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• Which mobile operating system should I code for?

  - by samgoody

  It seems as though mobile computing has fully arrived. I would like to rewrite two of our programs for mobile devices, but am a bit lost as to which platform to target. Complicating this decision: I would need to learn the relevant languages and IDEs - my coding to date has been almost all web based (PHP, JS, Actionscript, etc. Some ASPX). Most users seem to be religious about their mobile decision, so oral conversations leave me more confused then enlightened. I do not yet own a smartphone - will have to buy one once I know which platform to be aiming for. Both of my programs are more for business users, (one is only useful for C.P.A.s). I am a single developer, and cannot develop for more than one platform at a time. Getting it right is important. Based on what I've found on the web, I would've expected RIM to be a shoo-in, and the general order to be as follows: RIM Blackberry - More of them than any other brand. Despite naysayers, they've had double the sales (or perhaps 5X the sales) of any other smartphone, and have continued to grow. And, they have business users. Android - According to Schmidt, they have outsold everyone else except RIM (though I can't find where I read that now), and they are just getting started. According to Comscore, they are already at 8% of the market and expected to hit Shcmidt's claims within six months. Nokia - The largest worldwide. If they would just make up between Maemo or Symbian, I would be far less confused. iPhone - Much more competition by other apps, fewer sales to be had, and a overlord that can delay or cancel my app at any time. Is Cocoa hard to learn? Windows Mobile - Word is that version 7 will not be backwards compatible and losing market share. Palm WebOS - Perhaps this should go first, as it is the only one that offers tools to make my life easy as a web application developer. No competition in marketplace. But not very many users either. However, a search on StackOverflow shows a hugely disproportionate number of iPhone questions versus Blackberry. Likewise, there are clearly more apps on iPhone, so it must be getting developer love. What is the one platform I should develop for? Please back up your answer with the logic.

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• How do gitignore exclusion rules actually work?

  - by meowsqueak

  I'm trying to solve a gitignore problem on a large directory structure, but to simplify my question I have reduced it to the following. I have the following directory structure of two files (foo, bar) in a brand new git repository (no commits so far): a/b/c/foo a/b/c/bar Obviously, a 'git status -u' shows: # Untracked files: ... # a/b/c/bar # a/b/c/foo What I want to do is create a .gitignore file that ignores everything inside a/b/c but does not ignore the file 'foo'. If I create a .gitignore thus: c/ Then a 'git status -u' shows both foo and bar as ignored: # Untracked files: ... # .gitignore Which is as I expect. Now if I add an exclusion rule for foo, thus: c/ !foo According to the gitignore manpage, I'd expect this to to work. But it doesn't - it still ignores foo: # Untracked files: ... # .gitignore This doesn't work either: c/ !a/b/c/foo Neither does this: c/* !foo Gives: # Untracked files: ... # .gitignore # a/b/c/bar # a/b/c/foo In that case, although foo is no longer ignored, bar is also not ignored. The order of the rules in .gitignore doesn't seem to matter either. This also doesn't do what I'd expect: a/b/c/ !a/b/c/foo That one ignores both foo and bar. One situation that does work is if I create the file a/b/c/.gitignore and put in there: * !foo But the problem with this is that eventually there will be other subdirectories under a/b/c and I don't want to have to put a separate .gitignore into every single one - I was hoping to create 'project-based' .gitignore files that can sit in the top directory of each project, and cover all the 'standard' subdirectory structure. This also seems to be equivalent: a/b/c/* !a/b/c/foo This might be the closest thing to "working" that I can achieve, but the full relative paths and explicit exceptions need to be stated, which is going to be a pain if I have a lot of files of name 'foo' in different levels of the subdirectory tree. Anyway, either I don't quite understand how exclusion rules work, or they don't work at all when directories (rather than wildcards) are ignored - by a rule ending in a / Can anyone please shed some light on this? Is there a way to make gitignore use something sensible like regular expressions instead of this clumsy shell-based syntax? I'm using and observe this with git-1.6.6.1 on Cygwin/bash3 and git-1.7.1 on Ubuntu/bash3.

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• How to merge a "branch" that isn't really a branch (wasn't created by an svn copy)

  - by MatrixFrog

  I'm working on a team with lots of people who are pretty unfamiliar with the concepts of version control systems, and are just kind of doing whatever seems to work, by trial and error. Someone created a "branch" from the trunk that is not ancestrally related to the trunk. My guess is it went something like this: They created a folder in branches. They checked out all the code from the trunk to somewhere on their desktop. They added all that code to the newly created folder as though it was a bunch of brand new files. So the repository isn't aware that all that code is actually just a copy of the trunk. When I look at the history of that branch in TortoiseSVN, and uncheck the "Stop on copy/rename" box, there is no revision that has the trunk (or any other path) under the "Copy from path" column. Then they made lots of changes on their "branch". Meanwhile, others were making lots of changes on the trunk. We tried to do a merge and of course it doesn't work. Because, the trunk and the fake branch are not ancestrally related. I can see only two ways to resolve this: Go through the logs on the "branch", look at every change that was made, and manually apply each change to the trunk. Go through the logs on the trunk, look at every change that was made between revision 540 (when the "branch" was created) and HEAD, and manually apply each change to the "branch". This involves 7 revisions one way or 11 revisions the other way, so neither one is really that terrible. But is there any way to cause the repository to "realize" that the branch really IS ancestrally related even though it was created incorrectly, so that we can take advantage of the built-in merging functionality in Eclipse/TortoiseSVN? (You may be wondering: Why did your company hire these people and allow them to access the SVN repository without making sure they knew how to use it properly first?! We didn't -- this is a school assignment, which is a collaboration between two different classes -- the ones in the lower class were given a very quick hand-wavey "overview" of SVN which didn't really teach them anything. I've asked everyone in the group to please PLEASE read the svn book, and I'll make sure we (the slightly more experienced half of the team) keep a close eye on the repository to ensure this doesn't happen again.)

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• How to merge an improperly created "branch" that isn't really a branch (wasn't created by an svn cop

  - by MatrixFrog

  I'm working on a team with lots of people who are pretty unfamiliar with the concepts of version control systems, and are just kind of doing whatever seems to work, by trial and error. Someone created a "branch" from the trunk that is not ancestrally related to the trunk. My guess is it went something like this: They created a folder in branches. They checked out all the code from the trunk to somewhere on their desktop. They added all that code to the newly created folder as though it was a bunch of brand new files. So the repository isn't aware that all that code is actually just a copy of the trunk. When I look at the history of that branch in TortoiseSVN, and uncheck the "Stop on copy/rename" box, there is no revision that has the trunk (or any other path) under the "Copy from path" column. Then they made lots of changes on their "branch". Meanwhile, others were making lots of changes on the trunk. We tried to do a merge and of course it doesn't work. Because, the trunk and the fake branch are not ancestrally related. I can see only two ways to resolve this: Go through the logs on the "branch", look at every change that was made, and manually apply each change to the trunk. Go through the logs on the trunk, look at every change that was made between revision 540 (when the "branch" was created) and HEAD, and manually apply each change to the "branch". This involves 7 revisions one way or 11 revisions the other way, so neither one is really that terrible. But is there any way to cause the repository to "realize" that the branch really IS ancestrally related even though it was created incorrectly, so that we can take advantage of the built-in merging functionality in Eclipse/TortoiseSVN? (You may be wondering: Why did your company hire these people and allow them to access the SVN repository without making sure they knew how to use it properly first?! We didn't -- this is a school assignment, which is a collaboration between two different classes -- the ones in the lower class were given a very quick hand-wavey "overview" of SVN which didn't really teach them anything. I've asked everyone in the group to please PLEASE read the svn book, and I'll make sure we (the slightly more experienced half of the team) keep a close eye on the repository to ensure this doesn't happen again.)

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• Python/Biophysics- Trying to code a simple stochastic simulation!

  - by user359597

  Hey guys- I'm trying to figure out what to make of the following code- this is not the clear, intuitive python I've been learning. Was it written in C or something then wrapped in a python fxn? The code I wrote (not shown) is using the same math, but I couldn't figure out how to write a conditional loop. If anyone could explain/decipher/clean this up, I'd be really appreciative. I mean- is this 'good' python- or does it look funky? I'm brand new to this- but it's like the order of the fxns is messed up? I understand Gillespie's- I've successfully coded several simpler simulations. So in a nutshell- good code-(pythonic)? order? c? improvements? am i being an idiot? The code shown is the 'answer,' to the following question from a biophysics text (petri-net not shown and honestly not necessary to understand problem): "In a programming language of your choice, implement Gillespie’s First Reaction Algorithm to study the temporal behaviour of the reaction A---B in which the transition from A to B can only take place if another compound, C, is present, and where C dynamically interconverts with D, as modelled in the Petri-net below. Assume that there are 100 molecules of A, 1 of C, and no B or D present at the start of the reaction. Set kAB to 0.1 s-1 and both kCD and kDC to 1.0 s-1. Simulate the behaviour of the system over 100 s." def sim(): # Set the rate constants for all transitions kAB = 0.1 kCD = 1.0 kDC = 1.0 # Set up the initial state A = 100 B = 0 C = 1 D = 0 # Set the start and end times t = 0.0 tEnd = 100.0 print "Time\t", "Transition\t", "A\t", "B\t", "C\t", "D" # Compute the first interval transition, interval = transitionData(A, B, C, D, kAB, kCD, kDC) # Loop until the end time is exceded or no transition can fire any more while t <= tEnd and transition >= 0: print t, '\t', transition, '\t', A, '\t', B, '\t', C, '\t', D t += interval if transition == 0: A -= 1 B += 1 if transition == 1: C -= 1 D += 1 if transition == 2: C += 1 D -= 1 transition, interval = transitionData(A, B, C, D, kAB, kCD, kDC) def transitionData(A, B, C, D, kAB, kCD, kDC): """ Returns nTransition, the number of the firing transition (0: A->B, 1: C->D, 2: D->C), and interval, the interval between the time of the previous transition and that of the current one. """ RAB = kAB * A * C RCD = kCD * C RDC = kDC * D dt = [-1.0, -1.0, -1.0] if RAB > 0.0: dt[0] = -math.log(1.0 - random.random())/RAB if RCD > 0.0: dt[1] = -math.log(1.0 - random.random())/RCD if RDC > 0.0: dt[2] = -math.log(1.0 - random.random())/RDC interval = 1e36 transition = -1 for n in range(len(dt)): if dt[n] > 0.0 and dt[n] < interval: interval = dt[n] transition = n return transition, interval if __name__ == '__main__': sim()

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• No exception, no error, still i dont recieve the json object from my http post

  - by user2978538

  My source code: final Thread t = new Thread() { public void run() { Looper.prepare(); HttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpConnectionParams.setConnectionTimeout(client.getParams(), 10000); HttpResponse response; JSONObject obj = new JSONObject(); try { HttpPost post = new HttpPost("http://pc.dyndns-office.com/mobile.asp"); obj.put("Model", ReadIn1); obj.put("Product", ReadIn2); obj.put("Manufacturer", ReadIn3); obj.put("RELEASE", ReadIn4); obj.put("SERIAL", ReadIn5); obj.put("ID", ReadIn6); obj.put("ANDROID_ID", ReadIn7); obj.put("Language", ReadIn8); obj.put("BOARD", ReadIn9); obj.put("BOOTLOADER", ReadIn10); obj.put("BRAND", ReadIn11); obj.put("CPU_API", ReadIn12); obj.put("DISPLAY", ReadIn13); obj.put("FINGERPRINT", ReadIn14); obj.put("HARDWARE", ReadIn15); obj.put("UUID", ReadIn16); StringEntity se = new StringEntity(obj.toString()); se.setContentType(new BasicHeader(HTTP.CONTENT_TYPE, "application/json")); post.setEntity(se); post.setHeader("host", "http://pc.dyndns-office.com/mobile.asp"); response = client.execute(post); if (response != null) { InputStream in = response.getEntity().getContent(); } } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } Looper.loop(); } }; t.start(); } } i want to send an Json object to a Website. As far as I can see, I set the header, but still I get this exception, can someone help me? (I'm using Android-Studio) __ Edit: i don't get any exceptions anymore, but still i do not receive the json packet. When i manually call the website i get a log file entry. Does anyone know, what's wrong? Edit2: When i debug i get as response "HTTP/1.1 400 bad request" i'm sure its not an permission problem. Any ideas?

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• When I really need to use [NSThread sleepForTimeInterval:1];

  - by Timbo

  Hi there, I have a program that needs to use sleep. Like really needs to. In lieu of spending ages explaining why, suffice to say that it needs it. Now I'm told to split off my code into a separate thread if it requires sleep so I don't lose interface responsiveness, so I've started learning how to use NSThread. I've created a brand new program that is conceptual so to solve the issue for this example will help me in my real program. Short story is I have a class, it has instance variables and I need a loop with a sleep to be depended on the value of that instance variable. Here's what I've put together anyway, your help is very much appreciated :) Cheers Tim /// Start Test1ViewController.h /// #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface Test1ViewController : UIViewController { UILabel* label; } @property (assign) IBOutlet UILabel *label; @end /// End Test1ViewController.h /// /// Start Test1ViewController.m /// #import "Test1ViewController.h" #import "MyClass.h" @implementation Test1ViewController @synthesize label; - (void)viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewDidAppear:animated]; label.text = @"1"; [NSThread detachNewThreadSelector:@selector(backgroundProcess) toTarget:self withObject:nil]; } - (void)backgroundProcess { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; // Create an instance of a class that will eventually store a whole load of variables MyClass *aMyClassInstance = [MyClass new]; [aMyClassInstance createMyClassInstance:(@"Timbo")]; while (aMyClassInstance.myVariable--) { NSLog(@"blah = %i",aMyClassInstance.myVariable); label.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"blah = %d", aMyClassInstance.myVariable]; //how do I pass the new value out to the updateLabel method, or reference aMyClassInstance.myVariable? [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(updateLabel) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:NO]; //the sleeping of the thread is absolutely mandatory and must be worked around. The whole point of using NSThread is so I can have sleeps [NSThread sleepForTimeInterval:1]; } [pool release]; } - (void)updateLabel {label.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"blah = %d", aMyClassInstance.myVariable]; // be nice if i could } - (void)didReceiveMemoryWarning {[super didReceiveMemoryWarning];} - (void)viewDidUnload {} - (void)dealloc {[super dealloc];} @end /// End Test1ViewController.m /// /// Start MyClass.h /// #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @interface MyClass : NSObject { NSString* name; int myVariable; } @property int myVariable; @property (assign) NSString *name; - (void) createMyClassInstance: (NSString*)withName; - (int) changeVariable: (int)toAmount; @end /// End MyClass.h /// /// Start MyClass.h /// #import "MyClass.h" @implementation MyClass @synthesize name, myVariable; - (void) createMyClassInstance: (NSString*)withName{ name = withName; myVariable = 10; } - (int) changeVariable: (int)toAmount{ myVariable = toAmount; return toAmount; } @end /// End MyClass.h ///

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• Inserting newlines into a GtkTextView widget (GTK+ programming)

  - by Mark Roberts

  I've got a button which when clicked copies and appends the text from a GtkEntry widget into a GtkTextView widget. (This code is a modified version of an example found in the "The Text View Widget" chapter of Foundations of GTK+ Development.) I'm looking to insert a newline character before the text which gets copied and appended, such that each line of text will be on its own line in the GtkTextView widget. How would I do this? I'm brand new to GTK+. Here's the code sample: #include <gtk/gtk.h> typedef struct { GtkWidget *entry, *textview; } Widgets; static void insert_text (GtkButton*, Widgets*); int main (int argc, char *argv[]) { GtkWidget *window, *scrolled_win, *hbox, *vbox, *insert; Widgets *w = g_slice_new (Widgets); gtk_init (&argc, &argv); window = gtk_window_new (GTK_WINDOW_TOPLEVEL); gtk_window_set_title (GTK_WINDOW (window), "Text Iterators"); gtk_container_set_border_width (GTK_CONTAINER (window), 10); gtk_widget_set_size_request (window, -1, 200); w->textview = gtk_text_view_new (); w->entry = gtk_entry_new (); insert = gtk_button_new_with_label ("Insert Text"); g_signal_connect (G_OBJECT (insert), "clicked", G_CALLBACK (insert_text), (gpointer) w); scrolled_win = gtk_scrolled_window_new (NULL, NULL); gtk_container_add (GTK_CONTAINER (scrolled_win), w->textview); hbox = gtk_hbox_new (FALSE, 5); gtk_box_pack_start_defaults (GTK_BOX (hbox), w->entry); gtk_box_pack_start_defaults (GTK_BOX (hbox), insert); vbox = gtk_vbox_new (FALSE, 5); gtk_box_pack_start (GTK_BOX (vbox), scrolled_win, TRUE, TRUE, 0); gtk_box_pack_start (GTK_BOX (vbox), hbox, FALSE, TRUE, 0); gtk_container_add (GTK_CONTAINER (window), vbox); gtk_widget_show_all (window); gtk_main(); return 0; } /* Insert the text from the GtkEntry into the GtkTextView. */ static void insert_text (GtkButton *button, Widgets *w) { GtkTextBuffer *buffer; GtkTextMark *mark; GtkTextIter iter; const gchar *text; buffer = gtk_text_view_get_buffer (GTK_TEXT_VIEW (w->textview)); text = gtk_entry_get_text (GTK_ENTRY (w->entry)); mark = gtk_text_buffer_get_insert (buffer); gtk_text_buffer_get_iter_at_mark (buffer, &iter, mark); gtk_text_buffer_insert (buffer, &iter, text, -1); } You can compile this command (assuming the file is named file.c): gcc file.c -o file `pkg-config --cflags --libs gtk+-2.0` Thanks everybody!

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• Entity Framework looking for wrong column

  - by m.edmondson

  I'm brand new to the Entity Framework and trying to learn all it can offer. I'm currently working my way through the MVC Music Store tutorial which includes the following code: public ActionResult Browse(string genre) { // Retrieve Genre and its Associated Albums from database var genreModel = storeDB.Genres.Include("Albums") .Single(g => g.Name == genre); return View(genreModel); } as I'm working in VB I converted it like so: Function Browse(ByVal genre As String) As ActionResult 'Retrieve Genre and its Associated Albums from database Dim genreModel = storeDB.Genres.Include("Albums"). _ Single(Function(g) g.Name = genre) Return(View(genreModel)) End Function The problem is I'm getting the following exception: Invalid column name 'GenreGenreId'. Which I know is true, but I can't for the life of my work out where it's getting 'GenreGenreId' from. Probably a basic question but I'll appreciate any help in the right direction. As per requested here is the source for my classes: Album.vb Public Class Album Private _title As String Private _genre As Genre Private _AlbumId As Int32 Private _GenreId As Int32 Private _ArtistId As Int32 Private _Price As Decimal Private _AlbumArtUrl As String Public Property Title As String Get Return _title End Get Set(ByVal value As String) _title = value End Set End Property Public Property AlbumId As Int16 Get Return _AlbumId End Get Set(ByVal value As Int16) _AlbumId = value End Set End Property Public Property GenreId As Int16 Get Return _GenreId End Get Set(ByVal value As Int16) _GenreId = value End Set End Property Public Property ArtistId As Int16 Get Return _ArtistId End Get Set(ByVal value As Int16) _ArtistId = value End Set End Property Public Property AlbumArtUrl As String Get Return _AlbumArtUrl End Get Set(ByVal value As String) _AlbumArtUrl = value End Set End Property Public Property Price As Decimal Get Return _Price End Get Set(ByVal value As Decimal) _Price = value End Set End Property Public Property Genre As Genre Get Return _genre End Get Set(ByVal value As Genre) _genre = value End Set End Property End Class Genre.vb Public Class Genre Dim _genreId As Int32 Dim _Name As String Dim _Description As String Dim _Albums As List(Of Album) Public Property GenreId As Int32 Get Return _genreId End Get Set(ByVal value As Int32) _genreId = value End Set End Property Public Property Name As String Get Return _Name End Get Set(ByVal value As String) _Name = value End Set End Property Public Property Description As String Get Return _Description End Get Set(ByVal value As String) _Description = value End Set End Property Public Property Albums As List(Of Album) Get Return _Albums End Get Set(ByVal value As List(Of Album)) _Albums = value End Set End Property End Class MusicStoreEntities.vb Imports System.Data.Entity Namespace MvcApplication1 Public Class MusicStoreEntities Inherits DbContext Public Property Albums As DbSet(Of Album) Public Property Genres As DbSet(Of Genre) End Class End Namespace

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• Symfony2 Entity to array

  - by Adriano Pedro

  I'm trying to migrate my flat php project to Symfony2, but its coming to be very hard. For instance, I have a table of Products specification that have several specifications and are distinguishables by its "cat" attribute in that Extraspecs DB table. Therefore I've created a Entity for that table and want to make an array of just the specifications with "cat" = 0... I supose the code is this one.. right? $typeavailable = $this->getDoctrine() ->getRepository('LabsCatalogBundle:ProductExtraspecsSpecs') ->findBy(array('cat' => '0')); Now how can i put this in an array to work with a form like this?: form = $this ->createFormBuilder($product) ->add('specs', 'choice', array('choices' => $typeavailableArray), 'multiple' => true) Thank you in advance :) # Thank you all.. But now I've came across with another problem.. In fact i'm building a form from an existing object: $form = $this ->createFormBuilder($product) ->add('name', 'text') ->add('genspec', 'choice', array('choices' => array('0' => 'None', '1' => 'General', '2' => 'Specific'))) ->add('isReg', 'choice', array('choices' => array('0' => 'Material', '1' => 'Reagent', '2' => 'Antibody', '3' => 'Growth Factors', '4' => 'Rodents', '5' => 'Lagomorphs'))) So.. in that case my current value is named "extraspecs", so i've added this like: ->add('extraspecs', 'entity', array( 'label' => 'desc', 'empty_value' => ' --- ', 'class' => 'LabsCatalogBundle:ProductExtraspecsSpecs', 'property' => 'specsid', 'query_builder' => function(EntityRepository $er) { return $er ->createQueryBuilder('e'); But "extraspecs" come from a relationship of oneToMany where every product has several extraspecs... Here is the ORM: Labs\CatalogBundle\Entity\Product: type: entity table: orders__regmat id: id: type: integer generator: { strategy: AUTO } fields: name: type: string length: 100 catnumber: type: string scale: 100 brand: type: integer scale: 10 company: type: integer scale: 10 size: type: decimal scale: 10 units: type: integer scale: 10 price: type: decimal scale: 10 reqcert: type: integer scale: 1 isReg: type: integer scale: 1 genspec: type: integer scale: 1 oneToMany: extraspecs: targetEntity: ProductExtraspecs mappedBy: product Labs\CatalogBundle\Entity\ProductExtraspecs: type: entity table: orders__regmat__extraspecs fields: extraspecid: id: true type: integer unsigned: false nullable: false generator: strategy: IDENTITY regmatid: type: integer scale: 11 spec: type: integer scale: 11 attrib: type: string length: 20 value: type: string length: 200 lifecycleCallbacks: { } manyToOne: product: targetEntity: Product inversedBy: extraspecs joinColumn: name: regmatid referencedColumnName: id HOw should I do this? Thank you!!!

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• How to get joomla sections to display only on certain pages?

  - by thatryan

  I am brand new to joomla, and am trying to have a few sections, such as a feature slider, show up only on homepage, and some other stuff show only on internal pages. I thought I was on the right track with this code, but does not work correctly. What is the best way to do this? Thank you. <div id="wrapper"> <!--====================HOME PAGE ONLY========================--> <?php if(JRequest::getVar('view') == "frontpage" ) : ?> <div id="feature_slides" class="featuredbox-wrapper"><!--Featured Content Slider--> <jdoc:include type="modules" name="feature_slides" /> </div><!-- end #feature_slides --> <?php endif; ?> <!--====================END HOME PAGE ONLY========================--> <div id="main_content"> <!--====================INTERNAL PAGE ONLY========================--> <?php if(!JRequest::getVar('view') == "frontpage" ) : ?> <h2 class="page_name">I Am An Internal Page</h2> <h4 class="breadcrumbs">Breadcrumbs</h4> <?php endif; ?> <!--====================END INTERNAL PAGE ONLY========================--> <!--====================HOME PAGE ONLY========================--> <?php if(JRequest::getVar('view') == "frontpage" ) : ?> <div id="intro"> <jdoc:include type="modules" name="home_intro" /> </div><!-- end #intro --> <?php endif; ?> <!--====================END HOME PAGE ONLY========================--> <div id="main_area" class="clearfix"> <jdoc:include type="component" /> </div><!-- end #main_area --> <div id="certifications"> <jdoc:include type="modules" name="certifications" /> </div><!-- end #certifications --> </div><!-- end main_content --> <div id="right_sidebar"> <jdoc:include type="modules" name="right_sidebar" /> </div><!-- end #right_sidebar --> <div class="separator"></div><!-- end .separator --> </div><!-- end wrapper -->

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• boostrap 3.1.1 navbar - toggle button does not appear on page

  - by PST

  I am trying to use bootstrap nav bar with toggle functionality. With sample code as below, my page is not showing toggle button on the header bar. NavHeader (NavBarMenuCaption) and 1st menu item appears on the same line. Bootply link http://www.bootply.com/123050# what could be wrong in below code? <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <title>Bootstap menu demo</title> <link rel="stylesheet" href="vendor/bootstrap-3.1.1-dist/css/bootstrap.min.css"> </head> <body> <h2>This is bootstap navbar demo</h2> <nav class="navbar navbar-default"> <div class="navbar-header"> <button type="button" class="navbar-toggle" data-toggle="collapse" data-target="#example-navbar-collapse"> <span class="sr-only">Toggle navigation</span> <span class="icon-bar">-</span> <span class="icon-bar">-</span> <span class="icon-bar">-</span> </button> <a class="navbar-brand" href="#">NavBarMenuCaption</a> </div> <div class="navbar-collapse collapse" id="example-navbar-collapse"> <ul class="nav nav-pills nav-stacked"> <li ><a href="#">Home</a></li> <li class="active"><a href="#">About</a></li> <li><a href="#">Products</a></li> <li><a href="#">Contact</a></li> </ul> </div> </nav> <script type="text/javascript" src="vendor/jquery-2.1.0/jquery-2.1.0.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="vendor/bootstrap-3.1.1-dist/js/bootstrap.min.js"></script> </body>

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• How to setup Lucene/Solr for a B2B web app?

  - by Bill Paetzke

  Given: 1 database per client (business customer) 5000 clients Clients have between 2 to 2000 users (avg is ~100 users/client) 100k to 10 million records per database Users need to search those records often (it's the best way to navigate their data) Possibly relevant info: Several new clients each week (any time during business hours) Multiple web servers and database servers (users can login via any web server) Let's stay agnostic of language or sql brand, since Lucene (and Solr) have a breadth of support For Example: Joel Spolsky said in Podcast #11 that his hosted web app product, FogBugz On-Demand, uses Lucene. He has thousands of on-demand clients. And each client gets their own database. They use an index per client and store it in the client's database. I'm not sure on the details. And I'm not sure if this is a serious mod to Lucene. The Question: How would you setup Lucene search so that each client can only search within its database? How would you setup the index(es)? Where do you store the index(es)? Would you need to add a filter to all search queries? If a client cancelled, how would you delete their (part of the) index? (this may be trivial--not sure yet) Possible Solutions: Make an index for each client (database) Pro: Search is faster (than one-index-for-all method). Indices are relative to the size of the client's data. Con: I'm not sure what this entails, nor do I know if this is beyond Lucene's scope. Have a single, gigantic index with a database_name field. Always include database_name as a filter. Pro: Not sure. Maybe good for tech support or billing dept to search all databases for info. Con: Search is slower (than index-per-client method). Flawed security if query filter removed. One last thing: I would also accept an answer that uses Solr (the extension of Lucene). Perhaps it's better suited for this problem. Not sure.

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• In Javascript, a function starts a new scope, but we have to be careful that the function must be in

  - by Jian Lin

  In Javascript, I am sometimes too immerged in the idea that a function creates a new scope, that sometimes I even think the following anonymous function will create a new scope when it is being defined and assigned to onclick: <a href="#" id="link1">ha link 1</a> <a href="#" id="link2">ha link 2</a> <a href="#" id="link3">ha link 3</a> <a href="#" id="link4">ha link 4</a> <a href="#" id="link5">ha link 5</a> <script type="text/javascript"> for (i = 1; i <= 5; i++) { document.getElementById('link' + i).onclick = function() { var x = i; alert(x); return false; } } </script> but in fact, the anonymous function will create a new scope, that's right, but ONLY when it is being invoked, is that so? So the x inside the anonymous function is not created, no new scope is created. When the function was later invoked, there is a new scope alright, but the i is in the outside scope, and the x gets its value, and it is all 6 anyways. The following code will actually invoke a function and create a new scope and that's why the x is a new local variable x in the brand new scope each time, and the invocation of the function when the link is clicked on will use the different x in the different scopes. <a href="#" id="link1">ha link 1</a> <a href="#" id="link2">ha link 2</a> <a href="#" id="link3">ha link 3</a> <a href="#" id="link4">ha link 4</a> <a href="#" id="link5">ha link 5</a> <script type="text/javascript"> for (var i = 1; i <= 5; i++) { (function() { var x = i; document.getElementById('link' + i).onclick = function() { alert(x); return false; } })(); // invoking it now! } </script> If we take away the var in front of x, then it is a global x and so no local variable x is created in the new scope, and therefore, clicking on the links get all the same number, which is the value of the global x.

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• ASP.NET MVC 2 Preview 2 Route Request Not Working

  - by Kezzer

  Here's the error: The incoming request does not match any route. Basically I upgraded from Preview 1 to Preview 2 and got rid of a load of redundant stuff in relation to areas (as described by Phil Haack). It didn't work so I created a brand new project to check out how its dealt with in Preview 2. The file Default.aspx no longer exists which contains the following: public void Page_Load(object sender, System.EventArgs e) { // Change the current path so that the Routing handler can correctly interpret // the request, then restore the original path so that the OutputCache module // can correctly process the response (if caching is enabled). string originalPath = Request.Path; HttpContext.Current.RewritePath(Request.ApplicationPath, false); IHttpHandler httpHandler = new MvcHttpHandler(); httpHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContext.Current); HttpContext.Current.RewritePath(originalPath, false); } The error I received points to the line httpHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContext.Current); yet in newer projects none of this even exists. To test it, I quickly deleted Default.aspx but then absolutely nothing worked, I didn't even receive any errors. Here's some code extracts: Global.asax.cs using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Mvc; using System.Web.Routing; namespace Intranet { public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); routes.MapRoute( "Default", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } ); } protected void App_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } } } Notice the area registration as that's what I'm using. Routes.cs using System.Web.Mvc; namespace Intranet.Areas.Accounts { public class Routes : AreaRegistration { public override string AreaName { get { return "Accounts"; } } public override void RegisterArea(AreaRegistrationContext context) { context.MapRoute("Accounts_Default", "Accounts/{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" }); } } } Check the latest docs for more info on this part. It's to register the area. The Routes.cs files are located in the root folder of each area. Cheers

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• JQM dialog is opening in new page instead of dialog

  - by K D

  Thank you for taking the time to read my question. I'm trying to get a dialog box to open using Jquery mobile. I followed the documentation and used the data-rel="dialog" notation along with the data-transition="pop". Instead of a dialog appearing on the same page, I get a brand new page with the dialog appearing. Can someone kindly assist me on how to fix this functionality. Here is my code for the initial main page: <article> <ul data-role="listview" data-split-icon="star" data-split-theme="d" data-inset="true"> <li><a href="#black_seed_desc" data-rel="dialog" ><img src="black_seed.jpg"/> <h3>Black Seed Oil</h3> </a> <a href="#black_seed_purchase" data-rel="dialog" data-transition="pop">Purchase Black Seed Oil</a> </li> </ul> </article> Here is my code for the dialog page: <div data-role="dialog" id="black_seed_purchase" data-theme="c"> <section data-role="content"> <h1>Purchase Black Seed Oil?</h1> <p>By purchasing Black Seed Oil you will receive an email receipt copy sent to you for your reference.</p> <a href="#purchase_blackseed" data-inline="true" data-corners="true" data-rel="back" data-role="button" data-shadow="true" data-iconshadow="true" data-wrapperrels="span"> <span> <span>Buy: $49.99</span> <span>&nbsp;</span> </span> </a> <a href="#" data-role="button" data-rel="back" data-inline="true" data-corners="true" data-wrapperrels="span" data-shadow="true" data-iconshawdow="true"> <span> Cancel </span> </a> </section> </div> Here is a working example. http://jsfiddle.net/Gajotres/w3ptm/?

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• Extend base class properties

  - by user1888033

  I need your help to extend my base class, here is the similar structure i have. public class ShowRoomA { public audi AudiModelA { get; set; } public benz benzModelA { get; set; } } public class audi { public string Name { get; set; } public string AC { get; set; } public string PowerStearing { get; set; } } public class benz { public string Name { get; set; } public string AC { get; set; } public string AirBag { get; set; } public string MusicSystem { get; set; } } //My Implementation class like this class Main() { private void UpdateDetails() { ShowRoomA ojbMahi = new ShowRoomA(); GetDetails( ojbMahi ); // this works fine } private void GetDetails(ShowRoomA objShowRoom) { objShowRoom = new objShowRoom(); objShowRoom.audi = new audi(); objShowRoom.audi.Name = "AUDIMODEL94CD698"; objShowRoom.audi.AC = "6 TON"; objShowRoom.audi.PowerStearing = "Electric"; objShowRoom.benz= new benz(); objShowRoom.audi.Name = "BENZMODEL34LCX"; objShowRoom.audi.AC = "8 TON"; objShowRoom.audi.AirBag = "Two (1+1)"; objShowRoom.audi.MusicSystem = "Poineer 3500W"; } } // Till this cool. // Now I got requirement for ShowRoomB with replacement of old audi and benz with new models and new other brand cars also added. // I don't want to modify GetDetails() method. by reusing this method additional logic i want to apply to my new extended model. // Here I struck in designing my new model of ShowRoomB (base of ShowRoomA) ... I have tried some thing like... but not sure. public class audiModelB:audi { public string JetEngine { get; set; } } public class benzModelB:benz { public string JetEngine { get; set; } } public class ShowRoomB { public audiModelB AudiModelB { get; set; } public benzModelB benzModelB { get; set; } } // My new code to Implementation class like this class Main() { private void UpdateDetails() { ShowRoomB ojbNahi = new ShowRoomB(); GetDetails( ojbNahi ); // this is NOT working! I know this object does not contain base class directly, still some what i want fill my new model with old properties. Kindly suggest here } } Can any one please give me solutions how to achieve my extending requirement for base class "ShowroomA" Really appreciated your time and suggestions. Thanks in advance,

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• Comparing char for validation in C++

  - by Corey Starbird

  /* PROGRAM: Ch6_14.cpp Written by Corey Starbird This program calculates the balance owed to a hospital for a patient. Last modified: 10/28/13 */ #include <iostream> #include <fstream> #include <iomanip> #include <string> using namespace std; // Prototypes for In-patient and Out-patient functions. double stayTotal (int, double, double, double); // For In-patients double stayTotal (double, double); // For Out-patients int main() { char patientType; // In-patient (I or i) or Out-patient (O or o) double rate, // Daily rate for the In-patient stay servCharge, // Service charge for the stay medCharge, // Medication charge for the stay inTotal, // Total for the In-patient stay outTotal; // Total for the Out-patient stay int days; // Number of days for the In-patient stay // Find out if they were an In-patient or an Out-patient cout << "Welcome, please enter (I) for an In-patient or (O) for an Out-patient:" << endl; cin >> patientType; while (patientType != 'I' || 'i' || 'O' || 'o') { cout << "Invalid entry. Please enter either (I) for an In-patient or (O) for an Out-patient:" << endl; cin >> patientType; } cout << "FIN"; return 0; } Hey, brand new to C++ here. I am working on a project and I'm having trouble figuring out why my validation for patientTypeisn't working properly. I first had double quotes, but realized that would denote strings. I changed them to single quotes, my program will compile and run now, but the while loop runs no matter what I enter, I, i, O, o, or anything else. I don't know why the while loop isn't checking the condition, seeing that I did enter one of the characters in the condition, and move on to cout. Probably a simple mistake, but I thank you in advance.

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• Splitting a raidctl mirror safely

  - by milkfilk

  I have a Sun T5220 server with the onboard LSI card and two disks that were in a RAID 1 mirror. The data is not important right now but we had a failed disk and are trying to understand how to do this for real if we had to recover from a failure. The initial situation looked like this: # raidctl -l c1t0d0 Volume Size Stripe Status Cache RAID Sub Size Level Disk ---------------------------------------------------------------- c1t0d0 136.6G N/A DEGRADED OFF RAID1 0.1.0 136.6G GOOD N/A 136.6G FAILED Green light on the 0.0.0 disk. Find / lights up the 0.1.0 disk. So I know I have a bad drive and which one it is. Server still boots obviously. First, we tried putting a new disk in. This disk came from an unknown source. Format would not see it, cfgadm -al would not see it so raidctl -l would not see it. I figure it's bad. We tried another disk from another spare server: # raidctl -c c1t1d0 c1t0d0 (where t1 is my good disk - 0.1.0) Disk has occupied space. Also the different syntax options don't change anything: # raidctl -C "0.1.0 0.0.0" -r 1 1 Disk has occupied space. # raidctl -C "0.1.0 0.0.0" 1 Disk has occupied space. Ok. Maybe this is because the disk from the spare server had a RAID 1 on it already. Aha, I can see another volume in raidctl: # raidctl -l Controller: 1 Volume:c1t1d0 (this is my server's root mirror) Volume:c1t132d0 (this is the foreign root mirror) Disk: 0.0.0 Disk: 0.1.0 ... No problem. I don't care about the data, I'll just delete the foreign mirror. # raidctl -d c1t132d0 (warning about data deletion but it works) At this point, /usr/bin/ binaries freak out. By that I mean, ls -l /usr/bin/which shows 1.4k but cat /usr/bin/which gives me a newline. Great, I just blew away the binaries (ie: binaries in mem still work)? I bounce the box. It all comes back fine. WTF. Anyway, back to recreating my mirror. # raidctl -l Controller: 1 Volume:c1t1d0 (this is my server's root mirror) Disk: 0.0.0 Disk: 0.1.0 ... Man says that you can delete a mirror and it will split it. Ok, I'll delete the root mirror. # raidctl -d c1t0d0 Array in use. (this might not be the exact error) I googled this and found of course you can't do this (even with -f) while booted off the mirror. Ok. I boot cdrom -s and deleted the volume. Now I have one disk that has a type of "LSI-Logical-Volume" on c1t1d0 (where my data is) and a brand new "Hitachi 146GB" on c1t0d0 (what I'm trying to mirror to): (booted off the CD) # raidctl -c c1t1d0 c1t0d0 (man says it's source destination for mirroring) Illegal Array Layout. # raidctl -C "0.1.0 0.0.0" -r 1 1 (alt syntax per man) Illegal Array Layout. # raidctl -C "0.1.0 0.0.0" 1 (assumes raid1, no help) Illegal Array Layout. Same size disks, same manufacturer but I did delete the volume instead of throwing in a blank disk and waiting for it to resync. Maybe this was a critical error. I tried selecting the type in format for my good disk to be a plain 146gb disk but it resets the partition table which I'm pretty sure would wipe the data (bad if this was production). Am I boned? Anyone have experience with breaking and resyncing a mirror? There's nothing on Google about "Illegal Array Layout" so here's my contrib to the search gods.

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• Internal drives vs USB-3 with external SSD or eSata with External SSD

  - by normstorm

  I have a need to carry VMWare Virtual Machines with me for work. These are very large files (each VM is 20GB or more) and I carry around about 40 to 50 VM's to simulate different software configurations for different client needs. Key: they won't fit on the internal hard drive of my current laptop. I currently execute the VM's from an external 7200RPM 2.5" USB-2 drive. I keep copies of the VM's on other 5400 external USB-2 drives. The VM's work from this drive, but they are slow, costing me much time and frustration. It can take upwards of 30 minutes just to make a copy of one of the VM's. They can take upwards of 10-15 minutes to fully launch and then they operate sluggishly. I am buying a new laptop (Core I7, 8GB RAM and other high-end specs). I intend to buy an SSD for the O/S volume (C:). This SSD will not be large enough to hold the VM's. I have always wanted a second internal hard drive to operate the VM's. To have two hard drives, though, I am finding that I will have to go to a 17" laptop which would be bulky/heavy. I am instead considering purchasing a 15" laptop with either an eSATA port or USB-3 ports and then purchasing two external drives. One of the drives might be an external SSD (maybe OCX brand) for operating the VM's and the other a 7400RPM 1TB hard drive for carrying around the VM's not currently in use. The question is which options would give me the biggest bang for the buck and the weight: 1) 2nd Internal SSD hard drive. This would mean buying a 17" laptop with two drive "bays". The first bay would hold an SSD drive for the C: drive. I would leave the first bay empty from the manufacture and then purchase/install an aftermarket SSD drive. This second SSD drive would have to be very large (256 GB), which would be expensive. I would still also need another external hard drive for carrying around the VM's not in use. 2) 2nd internal hard drive - 7400 RPM. Again, a 17" laptop would be required, but there are models available with on SSD drive for the C: drive and a second 7200 RPM hard drives. The second drive could probably be large enough to hold the VM's in use as well as those not in use. But would it be fast enough to drive the VM's? 3) USB-3 with External SSD. I could buy a 15" laptop with an SSD drive for the C: drive and a second hard drive for general files. I would operate the VM's from an external USB-3 SSD drive and have a third USB-3 external 7200 RPM drive for holding the VM's not in use. 4) eSATA with External SSD. Ditto, just eSATA instead of USB-3 5) USB-3 with External 7400 RPM drive. Ditto, but the drive running the VM's would be USB-3 attached 7400 RPM drives rather than SSD. 6) eSATA with External 7400 RPM drive. Dittor, but the drive running the VM's would be eSATA attached 7400 RPM drives rather than SSD. Any thoughts on this and any creative solutions?

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• broadcom 5722 NIC not installed on Ubuntu Server, although driver present

  - by Bastien

  Hello, I just installed Ubuntu Server 10.04 LTS, running kernel 2.6.32-24-server, on a brand new Dell T110 server, supposedly fully compatible with Ubuntu Server. I have two NICs: one ONBOARD, the other additional on PCI. both of them are Broadcom netXtreme 5572. on the first boot of the system, I could see both cards as eth0 and eth1 (with ifconfig) I configured eth0 as static IP (as planned), and did not configure eth1. after rebooting, one of the two NICs "disappeared": it does not appear in ifconfig at all. the one that disappeared is the ONBOARD one. I investigated a bit and found the following things: the card is SEEN, but not "installed", it appears as "UNCLAIMED" in lshw: *-network UNCLAIMED description: Ethernet controller product: NetXtreme BCM5722 Gigabit Ethernet PCI Express vendor: Broadcom Corporation physical id: 0 bus info: pci@0000:04:00.0 version: 00 width: 64 bits clock: 33MHz capabilities: pm vpd msi pciexpress cap_list configuration: latency=0 resources: memory:df9f0000-df9fffff *-network description: Ethernet interface product: NetXtreme BCM5722 Gigabit Ethernet PCI Express vendor: Broadcom Corporation physical id: 0 bus info: pci@0000:05:00.0 logical name: eth0 version: 00 serial: 00:10:18:60:23:64 size: 100MB/s capacity: 1GB/s width: 64 bits clock: 33MHz capabilities: pm vpd msi pciexpress bus_master cap_list ethernet physical tp 10bt 10bt-fd 100bt 100bt-fd 1000bt 1000bt-fd autonegotiation configuration: autonegotiation=on broadcast=yes driver=tg3 driverversion=3.102 duplex=full firmware=5722-v3.09 ip=10.129.167.25 latency=0 link=yes multicast=yes port=twisted pair speed=100MB/s resources: irq:35 memory:dfaf0000-dfafffff so I checked my dmesg and found a few strange lines, showing, there actually is a problem bringing up this card: [ 3.737506] tg3: Could not obtain valid ethernet address, aborting. [ 3.737527] tg3 0000:04:00.0: PCI INT A disabled [ 3.737535] tg3: probe of 0000:04:00.0 failed with error -22 [ 3.737553] alloc irq_desc for 17 on node -1 [ 3.737555] alloc kstat_irqs on node -1 [ 3.737560] tg3 0000:05:00.0: PCI INT A -> GSI 17 (level, low) -> IRQ 17 [ 3.737566] tg3 0000:05:00.0: setting latency timer to 64 [ 3.793529] eth0: Tigon3 [partno(BCM95722A2202G) rev a200] (PCI Express) MAC address 00:10:18:60:23:64 [ 3.793532] eth0: attached PHY is 5722/5756 (10/100/1000Base-T Ethernet) (WireSpeed[1]) [ 3.793534] eth0: RXcsums[1] LinkChgREG[0] MIirq[0] ASF[0] TSOcap[1] [ 3.793536] eth0: dma_rwctrl[76180000] dma_mask[64-bit] that actually shows that one NIC is recognized, the other is not. I researched a bit more, with lspci -v: 04:00.0 Ethernet controller: Broadcom Corporation NetXtreme BCM5722 Gigabit Ethernet PCI Express Subsystem: Broadcom Corporation NetXtreme BCM5722 Gigabit Ethernet PCI Express Flags: fast devsel, IRQ 16 Memory at df9f0000 (64-bit, non-prefetchable) [size=64K] Capabilities: [48] Power Management version 3 Capabilities: [50] Vital Product Data <?> Capabilities: [58] Vendor Specific Information <?> Capabilities: [e8] Message Signalled Interrupts: Mask- 64bit+ Queue=0/0 Enable- Capabilities: [d0] Express Endpoint, MSI 00 Capabilities: [100] Advanced Error Reporting <?> Capabilities: [13c] Virtual Channel <?> Capabilities: [160] Device Serial Number 00-00-00-fe-ff-00-00-00 Kernel modules: tg3 05:00.0 Ethernet controller: Broadcom Corporation NetXtreme BCM5722 Gigabit Ethernet PCI Express Subsystem: Broadcom Corporation NetXtreme BCM5722 Gigabit Ethernet PCI Express Flags: bus master, fast devsel, latency 0, IRQ 35 Memory at dfaf0000 (64-bit, non-prefetchable) [size=64K] Expansion ROM at <ignored> [disabled] Capabilities: [48] Power Management version 3 Capabilities: [50] Vital Product Data <?> Capabilities: [58] Vendor Specific Information <?> Capabilities: [e8] Message Signalled Interrupts: Mask- 64bit+ Queue=0/0 Enable+ Capabilities: [d0] Express Endpoint, MSI 00 Capabilities: [100] Advanced Error Reporting <?> Capabilities: [13c] Virtual Channel <?> Capabilities: [160] Device Serial Number 64-23-60-fe-ff-18-10-00 Capabilities: [16c] Power Budgeting <?> Kernel driver in use: tg3 Kernel modules: tg3 here I could see that the MAC address is 00-00-00-FE-FF-00-00-00, which, according to some forum posts on several websites, could be an issue. I've researched everything I could on the net, and found out several people having slightly comparable issues, but they usually involve different HW, and do not provide a proper explanation / solution... I would appreciate if anyone around here has some info to share ! thanks

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• Why do GPUs overheat?

  - by JAD

  About a year ago, I added a 9800GT (1 GB version) and a Corsair CX500 PSU to an HP M8000N computer. A few weeks ago, the HDD overheated and I decided to transfer the GPU & PSU to a new build, which consists of: i3 @ 3.3Ghz Gigabyte H61 Micro ATX Mobo 4GB RAM 500GB WD HDD DVD RW Drive Cooler Master Elite 430 Tower Once I had Win7 up and running, I installed all the essential drivers that came with the Gigabyte Mobo CD. However, whenever I tried installing the Graphics Media Accelerator driver, the computer would crash and enter an endless boot sequence on the next startup. I skipped installing this driver and installed the CD driver for the 9800GT, which by now is a year old. Everything was working fine, WEI rated my GPU at 6.6 graphics & aero performance. However, after updating my Nvidia drivers to the latest, the WEI dropped my rating to 3.3 for Aero, and 4.7 for graphics performance. Just to make sure that everything was ok, I ran Bad Company 2 on medium settings. The first few minutes ran just fine at a smooth framerate, so I dismissed this as Windows being Windows. About 6 hours later, I ran BC2 again. This time I averaged anywhere from 2-5 FPS. I checked the GPU temperature through GPU-Z, and it came back as 120C. The problem with this, is that the computer was on for six hours up to that point. Wouldn't the card have experienced a reactor core meltdown a lot sooner than that? Granted, the computer was "sleeping" some of the time, but still... The next day I took out a temperature gun and ran some tests. I would point the laser at a very specific area on the reverse side of the card (not the fan or "front"), and compare the temp reading with GPU-Z. After leaving the system on idle on idle for a few minutes, I ran BC2 twice. Here are the results: GPU-Z Reading / Temp Gun Reading / Time Null / 22.3°C / Comp is Off 53°C / 33.5°C / 1:49 78°C / 46°C / 1:53 - (First BC2 run; good framerate) 102°C / 64.6°C / 2:01 - (System is again on idle) 113°C / 64.8°C / 2:10 119°C / 71.8°C / 2:17 - (Second BC2 run; poor framerate) I should also mention that I also took a temp recording of another part of the GPU from 2:01-2:17. The temp in this area jumped from 75°C to 82.9°C in that time frame. This pretty much confirms that GPU-Z is reporting the temperature accurately, and the card is overheating. But I'd like to know why; the cars is doing nothing and still the temperature climbs at a steady rate. I thoroughly cleaned the GPU and PSU when I salvaged them from the old HP M8000N computer with a can of compressed air, dust cant be the issue. Similarly, the rest of the computer is brand new. I installed various Nvidia drivers, but no luck. It seems strange to me that a year-old card is suddenly failing on me; aren't they supposed to last at least two years? Could this be a driver issue? Is the motherboard faulty? Could the PSU be overfeeding the card on voltage? Neither case seems likely, as the CPU, RAM and otherwise the rest of the comp has worked flawlessly and has stayed well within respectable temp ranges (the i3 lingers around 50C, the HDD stays at 30C, so does the PSU). How can I pinpoint the issue?

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• Windows 2008 Unknown Disks

  - by Ailbe

  I have a BL460c G7 blade server with OS Windows 2008 R2 SP1. This is a brand new C7000 enclosure, with FlexFabric interconnects. I got my FC switches setup and zoned properly to our Clariion CX4, and can see all the hosts that are assigned FCoE HBAs on both paths in both Navisphere and in HP Virtual Connect Manager. So I went ahead and created a storage group for a test server, assigned the appropriate host, assigned the LUN to the server. So far so good, log onto server and I can see 4 unknown disks.... No problem, I install MS MPIO, no luck, can't initialize the disks, and the multiple disks don't go away. Still no problem, I install PowerPath version 5.5 reboot. Now I see 3 disks. One is initialized and ready to go, but I still have 2 disks that I can't initialize, can't offline, can't delete. If I right click in storage manager and go to properties I can see that the MS MPIO tab, but I can't make a path active. I want to get rid of these phantom disks, but so far nothing is working and google searches are showing up some odd results, so obviously I'm not framing my question right. I thought I'd ask here real quick. Does anyone know a quick way to get rid of these unknown disks. Another question, do I need the MPIO feature installed if I have PowerPath installed? This is my first time installing Windows 2008 R2 in this fashion and I'm not sure if that feature is needed or not right now. So some more information to add to this. It seems I'm dealing with more of a Windows issue than anything else. I removed the LUN from the server, uninstalled PowerPath completely, removed the MPIO feature from the server, and rebooted twice. Now I am back to the original 4 Unknown Disks (plus the local Disk 0 containing the OS partition of course, which is working fine) I went to diskpart, I could see all 4 Unknown disks, I selected each disk, ran clean (just in case i'd somehow brought them online previously as GPT and didn't realize it) After a few minutes I was no longer able to see the disks when I ran list disk. However, the disks are still in Disk Management. When I try and offline the disks from Disk Management I get an error: Virtual Disk Manager - The system cannot find the file specified. Accompanied by an error in System Event Logs: Log Name: System Source: Virtual Disk Service Date: 6/25/2012 4:02:01 PM Event ID: 1 Task Category: None Level: Error Keywords: Classic User: N/A Computer: hostname.local Description: Unexpected failure. Error code: 2@02000018 Event Xml: 1 2 0 0x80000000000000 4239 System hostname.local 2@02000018 I feel sure there is a place I can go in the Registry to get rid of these, I just can't recall where and I am loathe to experiement. So to recap, there are currently no LUNS attached at all, I still have the phantom disks, and I'm getting The system cannot find the file specified from Virtual Disk Manager when I try to take them offline. Thanks!

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• How to get rid of a stubborn 'removed' device in mdadm

  - by T.J. Crowder

  One of my server's drives failed and so I removed the failed drive from all three relevant arrays, had the drive swapped out, and then added the new drive to the arrays. Two of the arrays worked perfectly. The third added the drive back as a spare, and there's an odd "removed" entry in the mdadm details. I tried both mdadm /dev/md2 --remove failed and mdadm /dev/md2 --remove detached as suggested here and here, neither of which complained, but neither of which had any effect, either. Does anyone know how I can get rid of that entry and get the drive added back properly? (Ideally without resyncing a third time, I've already had to do it twice and it takes hours. But if that's what it takes, that's what it takes.) The new drive is /dev/sda, the relevant partition is /dev/sda3. Here's the detail on the array: # mdadm --detail /dev/md2 /dev/md2: Version : 0.90 Creation Time : Wed Oct 26 12:27:49 2011 Raid Level : raid1 Array Size : 729952192 (696.14 GiB 747.47 GB) Used Dev Size : 729952192 (696.14 GiB 747.47 GB) Raid Devices : 2 Total Devices : 2 Preferred Minor : 2 Persistence : Superblock is persistent Update Time : Tue Nov 12 17:48:53 2013 State : clean, degraded Active Devices : 1 Working Devices : 2 Failed Devices : 0 Spare Devices : 1 UUID : 2fdbf68c:d572d905:776c2c25:004bd7b2 (local to host blah) Events : 0.34665 Number Major Minor RaidDevice State 0 0 0 0 removed 1 8 19 1 active sync /dev/sdb3 2 8 3 - spare /dev/sda3 If it's relevant, it's a 64-bit server. It normally runs Ubuntu, but right now I'm in the data centre's "rescue" OS, which is Debian 7 (wheezy). The "removed" entry was there the last time I was in Ubuntu (it won't, currently, boot from the disk), so I don't think that's not some Ubuntu/Debian conflict (and they are, of course, closely related). Update: Having done extensive tests with test devices on a local machine, I'm just plain getting anomalous behavior from mdadm with this array. For instance, with /dev/sda3 removed from the array again, I did this: mdadm /dev/md2 --grow --force --raid-devices=1 And that got rid of the "removed" device, leaving me just with /dev/sdb3. Then I nuked /dev/sda3 (wrote a file system to it, so it didn't have the raid fs anymore), then: mdadm /dev/md2 --grow --raid-devices=2 ...which gave me an array with /dev/sdb3 in slot 0 and "removed" in slot 1 as you'd expect. Then mdadm /dev/md2 --add /dev/sda3 ...added it — as a spare again. (Another 3.5 hours down the drain.) So with the rebuilt spare in the array, given that mdadm's man page says RAID-DEVICES CHANGES ... When the number of devices is increased, any hot spares that are present will be activated immediately. ...I grew the array to three devices, to try to activate the "spare": mdadm /dev/md2 --grow --raid-devices=3 What did I get? Two "removed" devices, and the spare. And yet when I do this with a test array, I don't get this behavior. So I nuked /dev/sda3 again, used it to create a brand-new array, and am copying the data from the old array to the new one: rsync -r -t -v --exclude 'lost+found' --progress /mnt/oldarray/* /mnt/newarray This will, of course, take hours. Hopefully when I'm done, I can stop the old array entirely, nuke /dev/sdb3, and add it to the new array. Hopefully, it won't get added as a spare!

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• Did a recent WinXP update break CD/DVD read speeds? SP2/SP3

  - by quack quixote

  I have two systems with fresh installations of Windows XP Pro SP3 (SP3 slipstreamed into the installer; fully updated after install). One's a refurbished 2.4GHz Pentium4 system; the other is a new 1.6GHz Atom330 build. Both have brand-new dual-layer CD/DVD burners (one's a LiteOn IDE, the other an LG SATA). Both take a really looooong time to read a single-layer DVD in Windows with Cygwin tools. Specifically, 40 minutes or more. I burn backup data to single-layer DVD+/-R and use MD5 hashes for data verification (made with the standard md5sum tool in Unix or Cygwin). The hashes are burned to disc with the data files, and I use this command to verify: $ cd /path/to/disc/mountpoint ; time md5sum -c < md5.txt Here's how long that takes to run on a full single-layer DVD+/-R disc: Old system (WinXP SP2, 1.8GHz Athlon 2500+, last summer): ~10 minutes Old system (Ubuntu 9.04, 1.8GHz Athlon 2500+): ~10 minutes Old system (Debian 5, dual 550MHz P3): ~10 minutes New Pentium4 system (running Ubuntu 9.04): ~5 minutes New Pentium4 system (running WinXP SP3, file copy from Win Explorer): ~6 minutes New Atom330 system (running WinXP SP3, file copy from Win Explorer): ~6 minutes Now the weird stuff: Old system (WinXP SP2, 1.8GHz Athlon 2500+, today): ~25 minutes New Pentium4 system (running WinXP SP3, read from Cygwin): ~40-50 minutes (?!!) New Atom330 system (running WinXP SP3, read from Cygwin): ~40 minutes (can do it in ~30 minutes ...if i have another program spin up the drive first) Since both systems will copy files in 6 minutes using Windows Explorer, I know it's not a hardware problem. Windows just never spins up the drive during the Cygwin read, so it stays super-slow the whole time. Other programs like EAC and DVD Decrypter seem to spin up the disc just fine during their processing. DMA is enabled on both systems. (Can confirm in Windows' Device Manager on the Atom330, not on the P4.) Nero's DriveSpeed tool doesn't seem to have any effect. Copy times are comparable from commandline with Windows' xcopy. Copying with Cygwin's cp looks more like the problem state -- it will spin up the drive for a short time, never reaches full speed, and lets it spin back down again for most of the copy. What I need is to get full read speeds from Cygwin. Is this a known issue with SP3 or some other recent Windows update? Any other ideas? Update: More testing; Windows will spin up the drive when data is copied with Windows tools, but not when read in place or copied with Cygwin tools. It doesn't make sense to me that Windows spins up the drive for copying, but not for other reads. Might be more of a Cygwin problem? Update 2: GUI activity is sluggish during the problem state -- during the Cygwin verifies, there's a slight but noticable delay when dragging windows or icons around on the desktop, switching windows, Alt-Tabbing through open applications, opening new windows, etc. It reminds me of the delay when opening a Windows Explorer window on My Computer just after inserting a DVD. I've tried updating Cygwin (from 1.5.x to 1.7.x), but no change in the problem behavior. I've also noticed this issue occurs on WinXP SP2, but it's not exactly the same -- some spin-up occurs, so the read happens in ~25-30 minutes instead of 40+. The SP2 system used to run the verifies in ~10 minutes, and when it first changed (not sure exactly when, maybe in late November or early December 2009) I thought it was dying hardware. This is why I suspect an official update of breaking this functionality; this has worked for years on that SP2 box.

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