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• How to debug/break in codedom compiled code

  - by Jason Coyne

  I have an application which loads up c# source files dynamically and runs them as plugins. When I am running the main application in debug mode, is it possible to debug into the dynamic assembly? Obviously setting breakpoints is problematic, since the source is not part of the original project, but should I be able to step into, or break on exceptions for the code? Is there a way to get codedom to generate PDBs for this or something? Here is the code I am using for dynamic compliation. CSharpCodeProvider codeProvider = new CSharpCodeProvider(new Dictionary<string, string>() { { "CompilerVersion", "v3.5" } }); //codeProvider. ICodeCompiler icc = codeProvider.CreateCompiler(); CompilerParameters parameters = new CompilerParameters(); parameters.GenerateExecutable = false; parameters.GenerateInMemory = true; parameters.CompilerOptions = string.Format("/lib:\"{0}\"", Application.StartupPath); parameters.ReferencedAssemblies.Add("System.dll"); parameters.ReferencedAssemblies.Add("System.Core.dll"); CompilerResults results = icc.CompileAssemblyFromSource(parameters, Source); DLL.CreateInstance(t.FullName, false, BindingFlags.Default, null, new object[] { engine }, null, null);

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• Assign delegate event handler from dynamically added child control

  - by mickyjtwin

  I have a control that handles commenting. In this control, I have set a delegate event handler for sending an email. I then have various types of controls, e.g. blog, articles etc, each of which may or may not have the commenting control added (which is done dynamically with me not knowing the id's), i.e. the commenting control is added outside this control. Each of these controls handles it's emailing differently(hence the event). What I'm trying to determine, is how to assign the event in the parent control. At the moment, I'm having to recursively search through all the controls on the page until I find the comment control, and set it that way. Example below explains: COMMENTING CONTROL public delegate void Commenting_OnSendEmail(); public partial class Commenting : UserControl { public Commenting_OnSendEmail OnComment_SendEmail(); private void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if(OnComment_SendEmail != null) { OnComment_SendEmail(); } } } PARENT CONTROL public partial class Blog : UserControl { private void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Commenting comControl = (Commenting)this.FindControl<Commenting>(this); if(comControl != null) { comCtrol.OnComment_SendEmail += new Commenting_OnSendMail(Blog_Comment_OnSendEmail); } } } Is there an easier way?

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• Implementation of "Automatic Lightweight Migration" for Core Data (iPhone)

  - by RickiG

  Hi I would like to make my app able to do an automatic lightweight migration when I add new attributes to my core data model. In the guide from Apple this is the only info on the subject I could find: Automatic Lightweight Migration To request automatic lightweight migration, you set appropriate flags in the options dictionary you pass in addPersistentStoreWithType:configuration:URL:options:error:. You need to set values corresponding to both the NSMigratePersistentStoresAutomaticallyOption and the NSInferMappingModelAutomaticallyOption keys to YES: NSError *error; NSURL *storeURL = <#The URL of a persistent store#>; NSPersistentStoreCoordinator *psc = <#The coordinator#>; NSDictionary *options = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithBool:YES], NSMigratePersistentStoresAutomaticallyOption, [NSNumber numberWithBool:YES], NSInferMappingModelAutomaticallyOption, nil]; if (![psc addPersistentStoreWithType:<#Store type#> configuration:<#Configuration or nil#> URL:storeURL options:options error:&error]) { // Handle the error. } My NSPersistentStoreCoordinator is initialized in this way: - (NSPersistentStoreCoordinator *)persistentStoreCoordinator { if (persistentStoreCoordinator != nil) { return persistentStoreCoordinator; } NSURL *storeUrl = [NSURL fileURLWithPath: [[self applicationDocumentsDirectory] stringByAppendingPathComponent: @"FC.sqlite"]]; NSError *error = nil; persistentStoreCoordinator = [[NSPersistentStoreCoordinator alloc] initWithManagedObjectModel:[self managedObjectModel]]; if (![persistentStoreCoordinator addPersistentStoreWithType:NSSQLiteStoreType configuration:nil URL:storeUrl options:nil error:&error]) { NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@", error, [error userInfo]); abort(); } return persistentStoreCoordinator; } I am having trouble seeing where and how I should add the Apple code to get the Automatic Lightweight Migration working?

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• Modify request querystring paramaters to build a new link without resorting to string manipulation

  - by Andrew M

  Hi All, I want to dynamically populate a link with the URI of the current request, but set one specific query string parameter. All other querystring paramaters (if there are any) should be left untouched. And I don't know in advance what they might be. Eg, imagine I want to build a link back to the current page, but with the querystring parameter "valueOfInterest" always set to be "wibble" (I'm doing this from the code-behind of an aspx page, .Net 3.5 in C# FWIW). Eg, a request for either of these two: /somepage.aspx /somepage.aspx?valueOfInterest=sausages would become: /somepage.aspx?valueOfInterest=wibble And most importantly (perhaps) a request for: /somepage.aspx?boring=something /somepage.aspx?boring=something&valueOfInterest=sausages would preserve the boring params to become: /somepage.aspx?boring=something&valueOfInterest=wibble Caveats: I'd like to avoid string manipulation if there's something more elegant in asp.net that is more robust. However if there isn't something more elegant, so be it. I've done (a little) homework: I found a blog post which suggested copying the request into a local HttpRequest object, but that still has a read-only collection for the querystring params. I've also had a look at using a URI object, but that doesn't seem to have a querystring

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• transfer database from local machine to hosting server

  - by c11ada

  hey all, im trying to transfer my database from local machine to server, im using the publish to provider wizard in visual web developer to generate a scrip, im then using the generated script on the serever database. i keep getting the following error can some one please tell where im going wrong Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles, Line 53 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles, Line 58 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles, Line 87 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles, Line 92 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 48 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 52 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 79 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 83 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 93 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 15151, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Cannot find the object 'aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles', because it does not exist or you do not have permission. Msg 15151, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Cannot find the object 'aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles', because it does not exist or you do not have permission. thanks

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• How does jquery display an image received from an ajax request?

  - by Gnee

  I have this working great, but I'd like a deeper understanding of what is actually going on behind the scenes. I am using Jquery's Ajax method to pull 5 blog posts (returning only the title and first photo). A PHP script grabs the blog posts' title and first photo and sticks it in an array and sends it back to my browser as JSON. Upon receiving the JSON object, Jquery grabs the first member of the JSON object and displays it's title and photo. In a gallery I made, using buttons – the user can iterate the 1-5 posts. So the actual AJAX call happens right away, and only once. I am basically using this kind of setup: $('my_div').html(json_obj[i]) and each click does a i++. So jquery is plucking these blog posts from my computers memory, my web browsers cache, or some kind of cache in the Javascript engine? One of the things it's returning is a pretty gnarly animated gif. I just wonder if it constantly running in the background (but not visible), stealing processing cycles...etc. Or Javascript just inserting (say a flash movie) into the DOM, but before hand does nothing but take up a little memory (no processing). Anyway, I'm just curious. If someone is a guru on this, I'd love to hear your take. Thanks!!

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• Raising C# events with an extension method - is it bad?

  - by Kyralessa

  We're all familiar with the horror that is C# event declaration. To ensure thread-safety, the standard is to write something like this: public event EventHandler SomethingHappened; protected virtual void OnSomethingHappened(EventArgs e) { var handler = SomethingHappened; if (handler != null) handler(this, e); } Recently in some other question on this board (which I can't find now), someone pointed out that extension methods could be used nicely in this scenario. Here's one way to do it: static public class EventExtensions { static public void RaiseEvent(this EventHandler @event, object sender, EventArgs e) { var handler = @event; if (handler != null) handler(sender, e); } static public void RaiseEvent<T>(this EventHandler<T> @event, object sender, T e) where T : EventArgs { var handler = @event; if (handler != null) handler(sender, e); } } With these extension methods in place, all you need to declare and raise an event is something like this: public event EventHandler SomethingHappened; void SomeMethod() { this.SomethingHappened.RaiseEvent(this, EventArgs.Empty); } My question: Is this a good idea? Are we missing anything by not having the standard On method? (One thing I notice is that it doesn't work with events that have explicit add/remove code.)

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• Quartz.Net scheduler works locally but not on remote host

  - by Glinkot

  Hi. I have a timed quartz.net job working fine on my dev machine, but once deployed to a remote server it is not triggering. I believe the job is scheduled ok, because if I postback, it tells me the job already exists (I normally check for postback however). The email code definitely works, as the 'button1_click' event sends emails successfully. I understand I have full or medium trust on the remove server. My host says they don't apply restrictions that they know of which would affect it. Any other things I need to do to get it running? using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using Quartz; using Quartz.Impl; using Quartz.Core; using Aspose.Network.Mail; using Aspose.Network; using Aspose.Network.Mime; using System.Text; namespace QuartzTestASP { public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!Page.IsPostBack) { ISchedulerFactory schedFact = new StdSchedulerFactory(); IScheduler sched = schedFact.GetScheduler(); JobDetail jobDetail = new JobDetail("testJob2", null, typeof(testJob)); //Trigger trigger = TriggerUtils.MakeMinutelyTrigger(1, 3); Trigger trigger = TriggerUtils.MakeSecondlyTrigger(10, 5); trigger.StartTimeUtc = DateTime.UtcNow; trigger.Name = "TriggertheTest"; sched.Start(); sched.ScheduleJob(jobDetail, trigger); } } protected void Button1_Click1(object sender, EventArgs e) { myutil.sendEmail(); } } class testJob : IStatefulJob { public testJob() { } public void Execute(JobExecutionContext context) { myutil.sendEmail(); } } public static class myutil { public static void sendEmail() { // tested code lives here and works fine when called from elsewhere } } }

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• Chord Chart - Skip to key with a click

  - by Juan Gonzales

  I have a chord chart app that basically can transpose a chord chart up and down throughout the keys, but now I would like to expand that app and allow someone to pick a key and automatically go to that key upon a click event using a function in javascript or jquery. Can someone help me figure this out? The logic seems simple enough, but I'm just not sure how to implement it. Here are my current functions that allow the user to transpose up and down... var match; var chords = ['C','C#','D','D#','E','F','F#','G','G#','A','A#','B','C','Db','D','Eb','E','F','Gb','G','Ab','A','Bb','B','C']; var chords2 = ['C','Db','D','Eb','E','F','Gb','G','Ab','A','Bb','B','C','C#','D','D#','E','F','F#','G','G#','A','A#','C']; var chordRegex = /(?:C#|D#|F#|G#|A#|Db|Eb|Gb|Ab|Bb|C|D|E|F|G|A|B)/g; function transposeUp(x) { $('.chord'+x).each(function(){ ///// initializes variables ///// var currentChord = $(this).text(); // gatheres each object var output = ""; var parts = currentChord.split(chordRegex); var index = 0; ///////////////////////////////// while (match = chordRegex.exec(currentChord)){ var chordIndex = chords2.indexOf(match[0]); output += parts[index++] + chords[chordIndex+1]; } output += parts[index]; $(this).text(output); }); } function transposeDown(x){ $('.chord'+x).each(function(){ var currentChord = $(this).text(); // gatheres each object var output = ""; var parts = currentChord.split(chordRegex); var index = 0; while (match = chordRegex.exec(currentChord)){ var chordIndex = chords2.indexOf(match[0],1); //var chordIndex = $.inArray(match[0], chords, -1); output += parts[index++] + chords2[chordIndex-1]; } output += parts[index]; $(this).text(output); }); } Any help is appreciated. Answer will be accepted! Thank You

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• Optimizing processing and management of large Java data arrays

  - by mikera

  I'm writing some pretty CPU-intensive, concurrent numerical code that will process large amounts of data stored in Java arrays (e.g. lots of double[100000]s). Some of the algorithms might run millions of times over several days so getting maximum steady-state performance is a high priority. In essence, each algorithm is a Java object that has an method API something like: public double[] runMyAlgorithm(double[] inputData); or alternatively a reference could be passed to the array to store the output data: public runMyAlgorithm(double[] inputData, double[] outputData); Given this requirement, I'm trying to determine the optimal strategy for allocating / managing array space. Frequently the algorithms will need large amounts of temporary storage space. They will also take large arrays as input and create large arrays as output. Among the options I am considering are: Always allocate new arrays as local variables whenever they are needed (e.g. new double[100000]). Probably the simplest approach, but will produce a lot of garbage. Pre-allocate temporary arrays and store them as final fields in the algorithm object - big downside would be that this would mean that only one thread could run the algorithm at any one time. Keep pre-allocated temporary arrays in ThreadLocal storage, so that a thread can use a fixed amount of temporary array space whenever it needs it. ThreadLocal would be required since multiple threads will be running the same algorithm simultaneously. Pass around lots of arrays as parameters (including the temporary arrays for the algorithm to use). Not good since it will make the algorithm API extremely ugly if the caller has to be responsible for providing temporary array space.... Allocate extremely large arrays (e.g. double[10000000]) but also provide the algorithm with offsets into the array so that different threads will use a different area of the array independently. Will obviously require some code to manage the offsets and allocation of the array ranges. Any thoughts on which approach would be best (and why)?

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• what kind of relationship is there between a common wall and the rooms that located next to it?

  - by siamak

  I want to know whats the Relationship between a common wall (that are located In an adjoining room ) and the rooms. As i know the relationship between a room and its walls is Composition not Aggregation (am i right ?) And according to the definition of Composition the contained object can't be shared between two containers, whereas in aggregation it is possible. now i am confused that whats the best modeling approach to represent the relationship between a common wall and the rooms located next to it ? It would be highly Appreciated if you could provide your advices with some code. |--------|--------| Approch1: (wall class ---- room class) /Composition Approach2: wall class ----- room class /Aggregation Approch3: we have a wall class and a Common wall class , Common wall class inherits from wall class adjoining room class ---- (1) Common wall class /Aggregation adjoining room class ---- (6) wall class / composition Approach4: I am a developer not a designer :) so this is my idea : class Room { private wall _firstwall ; private wall _secondtwall; private wall _thirdwall ; private wall _commonwall ; public Room( CommonWall commonwall) { _firstwall=new Wall(); _secondtwall=new Wall(); _thirdwall=new Wall(); _commonwall=commonwall; } } Class CommonWall:Wall { //... } // in somewher : static void main() { Wall _commonWall=new Wall(); Room room1=new Room(_commonWall); Room room2=new Room(_commonWall); Room [] adjacentRoom =new Room[2]{room1,room2}; } Edit 1: I think this is a clear question but just for more clarification : The point of the question is to find out whats the best pattern or approach to model a relationship for an object that is a component of two other objects in the same time. and about my example : waht i mean by a "room" ?,surely i mean an enclosed square room with 4 walls and one door.but in this case one of these walls is a common wall and is shared between two adjacent rooms.

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• Deleting objects with FK constraints in Spring/Hibernate

  - by maxdj

  This seems like such a simple scenario to me, yet I cannot for the life of my find a solution online or in print. I have several objects like so (trimmed down): @Entity public class Group extends BaseObject implements Identifiable<Long> { private Long id; private String name; private Set<HiringManager> managers = new HashSet<HiringManager>(); private List<JobOpening> jobs; @ManyToMany(fetch=FetchType.EAGER) @JoinTable( name="group_hiringManager", joinColumns=@JoinColumn(name="group_id"), inverseJoinColumns=@JoinColumn(name="hiringManager_id") ) public Set<HiringManager> getManagers() { return managers; } @OneToMany(mappedBy="group", fetch=FetchType.EAGER) public List<JobOpening> getJobs() { return jobs; } } @Entity public class JobOpening extends BaseObject implements Identifiable<Long> { private Long id; private String name; private Group group; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="group_id", updatable=false, nullable=true) public Group getGroup() { return group; } } @Entity public class HiringManager extends User { @ManyToMany(mappedBy="managers", fetch=FetchType.EAGER) public Set<Group> getGroups() { return groups; } } Say I want to delete a Group object. Now there are dependencies on it in the JobOpening table and in the group_hiringManager table, which cause the delete function to fail. I don't want to cascade the delete, because the managers have other groups, and the jobopenings can be groupless. I have tried overriding the remove() function of my GroupManager to remove the dependencies, but it seems like no matter what I do they persist, and the delete fails! What is the right way to remove this object?

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• How to get the Video-ID of a just uploaded Youtube movie

  - by murze

  Hi, how can i get the video-id of a just uploaded Youtube movie? I'm using this code: $yt = new Zend_Gdata_YouTube($httpClient); // create a new Zend_Gdata_YouTube_VideoEntry object $myVideoEntry = new Zend_Gdata_YouTube_VideoEntry(); // create a new Zend_Gdata_App_MediaFileSource object $filesource = $yt->newMediaFileSource('mytestmovie.mov'); $filesource->setContentType('video/quicktime'); // set slug header $filesource->setSlug('mytestmovie.mov'); // add the filesource to the video entry $myVideoEntry->setMediaSource($filesource); $myVideoEntry->setVideoTitle('My Test Movie'); $myVideoEntry->setVideoDescription('My Test Movie'); $myVideoEntry->setVideoCategory('Comedy'); // Note that category must be a valid YouTube category ! // set keywords, please note that this must be a comma separated string // and that each keyword cannot contain whitespace $myVideoEntry->setVideoTags('cars, funny'); // upload URI for the currently authenticated user $uploadUrl = 'http://uploads.gdata.youtube.com/feeds/api/users/default/uploads'; // try to upload the video, catching a Zend_Gdata_App_HttpException if available // or just a regular Zend_Gdata_App_Exception try { $newEntry = $yt->insertEntry($myVideoEntry, $uploadUrl, 'Zend_Gdata_YouTube_VideoEntry'); } catch (Zend_Gdata_App_HttpException $httpException) { echo $httpException->getRawResponseBody(); } catch (Zend_Gdata_App_Exception $e) { echo $e->getMessage(); } I assume it 'll be a property of $newEntry but i can't seem to find it! Thanks!

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• Qt/MFC Migration Framework tool: properly exiting DLL?

  - by User

  I'm using the Qt/MFC Migration Framework tool following this example: http://doc.qt.nokia.com/solutions/4/qtwinmigrate/winmigrate-qt-dll-example.html The dll I build is loaded by a 3rd party MFC-based application. The 3rd party app basically calls one of my exported DLL functions to startup my plugin and another function to shutdown my application. Currently I'm doing nothing in my shutdown function. When I load my DLL in the 3rd party app the startup function is called and my DLL starts successfully and I can see my message box. However if I shutdown my plugin and then try to start it again I get the following error: Debug Error! Program: <my 3rd party app> Module: 4.7.1 File: global\qglobal.cpp Line: 2262 ASSERT failure in QWidget: "Widgets must be created in the GUI thread.", file kernel\qwidget.cpp line 1233 (Press Retry to debug the application) Abort Retry Ignore This makes me think I'm not doing something to properly shutdown my plugin. What do I need to do to shut it down properly? UPDATE: http://doc.qt.nokia.com/solutions/4/qtwinmigrate/winmigrate-walkthrough.html says: The DLL also has to make sure that it can be loaded together with other Qt based DLLs in the same process (in which case a QApplication object will probably exist already), and that the DLL that creates the QApplication object remains loaded in memory to avoid other DLLs using memory that is no longer available to the process. So I wonder if there is some problem where I need to somehow keep the original DLL loaded no matter what?

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• Using Silverlight for Views in ASP.Net MVC - a bad idea?

  - by bplus

  I'm currently writing a small application for use internally at my office. I started out teaching myself some MVC (I've been a C# dev for 3 years). One of the main requirements is editable grids - I quickly realised that silverlight (i have zero silverlight experience) could be a big help in this. I've managed to create a proof of concept of getting MVC and silverlight to talk back an forth by combining these two techniques: Creating a Rest API using MVC MVC SilverLight I also got some help on stackoverflow: silverlight-grids-mvc-http-post Essentially all I'm doing is embedding a silver light object in a view. Serializing the Model data as JSON and passing it to silverlight(using intit params written into the response). The silverlight object can post data back to the controller as JSON. So far this seems like it could work quite well. However I am a bit concerned that I could be painting myself into a corner with this approach, as in I don't have much experience with either technology so I'm worried I'm going get hit with something further down the line that I won't be able to work around. Has anybody else tried doing this? Any advice would be much appreciated!

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• multi-threaded proxy checker having problems

  - by Paul

  hello everyone, I am trying to create a proxy checker. This is my first attempt at multithreading and it's not going so well, the threads seem to be waiting for one to complete before initializing the next. Imports System.Net Imports System.IO Imports System.Threading Public Class Form1 Public sFileName As String Public srFileReader As System.IO.StreamReader Public sInputLine As String Public Class WebCall Public proxy As String Public htmlout As String Public Sub New(ByVal proxy As String) Me.proxy = proxy End Sub Public Event ThreadComplete(ByVal htmlout As String) Public Sub send() Dim myWebRequest As HttpWebRequest = CType(WebRequest.Create("http://www.myserver.com/ip.php"), HttpWebRequest) myWebRequest.Proxy = New WebProxy(proxy, False) Try Dim myWebResponse As HttpWebResponse = CType(myWebRequest.GetResponse(), HttpWebResponse) Dim loResponseStream As StreamReader = New StreamReader(myWebResponse.GetResponseStream()) htmlout = loResponseStream.ReadToEnd() Debug.WriteLine("Finished - " & htmlout) RaiseEvent ThreadComplete(htmlout) Catch ex As WebException If (ex.Status = WebExceptionStatus.ConnectFailure) Then End If Debug.WriteLine("Failed - " & proxy) End Try End Sub End Class Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim proxy As String Dim webArray As New ArrayList() Dim n As Integer For n = 0 To 2 proxy = srFileReader.ReadLine() webArray.Add(New WebCall(proxy)) Next Dim w As WebCall For Each w In webArray Threading.ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(New WaitCallback(AddressOf w.send), w) Next w End Sub Private Sub Form1_Load(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles MyBase.Load srFileReader = System.IO.File.OpenText("proxies.txt") End Sub End Class

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• Understanding Java Wait and Notify methods

  - by Maddy

  Hello all: I have a following program: import java.util.concurrent.ExecutorService; import java.util.concurrent.Executors; public class SimpleWaitNotify implements Runnable { final static Object obj = new Object(); static boolean value = true; public synchronized void flag() { System.out.println("Before Wait"); try { obj.wait(); } catch (InterruptedException e) { System.out.println("Thread interrupted"); } System.out.println("After Being Notified"); } public synchronized void unflag() { System.out.println("Before Notify All"); obj.notifyAll(); System.out.println("After Notify All Method Call"); } public void run() { if (value) { flag(); } else { unflag(); } } public static void main(String[] args) throws InterruptedException { ExecutorService pool = Executors.newFixedThreadPool(4); SimpleWaitNotify sWait = new SimpleWaitNotify(); pool.execute(sWait); SimpleWaitNotify.value = false; SimpleWaitNotify sNotify = new SimpleWaitNotify(); pool.execute(sNotify); pool.shutdown(); } } When I wait on obj, I get the following exception Exception in thread "pool-1-thread-1" java.lang.IllegalMonitorStateException: current thread not owner for each of the two threads. But if I use SimpleWaitNotify's monitor then the program execution is suspended. In other words, I think it suspends current execution thread and in turn the executor. Any help towards understanding what's going on would be duly appreciated. This is an area1 where the theory and javadoc seem straightforward, and since there aren't many examples, conceptually left a big gap in me.

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• C# - Naming a value combined "getter/setter" method (WebForms & Binding)

  - by tyndall

  Looking for some help on some names for a project I'm currently working on. I don't have a compsci degree so I don't know what to call this. I have a method called TryToGetSetValue(Direction direction, object value, object valueOnFail) Then there would be a Direction enum public enum Direction { ModelToForm, FormToModel } Background This is a legacy ASP.NET application. The models, database, and mainframe are designed poorly. I can't put in MVP or MVC patterns yet (too much work). ASP.NET code is a ridiculous mess (partial pages, single-page design, 5x the normal amount of jQuery, everything is a jQuery UI dialog). I'm just trying to put in a bridge so then I can do more refactoring over the next year. I have ~200 fields that need to be set on a GET and written back on a POST. I trying not to x2 these 200 fields and have 400 lines of code to support. What would you call my method? enum? Is there so other form of binding that would be easy to use instead? I'm not a fan of the DetailsView or FormView built-ins of ASP.NET WebForms.

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• How to deal with "partial" dates (2010-00-00) from MySQL in Django?

  - by Etienne

  In one of my Django projects that use MySQL as the database, I need to have a date fields that accept also "partial" dates like only year (YYYY) and year and month (YYYY-MM) plus normal date (YYYY-MM-DD). The date field in MySQL can deal with that by accepting 00 for the month and the day. So 2010-00-00 is valid in MySQL and it represent 2010. Same thing for 2010-05-00 that represent May 2010. So I started to create a PartialDateField to support this feature. But I hit a wall because, by default, and Django use the default, MySQLdb, the python driver to MySQL, return a datetime.date object for a date field AND datetime.date() support only real date. So it's possible to modify the converter for the date field used by MySQLdb and return only a string in this format 'YYYY-MM-DD'. Unfortunately the converter use by MySQLdb is set at the connection level so it's use for all MySQL date fields. But Django DateField rely on the fact that the database return a datetime.date object, so if I change the converter to return a string, Django is not happy at all. Someone have an idea or advice to solve this problem? How to create a PartialDateField in Django ? EDIT Also I should add that I already thought of 2 solutions, create 3 integer fields for year, month and day (as mention by Alison R.) or use a varchar field to keep date as string in this format YYYY-MM-DD. But in both solutions, if I'm not wrong, I will loose the special properties of a date field like doing query of this kind on them: Get all entries after this date. I can probably re-implement this functionality on the client side but that will not be a valid solution in my case because the database can be query from other systems (mysql client, MS Access, etc.)

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• What's the standard convention for creating a new NSArray from an existing NSArray?

  - by Prairiedogg

  Let's say I have an NSArray of NSDictionaries that is 10 elements long. I want to create a second NSArray with the values for a single key on each dictionary. The best way I can figure to do this is: NSMutableArray *nameArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:[array count]]; for (NSDictionary *p in array) { [nameArray addObject:[p objectForKey:@"name"]]; } self.my_new_array = array; [array release]; [nameArray release]; } But in theory, I should be able to get away with not using a mutable array and using a counter in conjunction with [nameArray addObjectAtIndex:count], because the new list should be exactly as long as the old list. Please note that I am NOT trying to filter for a subset of the original array, but make a new array with exactly the same number of elements, just with values dredged up from the some arbitrary attribute of each element in the array. In python one could solve this problem like this: new_list = [p['name'] for p in old_list] or if you were a masochist, like this: new_list = map(lambda p: p['name'], old_list) Having to be slightly more explicit in objective-c makes me wonder if there is an accepted common way of handling these situations.

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• asp.net ajax + http module fails

  - by Sri Kumar

  Hi, I am trying my hands on asp.net+ajax+httpmodule. My Form <form id="LoginForm" runat="server"> <asp:ScriptManager ID="LoginScriptMgr" runat="server"></asp:ScriptManager> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="LoginPanel" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:Label ID="lblLoginHeader" Text="Login" runat="server"></asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="txtUserName" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:TextBox ID="txtPassword" runat="server" TextMode="Password"></asp:TextBox> <asp:Button ID="btnLogin" Text="Login" runat="server" OnClick="Login" /> <asp:Label ID="lblLoginStatus" runat="server" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </form> C# Code protected void Login(object sender, EventArgs e) { lblLoginStatus.Text = "Login Successful"; } Web.config <httpModules> <add name="TimeModule" type="MyWebPortal.App_Code.TimeModule,App_Code"/> </httpModules> HTTP Module public class TimeModule : IHttpModule { private HttpApplication oApps = null; public void Dispose() { } public void Init(System.Web.HttpApplication context) { oApps = context; context.PreSendRequestContent += new EventHandler (context_PreSendRequestContent); } void context_PreSendRequestContent(object sender, EventArgs e) { string message = "&lt;!-- This page is being processed at " + System.DateTime.Now.ToString() + " -->"; oApps.Context.Response.Output.Write(message); } } When i remove the TimeModule from Web.config my ajax works. If add the TimeModule then the label doesn't show the message "Login Successful". Removing the ajax panel and with httpmodule available the label shows the message. So, how ajax panel was related to httpmodules?

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• Access cost of dynamically created objects with dynamically allocated members

  - by user343547

  I'm building an application which will have dynamic allocated objects of type A each with a dynamically allocated member (v) similar to the below class class A { int a; int b; int* v; }; where: The memory for v will be allocated in the constructor. v will be allocated once when an object of type A is created and will never need to be resized. The size of v will vary across all instances of A. The application will potentially have a huge number of such objects and mostly need to stream a large number of these objects through the CPU but only need to perform very simple computations on the members variables. Could having v dynamically allocated could mean that an instance of A and its member v are not located together in memory? What tools and techniques can be used to test if this fragmentation is a performance bottleneck? If such fragmentation is a performance issue, are there any techniques that could allow A and v to allocated in a continuous region of memory? Or are there any techniques to aid memory access such as pre-fetching scheme? for example get an object of type A operate on the other member variables whilst pre-fetching v. If the size of v or an acceptable maximum size could be known at compile time would replacing v with a fixed sized array like int v[max_length] lead to better performance? The target platforms are standard desktop machines with x86/AMD64 processors, Windows or Linux OSes and compiled using either GCC or MSVC compilers.

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• Why overload true and false instead of defining bool operator?

  - by Joe Enos

  I've been reading about overloading true and false in C#, and I think I understand the basic difference between this and defining a bool operator. The example I see around is something like: public static bool operator true(Foo foo) { return (foo.PropA > 0); } public static bool operator false(Foo foo) { return (foo.PropA <= 0); } To me, this is the same as saying: public static implicit operator bool(Foo foo) { return (foo.PropA > 0); } The difference, as far as I can tell, is that by defining true and false separately, you can have an object that is both true and false, or neither true nor false: public static bool operator true(Foo foo) { return true; } public static bool operator false(Foo foo) { return true; } //or public static bool operator true(Foo foo) { return false; } public static bool operator false(Foo foo) { return false; } I'm sure there's a reason this is allowed, but I just can't think of what it is. To me, if you want an object to be able to be converted to true or false, a single bool operator makes the most sense. Can anyone give me a scenario where it makes sense to do it the other way? Thanks

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• C# reference collection for storing reference types

  - by ivo s

  I like to implement a collection (something like List<T>) which would hold all my objects that I have created in the entire life span of my application as if its an array of pointers in C++. The idea is that when my process starts I can use a central factory to create all objects and then periodically validate/invalidate their state. Basically I want to make sure that my process only deals with valid instances and I don't re-fetch information I already fetched from the database. So all my objects will basically be in one place - my collection. A cool thing I can do with this is avoid database calls to get data from the database if I already got it (even if I updated it after retrieval its still up-to-date if of course some other process didn't update it but that a different concern). I don't want to be calling new Customer("James Thomas"); again if I initted James Thomas already sometime in the past. Currently I will end up with multiple copies of the same object across the appdomain - some out of sync other in sync and even though I deal with this using timestamp field on the MSSQL server I'd like to keep only one copy per customer in my appdomain (if possible process would be better). I can't use regular collections like List or ArrayList for example because I cannot pass parameters by their real local reference to the their existing Add() methods where I'm creating them using ref so that's not to good I think. So how can this be implemented/can it be implemented at all ? A 'linked list' type of class with all methods working with ref & out params is what I'm thinking now but it may get ugly pretty quickly. Is there another way to implement such collection like RefList<T>.Add(ref T obj)? So bottom line is: I don't want re-create an object if I've already created it before during the entire application life unless I decide to re-create it explicitly (maybe its out-of-date or something so I have to fetch it again from the db). Is there alternatives maybe ?

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• Unexplained crashs with coregraphic

  - by Ziggy

  Hello there, i'm on this bug for a week now, and i can't solve it. I have some crash with coregraphic calls, it happen randomly (sometimes after 2 mn, or just at the start), but often at the same places in the code. I have a class that just wrap a CGContext, it have a CGContextRef as member. This Object is re-created each time DrawRect() is called, so the CGContextRef is always up-to-date. The draw calls came from the main thread, only After looking for this kind of error, it appear that it should be object Release related. Here is an example of an error : #0 0x90d8a7a7 in ___forwarding___ #1 0x90d8a8b2 in __forwarding_prep_0___ #2 0x90d0d0b6 in CFRetain #3 0x95e54a5d in CGColorRetain #4 0x95e5491d in CGGStateCreateCopy #5 0x95e5486d in CGGStackSave #6 0x95e54846 in CGContextSaveGState #7 0x00073500 in CAutoContextState::CAutoContextState at Context.cpp:47 the AutoContextSave() class look like this : class CAutoContextState { private: CGContextRef m_Hdc; public: CAutoContextState(const CGContextRef& Hdc) { m_Hdc = Hdc; CGContextSaveGState(m_Hdc); } virtual ~CAutoContextState() { CGContextRestoreGState(m_Hdc); } }; It crash at CGContextSaveGState(m_Hdc). Here is what i see into GDB: * -[Not A Type retain]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x16a148b0. When i type malloc-history on the address, i have this : 0: 0x954cf10c in malloc_zone_malloc 1: 0x90d0d201 in _CFRuntimeCreateInstance 2: 0x95e3fe88 in CGTypeCreateInstanceWithAllocator 3: 0x95e44297 in CGTypeCreateInstance 4: 0x95e58f57 in CGColorCreate 5: 0x71fdd in _ZN4Flux4Draw8CContext10DrawStringERKNS_7CStringEPKNS0_5CFontEPKNS0_6CBrushERKNS_5CRectENS0_12tagAlignmentESE_NS0_17tagStringTrimmingEfiPKf at /Volumes/Sources Mac/Flux/Sources/DotFlux/Projects/../Draw/CoreGraphic/Context.cpp:1029 Which point me at this line of code : f32 components[] = {pSolidBrush->GetColor().GetfRed(), pSolidBrush->GetColor().GetfGreen(), pSolidBrush->GetColor().GetfBlue(), pSolidBrush->GetColor().GetfAlpha()}; //{ 1.0, 0.0, 0.0, 0.8 }; CGColorRef TextColor = CGColorCreate(rgbColorSpace, components); Point this func : CGColorCreate(); Any help would be appreciated, i need to finish this task very soon, but i don't know how to resolve this :( Thanks.

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