Search Results

Search found 17625 results on 705 pages for 'techno log'.

Page 623/705 | < Previous Page | 619 620 621 622 623 624 625 626 627 628 629 630  | Next Page >

  • What is the most common way to use a middleware in node with express and connect

    - by Bernhard
    Thinking about the correct way, how to make use of middlewares in a node.js web project using express and connect which is growing up at the moment. Of course there are middlewares right now wich has to pass or extend requests globally but in a lot of cases there are special jobs like prepare incoming data and in this case the middleware would only work for a set of http-methods and routes. I've a component based architecture and each component brings it's own middleware layer which can implement those for requests this component can handle. On app startup any required component is loaded and prepared. Is it a good idea to bind the middleware code execution to URLs to keep cpu load lower or is it better to use middlewares only for global purposes? Here's some dummy how an url related middleware look like. app.use(function(req, res, next) { // Check if requested route is a part of the current component // or if the middleware should be passed on any request if (APP.controller.groups.Component.isExpectedRoute(req) || APP.controller.groups.Component.getConfig().MIDDLEWARE_PASS_ALL === true) { // Execute the midleware code here console.log('This is a route which should be afected by middleware'); ... next(); }else{ next(); } });

    Read the article

  • How to get around LazyInitializationException in scheduled jobs?

    - by Shreerang
    I am working on a J2EE server application which is deployed on Tomcat. I use Spring source as MVC framework and Hibernate as ORM provider. My object model has lot of Lazy relationships (dependent objects are fetched on request). The high level design is like Service level methods call a few DAO methods to perform database operation. The service method is called either from the Flex UI or as a scheduled job. When it is called from Flex UI, the service method works fine i.e. it fetches some objects using DAO methods and even Lazy loading works. This is possible by the use of OpenSessionInViewFilter configured with the UI servlet. But when the same service method is called as scheduled Job, it gives LazyInitializationException. I can not configure OpenSessionInViewFilter because there is no servlet or UI request associated with that. I tried configuring Transaction around the scheduled job method so that service method starts a transaction and all the DAO methods participate in that same transaction, hoping that the transaction will remain active and hibernate session will be available. But it does not work. Please suggest if anyone has ever been able to get such a configuration working. If needed, I can post the Hibernate configuration and log messages. Thanks a lot for help! Shreerang

    Read the article

  • How do I set the LRECL in C#.NET?

    - by donde
    I have been trying to ftp a dtl file from .net to, what I beleive, is an AS400. The error being reported back to me is: "One or more lines have been truncated" and the admin is saying the file is coming over with 256 lines that have variable length columns. I found this explanation online: we have to establish defaults because no specifics about the file exist. The default RECFM is V and LRECL is 256. This means that SAS will scan the input record looking for the CR & LF to tell us that we are at the EOR. If the marker isn't found within the limit of the LRECL, SAS discards the data from the LRECL value to the end of the record and adds a message to the Log that "One or more lines have been truncated". So I need to set the LRECL. How do I do this in C# .NET? FtpWebRequest ftp = (FtpWebRequest)FtpWebRequest.Create(ftpfullpath); ftp.Credentials = new NetworkCredential(user, pwd); ftp.KeepAlive = false; ftp.UseBinary = false; ftp.Method = WebRequestMethods.Ftp.UploadFile; FileStream fs = File.OpenRead(inputfilepath + ftpfileName); byte[] buffer = new byte[fs.Length]; fs.Read(buffer, 0, buffer.Length); fs.Close(); Stream ftpstream = ftp.GetRequestStream(); int i = 0; int intBlock = 1786; int intBuffLeft = buffer.Length; while (i < buffer.Length) { if (intBuffLeft >= 1786) { ftpstream.Write(buffer, i, intBlock); } else { ftpstream.Write(buffer, i, intBuffLeft); } i += intBlock; intBuffLeft -= 1786; } ftpstream.Close();

    Read the article

  • Displaying performance metrics in a modern web app?

    - by Charles
    We're updating our ancient internal PHP application at work. Right now, we gather extensive performance measurements on every pageview, and log them to the database. Additionally, users requested that some of the metrics be displayed at the bottom of the page. This worked out pretty well for us, because the last thing that the application does on every request is include the file containing the HTML footer. The updated parts of the application use an MVC framework and a Dispatch/Request/Response loop. The page footer is no longer the last thing done. In fact, it could very well be the first thing done, before the rest of the page is created. Because we can grab the Response before it's returned to the user, we could try to include placeholders for the performance metrics in the footer and simply replace them with the actual numbers, but this strikes me as a bad idea somehow. How do you handle this in your modern web app? While we're using PHP, I'm curious how it's done in a Ruby/Rails app, and in your favorite Python framework.

    Read the article

  • jQuery indexOf select box manipulation

    - by kenny99
    Hi, I'm trying to figure out how to remove options from a select box when that option has been selected in an adjacent select box. Basically the user has the option to add multiple records here via select boxes, but I want to remove the list of options available to them so that, for example, they can't enter the same value in two select boxes. When an Add More button is clicked, I fade in the next select box container. A number of select boxes have been generated by PHP and I use JS to hide them. Each select box has a unique number appended to the ID, so i want to access those select boxes which contain the string "other_pet_types", then I want to iterate through the currently visible ones and build an array of the values which have been selected, which I will then remove from the list of options in the newly displayed select box. This is what I have so far, but it's definitely not right - I can't get the initial test on the ID to work. Any pointers greatly appreciated as i realise i'm pretty wide of the mark at the moment! var vals = new Array(); //build array with currently selected options $('p.mult_entries select').each(function(){ vals += $(this).val(); }); $("p.mult_entries:hidden:first").fadeIn("slow", function() { $(this).find(('select').attr('id').indexOf('other_pet_types') > 0).each(function(){ console.log($(this).val()); //as expected prints nothing - need to iterate through the options of the above select //once i extract the correct values, iterate through new select box and use inArray to remove options where that value already exists in one of previous select boxes }); });

    Read the article

  • protect form hijacking hack

    - by Karem
    Yes hello today I discovered a hack for my site. When you write a msg on a users wall (in my communitysite) it runs a ajax call, to insert the msg to the db and will then on success slide down and show it. Works fine with no problem. So I was rethinking alittle, I am using POST methods for this and if it was GET method you could easily do ?msg=haxmsg&usr=12345679. But what could you do to come around the POST method? I made a new html document, made a form and on action i set "site.com/insertwall.php" (the file that normally are being used in ajax), i made some input fields with names exactly like i am doing with the ajaxcall (msg, uID (userid), BuID (by userid) ) and made a submit button. I know I have a page_protect() function on which requires you to login and if you arent you will be header to index.php. So i logged in (started session on my site.com) and then I pressed on this submit button. And then wops I saw on my site that it has made a new message. I was like wow, was it so easy to hijack POST method i thought maybe it was little more secure or something. I would like to know what could I do to prevent this hijacking? As i wouldnt even want to know what real hackers could do with this "hole". The page_protect secures that the sessions are from the same http user agent and so, and this works fine (tried to run the form without logging in, and it just headers me to startpage) but yea wouldnt take long time to figure out to log in first and then run it. Any advices are appreciated alot. I would like to keep my ajax calls most secure as possible and all of them are running on the POST method. What could I do to the insertwall.php, to check that it comes from the server or something.. Thank you

    Read the article

  • Where can I find my iPhone app's Core Data persistent store?

    - by Dr Dork
    I'm diving into iPhone development, so I apologize in advance if this is a ridiculous question, but in a new iPad app project using the Core Data framework, here's the generated code for creating the persistentStoreCoordinator... - (NSPersistentStoreCoordinator *)persistentStoreCoordinator { if (persistentStoreCoordinator != nil) { return persistentStoreCoordinator; } NSURL *storeUrl = [NSURL fileURLWithPath: [[self applicationDocumentsDirectory] stringByAppendingPathComponent: @"ApplicationName.sqlite"]]; NSError *error = nil; persistentStoreCoordinator = [[NSPersistentStoreCoordinator alloc] initWithManagedObjectModel:[self managedObjectModel]]; if (![persistentStoreCoordinator addPersistentStoreWithType:NSSQLiteStoreType configuration:nil URL:storeUrl options:nil error:&error]) { /* Replace this implementation with code to handle the error appropriately. abort() causes the application to generate a crash log and terminate. You should not use this function in a shipping application, although it may be useful during development. If it is not possible to recover from the error, display an alert panel that instructs the user to quit the application by pressing the Home button. Typical reasons for an error here include: * The persistent store is not accessible * The schema for the persistent store is incompatible with current managed object model Check the error message to determine what the actual problem was. */ NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@", error, [error userInfo]); abort(); } return persistentStoreCoordinator; } My questions are... The first time I run the app, is the ApplicationName.sqllite database created automatically if it doesn't exist? If not, when is it created? When data is added to it programmatically? Once the DB does exist, where can I locate the file? I'd like to open it with a different program so I can manually manipulate the data. Thanks so much in advance for your help! I'm going to continue researching these questions right now.

    Read the article

  • exit /B 0 does not work

    - by murxx
    I have the following problem: I have created a batch script which calls itself in there (for being able to write a log in parallel). In the script I start another process (like start startServer.bat) which starts up a java process and keeps opened up all the time. In my original script I wait 30 seconds, check if the process is running and do an: exit /B 0 Unfortunately that does not work, the window shows that the exit /B 0 is being evaluated, but the window still keeps open. When I close the window with the other process (meaning the "child" processes started up in my .bat) my script continues its run. So: scriptA.bat -> in there I call: start startServer.bat -> wait 30 seconds -> check is server is started -> exit /B 0 Process hangs up! What's very odd, if I wrap another script around, like: scriptB.bat -> call scriptA.bat -----> in there I call: start startServer.bat -----> wait 30 seconds -----> check if server is started -----> exit /B 0 -> scriptA.bat continues without any hangup! I also tried the same with exit 0 (without /B) also, same result! In the first case it hangs up, in the second case my window closes as expected... Has anyone of you ever had such a problem before and knows what's wrong here? Process hangs up!

    Read the article

  • How to get a debug flow of execution in C++

    - by Rich
    Hi, I work on a global trading system which supports many users. Each user can book,amend,edit,delete trades. The system is regulated by a central deal capture service. The deal capture service informs all the user of any updates that occur. The problem comes when we have crashes, as the production environment is impossible to re-create on a test system, I have to rely on crash dumps and log files. However this doesn't tell me what the user has been doing. I'd like a system that would (at the time of crashing) dump out a history of what the user has been doing. Anything that I add has to go into the live environment so it can't impact performance too much. Ideas wise I was thinking of a MACRO at the top of each function which acted like a stack trace (only I could supply additional user information, like trade id's, user dialog choices, etc ..) The system would record stack traces (on a per thread basis) and keep a history in a cyclic buffer (varying in size, depending on how much history you wanted to capture). Then on crash, I could dump this history stack. I'd really like to hear if anyone has a better solution, or if anyone knows of an existing framework? Thanks Rich

    Read the article

  • Client-Side Dynamic Removal of <script> Tags in <head>

    - by merv
    Is it possible to remove script tags in the <head> of an HTML document client-side and prior to execution of those tags? On the server-side I am able to insert a <script> above all other <script> tags in the <head>, except one, and I would like to be able to remove all subsequent scripts. I do not have the ability to remove <script> tags from the server side. What I've tried: (function (c,h) { var i, s = h.getElementsByTagName('script'); c.log("Num scripts: " + s.length); i = s.length - 1; while(i > 1) { h.removeChild(s[i]); i -= 1; } })(console, document.head); However, the logged number of scripts comes out to only 1, since (as @ryan pointed out) the code is being executed prior to the DOM being ready. Although wrapping the code above in a document.ready event callback does enable proper calculation of the number of <script> tags in the <head>, waiting until the DOM is ready fails to prevent the scripts from loading. Is there a reliable means of manipulating the HTML prior to the DOM being ready? Background If you want more context, this is part of an attempt to consolidate scripts where no option for server-side aggregation is available. Many of the JS libraries being loaded are from a CMS with limited configuration options. The content is mostly static, so there is very little concern about manually aggregating the JavaScript and serving it from a different location. Any suggestions for alternative applicable aggregation techniques would also be welcome.

    Read the article

  • Vector does reallocation on every push_back

    - by Amrish
    IDE - Visual Studio 2008, Visual C++ I have a custom class Class1 with a copy constructor to it. I also have a vector Data is inserted using the following code Class1* objClass1; vector<Class1> vClass1; for(int i=0;i<1000;i++) { objClass1 = new Class1(); vClass1.push_back(*objClass1); delete objClass1; } Now on every insert, the vector gets re-allocated and all the existing contents are copied to new locations. For example, if the vector has 5 elements and if I insert the 6th one, the previous 5 elements along with the new one gets copied to a new location (I figured it out by adding log statements in the copy constructors.) On using reserve(), this however does not happen as expected! I have the following questions Is it mandatory to always use the reserve statement? Does vector does a reallocation every time I do a push_back; or does it happen because I am debugging?

    Read the article

  • How to make Spring load a JDBC Driver BEFORE initializing Hibernate's SessionFactory?

    - by Bill_BsB
    I'm developing a Spring(2.5.6)+Hibernate(3.2.6) web application to connect to a custom database. For that I have custom JDBC Driver and Hibernate Dialect. I know for sure that these custom classes work (hard coded stuff on my unit tests). The problem, I guess, is with the order on which things get loaded by Spring. Basically: Custom Database initializes Spring load beans from web.xml Spring loads ServletBeans(applicationContext.xml) Hibernate kicks in: shows version and all the properties correctly loaded. Hibernate's HbmBinder runs (maps all my classes) LocalSessionFactoryBean - Building new Hibernate SessionFactory DriverManagerConnectionProvider - using driver: MyCustomJDBCDriver at CustomDBURL I get a SQLException: No suitable driver found for CustomDBURL Hibernate loads the Custom Dialect My CustomJDBCDriver finally gets registered with DriverManager (log messages) SettingsFactory runs SchemaExport runs (hbm2ddl) I get a SQLException: No suitable driver found for CustomDBURL (again?!) Application get successfully deployed but there are no tables on my custom Database. Things that I tried so far: Different techniques for passing hibernate properties: embedded in the 'sessionFactory' bean, loaded from a hibernate.properties file. Nothing worked but I didn't try with hibernate.cfg.xml file neither with a dataSource bean yet. MyCustomJDBCDriver has a static initializer block that registers it self with the DriverManager. Tried different combinations of lazy initializing (lazy-init="true") of the Spring beans but nothing worked. My custom JDBC driver should be the first thing to be loaded - not sure if by Spring but...! Can anyone give me a solution for this or maybe a hint for what else I could try? I can provide more details (huge stack traces for instance) if that helps. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Approach for caching data from data logger

    - by filip-fku
    Greetings, I've been working on a C#.NET app that interacts with a data logger. The user can query and obtain logs for a specified time period, and view plots of the data. Typically a new data log is created every minute and stores a measurement for a few parameters. To get meaningful information out of the logger, a reasonable number of logs need to be acquired - data for at least a few days. The hardware interface is a UART to USB module on the device, which restricts transfers to a maximum of about 30 logs/second. This becomes quite slow when reading in the data acquired over a number of days/weeks. What I would like to do is improve the perceived performance for the user. I realize that with the hardware speed limitation the user will have to wait for the full download cycle at least the first time they acquire a larger set of data. My goal is to cache all data seen by the app, so that it can be obtained faster if ever requested again. The approach I have been considering is to use a light database, like SqlServerCe, that can store the data logs as they are received. I am then hoping to first search the cache prior to querying a device for logs. The cache would be updated with any logs obtained by the request that were not already cached. Finally my question - would you consider this to be a good approach? Are there any better alternatives you can think of? I've tried to search SO and Google for reinforcement of the idea, but I mostly run into discussions of web request/content caching. Thanks for any feedback!

    Read the article

  • Providing downloads on ASP.net website

    - by Dave
    I need to provide downloads of large files (upwards of 2 GB) on an ASP.net website. It has been some time since I've done something like this (I've been in the thick-client world for awhile now), and was wondering on current best practices for this. Ideally, I would like: To be able to track download statistics: # of downloads is essential; actual bytes sent would be nice. To provide downloads in a way that "plays nice" with third-party download managers. Many of our users have unreliable internet connections, and being able to resume a download is a must. To allow multiple users to download the same file simultaneously. My download files are not security-sensitive, so providing a direct link ("right-click to download...") is a possibility. Is just providing a direct link sufficient, letting IIS handle it, and then using some log analyzer service (any recommendations?) to compile and report the statistics? Or do I need to intercept the download request, store some info in a database, then send a custom Response? Or is there an ASP.net user control (built-in or third party) that does this? I appreciate all suggestions.

    Read the article

  • Parsing URL error

    - by user577875
    It didn't seem like there was a post about this, so here goes. I've been working on a simple app to grab my time table from my school, and get it on my phone. Currently I'm working on the port on android but I've hit an issue. I get the error: java.io.IOException: -1 error loading URL urladress. Code: public void updateTimeTable(){ //Get UID and Birthday SharedPreferences prefs = PreferenceManager.getDefaultSharedPreferences(getBaseContext()); String uid = prefs.getString("uid", "000000"); String fods = prefs.getString("fodsdag", "000000"); //Set URL String url = "http://unv1.aalborg-stu.dk/cgi-bin/elevskema.pl?ugen=0&unavn=" + uid + "&fodsdag=" + fods; try { Document doc = Jsoup.connect(url).get(); Elements td = doc.getElementsByTag("td"); //ArrayList<String> tdArray = new ArrayList<String>(); // for (Element tds : td) { // String tdText = tds.text(); // tdArray.add(tdText); //} //String[] data = tdArray.toArray(new String[tdArray.size()]); } catch (IOException e ){ Log.e("Parser", "shite", e); } Context context = getApplicationContext(); CharSequence text = url; int duration = Toast.LENGTH_SHORT; Toast toast = Toast.makeText(context, text, duration); toast.show(); } I've commented some lines out to identify where the issue is, and it seems it's at the actual parsing. Anywho, screenshot of the error I get: Screenshot I got about 4 days worth of Java experience so forgive me if it's something silly. Best Regards

    Read the article

  • How to pass an integration property to a batch file with CruiseControlNet ?

    - by TridenT
    In the build log of my project, i can see these properties: <integrationProperties> <CCNetProject>Gdet_T</CCNetProject> ... <LastChangeNumber>0</LastChangeNumber> <LastIntegrationStatus>Success</LastIntegrationStatus> <LastSuccessfulIntegrationLabel>25</LastSuccessfulIntegrationLabel> <LastModificationDate>4/6/2010 1:29:04 PM</LastModificationDate> <LastChangeNumber>10841</LastChangeNumber> </integrationProperties> I want to pass the property CCNetProject and LastChangeNumber to a batch file. it works well with CCNetProject, as it can be used in the batch as an environment variable %CCNetProject%. But it doesn't work with other properties (those are not starting with the CCnet prefix) as LastChangeNumber or LastModificationDate. I tried to pass it as environment variable, but it fails ! <exec> <executable>$(WorkingFolderBase)\MyBatch.bat</executable> <baseDirectory>$(WorkingFolderBase)\</baseDirectory> <buildArgs>$(LastModificationDate)</buildArgs> </exec> I tried to pass it as argument, but it fails: <exec> <executable>$(WorkingFolderBase)\MyBatch.bat</executable> <baseDirectory>$(WorkingFolderBase)\</baseDirectory> <environment> <variable> <name>svn_label</name> <value>"${LastModificationDate}"</value> </variable> </environment> </exec> The results is always the same when I display the parameter or variable : empty string or the variable name $(svn_label) I'm sure it is simple, but ... I can't find ! Any idea ?

    Read the article

  • How can I debug a session

    - by Organ Grinding Monkey
    I have been asked to work of a very large web application and deploy it. The problem that I'm facing here is that when I deploy the application and more that 1 user logs into the system, the sessions seem to cross over i.e: Person A logs in and works on the site, all good. When person B logs in, person A will then be logged in as person B as well. I have been asked to work of a very large web application and deploy it. The problem that I'm facing here is that when I deploy the application and more that 1 user logs into the system, the sessions seem to cross over i.e: Person A logs in and works on the site, all good. When person B logs in, person A will then be logged in as person B as well. If anyone has experienced this behaviour before and can steer me in the right direction, that would be first prize, Second prize would be to show me how I can debug this situation so that I can find out where the problem is and fix it. Some information about the application. From what I've been told and what I've seen within the app is that it started as a .Net 1.1 application and got upgraded to .Net 2 and that's why the log in system was done the way it is. (The application is huge and now complete and that's why I cant rewrite the whole user authentication process, it will just take to long and I don't know what effect it might have) All the Logged in User information is stored in properties that have been added in the Global.asax.vb file. (could this be the problem?) Any help here would be greatly appreciated

    Read the article

  • How To Join Tables from Two Different Contexts with LINQ2SQL?

    - by RSolberg
    I have 2 data contexts in my application (different databases) and need to be able to query a table in context A with a right join on a table in context B. How do I go about doing this in LINQ2SQL? Why?: We are using a SaaS product for tracking our time, projects, etc. and would like to send new service requests to this product to prevent our team from duplicating data entry. Context A: This db stores service request information. It is a third party DB and we are not able to make changes to the structure of this DB as it could have unintended non-supportable consequences downstream. Context B: This data stores the "log" data of service requests that have been processed. My team and I have full control over this DB's structure, etc. Unprocessed service requests should find their way into this DB and another process will identify it as not being processed and send the record to the SaaS product. This is the query that I am looking to modify. I was able to do a !list.Contains(c.swHDCaseId) initially, but this cannot handle more than 2100 items. Is there a way to add a join to the other context? var query = (from c in contextA.Cases where monitoredInboxList.Contains(c.INBOXES.inboxName) select new { //setup fields here... });

    Read the article

  • Play playlist with MediaPlayer

    - by Kaloer
    Hi, I'm trying to play a playlist I get using the MediaStore provider. However, when I try playing a playlist nothing happens. Can a MediaPlayer play a playlist (m3u file) and do I need to set the first track to play ? This is my test code in the onCreate() method: Uri uri = MediaStore.Audio.Playlists.EXTERNAL_CONTENT_URI; if(uri == null) { Log.e("Uri = null"); } String[] projection = new String[] { MediaStore.Audio.Playlists._ID, MediaStore.Audio.Playlists.NAME, MediaStore.Audio.Playlists.DATA }; Cursor c = managedQuery(uri, projection, null, null, null); if(c == null) { Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), R.string.alarm_tone_picker_error, Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); return; } if(!c.moveToFirst()) { c.close(); Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), R.string.alarm_tone_picker_no_music, Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); return; } c.moveToFirst(); try { MediaPlayer player = new MediaPlayer(); player.setDataSource(c.getString(2)); player.start(); } catch(Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } I have turned on every volume stream. Thanks you, Kaloer

    Read the article

  • Any reason why my $.ajax success callback is not executed in Jquery?

    - by arma
    Hello, Today i discovered that my dev version of my website do not execute success callback, but all other javascript and jquery code is running good. Even my ajax request is performed and i can see response in firebug. $('#login').submit(function(){ var email = $('#l_email').val(); var pass = $('#l_pass').val(); if(email && pass != ''){ var str = decodeURIComponent($(this).serialize()); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "login.php", data: str, success: function(msg){ if(msg == 'OK'){ window.location = 'index.php' }else if (msg == 'NOT_OK'){ if(lang == 'lv'){ alert(message); }else if(lang == 'ru'){ alert(message); } }else if (msg == 'EMAIL_NOT_VALID'){ if(lang == 'lv'){ alert(message); }else if(lang == 'ru'){ alert(message); } } } }); }else{ alert('That form is empty.'); } return false; }); The thing is $.ajax part executes fine and i can see response in firebug "OK". But redirect is not happening and even if i replace that redirect with something like alert or console.log nothing comes up. What could cause this? It's really hard to track since firebug gives no errors.

    Read the article

  • Javascript Recursion

    - by rpophessagr
    I have an ajax call and would like to recall it once I finish parsing and animating the result into the page. And that's where I'm getting stuck. I was able to recall the function, but it seems to not take into account the delays in the animation. i.e. The console keeps outputting the values at a wild pace. I thought setInterval might help with the interval being the sum of the length of my delays, but I can't get that to work... function loadEm(){ var result=new Array(); $.getJSON("jsonCall.php",function(results){ $.each(results, function(i, res){ rand = (Math.floor(Math.random()*11)*1000)+2000; fullRand += rand; console.log(fullRand); $("tr:first").delay(rand).queue(function(next) { doStuff(res); next(); }); }); var int=self.setInterval("loadEm()",fullRand); }); } });

    Read the article

  • Get dragged / saved items state back from Sql Server

    - by user571507
    Ok i saw many post's on how to serialize the value of dragged items to get hash and they tell how to save them. Now the question is how do i persist the dragged items the next time when user log's in using the has value that i got eg: <ul class="list"> <li id="id_1"> <div class="item ui-corner-all ui-widget ui-widget-content"> </div> </li> <li id="id_2"> <div class="item ui-corner-all ui-widget ui-widget-content"> </div> </li> <li id="id_3"> <div class="item ui-corner-all ui-widget ui-widget-content"> </div> </li> <li id="id_4"> <div class="item ui-corner-all ui-widget"> </div> </li> </ul> which on serialize will give "id[]=1&id[]=2&id[]=3&id[]=4" Now think that i saved it to Sql server database in a single field called SortOrder. Now how do i get the items to these order again ? the code to make these sort is below,without which people didn't know which library i had used to sort and serialize <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".list li").css("cursor", "move"); $(".list").sortable(); }); </script>

    Read the article

  • Why Is Apache Giving 403?

    - by ThinkCL
    I am getting 403 Errors from Apache when I send too many, 12, synchronous HTTP Posts via a desktop app I am building in XCode / Objective-C. The 12 POST requests are just a few kb each and go out instantly one after the other and the Apache Error Log shows... client denied by server configuration: /the-path/the-file.php Apache 2.0 PHP 5 and I have this same setup working fine on my local machine. The error is coming from a VPS with my host, which runs very fast and smooth and has plenty of resources. To debug I threw a sleep(1); function (stalls script execution by 1 second) into the php file and that fixed it. This makes me think that I am breaking some limit for too many requests for a single IP in a certain amount of time. I have googled and combed PHP ini and Apache configs, but I cannot find what that directive/setting might be. I should mention that the although it varies the first 4 or 5 POSTS usually work then it starts returning the 403 error intermittently after that. Just really acting like its bogging down. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Passing session between jsf backing bean and model

    - by Rachel
    Background : I am having backing bean which has upload method that listen when file is uploaded. Now I pass this file to parser and in parser am doing validation check for row present in csv file. If validation fails, I have to log information and saving in logging table in database. My end goal : Is to get session information in logging bean so that I can get initialContext and make call to ejb to save data to database. What is happening : In my upload backing bean, am getting session but when i call parser, I do not pass session information as I do not want parser to be dependent on session as I want to unit test parser individually. So in my parser, I do not have session information, from parser am making call to logging bean(just a bean with some ejb methods) but in this logging bean, i need session because i need to get initial context. Question Is there a way in JSF, that I can get the session in my logging bean that I have in my upload backing bean? I tried doing: FacesContext ctx = FacesContext.getCurrentInstance(); HttpSession session = (HttpSession) ctx.getExternalContext().getSession(false); but session value was null, more generic question would be : How can I get session information in model bean or other beans that are referenced from backing beans in which we have session? Do we have generic method in jsf using which we can access session information throughout JSF Application?

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to wrap an asynchronous event and its callback in a function that returns a boolean?

    - by Rob Flaherty
    I'm trying to write a simple test that creates an image element, checks the image attributes, and then returns true/false. The problem is that using the onload event makes the test asynchronous. On it own this isn't a problem (using a callback as I've done in the code below is easy), but what I can't figure out is how to encapsulate this into a single function that returns a boolean. I've tried various combinations of closures, recursion, and self-executing functions but have had no luck. So my question: am I being dense and overlooking something simple, or is this in fact not possible, because, no matter what, I'm still trying to wrap an asynchronous function in synchronous expectations? Here's the code: var supportsImage = function(callback) { var img = new Image(); img.onload = function() { //Check attributes and pass true or false to callback callback(true); }; img.src = 'data:image/gif;base64,R0lGODlhAQABAAD/ACwAAAAAAQABAAACADs='; }; supportsImage(function(status){ console.log(status); }); To be clear, what I want is to be able to wrap this in something such that it can be used like: if (supportsImage) { //Do some crazy stuff } Thanks! (Btw, I know there are a ton of SO questions regarding confusion about synchronous vs. asynchronous. Apologies if this can be reduced to something previously answered.)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 619 620 621 622 623 624 625 626 627 628 629 630  | Next Page >