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  • Using Doctrine to abstract CRUD operations

    - by TomWilsonFL
    This has bothered me for quite a while, but now it is necessity that I find the answer. We are working on quite a large project using CodeIgniter plus Doctrine. Our application has a front end and also an admin area for the company to check/change/delete data. When we designed the front end, we simply consumed most of the Doctrine code right in the controller: //In semi-pseudocode function register() { $data = get_post_data(); if (count($data) && isValid($data)) { $U = new User(); $U->fromArray($data); $U->save(); $C = new Customer(); $C->fromArray($data); $C->user_id = $U->id; $C->save(); redirect_to_next_step(); } } Obviously when we went to do the admin views code duplication began and considering we were in a "get it DONE" mode so it now stinks with code bloat. I have moved a lot of functionality (business logic) into the model using model methods, but the basic CRUD does not fit there. I was going to attempt to place the CRUD into static methods, i.e. Customer::save($array) [would perform both insert and update depending on if prikey is present in array], Customer::delete($id), Customer::getObj($id = false) [if false, get all data]. This is going to become painful though for 32 model objects (and growing). Also, at times models need to interact (as the interaction above between user data and customer data), which can't be done in a static method without breaking encapsulation. I envision adding another layer to this (exposing web services), so knowing there are going to be 3 "controllers" at some point I need to encapsulate this CRUD somewhere (obviously), but are static methods the way to go, or is there another road? Your input is much appreciated.

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  • java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.springframework.ui.ModelMap

    - by aelshereay
    I create a simple webapp using tomcat 6, spring 2.5.6 and maven. The problem is when I boot up tomcat, I am getting the following errors: SEVERE: StandardWrapper.Throwable java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: org/springframework/ui/ModelMap ... Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.springframework.ui.ModelMap The ModelMap class does exist in spring-2.5.6.jar and spring-context-2.5.6.jar, I also have some other spring jars. All of them are being deployed to tomcat correctly, when I check the application WEB-INF (deployed to tomcat) I found all those jars there! I have only one @Controller that has a @RequestMapping("/home.htm") showForm(ModelMap model) method. My applicationContext is quite simple: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:aop="http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop" xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xmlns:dwr="http://www.directwebremoting.org/schema/spring-dwr" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-2.5.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop/spring-aop-2.5.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-2.5.xsd http://www.directwebremoting.org/schema/spring-dwr http://www.directwebremoting.org/schema/spring-dwr-3.0.xsd" default-autowire="byName"> <context:component-scan base-package="org.myapp"/> <bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping"/> <bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.AnnotationMethodHandlerAdapter"/> <bean id="viewResolver" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver"> <property name="viewClass" value="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.JstlView"></property> <property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/view/"></property> <property name="suffix" value=".jsp"></property> </bean> </beans>

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  • Facebook graph API post to user's wall

    - by Lance
    I'm using the FB graph api to post content to the user's wall. I orginally tried using this method: $wall_post = array(array('message' => 'predicted the', 'name' => 'predicted the'), array('message' => $winning_team, 'name' => $winning_team, 'link' => 'http://www.sportannica.com/teams.php?team='.$winning_team.'&amp;year=2012'), array('message' => 'to beat the', 'name' => 'to beat the',), array('message' => $losing_team, 'name' => $losing_team, 'link' => 'http://www.sportannica.com/teams.php?team='.$losing_team.'&amp;year=2012'), array('message' => 'on '.$game_date.'', 'name' => 'on '.$game_date.''), array('picture' => 'http://www.sportannica.com/img/team_icons/current_season_logos/large/'.$winning_team.'.png')); $res = $facebook->api('/me/feed/', 'post', '$wall_post'); But, much to my surprise, you can't post multiple links to a users wall. So, now I'm using the graph api to post content to a user's wall much like the way spotify does. So, now I've figured out that I need to create custom actions and objects with the open graph dashboard. So, I've created the "predict" action and gave it permission to edit the object "game." So, now I have the code: $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => 'appID', 'secret' => 'SECRET', 'cookie' => true )); $access_token = $facebook->getAccessToken(); $user = $facebook->getUser(); if($user != 0) { curl -F 'access_token='$.access_token.'' \ -F 'away_team=New York Yankees' \ -F 'home_team=New York Mets' \ -F 'match=http://samples.ogp.me/413385652011237' \ 'https://graph.facebook.com/me/predict-edit-add:predict' } I keep getting an error reading: Parse error: syntax error, unexpected T_CONSTANT_ENCAPSED_STRING Any ideas?

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  • Passing array values in an HTTP request in .NET

    - by Zarjay
    What's the standard way of passing and processing an array in an HTTP request in .NET? I have a solution, but I don't know if it's the best approach. Here's my solution: <form action="myhandler.ashx" method="post"> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Aaron" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Bobby" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Jimmy" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Kelly" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Simon" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="TJ" /> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> </form> The ASHX handler receives the "user" parameter as a comma-delimited string. You can get the values easily by splitting the string: public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { string[] users = context.Request.Form["user"].Split(','); } So, I already have an answer to my problem: assign multiple values to the same parameter name, assume the ASHX handler receives it as a comma-delimited string, and split the string. My question is whether or not this is how it's typically done in .NET. What's the standard practice for this? Is there a simpler way to grab the multiple values than assuming that the value is comma-delimited and calling Split() on it? Is this how arrays are typically passed in .NET, or is XML used instead? Does anyone have any insight on whether or not this is the best approach?

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  • iPhone View Switching basics.

    - by Daniel Granger
    I am just trying to get my head around simple view switching for the iPhone and have created a simple app to try and help me understand it. I have included the code from my root controller used to switch the views. My app has a single toolbar with three buttons on it each linking to one view. Here is my code to do this but I think there most be a more efficient way to achieve this? Is there a way to find out / remove the current displayed view instead of having to do the if statements to see if either has a superclass? I know I could use a tab bar to create a similar effect but I am just using this method to help me practice a few of the techniques. -(IBAction)switchToDataInput:(id)sender{ if (self.dataInputVC.view.superview == nil) { if (dataInputVC == nil) { dataInputVC = [[DataInputViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"DataInput" bundle:nil]; } if (self.UIElementsVC.view.superview != nil) { [UIElementsVC.view removeFromSuperview]; } else if (self.totalsVC.view.superview != nil) { [totalsVC.view removeFromSuperview]; } [self.view insertSubview:dataInputVC.view atIndex:0]; } } -(IBAction)switchToUIElements:(id)sender{ if (self.UIElementsVC.view.superview == nil) { if (UIElementsVC == nil) { UIElementsVC = [[UIElementsViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"UIElements" bundle:nil]; } if (self.dataInputVC.view.superview != nil) { [dataInputVC.view removeFromSuperview]; } else if (self.totalsVC.view.superview != nil) { [totalsVC.view removeFromSuperview]; } [self.view insertSubview:UIElementsVC.view atIndex:0]; } } -(IBAction)switchToTotals:(id)sender{ if (self.totalsVC.view.superview == nil) { if (totalsVC == nil) { totalsVC = [[TotalsViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"Totals" bundle:nil]; } if (self.dataInputVC.view.superview != nil) { [dataInputVC.view removeFromSuperview]; } else if (self.UIElementsVC.view.superview != nil) { [UIElementsVC.view removeFromSuperview]; } [self.view insertSubview:totalsVC.view atIndex:0]; } }

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  • mediaelement.js play/pause on click controls don't work

    - by iKode
    I need to play and pause the video player if any part of the video is clicked, so I implemented something like: $("#promoPlayer").click(function() { $("#promoPlayer").click(function() { if(this.paused){ this.play(); } else { this.pause(); } }); ...but now the controls of the video won't pause/play. You can see it in action here(http://175.107.134.113:8080/). The video is the second slide on the main carousel at the top. I suspect I'm now getting 2 onclick events one from my code above and a second on the actual pause/play button. I don't understand how the actual video controls work, because when I inspect the element, I just see a tag. If I could differentiate the controls, then perhaps I might have figured out a solution by now. Anyone know how I should have done this, or is my solution ok. If my solutions ok, how do I intercept a click on the control, so that I only have one click event to pause / play? If you look on the media element home page, they have a big play button, complete with mouseOver, but I can't see how they have done that? Can someone else help?

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  • PHP Redirection with Post Parameters

    - by arik-so
    Hello, I have a webpage. This webpage redirects the user to another webpage, more or less the following way: <form method="post" action="anotherpage.php" id="myform"> <?php foreach($_GET as $key => $value){ echo "<input type='hidden' name='{$key}' value='{$value}' />"; } ?> </form> <script> document.getElementById('myform').submit(); </script> Well, you see, what I do is transferring the GET params into POST params. Do not tell me it is bad, I know that myself, and it is not exactly what I really do, what is important is that I collect data from an array and try submitting it to another page via POST. But if the user has JavaScript turned off, it won't work. What I need to know: Is there a way to transfer POST parameters by means of PHP so the redirection can be done the PHP way (header('Location: anotherpage.php');), too? It is very important for me to pass the params via POST. I cannot use the $_SESSION variable because the webpage is on another domain, thus, the $_SESSION variables differ. Anyway, I simply need a way to transfer POST variables with PHP ^^ Thanks in advance!

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  • Routing problem with calling a new method without an ID

    - by alkaloids
    I'm trying to put together a form_tag that edits several Shift objects. I have the form built properly, and it's passing on the correct parameters. I have verified that the parameters work with updating the objects correctly in the console. However, when I click the submit button, I get the error: ActiveRecord::RecordNotFound in ShiftsController#update_individual Couldn't find Shift without an ID My route for the controller it is calling looks like this looks like this: map.resources :shifts, :collection => { :update_individual => :put } The method in ShiftsController is this: def update_individual Shift.update(params[:shifts].keys, params[:shifts].values) flash[:notice] = "Schedule saved" end The relevant form parts are these: <% form_tag( update_individual_shifts_path ) do %> ... (fields for...) <%= submit_tag "Save" %> <% end %> Why is this not working? If I browse to the url: "http://localhost:3000/shifts/update_individual/5" (or any number that corresponds to an existing shift), I get the proper error about having no parameters set, but when I pass parameters without an ID of some sort, it errors out. How do I make it stop looking for an ID at the end of the URL?

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  • Exporting Maven properties from Ant code

    - by Gili
    I've embedded the following code within my POM: <plugin name="test"> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-antrun-plugin</artifactId> <executions> <execution> <phase>validate</phase> <configuration> <tasks> <pathconvert targetos="unix" property="project.build.directory.portable"> <path location="${project.build.directory}"/> </pathconvert> </tasks> </configuration> <goals> <goal>run</goal> </goals> </execution> </executions> </plugin> I then reference ${project.build.directory.portable} from the run project action but it comes back as null. Executing <echo> within the Ant block shows the correct value. What am I doing wrong?

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  • Same jQuery code returns two different results – Submit Button Text

    - by Lijo
    I have two jQuery codes - http://jsfiddle.net/Lijo/CXGX7/7/ and http://jsfiddle.net/Lijo/CXGX7/8/ . The first code returns undefined whereas the second code returns text of button. QUESTIONS What is the reason for this difference in result? Why is the first code not returning expected text of button? Note: I verified that both are using same version of jQuery (by an alert of jQuery) alert($.fn.jquery); CODE <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head><title> </title> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.aspnetcdn.com/ajax/jquery/jquery-1.8.1.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> alert($('.myButton').attr("value")); </script> </head> <body> <form method="post" action="Test.aspx" id="form1"> <div class="aspNetHidden"> <input type="hidden" name="__VIEWSTATE" id="__VIEWSTATE" value="/wEPDwULLTE0MDM4MzYxMjNkZMycQvsYQ+GPFsQHoQ8j/8vEo2vQbqkhfgPc60kxXaQO" /> </div> <div class="aspNetHidden"> <input type="hidden" name="__EVENTVALIDATION" id="__EVENTVALIDATION" value="/wEWAwKqxqqrCgLi/JazDQKM54rGBqgaroRQTXJkD1LyUlVxAmLRCNfTGVe73swQBMemBtvN" /> </div> <div> <input name="txtEmpName" type="text" id="txtEmpName" /> <input type="submit" name="Button1" value="Submit" id="Button1" class="myButton" /> </div> </form> </body> </html> REFERENCES Retrieve Button value with jQuery How to determine and print jQuery version?

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  • NSTask executed only once

    - by Eimantas
    I'm having trouble executing different NSTask's. Same launchPath, different arguments. I have a class who's instances administer own NSTask objects and depending on arguments those instances were initialized with - dependent NSTask object is being created. I have two initializers: // Method for finished task - (void)taskFinished:(NSNotification *)aNotification { [myTask release]; myTask = nil; [self createTask]; } // Designated initializer - (id) init { self = [super init]; if (self != nil) { [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(taskFinished:) name:NSTaskDidTerminateNotification object:nil]; [self createTask]; } return self; } // Convenience initializer - (id)initWithCommand:(NSString *)subCommand { self = [self init]; if (self) { [self setCommand:subCommand]; } return self; } And here 's the createTask method: - (void)createTask { // myTask is a property defined as NSTask* myTask = [[NSTask alloc] init]; [myTask setLaunchPath:@"/usr/bin/executable"]; } Say I have 3 buttons. Each one creates different class instance with different NSTask objects. But problem is that only first one gets executed. The second ones does not even triger "click" event (via target-action). I think it could be cause of launchPath I'm trying to use, 'cause simple /bin/ls works fine. The same command in terminal has 0 return value (i.e. all is fine). Any guides or gotchas are much appreciated.

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  • asp.net: saving js file with c# commands...

    - by ile
    <head runat="server"> <title><asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="TitleContent" runat="server" /></title> <link href="../../Content/css/layout.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="/Areas/CMS/Content/js/jquery-1.3.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/Areas/CMS/Content/js/jquery.jeditable.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/Areas/CMS/Content/js/jeditable.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".naslov_vijesti").editable('<%=Url.Action("UpdateSettings","Article") %>', { submit: 'ok', submitdata: {field: "Title"}, cancel: 'cancel', cssclass: 'editable', width: '99%', placeholder: 'emtpy', indicator: "<img src='../../Content/img/indicator.gif'/>" }); }); </script> </head> This is head tag of site.master file. I would like to remove this multiline part from head and place it in jeditable.js file, which is now empty. If I do copy/paste, then <% %> part won't be executed. In PHP I would save js file as jeditable.js.php and server would compile code that is in <?php ?> tag. Any ideas how to solve this problem? Thanks in advance, Ile

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  • How does asp.net MVC remember my incorrect values on postback?

    - by Michel
    This is working, but how??? I have a controller action for a post: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post )] public ActionResult Edit(Person person) { bool isvalid = ModelState.IsValid; etc. The Person object has a property BirthDate, type DateTime. When i enter some invalid data in the form, say 'blabla' which is obvious not a valid Datetime, it fills all the (other) Person properties with the correct data and the BirthDate property with a new blank DateTime. The bool isvalid has the value 'false'. So far so good. Then i do this: return View(p); and in the view i have this: <%= Html.TextBox("BirthDate", String.Format("{0:g}", Model.BirthDate)) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("BirthDate", "*") %> Ant there it comes: i EXPECTED the model to contain the new, blank DateTime because i didn't put any new data in. Second, when the View displays something, it must be a DateTime, because Model.BirthDate can't hold anything but a DateTime. But to my surprise, it shows a textbox with the 'blabla' value! (and the red * behind it) Which ofcourse is nice because the user can seee what he typed wrong, but how can that (blabla)string be transferred to the View in a DateTime field?

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  • Avoiding secondary selects or joins with Hibernate Criteria or HQL query

    - by Ben Benson
    I am having trouble optimizing Hibernate queries to avoid performing joins or secondary selects. When a Hibernate query is performed (criteria or hql), such as the following: return getSession().createQuery(("from GiftCard as card where card.recipientNotificationRequested=1").list(); ... and the where clause examines properties that do not require any joins with other tables... but Hibernate still performs a full join with other tables (or secondary selects depending on how I set the fetchMode). The object in question (GiftCard) has a couple ManyToOne associations that I would prefer to be lazily loaded in this case (but not necessarily all cases). I want a solution that I can control what is lazily loaded when I perform the query. Here's what the GiftCard Entity looks like: @Entity @Table(name = "giftCards") public class GiftCard implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; private String id_; private User buyer_; private boolean isRecipientNotificationRequested_; @Id public String getId() { return this.id_; } public void setId(String id) { this.id_ = id; } @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name = "buyerUserId") @NotFound(action = NotFoundAction.IGNORE) public User getBuyer() { return this.buyer_; } public void setBuyer(User buyer) { this.buyer_ = buyer; } @Column(name="isRecipientNotificationRequested", nullable=false, columnDefinition="tinyint") public boolean isRecipientNotificationRequested() { return this.isRecipientNotificationRequested_; } public void setRecipientNotificationRequested(boolean isRecipientNotificationRequested) { this.isRecipientNotificationRequested_ = isRecipientNotificationRequested; } }

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  • Sometimes can rename, remove a folder; sometimes cannot

    - by Vy Clarks
    In my website project. I need to rename or remove some folder by code. Sometimes I can do all of that, but sometimes I cannot with error: Access to the path is denied Try to find to solution on Google. May be, there are two reason: The permisstion of that Folder Some subFolder or some file in that Folder that's being held open. Try to check: Right click on Folder- Properties-- Security: if this is the right way to check the permission, the Folder allowes every action (read, write....) There are no file, no subfolder of that Folder is opened. Why? I still dont understant why sometimes I can rename folder but sometimes I cannot. Help!! I need your opinions!!! UPDATE: take a look at my code above: I want to rename the a folder with the new name inputed in a Textbox txtFilenFolderName: protected void btnUpdate_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string[] values = EditValue; string oldpath = values[0];// = "D:\\C#Projects\\website\\Lecturer\\giangvien\\New folder" string oldName = values[2]; //= New Folder string newName = txtFilenFolderName.Text; //= New Folder1 string newPath = string.Empty; if (oldName != newName) { newPath = oldpath.Replace(oldName, newName); Directory.Move(oldpath, newPath); } else lblmessage2.Text = "New name must not be the same as the old "; } } Try to debug: oldpath = "D:\\C#Projects\\website\\Lecturer\\giangvien\\New folder" oldName = New Folder newName= New Folder1 newpath = "D:\\C#Projects\\website\\Lecturer\\giangvien\\New folder1" Everything seems right, but I when I click on buton Edit --- rename--- Update--- an error occur: Access to the path is denied D:\\C#Projects\\website\\Lecturer\\giangvien\\New folder Help!

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  • Getting elements children with certain tag jQuery

    - by johnnyArt
    I'm trying to get all the input elements from a certain form from jQuery by providing only the name of the form and only knowing that those wanted fields are input elements. Let's say: <form action='#' id='formId'> <input id='name' /> <input id='surname'/> </form> How do I access them individually with jQuery? I tried something like $('#formId > input') with no success, in fact an error came back on the console "XML filter is applied to non-XML value (function (a, b) {return new (c.fn.init)(a, b);})" Maybe I have to do it with .children or something like that? I'm pretty new at jQuery and I'm not really liking the Docs. It was much friendlier in Mootools, or maybe I just need to get used to it. Oh and last but not least, I've seen it asked before but no final answer, can I create a new dom element with jQuery and work with it before inserting it (if I ever do) into de code? In mootools, we had something like var myEl = new Element(element[, properties]); and you could then refer to it in further expressions, but I fail to understand how to do that on jQuery Thanks in advance.

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  • ModelState always valid

    - by Jaimal Chohan
    I've got something seemingly very simple not working. I have got a model public class Name: Entity { [StringLength(10), Required] public virtual string Title { get; set; } } public class Customer: Entity { public virtual Name Name { get; set; } } a view model public class CustomerViweModel { public Customer Customer { get; set; } } a view <% using(Html.BeginForm()) { %> <%= Html.LabelFor(m => m.Customer.Name.Title)%> <button type="submit">Submit</button> <% } %> and a controller [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index([Bind(Prefix = "Customer")] Customer customer) { if(ModelState.IsValid) Save else return View(); } No matter what I enter as the title (null, or a string 10 chars), ModelState.IsValid is always true. The Title field in the Customer object has a value, so the data is being passed around, but not being validated? Any clues?

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  • Spree customize/extend user roles and permissions

    - by swapnil
    I am trying to specify some custom roles in Spree for example role 'client' and extend the permissions to access the admin section for this role. This user will be able to access only those Product created by that user. Concept is letting a user with role 'client' manage only products and other certain Models. To start with I added CanCan plugin and defined a RoleAbility Class in role_ability.rb Just following this post : Spree Custom Roles Permissions class RoleAbility include CanCan::Ability def initialize(user) user ||= User.new if user.has_role? 'admin' can :manage, :all elsif user.has_role? 'client_admin' can :read, Product can :admin, Product end end end Added this to an initializer : config/initializers/spree.rb Ability.register_ability(RetailerAbility) Also extended admin_products_controller_decorator.rb :app/controllersadmin_products_controller_decorator.rb Admin::ProductsController.class_eval do def authorize_admin authorize! :admin, Product authorize! params[:action].to_sym, Product end end But I am getting flash message 'Authorisation Failure' Trying to find some luck, I referred following links A github gist for Customizing Spree Roles : https://gist.github.com/1277326 Here's a similar issue what I am facing : http://groups.google.com/group/spree-user/browse_thread/thread/1e819e10410d03c5/23b269e09c7ed47e All efforts in vain... Any pointers of what is going on here highly appreciated ? Thanks in advance.

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  • Implementing a normal website inside ASP.NET MVC 2

    - by cc0
    I have a website consisting of an index.html, a number of style sheet files as well as some javascript files. Then I needed a way for this site to communicate efficiently with a Microsoft SQL Server, so I was recommended to use the MVC framework to facilitate that kind of communication. I created the C#.net controller code needed to output the necessary information from the database using URL parameters, so now I am trying to put the whole web-site together inside the MVC framework. I started an empty project-template in MVC 2 framework. I'm sure there must be a good way to implement the current code into this framework, but I am very uncertain as to what the best approach to this would be. Could anyone point me in the right direction here? I'm not sure whether I need to change any of the current HTML, or exactly what to add to it. I'd love to see some kind of guide or tutorial, or just any advice I can get as I try to learn this. Any help is very much appreciated!

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  • How to tell which dataform button ended edit when using EventToCommand

    - by Rodd
    I'm new to SilverLight and Mvvm-Light. I have a DataForm on my view that displays/edits a SelectedPerson property (a Person object) of my view model. I want to execute a command on my viewmodel when the user clicks the Save button but don't want to take action if the user clicks cancel. I added the following to my ViewModel: public RelayCommand PersonEditEnded {get; set;} ... public void Initialize() { PersonEditEnded = new RelayCommand(DoSomething); ... } public void DoSomething() { } I added the following to my View: <toolkit:DataForm x:Name="PersonForm" ... CurrentItem="{Binding SelectedPerson, Mode=TwoWay}"> <i:Interaction.Triggers> <i:EventTrigger EventName="EditEnded"> <gs:EventToCommand Command="{Binding PersonEditEnded, Mode=OneWay}"/> </i:EventTrigger> </i:Interaction.Triggers> </toolkit:DataForm> This works and the DoSomething method is being called when the user presses Submit. However, DoSomething is also called when user presses Cancel. Is there a way to know which button was pressed or to supress the call when Cancel is pressed? Thanks for whatever help you can offer!

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  • Entity Framework Validation & usage

    - by kmsellers
    I'm aware there is an AssociationChanged event, however, this event fires after the association is made. There is no AssociationChanging event. So, if I want to throw an exception for some validation reason, how do I do this and get back to my original value? Also, I would like to default values for my entity based on information from other entities but do this only when I know the entitiy is instanced for insertion into the database. How do I tell the difference between that and the object getting instanced because it is about to be populated based on existing data? Am I supposed to know? Is that considiered business logic that should be outside of my entity business logic? If that's the case, then should I be designing controller classes to wrap all these entities? My concern is that if I deliver back an entity, I want the client to get access to the properties, but I want to retain tight control over validations on how they are set, defaulted, etc. Every example I've seen references context, which is outside of my enity partial class validation, right? BTW, I looked at the EFPocoAdapter and for the life of me cannot determine how to populate lists of from within my POCO class... anyone know how I get to the context from a EFPoco Class?

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  • JSF/Seam - call one component method for many radio groups

    - by purecharger
    I've got the following jsf page: <h:form> <ui:repeat value="#{list.categories}" var="cat"> <h:selectOneRadio id="sel1Rad" value="#{list.choose}" layout="pageDirection"> <f:selectItems value="#{list.names}"/> </h:selectOneRadio> </ui:repeat> <h:commandButton id="submit" action="#{list.submit}" value="Submit"/> </h:form> And a component named list. The variable cat is injected to the component, used by the method list.getNames(). What I am trying to have happen is to have list.choose() be called for each radio group. I'm not sure if this is possible with Seam. Going by the booking example distributed with Seam, there is a distinct separate method for each selectOneRadio or selectOneMenu group. Since I have an unknown number of categories, I can't / don't want to define a method for each possible choice. When I submit the form, all my choices are sent in the POST, I just don't know the correct way to tell Seam how to dispatch them to my component. Any help is appreciated!

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  • addChild, etc. using NSTreeController and NSTreeNode (snow leopard)

    - by John Velman
    I have a setup with an object (OTNodeDatum) (OT for OutlineTest) to be the represented object in NSTreeNode. NSTreeNode is the Class shown in the attributes page for NSTreeController. I have document based app, no core data. On MyDocument init, I set up content with an NSMutableArray containing one item, an NSTreeNode with a represented object which contains a single property (yes, name). Add button, Add Child button, Delete button, hooked up via interface builder to the NSTreeController add action, etc. It works up to a point. When I do an add, I get a new blank line which I can edit, but the inserted text goes away when I leave the cell. When I do a delete, things get deleted. When I do add child, nothing happens. I think I have to subclass either NSTreeNode, or NSTreeController to get the right behavior in terms of adding children and adding a new represented object in addition to adding a new tree node. IS this on the right track? If I subclass NSTreeController would I just override the add, addChild, to get the right thing to happen? And what could I mess up? I can't seem to find any guidance on this, although I've spent a long time looking. Thanks. John V

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  • Cannot convert object, recieved from ajax call, into a long

    - by Matt
    I'm using Asp.Net-Mvc, I have this method in my controller: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult LinkAccount(string site, object id) { return this.Json(id); } Here's the ajax method that calls it: $.post("/Account/LinkAccount", { site: "Facebook", id: FB.Facebook.apiClient.get_session().uid }, function(result) { alert(result); }, "json" ); returning this.Json(id); makes the alert work... it alerts 7128383 (something similar to that). but if I change this.Json(id) to this.Json(Conver.ToInt64(id)); the alert does not fire... Any idea of why I can't convert an object received from an object to a long? I already know changing the LinkAccount method to accept a long instead works just fine. It's just I need it as an object because some other sites I'm linking up have strings for id's rather than longs. UPDATE: I tried running the code on localhost so I could set a breakpoint. First I changed the line return this.Json(Convert.ToInt64(id)); to long idAsLong = Convert.ToInt64(id));. Here's what the debugger is telling me: When I hover over id it says: "id | {string[1]}" and when I press the plus button is shows: "[0] | '7128383'" When I hover over idAsLong, it says: "idAsLong | 0" Why isn't it converting it properly?

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  • Rails - CSV export: prompt for file download

    - by Pierre
    Hello, I want to give my users the ability to export a table to CSV. So in my controller, I've added on top of the file: respond_to :html, :js, :csv I'm also setting the headers if the requested format is csv: if params[:format] == 'csv' generate_csv_headers("negotiations-#{Time.now.strftime("%Y%m%d")}") end Code for generate_csv_headers(in application_controller) is: def generate_csv_headers(filename) headers.merge!({ 'Cache-Control' => 'must-revalidate, post-check=0, pre-check=0', 'Content-Type' => 'text/csv', 'Content-Disposition' => "attachment; filename=\"#{filename}\"", 'Content-Transfer-Encoding' => 'binary' }) end I've also created a view named index.csv.erb to generate my file: <%- headers = ["Id", "Name"] -%> <%= CSV.generate_line headers %> <%- @negotiations.each do |n| -%> <%- row = [ n.id, n.name ] -%> <%= CSV.generate_line row %> <%- end -%> I don't have any error, but it simply displays the content of the CSV file, while I'd expect a prompt from the browser to download the file. I've read a lot, but could not find anything that'd work. Do you have an idea? thanks, p.

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