetype is defintly an archetype? Allthought I think the code is ok, it could be wrong, as I am using maven-ubber and I call the actual CSMavenCli.main(String[, ClassWorld), I don't think it is the case this time. Thanks and all! :) Random.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 600 601 602 603 604 605 606 607 608 609 610 611  | Next Page >