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  • Can I get the IE debugger to break into long-running javascript

    - by Brian Deacon
    I have a page that has a byzantine amount of javascript running. In IE only, and only version 8, I get a long-script warning that I can reliably reproduce. I suspect it is event handlers triggering themselves in an infinite loop. The Developer Tools are limping horribly under the weight of the script running, but I do seem to be able to get the log to tell me what line of script it was executing when I aborted, but it is inevitably some of the deep plumbing of the ExtJS code we use, and I can't tell where it is in my stack of code. A way of seeing the call stack would work, but preferably I'd like to be able to just break into the debugger when I get the long script warning so I can just step through the stack. There is a similar question posted, but the answers given were for a not-the-right-tool, or the not terribly helpful advice to eliminate half my code at a time on a binary hunt for the infinite loop. If my code were simple enough that I could do that, it probably wouldn't have gotten the infinite loop in the first place. If I could reproduce the problem in firebug, I'd probably be a lot happier too.

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  • protect form hijacking hack

    - by Karem
    Yes hello today I discovered a hack for my site. When you write a msg on a users wall (in my communitysite) it runs a ajax call, to insert the msg to the db and will then on success slide down and show it. Works fine with no problem. So I was rethinking alittle, I am using POST methods for this and if it was GET method you could easily do ?msg=haxmsg&usr=12345679. But what could you do to come around the POST method? I made a new html document, made a form and on action i set "site.com/insertwall.php" (the file that normally are being used in ajax), i made some input fields with names exactly like i am doing with the ajaxcall (msg, uID (userid), BuID (by userid) ) and made a submit button. I know I have a page_protect() function on which requires you to login and if you arent you will be header to index.php. So i logged in (started session on my site.com) and then I pressed on this submit button. And then wops I saw on my site that it has made a new message. I was like wow, was it so easy to hijack POST method i thought maybe it was little more secure or something. I would like to know what could I do to prevent this hijacking? As i wouldnt even want to know what real hackers could do with this "hole". The page_protect secures that the sessions are from the same http user agent and so, and this works fine (tried to run the form without logging in, and it just headers me to startpage) but yea wouldnt take long time to figure out to log in first and then run it. Any advices are appreciated alot. I would like to keep my ajax calls most secure as possible and all of them are running on the POST method. What could I do to the insertwall.php, to check that it comes from the server or something.. Thank you

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  • iPhone app, navigationcontroller not functioning?

    - by dramaticlook
    I have 4 tabs in a tab bar. In one of the tabs i want to use a navigation, i.e. when i click an item from the list it should go to some details page about it. I have the list page where i have the navigation bar and the list of items. I can scroll them, but when I click any of them the selection animation happens, console logs the true row value, it even prints log instructions from constructor of the Details page but I can not see the Details page showing up. (btw Xcode 3.2.6 with iOS 4.3) - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSString *rowValue = [myStrings objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; NSLog(rowValue); //[Utility setStr:rowValue]; [self.myTable deselectRowAtIndexPath:indexPath animated:TRUE]; //DETAILS PAGE HERE!!!! RestViewController * rest= [[RestViewController alloc] init]; rest.scoreLabel.text = rowValue; [self.navigationController pushViewController:rest animated:TRUE]; [rest release]; } Anybody having any idea? Thanks in advance!!!

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  • python os.mkfifo() for Windows

    - by user302099
    Hello. Short version (if you can answer the short version it does the job for me, the rest is mainly for the benefit of other people with a similar task): In python in Windows, I want to create 2 file objects, attached to the same file (it doesn't have to be an actual file on the hard-drive), one for reading and one for writing, such that if the reading end tries to read it will never get EOF (it will just block until something is written). I think in linux os.mkfifo() would do the job, but in Windows it doesn't exist. What can be done? (I must use file-objects). Some extra details: I have a python module (not written by me) that plays a certain game through stdin and stdout (using raw_input() and print). I also have a Windows executable playing the same game, through stdin and stdout as well. I want to make them play one against the other, and log all their communication. Here's the code I can write (the get_fifo() function is not implemented, because that's what I don't know to do it Windows): class Pusher(Thread): def __init__(self, source, dest, p1, name): Thread.__init__(self) self.source = source self.dest = dest self.name = name self.p1 = p1 def run(self): while (self.p1.poll()==None) and\ (not self.source.closed) and (not self.source.closed): line = self.source.readline() logging.info('%s: %s' % (self.name, line[:-1])) self.dest.write(line) self.dest.flush() exe_to_pythonmodule_reader, exe_to_pythonmodule_writer =\ get_fifo() pythonmodule_to_exe_reader, pythonmodule_to_exe_writer =\ get_fifo() p1 = subprocess.Popen(exe, shell=False, stdin=subprocess.PIPE, stdout=subprocess.PIPE) old_stdin = sys.stdin old_stdout = sys.stdout sys.stdin = exe_to_pythonmodule_reader sys.stdout = pythonmodule_to_exe_writer push1 = Pusher(p1.stdout, exe_to_pythonmodule_writer, p1, '1') push2 = Pusher(pythonmodule_to_exe_reader, p1.stdin, p1, '2') push1.start() push2.start() ret = pythonmodule.play() sys.stdin = old_stdin sys.stdout = old_stdout

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  • Compound Primary Key in Hibernate using Annotations

    - by Rich
    Hi, I have a table which uses two columns to represent its primary key, a transaction id and then the sequence number. I tried what was recommended http://docs.jboss.org/hibernate/stable/annotations/reference/en/html_single/#entity-mapping in section 2.2.3.2.2, but when I used the Hibernate session to commit this Entity object, it leaves out the TXN_ID field in the insert statement and only includes the BA_SEQ field! What's going wrong? Here's the related code excerpt: @Id @Column(name="TXN_ID") private long txn_id; public long getTxnId(){return txn_id;} public void setTxnId(long t){this.txn_id=t;} @Id @Column(name="BA_SEQ") private int seq; public int getSeq(){return seq;} public void setSeq(int s){this.seq=s;} And here are some log statements to show what exactly happens to fail: In createKeepTxnId of DAO base class: about to commit Transaction :: txn_id->90625 seq->0 ...<Snip>... Hibernate: insert into TBL (BA_ACCT_TXN_ID, BA_AUTH_SRVC_TXN_ID, BILL_SRVC_ID, BA_BILL_SRVC_TXN_ID, BA_CAUSE_TXN_ID, BA_CHANNEL, CUSTOMER_ID, BA_MERCHANT_FREETEXT, MERCHANT_ID, MERCHANT_PARENT_ID, MERCHANT_ROOT_ID, BA_MERCHANT_TXN_ID, BA_PRICE, BA_PRICE_CRNCY, BA_PROP_REQS, BA_PROP_VALS, BA_REFERENCE, RESERVED_1, RESERVED_2, RESERVED_3, SRVC_PROD_ID, BA_STATUS, BA_TAX_NAME, BA_TAX_RATE, BA_TIMESTAMP, BA_SEQ) values (?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?) [WARN] util.JDBCExceptionReporter SQL Error: 1400, SQLState: 23000 [ERROR] util.JDBCExceptionReporter ORA-01400: cannot insert NULL into ("SCHEMA"."TBL"."TXN_ID") The important thing to note is I print out the entity object which has a txn_id set, and then the following insert into statement does not include TXN_ID in the listing and thus the NOT NULL table constraint rejects the query.

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  • exit /B 0 does not work

    - by murxx
    I have the following problem: I have created a batch script which calls itself in there (for being able to write a log in parallel). In the script I start another process (like start startServer.bat) which starts up a java process and keeps opened up all the time. In my original script I wait 30 seconds, check if the process is running and do an: exit /B 0 Unfortunately that does not work, the window shows that the exit /B 0 is being evaluated, but the window still keeps open. When I close the window with the other process (meaning the "child" processes started up in my .bat) my script continues its run. So: scriptA.bat -> in there I call: start startServer.bat -> wait 30 seconds -> check is server is started -> exit /B 0 Process hangs up! What's very odd, if I wrap another script around, like: scriptB.bat -> call scriptA.bat -----> in there I call: start startServer.bat -----> wait 30 seconds -----> check if server is started -----> exit /B 0 -> scriptA.bat continues without any hangup! I also tried the same with exit 0 (without /B) also, same result! In the first case it hangs up, in the second case my window closes as expected... Has anyone of you ever had such a problem before and knows what's wrong here? Process hangs up!

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  • em1: watchdog timeout -- resetting virtualbox

    - by lightmanhk
    everyone. I try to configure network adapter of my freebsd on virtualbox machine. At first setting up, I got it right. However, after a couple of reboots, my VM gives me a error message: says "em1:Watchdog timeout -- resetting" I tried to google it, and there is no solution that works for me. The following is my network adapter of my VM: Apapter1: NAT Adapter2: Host-only Adapter vboxnet0 On my Virtualbox setting: Host-only networks: Adapter: IPv4 address: 192.168.56.10 IPv4 network mask: 255.255.255.0 On my FreeBSD VM /etc/rc.conf ifconfig_em0="DHCP" ifconfig_em1="inet 192.168.56.11 netmask 255.255.255.0" Moreover, strange thing is that, for example, if timeout error message show at ttyv0 , when I log in at different ttyv[1-9], the error message will not be shown. but in ttyv0, it still gives me the message. And, in term of functionality of em1, it does work. I have no clue about this problem. Hoping any one can give me a solution or suggestion. That will be great! Thanks a lot. Freebsd version: 9.0-RELEASE FreeBSD 9.0-RELEASE i386 Virtual box: 4.1.2 r73507

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  • Grails GORM rarely works in domain classes

    - by Vena
    I have many to many relationship between User and Organization. I want to delete user from all his organizations when the user is being deleted, so this is basically what I came up with: class User { ... def beforeDelete() { def user = User.get(id) Organization.all.each { it.removeFromMembers(user) it.save() } } } This surprisingly doesn't work because User.get(id) returns null even though the user with the given id is in the database, when I look at the log, no sql statement is even executed. So I tried to use load() method insted. ObjectNotFoundException is the result then. So I tried this as I was quite desperate: def user = User.find("from User as u where u.id = ?", [1L]) This, for some reason, works. But now, the line with it.removeFromMembers(user) throws NullPointerException. I tried to put this logic in my UserController and it works! Why is this? Why can't I do this in domain classes? This makes beforeDelete hook (and all the others too) pretty useless.

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  • how to allow unamed user in svn authz file?

    - by dtrosset
    I have a subversion server running with apache. It authenticates users using LDAP in apache configuration and uses SVN authorizations to limit user access to certain repositories. This works perfectly. Apache DAV svn SVNParentPath /srv/svn SVNListParentPath Off SVNPathAuthz Off AuthType Basic AuthName "Subversion Repository" AuthBasicProvider ldap AuthLDAPBindDN # private stuff AuthLDAPBindPassword # private stuff AuthLDAPURL # private stuff Require valid-user AuthzSVNAccessFile /etc/apache2/dav_svn.authz Subversion [groups] soft = me, and, all, other, developpers Adding anonymous access from one machine Now, I have a service I want to setup (rietveld, for code reviews) that needs to have an anonymous access to the repository. As this is a web service, accesses are always done from the same server. Thus I added apache configuration to allow all accesses from this machine. This did not work until I add an additional line in the authorization file to allow read access to user -. Apache <Limit GET PROPFIND OPTIONS REPORT> Order allow,deny Allow from # private IP address Satisfy Any </Limit> Subversion [Software:/] @soft = rw - = r # <-- This is the added line For instance, before I add this, all users were authenticated, and thus had a name. Now, some accesses are done without a user name! I found this - user name in the apache log files. But does this line equals to * = r that I absolutely do not want to enable, or does it only allows the anonymous unnamed user (that is allowed access only from the rietveld server)?

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  • CakePHP: Need help using saveField to update a fields in a belongsTo model

    - by afrisch
    I am trying to update a password into two different models/tables in CakePHP. I can update it fine in the parent model, but not the second model. Models: Users (hasOne GameProfile) PK=id Gameprofiles (belongsTo User) FK=user_id Here is a stripped down version of my function in the Users_controller.php: function updatepass() { if (!empty($this->data)) { $this->User->id = $this->Auth->user('id'); $this->User->saveField('sha1password', $this->Auth->password($this->data['User']['newpass'])); $this->User->Gameprofile->saveField('plainpassword', $this->data['User']['newpass']); } } When I execute the function, the users table is updated fine. But the gameprofile table is not updated, rather Cake does an insert. SQL Query Log: 1195 Query UPDATE `users` SET `sha1password` = 'e9443e9f5e1a07832aad1b2f84de1a666daf89b5' WHERE `users`.`id` = 30 1195 Query INSERT INTO `gameprofiles` (`plainpassword`) VALUES ('abc') Is there a way to get CakePHP to do an update using saveField on a model with a belongsTo attribute? I've tried various ways to refer to user_id before executing the second saveField, but just can't seem to find the winning combination. Any help is greatly appreciated!

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  • Ruby on Rails user login form in main layout

    - by Jimmy
    Hey guys I have a simple ror application for some demo stuff. I am running into a problem with trying to move my login form from the users controller and just have it displayed in the main navigation so that a user can easily log in from anywhere. The problem is the form doesn't generate the correct action for the html form. Ruby code: <% form_for(url_for(:action => 'login'), :method => 'post') do |f| %> <li><%= f.text_field("username") %></li> <li><%= f.password_field("password") %></li> <li><%= submit_tag("Login")%></li> <% end %> The problem is depending on the controller I am currently in this generates HTML actions like <form action="/home" method="post">...</form> when it should be generating HTML like so <form action="/login" method="post">...</form> I know I could simply do an HTML form here but I want to keep things as easy to maintain as possible. Any help?

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  • Better way to implement custom views in a listview with simpleadapter?

    - by jonaz
    I have a value called tags which is a comma separated list of words. I want to put this into nicely designed "tag-buttons". The below works. However the line ((LinearLayout) view).removeAllViews(); seems like an ugly fix for not adding the tags multiple times every time adapter.notifyDataSetChanged(); is called after i load more rows with a setOnScrollListener() Any suggestion to "best practice" here, or at least a more good looking solution? adapter = new SimpleAdapter(activity,data, R.layout.list_transactions, new String[] {"comment", "amount","date","tags","category"}, new int[] { R.id.comment, R.id.amount,R.id.date,R.id.tags_container,R.id.category } ); SimpleAdapter.ViewBinder binder = new SimpleAdapter.ViewBinder() { @Override public boolean setViewValue(View view, Object object, String value) { //Log.d(TAG,"view.toString()= "+ view.toString()); if (view.getId() == R.id.tags_container) { String[] tags = value.split(","); ((LinearLayout) view).removeAllViews(); for (String tag : tags) { View v = createTagView(activity.getLayoutInflater(),tag); ((LinearLayout) view).addView(v); } return true; } return false; } };

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  • Looping over commits for a file with jGit

    - by Andy Jarrett
    I've managed to get to grips with the basics of jGit file in terms of connecting to a repos and adding, commiting, and even looping of the commit messages for the files. File gitDir = new File("/Users/myname/Sites/helloworld/.git"); RepositoryBuilder builder = new RepositoryBuilder(); Repository repository; repository = builder.setGitDir(gitDir).readEnvironment() .findGitDir().build(); Git git = new Git(repository); RevWalk walk = new RevWalk(repository); RevCommit commit = null; // Add all files // AddCommand add = git.add(); // add.addFilepattern(".").call(); // Commit them // CommitCommand commit = git.commit(); // commit.setMessage("Commiting from java").call(); Iterable<RevCommit> logs = git.log().call(); Iterator<RevCommit> i = logs.iterator(); while (i.hasNext()) { commit = walk.parseCommit( i.next() ); System.out.println( commit.getFullMessage() ); } What I want to do next is be able to get all the commit message for a single file and then be able revert the single file back to a specific reference/point in time.

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  • Passing session between jsf backing bean and model

    - by Rachel
    Background : I am having backing bean which has upload method that listen when file is uploaded. Now I pass this file to parser and in parser am doing validation check for row present in csv file. If validation fails, I have to log information and saving in logging table in database. My end goal : Is to get session information in logging bean so that I can get initialContext and make call to ejb to save data to database. What is happening : In my upload backing bean, am getting session but when i call parser, I do not pass session information as I do not want parser to be dependent on session as I want to unit test parser individually. So in my parser, I do not have session information, from parser am making call to logging bean(just a bean with some ejb methods) but in this logging bean, i need session because i need to get initial context. Question Is there a way in JSF, that I can get the session in my logging bean that I have in my upload backing bean? I tried doing: FacesContext ctx = FacesContext.getCurrentInstance(); HttpSession session = (HttpSession) ctx.getExternalContext().getSession(false); but session value was null, more generic question would be : How can I get session information in model bean or other beans that are referenced from backing beans in which we have session? Do we have generic method in jsf using which we can access session information throughout JSF Application?

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  • Protecting sensitive entity data

    - by Andreas
    Hi, I'm looking for some advice on architecture for a client/server solution with some peculiarities. The client is a fairly thick one, leaving the server mostly to peristence, concurrency and infrastructure concerns. The server contains a number of entities which contain both sensitive and public information. Think for example that the entities are persons, assume that social security number and name are sensitive and age is publicly viewable. When starting the client, the user is presented with a number of entities, not disclosing any sensitive information. At any time the user can choose to log in and authenticate against the server, given the authentication is successful the user is granted access to the sensitive information. The client is hosting a domain model and I was thinking of implementing this as some kind of "lazy loading", making the first request instantiating the entities and later refreshing them with sensitive data. The entity getters would throw exceptions on sensitive information when they've not been disclosed, f.e.: class PersonImpl : PersonEntity { private bool undisclosed; public override string SocialSecurityNumber { get { if (undisclosed) throw new UndisclosedDataException(); return base.SocialSecurityNumber; } } } Another more friendly approach could be to have a value object indicating that the value is undisclosed. get { if (undisclosed) return undisclosedValue; return base.SocialSecurityNumber; } Some concerns: What if the user logs in and then out, the sensitive data has been loaded but must be disclosed once again. One could argue that this type of functionality belongs within the domain and not some infrastructural implementation(i.e. repository implementations). As always when dealing with a larger number of properties there's a risk that this type of functionality clutters the code Any insights or discussion is appreciated!

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  • implementing a Intelligent File Transfer Software in java over TCP/IP

    - by whyjava
    Hello I am working on a proposal where we have to implement a software which can move files between one source to destination.The overall goal of this project is to create intelligent file transfer.This software will have three components :- 1) Broker : Broker is the module that communicates with other brokers, monitors files, moves files, retrieves configurations from the Configuration Manager, supplies process information for the monitor, archives files, writes all process data to log files and escalates issues if necessary 2) Configuration Manager :Configuration Manager is a web-based application used to configure and deploy the configuration to all brokers. 3) Monitor : Monitor is a web-based application used to monitor each Broker in the environment. This project has to be built up in java and protocol for file transfer in tcp/ip. Client does not want to use FTP. File Transfer seems very easy, until there are several processes who are waiting to pick the file up automatically. Several problems arise: How can we guarantee the file is received at the destination? If a file isn’t received the first time, we should try it again (even after a restart or power breakdown) ? How does the receiver knows the file that is received is complete? How can we transfer multiple files synchronously? How can we protect the bandwidth, so file transfer isn’t blocking other processes? How does one interoperate between multiple OS platforms? What about authentication? How can we monitor het workflow? Auditing / logging Archiving Can you please provide answer to some of these? Thanks

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  • Why am I getting a ClassCastException here?

    - by Holly
    I'm creating an android application and i'm trying to use a PreferenceActivity. I'm getting the java.lang.ClassCastException: java.lang.String error when it gets to this line return PreferenceManager.getDefaultSharedPreferences(context).getInt(USER_TERM, USER_TERM_DEF); I thought it might be because I'm not converting it properly from it's string value in the EditText box to the int I need but I can't figure out how to fix this, or is that even the cause? I'm flummoxed. Here's my preference activity class: public class UserPrefs extends PreferenceActivity { //option names and default vals private static final String USER_TERM = "term_length"; private static final String USER_YEAR = "year_length"; private static final int USER_TERM_DEF = 12; private static final int USER_YEAR_DEF = 34; @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState){ super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); addPreferencesFromResource(R.xml.preferences); } public static int getTermLength(Context context){ try{ return PreferenceManager.getDefaultSharedPreferences(context).getInt(USER_TERM, USER_TERM_DEF); }catch (ClassCastException e){Log.v("getTermLength", "error::: " + e); } //return 1;//temporary, needed to catch the error and couldn't without adding a return outside the block.// } public static int getYearLength(Context context){ return PreferenceManager.getDefaultSharedPreferences(context).getInt(USER_YEAR, USER_YEAR_DEF); } And here's the bit of code where I'm trying to use the the preferences inside another class: public float alterForFrequency(Context keypadContext, float enteredAmount, String spinnerPosition){ int termLength = UserPrefs.getTermLength(keypadContext); int yearLength = UserPrefs.getYearLength(keypadContext); } The complete android logcat, i've uploaded here: http://freetexthost.com/v3t4ta3wbi

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  • xml parser not able to read all the nodes of the xml

    - by pankaj
    Hi i am trying to get values from all the nodes of a xml returned from a web service. But my code only reads first node, it does not read it further. code: -(void)parseData{ NuanceAppDelegate *appDel = (NuanceAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; NSString *url = @"http://cmweb.bpomatrix.net/SmartPhoneService.svc/login/"; url = [[[url stringByAppendingString:UserName] stringByAppendingString:@"/"] stringByAppendingString:Password]; url = [[url stringByAppendingString:@"/"] stringByAppendingString:appDel.CPAID]; NSLog(@"log: @%",url); NSURL *loginURL = [NSURL URLWithString:url]; NSXMLParser *home_Parser = [[NSXMLParser alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:loginURL]; [home_Parser setDelegate:self]; dict = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; [home_Parser parse]; } - (void)parser:(NSXMLParser *)parser didStartElement:(NSString *)elementName namespaceURI:(NSString *)namespaceURI qualifiedName:(NSString *)qualifiedName attributes:(NSDictionary *)attributeDict{ if([elementName isEqualToString:@"Address"]) addressFound = TRUE; if([elementName isEqualToString:@"Name"]) nameFound = TRUE; if([elementName isEqualToString:@"LoyaltyNum"]) loyaltyNumFound = TRUE; if([elementName isEqualToString:@"City"]) cityFound = TRUE; if([elementName isEqualToString:@"Province"]) proFound = TRUE; if([elementName isEqualToString:@"Zip"]) zipFound = TRUE; //NSLog(@"Response %@",responseFound); } - (void)parser:(NSXMLParser *)parser foundCharacters:(NSString *)string{ if(addressFound) { [dict setObject:string forKey:@"address"]; addressFound = FALSE; } else if(nameFound) { [dict setObject:string forKey:@"name"]; nameFound = FALSE; } else if(loyaltyNumFound) { [dict setObject:string forKey:@"loyaltyNum"]; loyaltyNumFound = FALSE; } else if(cityFound) { [dict setObject:string forKey:@"city"]; cityFound = FALSE; } else if(proFound) { [dict setObject:string forKey:@"province"]; proFound = FALSE; } else if(zipFound) { [dict setObject:string forKey:@"zip"]; zipFound = FALSE; } } - (void)parser:(NSXMLParser *)parser didEndElement:(NSString *)elementName namespaceURI:(NSString *)namespaceURI qualifiedName:(NSString *)qName { if([elementName isEqualToString:@"clsUserProfile"]) { [self parsingOver]; } } -(void)parsingOver { NuanceAppDelegate *appDel = (NuanceAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; appDel.dictProfile = dict; }

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  • What is the best / proper idiom in django for modifying a field during a .save() where you need to o

    - by MDBGuy
    Hi, say I've got: class LogModel(models.Model): message = models.CharField(max_length=512) class Assignment(models.Model): someperson = models.ForeignKey(SomeOtherModel) def save(self, *args, **kwargs): super(Assignment, self).save() old_person = #????? LogModel(message="%s is no longer assigned to %s"%(old_person, self).save() LogModel(message="%s is now assigned to %s"%(self.someperson, self).save() My goal is to save to LogModel some messages about who Assignment was assigned to. Notice that I need to know the old, presave value of this field. I have seen code that suggests, before super().save(), retrieve the instance from the database via primary key and grab the old value from there. This could work, but is a bit messy. In addition, I plan to eventually split this code out of the .save() method via signals - namely pre_save() and post_save(). Trying to use the above logic (Retrieve from the db in pre_save, make the log entry in post_save) seemingly fails here, as pre_save and post_save are two seperate methods. Perhaps in pre_save I can retrieve the old value and stick it on the model as an attribute? I was wondering if there was a common idiom for this. Thanks.

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  • webBrower Button Click without element ID?

    - by Jeremy
    I'm working on a login system for a forum and trying to make it work via a c# .net form. I need to programitically click the login button on the forum with a webBrower control. So far I have this. webPage page = new webPage(); page.URL = txtURL.Text; page.Load(); //Load the text from the specified URL WebBrowser browser = new WebBrowser(); browser.Document.GetElementById("navbar_username").SetAttribute("value", textBox1.Text); browser.Document.GetElementById("navbar_password").SetAttribute("value", textBox2.Text); HtmlElement el = browser.Document.All["btnI"]; if (el != null) { el.InvokeMember("click"); } else { MessageBox.Show("There is an issue with the program"); } The issue is that the login button on the page does not have an ID or any real information that can allow me to click on it. Does anyone have any suggestions? Here is the code for the login button. <input type="image" src="images/loginbutton.png" class="loginbutton" tabindex="104" value="Log in" title="Enter your username and password in the boxes provided to login, or click the 'register' button to create a profile for yourself." accesskey="s">

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  • AJAX filter MySQL results using checkboxes

    - by keepitnang
    I'm attempting to get to grips with displaying filterable MySQL data within a PHP page based on user checkbox selections. I have a database of domain names and the dates on which these will require renewal as per Nominet DAC information and I can get unfiltered data to display, but filtering results by domain extensions is proving tricky for me to accomplish. I should point out at this stage that I am a serious newcomer to many of the ideas I am trying to learn to work with here, so please be gentle. I have tried following some other articles on here also, but no dice. I have the following so far: HTML <input type="checkbox" class="extensions" name="extensions" value=".co.uk">.co.uk</input> <input type="checkbox" class="extensions" name="extensions" value=".org.uk">.org.uk</input> Script $('.extensions').live('click', function() { var all_boxes = $('.extensions'); var all_boxes_values = []; var i = 0; for (var i; i < all_boxes.length; i++) { if (all_boxes[i].checked) { all_boxes_values.push(all_boxes[i].value) } } var all_boxes_values_clean = all_boxes_values.join(", "); console.log(all_boxes_values_clean); $.get("sql-test.php", {q: all_boxes_values_clean}, function(result) { $("div#output").html(result); } )}); PHP $g = $_GET['q']; $extensionsql=""; $extension=1; if(isset($g)) { $extension=1; $param = "" . str_replace(",", "','", $_GET['q']) . ""; } And that's as far as I have gotten with my limited ability. What I would like to do next is search the column domainName for a string match and return the appropriate results to the user. Something to mimic something like the following but I'm not sure how to achieve it. Any help would be much appreciated: SELECT * FROM `refresh` WHERE `domainName` LIKE '%.co.uk%' AND renewalDate LIKE '%2012-06-30%' ORDER BY `domainName` ASC Thanks

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  • iphone nsarray problem?

    - by Brodie4598
    Okay maybe i just need another set of eyes on this, but I have the following lines of code in one of my view controllers. It takes some data from a file, and populates it into an array using "\n" as a separator. I then use that array to make an NSDictionary, which is used to populate a tableview. It's very simple. However it isnt working. Here's the code: NSString *dataString = [NSString stringWithContentsOfFile:checklistPath encoding: NSUTF8StringEncoding error:NULL]; if ([dataString hasPrefix:@"\n"]) { dataString = [dataString substringFromIndex:1]; } NSArray *tempArray = [dataString componentsSeparatedByString:@"\n"]; NSLog(@"datastring:%@",dataString); NSLog(@"temp array:",tempArray); NSLog(@"%i",[tempArray count]); NSDictionary *temporaryDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObject: tempArray forKey:@"User Generated Checklist"]; self.names = temporaryDictionary; NSLog(@"names:%@",names); so in the log, datastring is correct, so it's correctly pulling the data from a file. however for tempArray, i get: 2010-05-17 19:15:55.825 MyApp[7309:207] temp array: for the tempArray count i get: 2010-05-17 19:15:55.826 myApp[7309:207] 5 which is the correct number of strings in the array So i'm stumped. I have the EXACT same few lines of code in a different view controller and it works perfectly. Whats crazier is the last NSLog, that shows the final NSDictionary (names) displays this, which looks correct: 2010-05-17 19:15:55.827 FS Companion[7309:207] names:{ "User Generated Checklist" = ( "System|||ACTION", "System|||ACTION", "System|||ACTION", "System|||ACTION", "System|||ACTION" ); \ am i missing something really obvious??

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  • asp.net mvc 2 - return JavaScript with View

    - by Tomaszewski
    Hi, using ASP.NET MVC 2 I have a navigation menu inside my Master Page. In the navigation menu, I am trying add a class to the that the current page relates to (i.e., home page will add class="active" to the Home button). I'm trying to consider scalability and the fact that I don't want to change individual pages if the navigation changes later. The only way I can think of doing this is: Add JavaScript to each individual View that will add the class when the DOM is ready Return JavaScript when return View() occurs on point (2), I am unsure how to do. Thusfar I have been doing the following in my controller: public ActionResult Index() { ViewData["messege"] = JavaScript("<script type='text/javascript' language='javascript'> $(document).ready(function () { console.log('hi hi hi'); }); </script>"); return View(); } but in my view, when I call: <%: ViewData["messege"] %> I get: System.Web.Mvc.JavaScriptResult as the result Would you guys have any ideas on How to solve the navigation menu probelem, other than the solutions I've listed return JavaScript along with your view from the Controller Thanks, in advanced!

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  • Custom UIButton Memory Management in dealloc

    - by ddawber
    I am hoping to clarify the processes going on here. I have created a subclass of UIButton whose init method looks like this: - (id)initWithTitle:(NSString *)title frame:(CGRect)btnFrame { self = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; [self setTitle:title forState:UIControlStateNormal]; self.frame = btnFrame; return self; } In my view controller I am creating one of these buttons and adding it as a subview: myButton = [[CustomButton alloc] initWithTitle:@"Title" frame:someFrame]; [self.view addSubview:myButton]; In the view controller's dealloc method I log the retain count of my button: - (void)dealloc { NSLog(@"RC: %d", [myButton retainCount]); //RC = 2 [super dealloc]; NSLog(@"RC: %d", [myButton retainCount]); //RC = 1 } The way I understand it, myButton is not actually retained, even though I invoked it using alloc, because in my subclass I created an autorelease button (using buttonWithType:). In dealloc, does this mean that, when dealloc is called the superview releases the button and its retain count goes down to 1? The button has not yet been autoreleased? Or do I need to get that retain count down to zero after calling [super dealloc]? Cheers.

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  • How to determine loading status of images not attached to the DOM

    - by Rookwood
    I am working on a bit of javascript to plot data on a <canvas. The data points are marked by one of several different (small) image files. I am attempting to have the plot method wait until all the images are loaded. My best attempt thus far is such: var icon = { left : { air : new Image(), bone : new Image(), }, right : { air: new Image(), bone : new Image(), }, }; icon.left.air.src = option.imgPath + 'left.air.png'; icon.right.air.src = option.imgPath + 'right.air.png'; icon.left.bone.src = option.imgPath + 'left.bone.png'; icon.right.bone.src = option.imgPath + 'right.bone.png'; function main() { Canvas.draw(); // Make sure our image icons are loaded before we try to plot $(icon.left.air).load(function() { $(icon.right.air).load(function() { $(icon.left.bone).load(function() { $(icon.right.bone).load(function() { Data.plot(); }); }); }); }); } This works as expected most of the time. On occasion, it will fail and no data will be plotted. Inserting several console.log() statements shows that the script will silently stop working through the series of .load() statements, though code that comes after will be executed. My questions are as follows: Am I approaching this the right way? Is there a way to attach an event to my icon object that will fire once all of the images inside are loaded? This is a jquery plugin, so obviously jquery-based solutions are just as acceptable as vanilla javascript.

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