Search Results

Search found 18244 results on 730 pages for 'controller action'.

Page 606/730 | < Previous Page | 602 603 604 605 606 607 608 609 610 611 612 613  | Next Page >

  • Implementing a normal website inside ASP.NET MVC 2

    - by cc0
    I have a website consisting of an index.html, a number of style sheet files as well as some javascript files. Then I needed a way for this site to communicate efficiently with a Microsoft SQL Server, so I was recommended to use the MVC framework to facilitate that kind of communication. I created the C#.net controller code needed to output the necessary information from the database using URL parameters, so now I am trying to put the whole web-site together inside the MVC framework. I started an empty project-template in MVC 2 framework. I'm sure there must be a good way to implement the current code into this framework, but I am very uncertain as to what the best approach to this would be. Could anyone point me in the right direction here? I'm not sure whether I need to change any of the current HTML, or exactly what to add to it. I'd love to see some kind of guide or tutorial, or just any advice I can get as I try to learn this. Any help is very much appreciated!

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC routing issue with Google Chrome client

    - by synergetic
    My Silverlight 4 app is hosted in ASP.NET MVC 2 web application. It works fine when I browse with Internet Explorer 8. However Google Chrome (version 5) cannot find ASP.NET controllers. Specifically, the following ASP.NET controller works both with Chrome and IE. //[OutputCache(NoStore = true, Duration = 0, VaryByParam = "None")] public ContentResult TestMe() { ContentResult result = new ContentResult(); XElement response = new XElement("SvrResponse", new XElement("Data", "my data")); result.Content = response.ToString(); return result; } If I uncomment [OutputCache] attribute then it works with IE but not with Chrome. Also, I use custom model binding with controllers, so if I write the following: public ContentResult TestMe(UserContext userContext) { ... } it also works with IE, but again not with Chrome which gives me error message saying that resource was not found. Of course, I configured IIS 6 for handling all requests via aspnet_isapi.dll and I have registered custom model binder in my web app's Global.asax inside Application_Start() method. Can someone explain me what might be the cause? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Bring a subview to the top on mouseDown: AND keep receiving events (for dragging)

    - by d11wtq
    Ok, basically I have a view with a series of slightly overlapping subviews. When a subview is clicked, it moves to the top (among other things), by a really simple two-liner: -(void)mouseDown:(NSEvent *)theEvent { if (_selected) { // Don't do anything this subview is already in the foreground return; } NSView *superview = [self superview]; [self removeFromSuperview]; [superview addSubview:self position:NSWindowAbove relativeTo:nil]; } This works fine and seems to be the "normal" way to do this. The problem is that I'm now introducing some drag logic to the view, so I need to respond to -mouseDragged:. Unfortunately, since the view is removed from the view hierarchy and re-added in the process, I can have the view come to the foreground and be dragged in the same mouse action. It only drags if I leave go of the mouse and click on the view again, since the second click doesn't do any view hierarchy juggling. Is there anything I can do that will allow the view to move to the foreground like this, AND continue to receive the subsequent -mouseDragged: and -mouseUp: events that follow? I started along the lines of thinking of overriding -hitTest: in the superview and intercepting the mouseDown event in order to bring the view to the foreground before it actually receives the event. The problem here is, from within -hitTest:, how do I distinguish what type of event I'm actually performing the hit test for? I wouldn't want to move the subview to the foreground for other mouse events, such as mouseMoved etc.

    Read the article

  • Update "Properties" model when adding a new record in CakePHP

    - by Paul Willy
    Hi, I'm writing an application in CakePHP that, for now, is to be used to make quotes for customers. So Quote is a model. I want to have a separate model/table for something like "Property," which may be used by other models. Each time a user gets to the "Add Quote" action, I basically want to pull a Property called "nextQuoteNumber" or something along those lines, and then automatically increment that property, even if the new Quote isn't saved. So I don't think just using an autoincrement for Quote's id is appropriate here - also, the "quote number" could be different from the row's id. I know this is simple enough to do, but I'm trying to figure out the "proper" CakePHP way of doing it! I'm thinking that I should have a method inside the Property model, say "getProperty($property_name)", which would pull the value to return, and also increment the value... but I'm not sure what the best way of doing that is, or how to invoke this method from the Quotes controller. What should I do? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • code to ping websites works sometimes ...

    - by trustfundbaby
    I'm testing out a piece of code to ping a bunch of websites I own on a regular basis, to make sure they're up. I'm using rails and so far I have this hideous test action that I'm using to try it out (see below). The problem though, is that sometimes it works, and other times it won't ... sometimes it runs through the code just fine, other times, it seems to completely ignore the begin/rescue block ... a. I need help figuring out what the problem is b. And refactoring this to make it look respectable. Your help is much appreciated. require 'net/http' require 'uri' def ping @sites = NewsSource.all @sites.each do |site| if site.uri and !site.uri.empty? uri = URI.parse(site.uri) response = nil path = uri.path.blank? ? '/' : uri.path path = uri.query.blank? ? path : "#{path}?#{uri.query}" begin Net::HTTP.start(uri.host, uri.port) {|http| http.open_timeout = 30 http.read_timeout = 30 response = http.head(path) } if response.code.eql?('200') or response.code.eql?('301') or response.code.eql?('302') site.up = true else site.up = false end site.up_check_msg = response.message site.up_check_code = response.code rescue Errno::EBADF rescue Timeout::Error site.up = false site.up_check_msg = 'timeout' site.up_check_code = '408' end site.up_check_time = 0.seconds.ago site.save end end end

    Read the article

  • backbone.js Model.get() returns undefined, scope using coffeescript + coffee toaster?

    - by benipsen
    I'm writing an app using coffeescript with coffee toaster (an awesome NPM module for stitching) that builds my app.js file. Lots of my application classes and templates require info about the current user so I have an instance of class User (extends Backbone.Model) stored as a property of my main Application class (extends Backbone.Router). As part of the initialization routine I grab the user from the server (which takes care of authentication, roles, account switching etc.). Here's that coffeescript: @user = new models.User @user.fetch() console.log(@user) console.log(@user.get('email')) The first logging statement outputs the correct Backbone.Model attributes object in the console just as it should: User _changing: false _escapedAttributes: Object _pending: Object _previousAttributes: Object _silent: Object attributes: Object account: Object created_on: "1983-12-13 00:00:00" email: "[email protected]" icon: "0" id: "1" last_login: "2012-06-07 02:31:38" name: "Ben Ipsen" roles: Object __proto__: Object changed: Object cid: "c0" id: "1" __proto__: ctor app.js:228 However, the second returns undefined despite the model attributes clearly being there in the console when logged. And just to make things even more interesting, typing "window.app.user.get('email')" into the console manually returns the expected value of "[email protected]"... ? Just for reference, here's how the initialize method compiles into my app.js file: Application.prototype.initialize = function() { var isMobile; isMobile = navigator.userAgent.match(/(iPhone|iPod|iPad|Android|BlackBerry)/); this.helpers = new views.DOMHelpers().initialize().setup_viewport(isMobile); this.user = new models.User(); this.user.fetch(); console.log(this.user); console.log(this.user.get('email')); return this; }; I initialize the Application controller in my static HTML like so: jQuery(document).ready(function(){ window.app = new controllers.Application(); }); Suggestions please and thank you!

    Read the article

  • Sencha touch 2/ app workflow with navigation view

    - by eplatonov
    I am trying to understand how can I implement the same functionality which provides navigation view in sencha touch 2, but .... Each item of the 'Ext.NavigationView' component should have it's own unique set of 'navigationBar' elements. I mean set of buttons, for example. I know that I can do something like this: this.getMain().getNavigationBar().rightBox.removeAll(); this.getMain().getNavigationBar().rightBox.add(this.getSettingButton()); //where 'getSettingButton' predefined by me a button And do this action each time when 'push' event happens (clear 'navigationBar' and add appropriate set of buttons) Of course, I even can implement 'Ext.Panel' with 'layout: card' and set of 'Ext.panel' elements in the 'items' property, each of which will be have unique 'toolbar'. To control the behavior I can use 'setActiveItem' method. But, I think each of these approaches is a bit weird, isn't it? I expected that would be much more natural approach to implement it. Most likely I don't know what I need. Confirm my doubts. What is the best way to do it.

    Read the article

  • java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.springframework.ui.ModelMap

    - by aelshereay
    I create a simple webapp using tomcat 6, spring 2.5.6 and maven. The problem is when I boot up tomcat, I am getting the following errors: SEVERE: StandardWrapper.Throwable java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: org/springframework/ui/ModelMap ... Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.springframework.ui.ModelMap The ModelMap class does exist in spring-2.5.6.jar and spring-context-2.5.6.jar, I also have some other spring jars. All of them are being deployed to tomcat correctly, when I check the application WEB-INF (deployed to tomcat) I found all those jars there! I have only one @Controller that has a @RequestMapping("/home.htm") showForm(ModelMap model) method. My applicationContext is quite simple: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:aop="http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop" xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xmlns:dwr="http://www.directwebremoting.org/schema/spring-dwr" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-2.5.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop/spring-aop-2.5.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-2.5.xsd http://www.directwebremoting.org/schema/spring-dwr http://www.directwebremoting.org/schema/spring-dwr-3.0.xsd" default-autowire="byName"> <context:component-scan base-package="org.myapp"/> <bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping"/> <bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.AnnotationMethodHandlerAdapter"/> <bean id="viewResolver" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver"> <property name="viewClass" value="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.JstlView"></property> <property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/view/"></property> <property name="suffix" value=".jsp"></property> </bean> </beans>

    Read the article

  • writing CMS in ZEND

    - by Neoman
    Hello guys, I'm trying to write my own CMS using Zend framework and I created modular structure. I have modules like 'news', 'blog' and etc. Also I have "admin" module which has different layout and this is like the administrator panel where admin can edit all the content and etc. But the problem is that I'm looking for the best practice and solution to solve the problem. I don't like the idea that my admin module will have a lot of controllers which will be for administer all the other modules. So I want to ask you all, maybe you have some tuts or just have an advice how to implement admin module separated from other modules as much as it can be done. Because I just want to copy one module for example from one project to another and I want it will work same. I don't want to search the right admin controller, view or something like this in admin module and copy this part seperatelly into new admin module. Hope the question and situation is clear enough and I will be happy to hear any advice or see any tutorials how to do it. Thanks guys!

    Read the article

  • UpdateModel not working consistently for me if a ddl gets hidden by jQuery

    - by awrigley
    Hi My jQuery code hides a ddl under certain circumstances. When this is the case, after submitting the form, using the UpdateModel doesn't seem to work consistently. My code in the controller: // POST: /IllnessDetail/Edit [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(IllnessDetail ill) { IllnessDetailFormViewModel mfv = new IllnessDetailFormViewModel(ill); if (ModelState.IsValid) { try { IllnessDetail sick = idr.GetLatestIllnessDetailByUsername(User.Identity.Name); UpdateModel(sick); idr.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Current", "IllnessDetail"); } catch { ModelState.AddRuleViolations(mfv.IllnessDetail.GetRuleViolations()); } } return View(new IllnessDetailFormViewModel(ill)); } I have only just started with MVC, and working under a deadline, so am still hazy as to how UpdateModel works. Debugging seems to reveal that the correct value is passed in to the action method: public ActionResult Edit(IllnessDetail ill) And the correct value is put into sick in the following line: IllnessDetailFormViewModel mfv = new IllnessDetailFormViewModel(ill); However, when all is said, done and returned to the client, what displays is the value of: sick.IdInfectiousAgent instead of the value of: ill.IdInfectiousAgent The only reason I can think of is that the ddlInfectiousAgent has been hidden by jQuery. Or am I barking up the wrong lamp post? Andrew

    Read the article

  • Stubbing an ActsAs Rails Plugin

    - by Rabbott
    I need to create a plugin much like Authlogic (or even just add on to Authlogic), but due to requirements beyond my control I need my plugin to authenticate using SOAP. Basically the plugin would require that anyone accessing the controller (before_filter would be fine) would have to authenticate first. I have ZERO control over the login page, or the SOAP server, I am simply a client attempting to authenticate to the providers SOAP Web Service. Here is what happens.. before_filter realizes that no session[:credential] is set, and forwards the user to the url on the providers servers. The user enters their credentials, and once authenticated, the web service forwards the user to a URL that has been entered by their sysadmins, attaching a token to the url on its way back. I need to take that token, append it to some parameters stored in a local YAML file, and make the SOAP call to the providers server. If all goes as planned, I need to set session[:credential] to the result of the SOAP call, and forward the user to the root page. Subsequent calls to the before_filter will not make the SOAP call, because session[:credential] is set. Ideally I think this would be awesome to slap on top of Authlogic, but I'm not sure how to do this, So I started to create my own acts_as_soap_authentic plugin, which isn't causing errors, but doesn't do anything.. Anyone have any pointers, or tips as to how I can get the ball rolling here? It seems simple, but is proving not to be..

    Read the article

  • How does asp.net MVC remember my incorrect values on postback?

    - by Michel
    This is working, but how??? I have a controller action for a post: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post )] public ActionResult Edit(Person person) { bool isvalid = ModelState.IsValid; etc. The Person object has a property BirthDate, type DateTime. When i enter some invalid data in the form, say 'blabla' which is obvious not a valid Datetime, it fills all the (other) Person properties with the correct data and the BirthDate property with a new blank DateTime. The bool isvalid has the value 'false'. So far so good. Then i do this: return View(p); and in the view i have this: <%= Html.TextBox("BirthDate", String.Format("{0:g}", Model.BirthDate)) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("BirthDate", "*") %> Ant there it comes: i EXPECTED the model to contain the new, blank DateTime because i didn't put any new data in. Second, when the View displays something, it must be a DateTime, because Model.BirthDate can't hold anything but a DateTime. But to my surprise, it shows a textbox with the 'blabla' value! (and the red * behind it) Which ofcourse is nice because the user can seee what he typed wrong, but how can that (blabla)string be transferred to the View in a DateTime field?

    Read the article

  • iPhone: Use a view as a transparent overlay with closing button

    - by axooh
    I've got a map with three bar buttons for different markers to show up in the map. If I click on a bar button, the specific markers are shown in the map, which already works great. Now I would like to show a transparent overlay (popup window) with the description of the markers after I clicked on a bar button with a button to close the overlay again and show the markers (which are set in the background). The function of the bar button: - (IBAction)routeTwo:(id)sender { // The code for the overlay // ... // remove any annotations that exist [map removeAnnotations:map.annotations]; // Add any annotations which belongs to route 2 [map addAnnotation:[self.mapAnnotations objectAtIndex:2]]; [map addAnnotation:[self.mapAnnotations objectAtIndex:3]]; [map addAnnotation:[self.mapAnnotations objectAtIndex:4]]; [map addAnnotation:[self.mapAnnotations objectAtIndex:5]]; } I tried the following possibilities: 1. Using a modal view controller RouteDescriptionViewController *routeDescriptionView = [[RouteDescriptionViewController alloc] init]; [self presentModalViewController:routeDescriptionView animated:YES]; [routeDescriptionView release]; Works great, but the problem is: The map view in the background is not visible anymore (configuring alpha values of the modal view doesn't change anything). 2. Add RouteDescriptionView as a subview RouteDescriptionViewController *routeDescriptionView = [[RouteDescriptionViewController alloc] init]; [self.view addSubview:routeDescriptionView.view]; [routeDescriptionView release]; Works great as well, but the problem here is: I can't configure a close button on the subview to close/remove the subview (RouteDescriptionView). 3. Using UIAlertView Would work as expected, but the UIAlert is not really customizable and therefore not suitable for my needs. Any ideas how to achieve this?

    Read the article

  • Aspect-Oriented Programming in OOP world - breaking rules ?

    - by Maksim Kondratyuk
    Hi 2 all! When I worked on asp.net mvc web site project, I investigated different approaches for validation. Some of them were DataAnotation validation and Validation Block. They use attributes for setting up rules for validation. Like this: [Required] public string Name {get;set;} I was confused how this approach combines with SRP (single responsibilty principle) from OOP world. Also I don't like any business logic in business objects, I prefer "poor business objects" model, but when I decorate my business objects with validation attributes for real requirements, they become ugly (Has a lot of attributes / with localization logic and so on). Idea with attributes realy simple, but in my opinion the validation decoration should be separated from object. I'm not sure is the approach to separate validation rules to xml files or to another objects, maybe it is a solution. Another bad side of AOP - problems with unit testin such code. When I decorated some controller actions with custom attributes for example to import/export TempData between actions or initialize some required services I can't to write proper unit test for testing this actions. Do you think that attributes don't break srp or you just disregard this and think that it's simplest , is not worst way ? P.S. I read some likes articles and discussions and I just want to put things in proper order. P.P.S. sorry for my "fluent" english :=)

    Read the article

  • Bizarre problem with WPF XAML file.

    - by paxdiablo
    I've just started a very simple WPF application which consists of a main large image and four smaller images. In order to assist with the layout, I created some JPEGs in MsPaint containing the images -2, -1, 0, +1 and +2 and just copied them into the top level of the project directory. The XAML segment contains, for the five images: <Image Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="2" Grid.ColumnSpan="4" Grid.RowSpan="1" Margin="0,0,0,0" Name="imgPicture" Stretch="Fill" VerticalAlignment="Top" Source="file:///C:/DAndS/Pax/MyDocs/VS2008/Projects/MyProj/zero.jpg" <Image Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="4" Grid.ColumnSpan="1" Grid.RowSpan="1" Margin="0,0,0,0" Name="imgPicMinus2" Stretch="Fill" VerticalAlignment="Top" Source="file:///C:/DAndS/Pax/MyDocs/VS2008/Projects/MyProj/minus2.jpg" <Image Grid.Column="2" Grid.Row="4" Grid.ColumnSpan="1" Grid.RowSpan="1" Margin="0,0,0,0" Name="imgPicMinus1" Stretch="Fill" VerticalAlignment="Top" Source="file:///C:/DAndS/Pax/MyDocs/VS2008/Projects/MyProj/minus1.jpg" <Image Grid.Column="3" Grid.Row="4" Grid.ColumnSpan="1" Grid.RowSpan="1" Margin="0,0,0,0" Name="imgPicPlus1" Stretch="Fill" VerticalAlignment="Top" Source="file:///C:/DAndS/Pax/MyDocs/VS2008/Projects/MyProj/plus1.jpg" <Image Grid.Column="4" Grid.Row="4" Grid.ColumnSpan="1" Grid.RowSpan="1" Margin="0,0,0,0" Name="imgPicPlus2" Stretch="Fill" VerticalAlignment="Top" Source="file:///C:/DAndS/Pax/MyDocs/VS2008/Projects/MyProj/plus2.jpg" When I try to set the source property for the plus2 image, it complains with a dialog box stating: Property value is not valid. Details | V The file plus2.jpg is not part of the project or its 'Build Action' property is not set to 'Resource'. Yet if I rename the file to plus3.jpg or plus2x.jpg, I don't have that problem. Why is it complaining about plus2.jpg specifically?

    Read the article

  • Facebook Open Graph - post to all approved users feeds.

    - by simnom
    Hi, I'm struggling to get to grips with posting a feed item to all the members of an approved application. Within the application settings for the user it is stating that the application has permission to post to the wall but I can only achieve this if that user is currently logged in to facebook. Obviously I would like this to function so that any items I uploaded are posted to all the members of the application at any one time. I am using the Facebook PHP SDK from http://github.com/facebook/php-sdk/ and currrently my code is as follows: require 'src/facebook.php'; //Generates access token for this transaction $accessToken = file_get_contents("https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token?type=client_cred&client_id=MyAppId&client_secret=MySecret"); //Gets the full user details as an object $contents = json_decode(file_get_contents("https://graph.facebook.com/SomeUserId?scope=publish_stream&" . $accessToken)); print_r($contents); if ($facebook->api('/' . $contents->id . '/feed', 'POST', array( 'title' => 'New and Improved, etc - 12/03/2010', 'link' => 'http://www.ib3.co.uk/news/2010/03/12/new-and-improved--etc', 'picture' => 'http://www.ib3.co.uk/userfiles/image/etc-booking.jpg', 'scope' => 'publish_stream' ) )==TRUE) { echo "message posted"; } else { echo "message failed"; } The output from $contents shows the expected user details but nothing relating to the permissions for my application. Am I missing a trick here? Then using the $facebook-api() function I am receiving a #200 - Permissions error. The application does not have permission to perform this action. This is driving me a little potty as I suspect I'm missing something straightforward with the authorisation but what? Many thanks in advance for an assistance offered.

    Read the article

  • if/else statement in a function: using onclick as a switch

    - by Aurora Schmidt
    I have looked for solutions to this on google for what seems like an eternity, but I can't seem to formulate my search correctly, or nobody has posted the code I'm looking for earlier. I am currently trying to make a function that will modify one or several margins of a div element. I want to use an if/else statement within the function, so that the onclick event will switch between the two conditions. This is what I have been working on so far; function facebookToggle() { if($('#facebooktab').style.margin-left == "-250px";) { document.getElementById("facebooktab").style.marginLeft="0px"; } else { document.getElementById("facebooktab").style.marginLeft="-250px"; } } I have tried twisting it around a little, like switching between "marginLeft" and "margin-left", to see if I was just using the wrong terms.. I'm starting to wonder if it might not be possible to combine jQuery and regular javascript? I don't know.. It's all just guesses on my part at this point. Anyway, I have a div, which is now positioned (fixed) so almost all of it is hidden outside the borders of the browser. I want the margin to change onclick so that it will be fully shown on the page. And when it is shown, I want to be able to hide it again by clicking it. I might be approaching this in the wrong way, but I really hope someone can help me out, or even tell me another way to get the same results. Thank you for any help you can give me. You can see it in action at: http://www.torucon.no/test/ (EDIT: By the way, I am a complete javascript novice, I have no experience with javascript prior to this experiment. Please don't be too harsh, as I am aware I probably made some really stupid mistakes in this short code.) EDITED CODE: function facebookToggle() { if($('#facebooktab').css('margin-left', '-250px') { $('#facebooktab').css('margin-left', '0px'); } else { $('#facebooktab').css('margin-left', '-250px'); } }

    Read the article

  • Rails' page caching vs. HTTP reverse proxy caches

    - by John Topley
    I've been catching up with the Scaling Rails screencasts. In episode 11 which covers advanced HTTP caching (using reverse proxy caches such as Varnish and Squid etc.), they recommend only considering using a reverse proxy cache once you've already exhausted the possibilities of page, action and fragment caching within your Rails application (as well as memcached etc. but that's not relevant to this question). What I can't quite understand is how using an HTTP reverse proxy cache can provide a performance boost for an application that already uses page caching. To simplify matters, let's assume that I'm talking about a single host here. This is my understanding of how both techniques work (maybe I'm wrong): With page caching the Rails process is hit initially and then generates a static HTML file that is served directly by the Web server for subsequent requests, for as long as the cache for that request is valid. If the cache has expired then Rails is hit again and the static file is regenerated with the updated content ready for the next request With an HTTP reverse proxy cache the Rails process is hit when the proxy needs to determine whether the content is stale or not. This is done using various HTTP headers such as ETag, Last-Modified etc. If the content is fresh then Rails responds to the proxy with an HTTP 304 Not Modified and the proxy serves its cached content to the browser, or even better, responds with its own HTTP 304. If the content is stale then Rails serves the updated content to the proxy which caches it and then serves it to the browser If my understanding is correct, then doesn't page caching result in less hits to the Rails process? There isn't all that back and forth to determine if the content is stale, meaning better performance than reverse proxy caching. Why might you use both techniques in conjunction?

    Read the article

  • how to pause and stop a changing ImageView

    - by user270811
    hi, i have an ImageView in which the picture switches every 5s, i am trying to add a pause and resume button that can stop and restart the action. i am using a Handler, Runnable, and postDelay() for image switch, and i put the code on onResume. i am thinking about using wait and notify for the pause and resume, but that would mean creating an extra thread. so far for the thread, i have this: class RecipeDisplayThread extends Thread { boolean pleaseWait = false; // This method is called when the thread runs public void run() { while (true) { // Do work // Check if should wait synchronized (this) { while (pleaseWait) { try { wait(); } catch (Exception e) { } } } // Do work } } } and in the main activity's onCreate(): Button pauseButton = (Button) findViewById(R.id.pause); pauseButton.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View view) { while (true) { synchronized (thread) { thread.pleaseWait = true; } } } }); Button resumeButton = (Button) findViewById(R.id.resume); resumeButton.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View view) { while (true) { // Resume the thread synchronized (thread) { thread.pleaseWait = false; thread.notify(); } } } }); the pause button seems to work, but then after that i can't press any other button, such as the resume button. thanks.

    Read the article

  • Model binding & derived model classes

    - by Richard Ev
    Does ASP.NET MVC offer any simple way to get model binding to work when you have model classes that inherit from others? In my scenario I have a View that is strongly typed to List<Person>. I have a couple of classes that inherit from Person, namely PersonTypeOne and PersonTypeTwo. I have three strongly typed partial views with names that match these class names (and render form elements for the properties of their respective models). This means that in my main View I can have the following code: <% for(int i = 0; i < Model.Count; i++) { Html.RenderPartial(Model[i].GetType().Name, Model[i]); } %> This works well, apart from when the user submits the form the relevant controller action method just gets a List<Person>, rather than a list of Person, PersonTypeOne and PersonTypeTwo. This is pretty much as expected as the form submission doesn't contain enough information to tell the default model binder to create any instances of PersonTypeOne and PersonTypeTwo classes. So, is there any way to get such functionality from the default model binder?

    Read the article

  • How to get a handle to all JCheckBox objects in order to loop?

    - by EmmyS
    I'm very new to Java and am having some issues looping through JCheckBoxes on a UI. The idea is that I have a bunch of checkboxes (not in a group because more than one can be selected.) When I click a JButton, I want to build a string containing the text from each selected checkbox. The issue I'm having is that our instructor told us that the checkboxes need to be created via a method, which means (see code below) that there isn't a discrete instance name for each checkbox. If there were, I could say something like if(checkBox1.isSelected()) { myString.append(checkBox.getText()); } That would repeat for checkBox2, checkBox3, and so on. But the method provided to us for adding checkboxes to a panel looks like this: public class CheckBoxPanel extends JPanel { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; public CheckBoxPanel(String title, String... options) { setBorder(BorderFactory.createTitledBorder(BorderFactory .createEtchedBorder(), title)); setLayout(new BoxLayout(this, BoxLayout.Y_AXIS)); // make one checkbox for each option for (String option : options) { JCheckBox b = new JCheckBox(option); b.setActionCommand(option); add(b); } } } This is called like this: toppingPanel = new CheckBoxPanel("Each Topping $1.50", "Tomato", "Green Pepper", "Black Olives", "Mushrooms", "Extra Cheese", "Pepperoni", "Sausage"); So I now have a panel that contains a border with the title "Each Topping $1.50", and 7 visible checkboxes. What I need to do is get a list of all the selected toppings. We are not supposed to use an ActionListener for each checkbox, but rather get the list when a button is clicked. I'm feeling really clueless here, but I just can't figure out how to get the isSelected property of the checkboxes when the individual checkboxes don't have instance names. Ideally I'd like to somehow add all the checkboxes to an array and loop through the array in the button's action listener to determine which ones are checked, but if I have to check each one individually I will. I just can't figure out how to refer to an individual checkbox when they've been created dynamically.

    Read the article

  • Ditching Django's models for Ajax/Web Services

    - by Igor Ganapolsky
    Recently I came across a problem at work that made me rethink Django's models. The app I am developing resides on a Linux server. Its a simple model/view/controller app that involves user interaction and updating data in the database. The problem is that this data resides in a MS SQL database on a Windows machine. So in order to use Django's models, I would have to leverage an ODBC driver on linux, and the use a python add-on like pyodbc. Well, let me tell you, setting up a reliable and functional ODBC connection on linux is no easy feat! So much so, that I spent several hours maneuvering this on my CentOS with no luck, and was left with frustration and lots of dumb system errors. In the meantime I have a deadline to meet, and suddenly the very agile and rapid Django application is a roadblock rather than a pleasure to work with. Someone on my team suggested writing this app in .NET. But there are a few problems with that: it won't be deployable on a linux machine, and I won't be able to work on it since I don't know ASP.net. Then a much better suggestion was made: keep the app in django, but instead of using models, do straight up ajax/web services calls in the template. And then it dawned on me - what a great idea. Django's models seem like a nuissance and hindrance in this case, and I can just have someone else write .Net services on their side, that I can call from my template. As a result my app will be leaner and more compact. So, I was wondering if you guys ever came across a similar dillema and what you decided to do about it.

    Read the article

  • Passing array values in an HTTP request in .NET

    - by Zarjay
    What's the standard way of passing and processing an array in an HTTP request in .NET? I have a solution, but I don't know if it's the best approach. Here's my solution: <form action="myhandler.ashx" method="post"> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Aaron" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Bobby" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Jimmy" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Kelly" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Simon" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="TJ" /> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> </form> The ASHX handler receives the "user" parameter as a comma-delimited string. You can get the values easily by splitting the string: public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { string[] users = context.Request.Form["user"].Split(','); } So, I already have an answer to my problem: assign multiple values to the same parameter name, assume the ASHX handler receives it as a comma-delimited string, and split the string. My question is whether or not this is how it's typically done in .NET. What's the standard practice for this? Is there a simpler way to grab the multiple values than assuming that the value is comma-delimited and calling Split() on it? Is this how arrays are typically passed in .NET, or is XML used instead? Does anyone have any insight on whether or not this is the best approach?

    Read the article

  • Looping login with Facebook JS SDK and Rails

    - by nafe
    I'm using the Facebook JS SDK for single-sign with my rails app. I translated the php code from the Facebook example (at the bottom of the page under "Single Sign-on with the JavaScript SDK") into ruby. This appeared to be working great but I've noticed one user that gets continual redirects when trying to login. The logs look like: Processing UsersController#login (for X.X.X.X at 2010-05-22 17:25:55) [GET] Redirected to http://myapp.com/ Completed in 0ms (DB: 0) | 302 Found [http://myapp.com/login] (times as many entries as my unfortunate user leaves the browser redirecting in a loop). My client side code includes a callback with the "auth.sessionChange": FB.Event.subscribe('auth.sessionChange', function(response) { if (response.session) { // A user has logged in, and a new cookie has been saved window.location = "/login"; } else { // The user has logged out, and the cookie has been cleared window.location = "/logout"; } }); So it seems to me like this event is continually firing. Although, I can't test this theory because I can't recreate this scenario locally. I don't think it's the rails controller. The code here is just: def login # if first time user create db entry # now redirect back to where the user came from begin redirect_to :back rescue ActionController::RedirectBackError redirect_to root_url end end Does anyone have any idea on what's going on?

    Read the article

  • accepts_nested_attributes with Model.update for multiple models

    - by Ohad
    Hi, I'm trying to follow http://railscasts.com/episodes/198-edit-multiple-individually but I would like to save objects which are nested (accepts_nested_attributes_for). I've added the following in my controller: def edit_multiple @people = Person.find(params[:person_ids], :include => [:parameters]) end def update_multiple keys = params[:people].keys if keys.empty? flash[:error] = "Please select at least one person" redirect_to :back and return end values = keys.map {|k| params[:people][k]} @people = Person.update(keys,values).reject { |h| h.errors.empty? } if @people.empty? flash[:notice] = 'Updated people!' redirect_to person_path else redirect_to edit_multiple_path end end and in the view: <% form_tag update_multiple_people_path, :method => :post do %> <% for person in @people %> <% fields_for "people[]", host do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages :object_name => "person" %> <h3><%= h person.name %></h3> <% for parameter in person.parameters %> <% f.fields_for "person_parameters[]", parameter do |builder| -%> <%= render "common/parameters", :f => builder %> <% end -%> <% end -%> <p><%= link_to_add_fields "Add a parameter", f, :person_parameters, "common/parameters" %></p> <% end %> <% end %> <p><%= submit_tag "Edit these Parameter(s)" %></p> <% end %> but I'm always getting a mistmatch - e.g. ActiveRecord::AssociationTypeMismatch and Parameter(#70341811965140) expected, got Array(#70341874300460) Thanks!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 602 603 604 605 606 607 608 609 610 611 612 613  | Next Page >