Search Results

Search found 17625 results on 705 pages for 'techno log'.

Page 621/705 | < Previous Page | 617 618 619 620 621 622 623 624 625 626 627 628  | Next Page >

  • python os.mkfifo() for Windows

    - by user302099
    Hello. Short version (if you can answer the short version it does the job for me, the rest is mainly for the benefit of other people with a similar task): In python in Windows, I want to create 2 file objects, attached to the same file (it doesn't have to be an actual file on the hard-drive), one for reading and one for writing, such that if the reading end tries to read it will never get EOF (it will just block until something is written). I think in linux os.mkfifo() would do the job, but in Windows it doesn't exist. What can be done? (I must use file-objects). Some extra details: I have a python module (not written by me) that plays a certain game through stdin and stdout (using raw_input() and print). I also have a Windows executable playing the same game, through stdin and stdout as well. I want to make them play one against the other, and log all their communication. Here's the code I can write (the get_fifo() function is not implemented, because that's what I don't know to do it Windows): class Pusher(Thread): def __init__(self, source, dest, p1, name): Thread.__init__(self) self.source = source self.dest = dest self.name = name self.p1 = p1 def run(self): while (self.p1.poll()==None) and\ (not self.source.closed) and (not self.source.closed): line = self.source.readline() logging.info('%s: %s' % (self.name, line[:-1])) self.dest.write(line) self.dest.flush() exe_to_pythonmodule_reader, exe_to_pythonmodule_writer =\ get_fifo() pythonmodule_to_exe_reader, pythonmodule_to_exe_writer =\ get_fifo() p1 = subprocess.Popen(exe, shell=False, stdin=subprocess.PIPE, stdout=subprocess.PIPE) old_stdin = sys.stdin old_stdout = sys.stdout sys.stdin = exe_to_pythonmodule_reader sys.stdout = pythonmodule_to_exe_writer push1 = Pusher(p1.stdout, exe_to_pythonmodule_writer, p1, '1') push2 = Pusher(pythonmodule_to_exe_reader, p1.stdin, p1, '2') push1.start() push2.start() ret = pythonmodule.play() sys.stdin = old_stdin sys.stdout = old_stdout

    Read the article

  • mvc jquery passing form values after user presses "Accept" button

    - by gdubs
    So I have a form and a submit button that posts the form to an action. But I wanted to show a popup where the user can deny or accept an agreement. Here's my jquery $(document).ready((function () { var dialog = $('#confirmation-dialog').dialog({ autoOpen: false, width: 500, height: 600, resizable: false, modal: true, buttons: { "Accept": function () { $(this).dialog('close'); $.ajax({ type: 'POST', data: {__RequestVerificationToken: $("input[name=__RequestVerificationToken]").val()} }); }, "Cancel": function () { $(this).dialog('close'); } } }); $('#registration-submit').click(function (e) { var action = $(this.form); console.log(action); var form = $('form'); dialog.dialog("open"); return false; }); })); My problem with this is that it would post, but it would only send my AntiforgeryToken, and not the values of the form. But when it goes through the TryupdateModel it would go through for some reason but will not Save (cuz of the missing data that wasn't passed on the formcollection).

    Read the article

  • How do I trace SQL Server Failure Audit events?

    - by Tim Perry
    I recently took over management of a Windows 2003 server. The application log is being filled up with messages like these: Event Type: Failure Audit Event Source: MSSQLSERVER Event Category: (4) Event ID: 18456 Date: 3/5/2010 Time: 4:00:30 PM User: N/A Computer: FAIROAKS1 Description: Login failed for user 'administrator'. [CLIENT: <local machine>] Data: 0000: 18 48 00 00 0e 00 00 00 .H...... 0008: 0a 00 00 00 46 00 41 00 ....F.A. 0010: 49 00 52 00 4f 00 41 00 I.R.O.A. 0018: 4b 00 53 00 31 00 00 00 K.S.1... 0020: 07 00 00 00 6d 00 61 00 ....m.a. 0028: 73 00 74 00 65 00 72 00 s.t.e.r. 0030: 00 00 .. For more information, see Help and Support Center at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/events.asp. I'd like to figure out what program is causing these. Is there a way to trace and find out which process is causing these errors?

    Read the article

  • Spring import runs hibernate persistence twice

    - by Jaanus
    I have 2 spring configurations : spring-servlet.xml spring-security.xml needed to add this line to security: <beans:import resource="spring-servlet.xml"/> Now hibernate is ran twice, this is log screenshot : my web.xml: <servlet> <servlet-name>spring</servlet-name> <servlet-class> org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet </servlet-class> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>spring</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> <listener> <listener-class> org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener </listener-class> </listener> <context-param> <param-name>contextConfigLocation</param-name> <param-value> /WEB-INF/spring-security.xml </param-value> </context-param>

    Read the article

  • How many WCF connections can a single host handle?

    - by mafutrct
    I'll try to explain this with an example. I'm writing a chat application. There are users that can join chat rooms. A user has to log in before he can join any room. Currently, there is a single service. A user logs in using this service. Then, the user sends and receives messages for all joined rooms via this single service. channel.Login("Hans Moleman", "password"); channel.JoinRoom("name of room"); channel.SendChat("name of room", "hello"); I'm thinking about changing the design so there is a new WCF connection for each joined room. In the actual app, the number of connections is likely going to be in the range of 10-100, possibly more. Is this a good idea? Or are ~100 connections per client too much? The server should be able to handle many clients (range 100-1000, later up to 10k). In case it matters, I'm using NetTcpBinding.

    Read the article

  • Python re module becomes 20 times slower when called on greater than 101 different regex

    - by Wiil
    My problem is about parsing log files and removing variable parts on each lines to be able to group them. For instance: s = re.sub(r'(?i)User [_0-9A-z]+ is ', r"User .. is ", s) s = re.sub(r'(?i)Message rejected because : (.*?) \(.+\)', r'Message rejected because : \1 (...)', s) I have about 120+ matching rules like those above. I have found no performances issues while searching successively on 100 different regex. But a huge slow down comes when applying 101 regex. Exact same behavior happens when replacing my rules set by for a in range(100): s = re.sub(r'(?i)caught here'+str(a)+':.+', r'( ... )', s) Got 20 times slower when putting range(101) instead. # range(100) % ./dashlog.py file.bz2 == Took 2.1 seconds. == # range(101) % ./dashlog.py file.bz2 == Took 47.6 seconds. == Why such thing is happening ? And is there any known workaround ? (Happens on Python 2.6.6/2.7.2 on Linux/Windows.)

    Read the article

  • CakePHP - Sorting using HABTM Join Table Field

    - by Ashok
    Hello Cake Gurus, here's my problem: Table1: Posts id - int title - varchar Table2: Categories id - int name - varchar HABTM JoinTable: categories_posts id - int post_id - int category_id - int postorder - int As you can see, the join table contains a field called 'postorder' - This is for ordering the posts in a particular category. For example, Posts: Post1, Post2, Post3, Post4 Categories: Cat1, Cat2 Ordering: Cat1 - Post1, Post3, Post2 Cat2 - Post3, Post1, Post4 Now in CakePHP, $postpages = $this->Post->Category->find('all'); gives me a array like Array ( [0] => Array ( [Category] => Array ( [id] => 13 [name] => Cat1 ) [Post] => Array ( [0] => Array ( [id] => 1 [title] => Post2 [CategoriesPost] => Array ( [id] => 17 [post_id] => 1 [category_id] => 13 [postorder] => 3 ) ) [1] => Array ( [id] => 4 [title] => Post1 [CategoriesPost] => Array ( [id] => 21 [post_id] => 4 [category_id] => 13 [postorder] => 1 ) ) ) ) ) As you can see [Post], they are not ordered according to [CategoriesPost].postorder but are ordered according to [CategoriesPost].id. How can I get the array ordered according to [CategoriesPost].postorder? Thanks in advance for your time :) Edit: The Queries from Cake's SQL Log are: SELECT `Category`.`id`, `Category`.`name` FROM `categories` AS `Category` WHERE 1 = 1 SELECT `Post`.`id`, `Post`.`title`, `CategoriesPost`.`id`, `CategoriesPost`.`post_id`, `CategoriesPost`.`category_id`, `CategoriesPost`.`postorder` FROM `posts` AS `Post` JOIN `categories_posts` AS `CategoriesPost` ON (`CategoriesPost`.`category_id` IN (13, 26, 27, 28, 29, 30, 31, 32, 33, 34, 35, 36, 37, 38, 39, 40, 41, 42, 43, 44, 45, 46, 47, 48, 49, 50, 51, 52) AND `CategoriesPost`.`post_id` = `Post`.`id`) What I am looking for is how to make cake put a Order By CategoriesPost.postorder in that second SELECT SQL Query.

    Read the article

  • How to determine loading status of images not attached to the DOM

    - by Rookwood
    I am working on a bit of javascript to plot data on a <canvas. The data points are marked by one of several different (small) image files. I am attempting to have the plot method wait until all the images are loaded. My best attempt thus far is such: var icon = { left : { air : new Image(), bone : new Image(), }, right : { air: new Image(), bone : new Image(), }, }; icon.left.air.src = option.imgPath + 'left.air.png'; icon.right.air.src = option.imgPath + 'right.air.png'; icon.left.bone.src = option.imgPath + 'left.bone.png'; icon.right.bone.src = option.imgPath + 'right.bone.png'; function main() { Canvas.draw(); // Make sure our image icons are loaded before we try to plot $(icon.left.air).load(function() { $(icon.right.air).load(function() { $(icon.left.bone).load(function() { $(icon.right.bone).load(function() { Data.plot(); }); }); }); }); } This works as expected most of the time. On occasion, it will fail and no data will be plotted. Inserting several console.log() statements shows that the script will silently stop working through the series of .load() statements, though code that comes after will be executed. My questions are as follows: Am I approaching this the right way? Is there a way to attach an event to my icon object that will fire once all of the images inside are loaded? This is a jquery plugin, so obviously jquery-based solutions are just as acceptable as vanilla javascript.

    Read the article

  • Ruby on Rails user login form in main layout

    - by Jimmy
    Hey guys I have a simple ror application for some demo stuff. I am running into a problem with trying to move my login form from the users controller and just have it displayed in the main navigation so that a user can easily log in from anywhere. The problem is the form doesn't generate the correct action for the html form. Ruby code: <% form_for(url_for(:action => 'login'), :method => 'post') do |f| %> <li><%= f.text_field("username") %></li> <li><%= f.password_field("password") %></li> <li><%= submit_tag("Login")%></li> <% end %> The problem is depending on the controller I am currently in this generates HTML actions like <form action="/home" method="post">...</form> when it should be generating HTML like so <form action="/login" method="post">...</form> I know I could simply do an HTML form here but I want to keep things as easy to maintain as possible. Any help?

    Read the article

  • iPhone app, navigationcontroller not functioning?

    - by dramaticlook
    I have 4 tabs in a tab bar. In one of the tabs i want to use a navigation, i.e. when i click an item from the list it should go to some details page about it. I have the list page where i have the navigation bar and the list of items. I can scroll them, but when I click any of them the selection animation happens, console logs the true row value, it even prints log instructions from constructor of the Details page but I can not see the Details page showing up. (btw Xcode 3.2.6 with iOS 4.3) - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSString *rowValue = [myStrings objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; NSLog(rowValue); //[Utility setStr:rowValue]; [self.myTable deselectRowAtIndexPath:indexPath animated:TRUE]; //DETAILS PAGE HERE!!!! RestViewController * rest= [[RestViewController alloc] init]; rest.scoreLabel.text = rowValue; [self.navigationController pushViewController:rest animated:TRUE]; [rest release]; } Anybody having any idea? Thanks in advance!!!

    Read the article

  • Memory leaks after using typeinfo::name()

    - by icabod
    I have a program in which, partly for informational logging, I output the names of some classes as they are used (specifically I add an entry to a log saying along the lines of Messages::CSomeClass transmitted to 127.0.0.1). I do this with code similar to the following: std::string getMessageName(void) const { return std::string(typeid(*this).name()); } And yes, before anyone points it out, I realise that the output of typeinfo::name is implementation-specific. According to MSDN The type_info::name member function returns a const char* to a null-terminated string representing the human-readable name of the type. The memory pointed to is cached and should never be directly deallocated. However, when I exit my program in the debugger, any "new" use of typeinfo::name() shows up as a memory leak. If I output the information for 2 classes, I get 2 memory leaks, and so on. This hints that the cached data is never being freed. While this is not a major issue, it looks messy, and after a long debugging session it could easily hide genuine memory leaks. I have looked around and found some useful information (one SO answer gives some interesting information about how typeinfo may be implemented), but I'm wondering if this memory should normally be freed by the system, or if there is something i can do to "not notice" the leaks when debugging. I do have a back-up plan, which is to code the getMessageName method myself and not rely on typeinfo::name, but I'd like to know anyway if there's something I've missed.

    Read the article

  • implementing a Intelligent File Transfer Software in java over TCP/IP

    - by whyjava
    Hello I am working on a proposal where we have to implement a software which can move files between one source to destination.The overall goal of this project is to create intelligent file transfer.This software will have three components :- 1) Broker : Broker is the module that communicates with other brokers, monitors files, moves files, retrieves configurations from the Configuration Manager, supplies process information for the monitor, archives files, writes all process data to log files and escalates issues if necessary 2) Configuration Manager :Configuration Manager is a web-based application used to configure and deploy the configuration to all brokers. 3) Monitor : Monitor is a web-based application used to monitor each Broker in the environment. This project has to be built up in java and protocol for file transfer in tcp/ip. Client does not want to use FTP. File Transfer seems very easy, until there are several processes who are waiting to pick the file up automatically. Several problems arise: How can we guarantee the file is received at the destination? If a file isn’t received the first time, we should try it again (even after a restart or power breakdown) ? How does the receiver knows the file that is received is complete? How can we transfer multiple files synchronously? How can we protect the bandwidth, so file transfer isn’t blocking other processes? How does one interoperate between multiple OS platforms? What about authentication? How can we monitor het workflow? Auditing / logging Archiving Can you please provide answer to some of these? Thanks

    Read the article

  • iframe created dynamically with javascript not reloading parent URL

    - by Lauren
    I can't seem to reload the parent page from within an iframe even though the domain for my iframe and the parent page appear to be the same. The IFRAME was created dynamically, rather than in the HTML page source, so could that be the problem? The iframe I'm working with is here http://www.avaline.com/ R3000_3 once you log in. You may use user:[email protected] pass: test03 Once logged in, hit the "order sample" button, and then hit "here" where it says "Your Third Party Shipper Numbers (To enter one, click here.)". I tried using javascript statements window.top.location.reload(),window.parent.location.reload(),window.parent.location.href=window.parent.location.href but none of those worked in FF 3.6 so I didn't move on to the other browsers although I am shooting for a cross-browser solution. I put the one-line javascript statements inside setTimeout("statement",2000) so people could read the content of the iframe before the redirect happens, but that shouldn't affect the execution of the statements... I wish I could test and debug the statements with the Firebug console from within the Iframe.

    Read the article

  • Why am I getting a ClassCastException here?

    - by Holly
    I'm creating an android application and i'm trying to use a PreferenceActivity. I'm getting the java.lang.ClassCastException: java.lang.String error when it gets to this line return PreferenceManager.getDefaultSharedPreferences(context).getInt(USER_TERM, USER_TERM_DEF); I thought it might be because I'm not converting it properly from it's string value in the EditText box to the int I need but I can't figure out how to fix this, or is that even the cause? I'm flummoxed. Here's my preference activity class: public class UserPrefs extends PreferenceActivity { //option names and default vals private static final String USER_TERM = "term_length"; private static final String USER_YEAR = "year_length"; private static final int USER_TERM_DEF = 12; private static final int USER_YEAR_DEF = 34; @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState){ super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); addPreferencesFromResource(R.xml.preferences); } public static int getTermLength(Context context){ try{ return PreferenceManager.getDefaultSharedPreferences(context).getInt(USER_TERM, USER_TERM_DEF); }catch (ClassCastException e){Log.v("getTermLength", "error::: " + e); } //return 1;//temporary, needed to catch the error and couldn't without adding a return outside the block.// } public static int getYearLength(Context context){ return PreferenceManager.getDefaultSharedPreferences(context).getInt(USER_YEAR, USER_YEAR_DEF); } And here's the bit of code where I'm trying to use the the preferences inside another class: public float alterForFrequency(Context keypadContext, float enteredAmount, String spinnerPosition){ int termLength = UserPrefs.getTermLength(keypadContext); int yearLength = UserPrefs.getYearLength(keypadContext); } The complete android logcat, i've uploaded here: http://freetexthost.com/v3t4ta3wbi

    Read the article

  • Parsing URL error

    - by user577875
    It didn't seem like there was a post about this, so here goes. I've been working on a simple app to grab my time table from my school, and get it on my phone. Currently I'm working on the port on android but I've hit an issue. I get the error: java.io.IOException: -1 error loading URL urladress. Code: public void updateTimeTable(){ //Get UID and Birthday SharedPreferences prefs = PreferenceManager.getDefaultSharedPreferences(getBaseContext()); String uid = prefs.getString("uid", "000000"); String fods = prefs.getString("fodsdag", "000000"); //Set URL String url = "http://unv1.aalborg-stu.dk/cgi-bin/elevskema.pl?ugen=0&unavn=" + uid + "&fodsdag=" + fods; try { Document doc = Jsoup.connect(url).get(); Elements td = doc.getElementsByTag("td"); //ArrayList<String> tdArray = new ArrayList<String>(); // for (Element tds : td) { // String tdText = tds.text(); // tdArray.add(tdText); //} //String[] data = tdArray.toArray(new String[tdArray.size()]); } catch (IOException e ){ Log.e("Parser", "shite", e); } Context context = getApplicationContext(); CharSequence text = url; int duration = Toast.LENGTH_SHORT; Toast toast = Toast.makeText(context, text, duration); toast.show(); } I've commented some lines out to identify where the issue is, and it seems it's at the actual parsing. Anywho, screenshot of the error I get: Screenshot I got about 4 days worth of Java experience so forgive me if it's something silly. Best Regards

    Read the article

  • IIS to SQL Server kerberos auth issues

    - by crosan
    We have a 3rd party product that allows some of our users to manipulate data in a database (on what we'll call SvrSQL) via a website on a separate server (SvrWeb). On SvrWeb, we have a specific, non-default website setup for this application so instead of going to http://SvrWeb.company.com to get to the website we use http://application.company.com which resolves to SvrWeb and the host headers resolve to the correct website. There is also a specific application pool set up for this site which uses an Active Directory account identity we'll call "company\SrvWeb_iis". We're setup to allow delegation on this account and to allow it to impersonate another login which we want it to do. (we want this account to pass along the AD credentials of the person signed into the website to SQL Server instead of a service account. We also set up the SPNs for the SrvWeb_iis account via the following command: setspn -A HTTP/SrvWeb.company.com SrvWeb_iis The website pulls up, but the section of the website that makes the call to the database returns the message: Cannot execute database query. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'. I thought we had the SPN information set up correctly, but when I check the security event log on SrvWeb I see entries of my logging in, but it seems to be using NTLM and not kerberos: Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Any ideas or articles that cover this setup in detail would be extremely appreciated! If it helps, we are using SQL Server 2005, and both the web and SQL servers are Windows 2003.

    Read the article

  • Can one connection get details of another? Or, how can I get the most detailed pending transaction

    - by bob-the-destroyer
    Is there a Mysql statement which provides full details of any other open connection or user? For this particular case, on myisam tables specifically. Looking at Mysql's SHOW TABLE STATUS documentation, it's missing some very important information for my purpose. For example: remote odbc connection one is inserting several thousand records, which due to a slow connection speed can take up to an hour. Tcp connection two, using PHP on the server's localhost, is running select queries with aggregate functions on that data. Before allowing connection two to run those queries, I'd like connection two to first check to make sure there's no pending inserts on any other connection on those specific tables so it can instead wait until all data is available. If the table is currently being written to, I'd like to spit back to the user of connection two an approximation of how much longer to wait based on the number of pending inserts. Ideally by table, I'd like to get back using a query the timestamp when connection one began the write, total inserts left to be done, and total inserts already completed. Instead of insert counts, even knowing number of bytes written and left to write would work just fine here. Obviously since connection two is a tcp connection via a PHP script, all I can really use in that script is some sort of query. I suppose if I have to, since it is on localhost, I can exec() it if the only way is by a mysql command line option that outputs this info, but I'd rather not. I suppose I could simply update a custom-made transaction log before and after this massive insert task which the PHP script can check, but hopefully there's already a built-in Mysql feature I can take advantage of.

    Read the article

  • protect form hijacking hack

    - by Karem
    Yes hello today I discovered a hack for my site. When you write a msg on a users wall (in my communitysite) it runs a ajax call, to insert the msg to the db and will then on success slide down and show it. Works fine with no problem. So I was rethinking alittle, I am using POST methods for this and if it was GET method you could easily do ?msg=haxmsg&usr=12345679. But what could you do to come around the POST method? I made a new html document, made a form and on action i set "site.com/insertwall.php" (the file that normally are being used in ajax), i made some input fields with names exactly like i am doing with the ajaxcall (msg, uID (userid), BuID (by userid) ) and made a submit button. I know I have a page_protect() function on which requires you to login and if you arent you will be header to index.php. So i logged in (started session on my site.com) and then I pressed on this submit button. And then wops I saw on my site that it has made a new message. I was like wow, was it so easy to hijack POST method i thought maybe it was little more secure or something. I would like to know what could I do to prevent this hijacking? As i wouldnt even want to know what real hackers could do with this "hole". The page_protect secures that the sessions are from the same http user agent and so, and this works fine (tried to run the form without logging in, and it just headers me to startpage) but yea wouldnt take long time to figure out to log in first and then run it. Any advices are appreciated alot. I would like to keep my ajax calls most secure as possible and all of them are running on the POST method. What could I do to the insertwall.php, to check that it comes from the server or something.. Thank you

    Read the article

  • What is the most common way to use a middleware in node with express and connect

    - by Bernhard
    Thinking about the correct way, how to make use of middlewares in a node.js web project using express and connect which is growing up at the moment. Of course there are middlewares right now wich has to pass or extend requests globally but in a lot of cases there are special jobs like prepare incoming data and in this case the middleware would only work for a set of http-methods and routes. I've a component based architecture and each component brings it's own middleware layer which can implement those for requests this component can handle. On app startup any required component is loaded and prepared. Is it a good idea to bind the middleware code execution to URLs to keep cpu load lower or is it better to use middlewares only for global purposes? Here's some dummy how an url related middleware look like. app.use(function(req, res, next) { // Check if requested route is a part of the current component // or if the middleware should be passed on any request if (APP.controller.groups.Component.isExpectedRoute(req) || APP.controller.groups.Component.getConfig().MIDDLEWARE_PASS_ALL === true) { // Execute the midleware code here console.log('This is a route which should be afected by middleware'); ... next(); }else{ next(); } });

    Read the article

  • Custom UIButton Memory Management in dealloc

    - by ddawber
    I am hoping to clarify the processes going on here. I have created a subclass of UIButton whose init method looks like this: - (id)initWithTitle:(NSString *)title frame:(CGRect)btnFrame { self = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; [self setTitle:title forState:UIControlStateNormal]; self.frame = btnFrame; return self; } In my view controller I am creating one of these buttons and adding it as a subview: myButton = [[CustomButton alloc] initWithTitle:@"Title" frame:someFrame]; [self.view addSubview:myButton]; In the view controller's dealloc method I log the retain count of my button: - (void)dealloc { NSLog(@"RC: %d", [myButton retainCount]); //RC = 2 [super dealloc]; NSLog(@"RC: %d", [myButton retainCount]); //RC = 1 } The way I understand it, myButton is not actually retained, even though I invoked it using alloc, because in my subclass I created an autorelease button (using buttonWithType:). In dealloc, does this mean that, when dealloc is called the superview releases the button and its retain count goes down to 1? The button has not yet been autoreleased? Or do I need to get that retain count down to zero after calling [super dealloc]? Cheers.

    Read the article

  • Protecting sensitive entity data

    - by Andreas
    Hi, I'm looking for some advice on architecture for a client/server solution with some peculiarities. The client is a fairly thick one, leaving the server mostly to peristence, concurrency and infrastructure concerns. The server contains a number of entities which contain both sensitive and public information. Think for example that the entities are persons, assume that social security number and name are sensitive and age is publicly viewable. When starting the client, the user is presented with a number of entities, not disclosing any sensitive information. At any time the user can choose to log in and authenticate against the server, given the authentication is successful the user is granted access to the sensitive information. The client is hosting a domain model and I was thinking of implementing this as some kind of "lazy loading", making the first request instantiating the entities and later refreshing them with sensitive data. The entity getters would throw exceptions on sensitive information when they've not been disclosed, f.e.: class PersonImpl : PersonEntity { private bool undisclosed; public override string SocialSecurityNumber { get { if (undisclosed) throw new UndisclosedDataException(); return base.SocialSecurityNumber; } } } Another more friendly approach could be to have a value object indicating that the value is undisclosed. get { if (undisclosed) return undisclosedValue; return base.SocialSecurityNumber; } Some concerns: What if the user logs in and then out, the sensitive data has been loaded but must be disclosed once again. One could argue that this type of functionality belongs within the domain and not some infrastructural implementation(i.e. repository implementations). As always when dealing with a larger number of properties there's a risk that this type of functionality clutters the code Any insights or discussion is appreciated!

    Read the article

  • What is the best / proper idiom in django for modifying a field during a .save() where you need to o

    - by MDBGuy
    Hi, say I've got: class LogModel(models.Model): message = models.CharField(max_length=512) class Assignment(models.Model): someperson = models.ForeignKey(SomeOtherModel) def save(self, *args, **kwargs): super(Assignment, self).save() old_person = #????? LogModel(message="%s is no longer assigned to %s"%(old_person, self).save() LogModel(message="%s is now assigned to %s"%(self.someperson, self).save() My goal is to save to LogModel some messages about who Assignment was assigned to. Notice that I need to know the old, presave value of this field. I have seen code that suggests, before super().save(), retrieve the instance from the database via primary key and grab the old value from there. This could work, but is a bit messy. In addition, I plan to eventually split this code out of the .save() method via signals - namely pre_save() and post_save(). Trying to use the above logic (Retrieve from the db in pre_save, make the log entry in post_save) seemingly fails here, as pre_save and post_save are two seperate methods. Perhaps in pre_save I can retrieve the old value and stick it on the model as an attribute? I was wondering if there was a common idiom for this. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Not able to play videos (from youtube) in WebView

    - by user1205193
    I am using a webview to display a video (could be from youtube or vimeo) in my app. In order to not load the video webpages in the default Android Browser, I am also extending the WebViewClient so I can override the shouldOverrideUrlLoading method. This way the video webpage loads successfully in the WebView. However, when I click on the embedded video on the WebView, it does not play. If I do not override the shouldOverrideUrlLoading method, and let the video webpages load in the default Android browser, the videos work just fine. Any ideas why the videos are not working in the WebView? Also, the main reason why I overrode the shouldOverrideUrlLoading method is because if I do not do that, then when I exit the Android browser to come back to my activity (by hitting the back button on the phone), I see a white screen. Upon hitting the back button twice, I am able to get back to my Activity. I am using the emulator to do this test. Here is my code: public class YoutubeLink extends Activity { WebView myWebView; String video_url; private class HelloWebViewClient extends WebViewClient { @Override public boolean shouldOverrideUrlLoading(WebView view, String url) { view.loadUrl(url); return true; } } @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.youtubelink); //Retrieving data from ListSample.java Bundle extras = getIntent().getExtras(); if(extras !=null) { video_url = extras.getString("video_url"); Log.d("inside YoutubeLink.java", video_url); } myWebView = (WebView) findViewById(R.id.web); myWebView.getSettings().setJavaScriptEnabled(true); myWebView.setWebViewClient(new HelloWebViewClient()); myWebView.loadUrl(video_url); } @Override public boolean onKeyDown(int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { if ((keyCode == KeyEvent.KEYCODE_BACK) && myWebView.canGoBack()) { myWebView.goBack(); return true; } return super.onKeyDown(keyCode, event); }}

    Read the article

  • xml parser not able to read all the nodes of the xml

    - by pankaj
    Hi i am trying to get values from all the nodes of a xml returned from a web service. But my code only reads first node, it does not read it further. code: -(void)parseData{ NuanceAppDelegate *appDel = (NuanceAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; NSString *url = @"http://cmweb.bpomatrix.net/SmartPhoneService.svc/login/"; url = [[[url stringByAppendingString:UserName] stringByAppendingString:@"/"] stringByAppendingString:Password]; url = [[url stringByAppendingString:@"/"] stringByAppendingString:appDel.CPAID]; NSLog(@"log: @%",url); NSURL *loginURL = [NSURL URLWithString:url]; NSXMLParser *home_Parser = [[NSXMLParser alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:loginURL]; [home_Parser setDelegate:self]; dict = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; [home_Parser parse]; } - (void)parser:(NSXMLParser *)parser didStartElement:(NSString *)elementName namespaceURI:(NSString *)namespaceURI qualifiedName:(NSString *)qualifiedName attributes:(NSDictionary *)attributeDict{ if([elementName isEqualToString:@"Address"]) addressFound = TRUE; if([elementName isEqualToString:@"Name"]) nameFound = TRUE; if([elementName isEqualToString:@"LoyaltyNum"]) loyaltyNumFound = TRUE; if([elementName isEqualToString:@"City"]) cityFound = TRUE; if([elementName isEqualToString:@"Province"]) proFound = TRUE; if([elementName isEqualToString:@"Zip"]) zipFound = TRUE; //NSLog(@"Response %@",responseFound); } - (void)parser:(NSXMLParser *)parser foundCharacters:(NSString *)string{ if(addressFound) { [dict setObject:string forKey:@"address"]; addressFound = FALSE; } else if(nameFound) { [dict setObject:string forKey:@"name"]; nameFound = FALSE; } else if(loyaltyNumFound) { [dict setObject:string forKey:@"loyaltyNum"]; loyaltyNumFound = FALSE; } else if(cityFound) { [dict setObject:string forKey:@"city"]; cityFound = FALSE; } else if(proFound) { [dict setObject:string forKey:@"province"]; proFound = FALSE; } else if(zipFound) { [dict setObject:string forKey:@"zip"]; zipFound = FALSE; } } - (void)parser:(NSXMLParser *)parser didEndElement:(NSString *)elementName namespaceURI:(NSString *)namespaceURI qualifiedName:(NSString *)qName { if([elementName isEqualToString:@"clsUserProfile"]) { [self parsingOver]; } } -(void)parsingOver { NuanceAppDelegate *appDel = (NuanceAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; appDel.dictProfile = dict; }

    Read the article

  • webBrower Button Click without element ID?

    - by Jeremy
    I'm working on a login system for a forum and trying to make it work via a c# .net form. I need to programitically click the login button on the forum with a webBrower control. So far I have this. webPage page = new webPage(); page.URL = txtURL.Text; page.Load(); //Load the text from the specified URL WebBrowser browser = new WebBrowser(); browser.Document.GetElementById("navbar_username").SetAttribute("value", textBox1.Text); browser.Document.GetElementById("navbar_password").SetAttribute("value", textBox2.Text); HtmlElement el = browser.Document.All["btnI"]; if (el != null) { el.InvokeMember("click"); } else { MessageBox.Show("There is an issue with the program"); } The issue is that the login button on the page does not have an ID or any real information that can allow me to click on it. Does anyone have any suggestions? Here is the code for the login button. <input type="image" src="images/loginbutton.png" class="loginbutton" tabindex="104" value="Log in" title="Enter your username and password in the boxes provided to login, or click the 'register' button to create a profile for yourself." accesskey="s">

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 617 618 619 620 621 622 623 624 625 626 627 628  | Next Page >