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• When to call glEnable(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB)?

  - by Steven Lu

  I have a rendering system where I draw to an FBO with a multisampled renderbuffer, then blit it to another FBO with a texture in order to resolve the samples in order to read off the texture to perform post-processing shading while drawing to the backbuffer (FBO index 0). Now I'd like to get some correct sRGB output... The problem is the behavior of the program is rather inconsistent between when I run it on OS X and Windows and this also changes depending on the machine: On Windows with the Intel HD 3000 it will not apply the sRGB nonlinearity but on my other machine with a Nvidia GTX 670 it does. On the Intel HD 3000 in OS X it will also apply it. So this probably means that I'm not setting my GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB enable state at the right points in the program. However I can't seem to find any tutorials that actually tell me when I ought to enable it, they only ever mention that it's dead easy and comes at no performance cost. I am currently not loading in any textures so I haven't had a need to deal with linearizing their colors yet. To force the program to not simply spit back out the linear color values, what I have tried is simply comment out my glDisable(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB) line, which effectively means this setting is enabled for the entire pipeline, and I actually redundantly force it back on every frame. I don't know if this is correct or not. It certainly does apply a nonlinearization to the colors but I can't tell if this is getting applied twice (which would be bad). It could apply the gamma as I render to my first FBO. It could do it when I blit the first FBO to the second FBO. Why not? I've gone so far as to take screen shots of my final frame and compare raw pixel color values to the colors I set them to in the program: I set the input color to RGB(1,2,3) and the output is RGB(13,22,28). That seems like quite a lot of color compression at the low end and leads me to question if the gamma is getting applied multiple times. I have just now gone through the sRGB equation and I can verify that the conversion seems to be only applied once as linear 1/255, 2/255, and 3/255 do indeed map to sRGB 13/255, 22/255, and 28/255 using the equation 1.055*C^(1/2.4)+0.055. Given that the expansion is so large for these low color values it really should be obvious if the sRGB color transform is getting applied more than once. So, I still haven't determined what the right thing to do is. does glEnable(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB) only apply to the final framebuffer values, in which case I can just set this during my GL init routine and forget about it hereafter?

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• printf anomaly after "fork()"

  - by pechenie

  OS: Linux, Language: pure C I'm moving forward in learning C progpramming in general, and C programming under UNIX in a special case :D So, I detected a strange (as for me) behaviour of the printf() function after using a fork() call. Let's take a look at simple test program: #include <stdio.h> #include <system.h> int main() { int pid; printf( "Hello, my pid is %d", getpid() ); pid = fork(); if( pid == 0 ) { printf( "\nI was forked! :D" ); sleep( 3 ); } else { waitpid( pid, NULL, 0 ); printf( "\n%d was forked!", pid ); } return 0; } In this case the output looks like: Hello, my pid is 1111 I was forked! :DHello, my pid is 1111 2222 was forked! Why the second "Hello" string occured in the child's output? Yes, it is exactly what the parent printed on it's start, with the parent's pid. But! If we place '\n' character in the end of each string we got the expected output: #include <stdio.h> #include <system.h> int main() { int pid; printf( "Hello, my pid is %d\n", getpid() ); // SIC!! pid = fork(); if( pid == 0 ) { printf( "I was forked! :D" ); //removed the '\n', no matter sleep( 3 ); } else { waitpid( pid, NULL, 0 ); printf( "\n%d was forked!", pid ); } return 0; } And the output looks like: Hello, my pid is 1111 I was forked! :D 2222 was forked! Why does it happen? Is it ... ummm ... correct behaviour? Or it's a kind of the 'bug'?

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• How to perform add/update of a model object that contains EntitySet

  - by David Liddle

  I have a similar concept to the SO questions/tags scenario however am trying to decide the best way of implementation. Tables Questions, QuestionTags and Tags Questions QuestionTags Tags --------- ------------ ---- QID QID TID QName TID TName When adding/updating a question I have 2 textboxes. The important part is a single textbox that allows users to enter in multiple Tags separated by spaces. I am using Linq2Sql so the Questions model has an EntitySet of QuestionTags with then link to Tags. My question is regarding the adding/updating of Questions (part 1), and also how to best show QuestionTags for a Question (part 2). Part 1 Before performing an add/update, my service layer needs to deal with 3 scenarios before passing to their respective repositories. Insert Tags that do not already exist Insert/Update Question Insert QuestionTags - when updating need to remove existing QuestionTags Here is my code below however started to get into a bit of a muddle. I've created extension methods on my repositories to get Tags WithNames etc. public void Add(Question q, string tags) { var tagList = tags.Split(new string[] { " " }, StringSplitOptions.RemoveEmptyEntries).ToList(); using (DB.TransactionScope ts = new DB.TransactionScope()) { var existingTags = TagsRepository.Get() .WithName(tagList) .ToList(); var newTags = (from t in tagList select new Tag { TName = t }).Except(existingTags, new TagsComparer()).ToList(); TagsRepository.Add(newTags); //need to insert QuestionTags QuestionsRepository.Add(q); ts.Complete(); } } Part 2 My second question is, when displaying a list of Questions how is it best to show their QuestionTags? For example, I have an Index view that shows a list of Questions in a table. One of the columns shows an image and when the user hovers over it shows the list of Tags. My current implementation is to create a custom ViewModel and show a List of QuestionIndexViewModel in the View. QuestionIndexViewModel { Question Question { get; set; } string Tags { get; set; } } However, this seems a bit clumsy and quite a few DB calls. public ViewResult Index() { var model= new List<QuestionIndexViewModel>(); //make a call to get a list of questions //foreach question make a call to get their QuestionTags, //to be able to get their Tag names and then join them //to form a single string. return View(model); } Also, just for test purposes using SQL Profiler, I decided to iterate through the QuestionTags entity set of a Question in my ViewModel however nothing was picked up in Profiler? What would be the reason for this?

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• onchange event is not woking

  - by Jim

  Hello guys, Whats wrong with this code? My first function working fine but second function is not working. Please help me. Thanks function bag1() { var sum = 0; var qty = document.form1.qty.value; var pack = document.form1.pack.value; document.form1.bag.value = (qty*pack)/100; } function bag2() { var sum = 0; var qty = document.form1.qty.value; var pack1 = document.form1.pack1.value; document.form1.bag1.value = (qty*pack1)/100; } Here is HTML code <input id="item1" name="item1" type="text" maxlength="255" value=""/> <input type="text" maxlength="255" value=""/> <input id="weight" name="weight" type="text" maxlength="255" value=""/> <input id="pack" name="pack" type="text" maxlength="255" onchange="bag1();" value=""/> <input id="bag" name="bag" type="text" maxlength="255" value=""/> <input id="rate" name="rate" type="text" maxlength="255" value=""/> <input id="amount" name="amount" type="text" maxlength="255" value=""/> <input id="element_12" name="type" type="text" maxlength="255" value=""/> <input id="element_13" name="brand" type="text" maxlength="255" value=""/> <!-------------------------- Caculating 2th Row ---------------------------------------------------------------> <input type="text" maxlength="255" value=""/> <input type="text" maxlength="255" value=""/> <input id="weight2" name="weight2" type="text" maxlength="255" value=""/> <input id="pack2" name="pack2" type="text" maxlength="255" value=""/> <input id="bag2" name="bag2" type="text" maxlength="255" onchange="bag2();" value=""/> <input id="rate2" name="rate2" type="text" maxlength="255" value=""/> <input id="amount2" name="amount2" type="text" maxlength="255" value=""/> <input id="element_12" name="type" type="text" maxlength="255" value=""/> <input id="element_13" name="brand" type="text" maxlength="255" value=""/> </form type="submit" value="calculator2">

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• Need a fast programming language that can drive two printers

  - by Pete

  I have a rather unusual application that isn't working the way I need, and I hope someone here will have some suggestions or at least a direction to investigate. We have a museum exhibit that has a computer at the entrance driving two small receipt printers. There are two buttons on a console, wired to the left and right buttons of a disemboweled mouse. The two printers and associated buttons are for girls and boys, each button does a random selection from a database of names and prints a small ticket on the appropriate printer with a graphic image, a few words about the exhibit and the randomly chosen name. Conceptually all is well, but it hangs quite often. I got the project at the last minute, because the original designer got bogged down and couldn't deliver, so the exhibit's author asked me the day before opening, whether I could write something that would work. I did it in Word, since I am an experienced VBA programmer. Several other avenues I attempted first all lead to dead ends - one couldn't do graphics, another couldn't handle two printers, yet another couldn't change fonts and so on. The problem is that it simply isn't fast enough - Word can only drive one printer at a time and changing the active printer takes a long time. Not by office standards, where a second or two of delay before a printer starts working on your document is not an issue, but here I need more or less instant response. If kids press a button and nothing happens, they press it over and over until something does happen, resulting in maybe half a dozen commands being sent before the printer starts reacting. Sometimes it jams the program completely, since boys and girls will be pressing the two buttons simultaneously and Word locks up, and even when it doesn't jam, the printers then spit out a stream of tickets, making a mess. The kids start squabbling over which ticket is whose, pulling them out of the printers, snarling the paper tape, jamming the printer and generally making a mess of the whole affair, often necessitating the exhibit caretakers having to restart the computer and clear torn bits of paper out the printers. What I need is some sort of fast programming language that can drive two printers *-simultaneously-*, not the MSOffice claptrap of having to switch the active printer, that can react to both left and right mouse button click events, can print a small graphic image and can print in different font sizes and styles and. I don't need many, but it's not all in one typeface. Can anyone suggest what I might use for this? I don't even know if it's possible at all under Windows, whether the "single active printer" garbage is an Office artifact, or a Windows restriction. My little Commodore-64 twenty-five years ago had two printers attached to it and drove both simultaneously with no difficulties - it doesn't seem to me it should be such an impossible requirement today.

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• Few iPhone noob questions

  - by mshsayem

  Why should I declare local variables as 'static' inside a method? Like: static NSString *cellIdentifier = @"Cell"; Is it a performance advantage? (I know what 'static' does; in C context) What does this syntax mean?[someObj release], someObj = nil; Two statements? Why should I assign nil again? Is not 'release' enough? Should I do it for all objects I allocate/own? Or for just view objects? Why does everyone copy NSString, but retains other objects (in property declaration)? Yes, NSStrings can be changed, but other objects can be changed also, right? Then why 'copy' for just NSString, not for all? Is it just a defensive convention? Shouldn't I release constant NSString? Like here:NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; Why not? Does the compiler allocate/deallocate it for me? In some tutorial application I observed these (Built with IB): Properties(IBOutlet, with same ivar name): window, someLabel, someTextField, etc etc... In the dealloc method, although the window ivar was released, others were not. My question is: WHY? Shouldn't I release other ivars(labels, textField) as well? Why not? Say, I have 3 cascaded drop-down lists. I mean, based on what is selected on the first list, 2nd list is populated and based on what is selected on the second list, 3rd list is populated. What UI components can reflect this best? How is drop-down list presented in iPhone UI? Tableview with UIPicker? When should I update the 2nd, 3rd list? Or just three labels which have touch events? Can you give me some good example tutorials about Core-Data? (Not just simple data fetching and storing on 2/3 tables with 1/2 relationship) How can I know whether my app is leaking memory? Any tools?

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• Why does firefox round-trip to the server to determine whether my files are modifed?

  - by erikkallen

  I have some static content on my web site that I have set up caching for (using Asp.NET MVC). According to Firebug, the first time I open the page, Firefox sends this request: GET /CoreContent/Core.css?asm=0.7.3614.34951 Host: 127.0.0.1:3916 User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.1.5) Gecko/20091102 Firefox/3.5.5 (.NET CLR 3.5.30729) Accept: text/css,*/*;q=0.1 Accept-Language: en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 300 Connection: keep-alive Referer: http://127.0.0.1:3916/Edit/1/101 Cookie: .ASPXAUTH=52312E5A802C1A079E2BA29AA2BFBC5A38058977B84452D62ED52855D4164659B4307661EC73A307BFFB2ED3871C67CB3A9AAFDB3A75A99AC0A21C63A6AADE9A11A7138C672E75125D9FF3EFFBD9BF62 Pragma: no-cache Cache-Control: no-cache Which my server replies to with this: Server: ASP.NET Development Server/9.0.0.0 Date: Mon, 23 Nov 2009 18:44:41 GMT X-AspNet-Version: 2.0.50727 X-AspNetMvc-Version: 1.0 Cache-Control: public, max-age=31535671 Expires: Tue, 23 Nov 2010 18:39:12 GMT Last-Modified: Mon, 23 Nov 2009 18:39:12 GMT Vary: * Content-Type: text/css Content-Length: 15006 Connection: Close So far, so good. However, if I refresh Firefox (not a cache-clearing refresh, just a normal one), during that refresh cycle Firefox will once again go to the server with this request: GET /CoreContent/Core.css?asm=0.7.3614.34951 Host: 127.0.0.1:3916 User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.1.5) Gecko/20091102 Firefox/3.5.5 (.NET CLR 3.5.30729) Accept: text/css,*/*;q=0.1 Accept-Language: en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 300 Connection: keep-alive Referer: http://127.0.0.1:3916/Edit/1/101 Cookie: .ASPXAUTH=52312E5A802C1A079E2BA29AA2BFBC5A38058977B84452D62ED52855D4164659B4307661EC73A307BFFB2ED3871C67CB3A9AAFDB3A75A99AC0A21C63A6AADE9A11A7138C672E75125D9FF3EFFBD9BF62 If-Modified-Since: Mon, 23 Nov 2009 18:39:20 GMT Cache-Control: max-age=0 to which my server responds 304 Not Modified. Why does Firefox issue this second request? In the first response, I said that the cache does not expire for a year (I intend to use query parameters whenever things change). Do I have to add another response header to prevent this extra roundtrip? Edit: It does not matter whether I press refresh, or whether I go to the page again (or a different URL, which references the same external files). Firefox does the same again. Also, I don't claim this to be a bug in FF, I just wonder if there is another header I can set which means "This document will never change, don't bother me again".

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• How to measure a canvas that has auto height and width

  - by Wymmeroo

  Hi Folks, I'm a beginner in silverlight so i hope i can get an answer that brings me some more light in the measure process of silverlight. I found an interessting flap out control from silverlight slide control and now I try to use it in my project. So that the slide out is working proper, I have to place the user control on a canvas. The user control then uses for itself the height of its content. I just wanna change that behavior so that the height is set to the available space from the parent canvas. You see the uxBorder where the height is set. How can I measure the actual height and set it to the border? I tried it with Height={Binding ElementName=notificationCanvas, Path=ActualHeight} but this dependency property has no callback, so the actualHeight is never set. What I want to achieve is a usercontrol like the tweetboard per example on Jesse Liberty's blog Sorry for my English writing, I hope you understand my question. <Canvas x:Name="notificationCanvas" Background="Red"> <SlideEffectEx:SimpleSlideControl GripWidth="20" GripTitle="Task" GripHeight="100"> <Border x:Name="uxBorder" BorderThickness="2" CornerRadius="5" BorderBrush="DarkGray" Background="DarkGray" Padding="5" Width="300" Height="700" > <StackPanel> <TextBlock Text="Tasks"></TextBlock> <Button x:Name="btn1" Margin="5" Content="{Binding ElementName=MainBorder, Path=Height}"></Button> <Button x:Name="btn2" Margin="5" Content="Second Button"></Button> <Button x:Name="btn3" Margin="5" Content="Third Button"></Button> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy1" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy2" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy3" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy4" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy5" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy6" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> </StackPanel> </Border> </SlideEffectEx:SimpleSlideControl>

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• GHC.Generics and Type Families

  - by jberryman

  This is a question related to my module here, and is simplified a bit. It's also related to this previous question, in which I oversimplified my problem and didn't get the answer I was looking for. I hope this isn't too specific, and please change the title if you can think if a better one. Background My module uses a concurrent chan, split into a read side and write side. I use a special class with an associated type synonym to support polymorphic channel "joins": {-# LANGUAGE TypeFamilies #-} class Sources s where type Joined s newJoinedChan :: IO (s, Messages (Joined s)) -- NOT EXPORTED --output and input sides of channel: data Messages a -- NOT EXPORTED data Mailbox a instance Sources (Mailbox a) where type Joined (Mailbox a) = a newJoinedChan = undefined instance (Sources a, Sources b)=> Sources (a,b) where type Joined (a,b) = (Joined a, Joined b) newJoinedChan = undefined -- and so on for tuples of 3,4,5... The code above allows us to do this kind of thing: example = do (mb , msgsA) <- newJoinedChan ((mb1, mb2), msgsB) <- newJoinedChan --say that: msgsA, msgsB :: Messages (Int,Int) --and: mb :: Mailbox (Int,Int) -- mb1,mb2 :: Mailbox Int We have a recursive action called a Behavior that we can run on the messages we pull out of the "read" end of the channel: newtype Behavior a = Behavior (a -> IO (Behavior a)) runBehaviorOn :: Behavior a -> Messages a -> IO () -- NOT EXPORTED This would allow us to run a Behavior (Int,Int) on either of msgsA or msgsB, where in the second case both Ints in the tuple it receives actually came through separate Mailboxes. This is all tied together for the user in the exposed spawn function spawn :: (Sources s) => Behavior (Joined s) -> IO s ...which calls newJoinedChan and runBehaviorOn, and returns the input Sources. What I'd like to do I'd like users to be able to create a Behavior of arbitrary product type (not just tuples) , so for instance we could run a Behavior (Pair Int Int) on the example Messages above. I'd like to do this with GHC.Generics while still having a polymorphic Sources, but can't manage to make it work. spawn :: (Sources s, Generic (Joined s), Rep (Joined s) ~ ??) => Behavior (Joined s) -> IO s The parts of the above example that are actually exposed in the API are the fst of the newJoinedChan action, and Behaviors, so an acceptable solution can modify one or all of runBehaviorOn or the snd of newJoinedChan. I'll also be extending the API above to support sums (not implemented yet) like Behavior (Either a b) so I hoped GHC.Generics would work for me. Questions Is there a way I can extend the API above to support arbitrary Generic a=> Behavior a? If not using GHC's Generics, are there other ways I can get the API I want with minimal end-user pain (i.e. they just have to add a deriving clause to their type)?

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• How can I send multiple types of objects across Protobuf?

  - by cyclotis04

  I'm implementing a client-server application, and am looking into various ways to serialize and transmit data. I began working with Xml Serializers, which worked rather well, but generate data slowly, and make large objects, especially when they need to be sent over the net. So I started looking into Protobuf, and protobuf-net. My problem lies in the fact that protobuf doesn't sent type information with it. With Xml Serializers, I was able to build a wrapper which would send and receive any various (serializable) object over the same stream, since object serialized into Xml contain the type name of the object. ObjectSocket socket = new ObjectSocket(); socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(string)); // Tells the socket the types socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(int)); // of objects we will want socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(bool)); // to send and receive. socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(Person)); // When it gets data, it looks for socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(Address)); // these types in the Xml, then uses // the appropriate serializer. socket.Connect(_host, _port); socket.Send(new Person() { ... }); socket.Send(new Address() { ... }); ... Object o = socket.Read(); Type oType = o.GetType(); if (oType == typeof(Person)) HandlePerson(o as Person); else if (oType == typeof(Address)) HandleAddress(o as Address); ... I've considered a few solutions to this, including creating a master "state" type class, which is the only type of object sent over my socket. This moves away from the functionality I've worked out with Xml Serializers, though, so I'd like to avoid that direction. The second option would be to wrap protobuf objects in some type of wrapper, which defines the type of object. (This wrapper would also include information such as packet ID, and destination.) It seems silly to use protobuf-net to serialize an object, then stick that stream between Xml tags, but I've considered it. Is there an easy way to get this functionality out of protobuf or protobuf-net? I've come up with a third solution, and posted it below, but if you have a better one, please post it too!

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• How to calculate the time difference between two time fields , with respect to the date changes

  - by Tiru

  I want to calculate the time difference.I have three EditTexts , I want to input the times in the first two edittexts in HH:MM format. And then calculate the time difference and the result will show on third edittext field in same format. If the date changes, the time difference will calculate according that, i.e If first time = 23:00 and second time = 01:00 then, the time difference = 02:00 hours public class TimeCalculate extends Activity { private String mBlock; private String mBlockoff; private String mBlockon ; // String mHours, mMinutes; Date date1, date2; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); EditText blockoff = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.blockoff); mBlockoff = blockoff.getText().toString(); EditText blockon = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.blockon); mBlockon = blockon.getText().toString(); SimpleDateFormat simpleDateFormat = new SimpleDateFormat("hh:mm"); try { date1 = simpleDateFormat.parse(mBlockoff); } catch (ParseException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } try { date2 = simpleDateFormat.parse(mBlockon); } catch (ParseException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } mBlock = getDifference(date1, date2); EditText block = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.block); block.setText(mBlock.toString()); } public static String getDifference(Date startTime, Date endTime) { if (startTime == null) return "corrupted"; Calendar startDateTime = Calendar.getInstance(); startDateTime.setTime(startTime); Calendar endDateTime = Calendar.getInstance(); endDateTime.setTime(endTime); long milliseconds1 = startDateTime.getTimeInMillis(); long milliseconds2 = endDateTime.getTimeInMillis(); long diff = milliseconds2 - milliseconds1; /*int hours = (int)diff / (60 * 60 * 1000); int minutes = (int) (diff / (60 * 1000)); minutes = minutes - 60 * hours; long seconds = diff / (1000); */ //timeDiff = DateUtils.formatElapsedTime(seconds); SimpleDateFormat simpleDateFormat = new SimpleDateFormat("HH:MM"); Date date = new Date(diff); return simpleDateFormat.format(date); } } I executed this code ,but gives error as Source not found.I think error at getDifference method.Please give any other logic

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• Assembly Load and loading the "sub-modules" dependencies - "cannot fild the file specified"

  - by Ted

  There are several questions out there that ask the same question. However the answers they received I cannot understand, so here goes: Similar questions: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1874277/dynamically-load-assembly-and-manually-force-path-to-get-referenced-assemblies ; http://stackoverflow.com/questions/22012/loading-assemblies-and-its-dependencies-closed The question in short: I need to figure out how dependencies, ie References in my modules can be loaded dynamically. Right now I am getting "The system cannot find the file specified" on Assemblies referenced in my so called modules. I cannot really get how to use the AssemblyResolve event... The longer version I have one application, MODULECONTROLLER, that loads separate modules. These "separate modules" are located in well-known subdirectories, like appBinDir\Modules\Module1 appBinDir\Modules\Module2 Each directory contains all the DLLs that exists in the bin-directory of those projects after a build. So the MODULECONTROLLER loads all the DLLs contained in those folders using this code: byte[] bytes = File.ReadAllBytes(dllFileFullPath); Assembly assembly = null; assembly = Assembly.Load(bytes); I am, as you can see, loading the byte[]-array (so I dont lock the DLL-files). Now, in for example MODULE1, I have a static reference called MyGreatXmlProtocol. The MyGreatXmlProtocol.dll then also exists in the directory appBinDir\Modules\Module1 and is loaded using the above code When code in the MODULE1 tries to use this MyGreatXmlProtocol, I get: Could not load file or assembly 'MyGreatXmlProtocol, Version=1.0.3797.26527, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. So, in a post (like this one) they say that To my understanding reflection will load the main assembly and then search the GAC for the referenced assemblies, if it cannot find it there, you can then incorparate an assemblyResolve event: First; is it really needed to use the AssemblyResolve-event to make this work? Shouldnt my different MODULEs themself load their DLLs, as they are statically referenced? Second; if AssemblyResolve is the way to go - how do I use it? I have attached a handler to the Event but I never get anything on MyGreatXmlProctol... === EDIT === CODE regarding the AssemblyResolve-event handler: public GUI() { InitializeComponent(); AppDomain.CurrentDomain.AssemblyResolve += new ResolveEventHandler(CurrentDomain_AssemblyResolve); ... } // Assembly CurrentDomain_AssemblyResolve(object sender, ResolveEventArgs args) { Console.WriteLine(args.Name); return null; } Hope I wasnt too fuzzy =) Thx

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• How do you combine "Revision Control" with "WorkFlow" for R?

  - by Tal Galili

  Hello all, I remember coming across R users writing that they use "Revision control" (e.g: "Source control"), and I am curious to know: How do you combine "Revision control" with your statistical analysis WorkFlow? Two (very) interesting discussions talk about how to deal with the WorkFlow. But neither of them refer to the revision control element: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1266279/how-to-organize-large-r-programs http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1429907/workflow-for-statistical-analysis-and-report-writing A Long Update To The Question: Following some of the people's answers, and Dirk's question in the comment, I would like to direct my question a bit more. After reading the Wiki article about "revision control" (which I was previously not familiar with), it was clear to me that when using revision control, what one does is to build a development structure of his code. This structure either leads to a "final product" or to several branches. When building something like, let's say, a website. There is usually one end product you work towards (the website), with some prototypes along the way. But when doing a statistical analysis, the work (to my view) is different. Sometimes you know where you want to get to. But more often, you explore. Explore cleaning the dataset. Explore different methods for statistical analysis, and ask various questions of your data (and I am writing this, knowing how Frank Harrell, and other experience statisticians feels about Data dredging). That is way the WorkFlow question with statistical programming is (in my view) a serious and deep question, raising many issues, The simpler ones are technical: Which revision control software do you use (and why) ? Which IDE do you use(and why) ? The more interesting question are about work process: How do you structure your files? What do you keep as a separate file and what as a revision? or asking in a different way - What should be a "branch" and what should be a "sub project" in your code? For example: When starting to explore your data, should a plot be creating and then erased because it didn't lead any where (but kept as a revision) or should there be a backup file of that path? How you solve this tension was my initial curiosity. The second question is "what might I be missing?". What rules (of thumb) should one follow so to avoid common pitfalls doing statistical programming with version control? In my intuition, I feel that statistical programming is inherently different then software development (I am writing this without being a real expert in statistical programming, and even less so in software development). That's way I am unsure which of the lessons I have read here about version control would be applicable. Thanks a lot, Tal

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• Just a small problem regarding javscript BOM question

  - by caramel1991

  The question is this: Create a page with a number of links. Then write code that fires on the window onload event, displaying the href of each of the links on the page. And this is my solution <html> <body language="Javascript" onload="displayLink()"> <a href="http://www.google.com/">First link</a> <a href="http://www.yahoo.com/">Second link</a> <a href="http://www.msn.com/">Third link</a> <script type="text/javascript" language="Javascript"> function displayLink() { for(var i = 0;document.links[i];i++) { alert(document.links[i].href); } } </script> </body> </html> This is the answer provided by the book <html> <head> <script language=”JavaScript” type=”text/javascript”> function displayLinks() { var linksCounter; for (linksCounter = 0; linksCounter < document.links.length; linksCounter++) { alert(document.links[linksCounter].href); } } </script> </head> <body onload=”displayLinks()”> <A href=”link0.htm” >Link 0</A> <A href=”link1.htm”>Link 2</A> <A href=”link2.htm”>Link 2</A> </body> </html> Before I get into the javascript tutorial on how to check user browser version or model,I was using the same method as the example,by acessing the length property of the links array for the loop,but after I read through the tutorial,I find out that I can also use this alternative ways,by using the method that the test condition will evalute to true only if the document.links[i] return a valid value,so does my code is written using the valid method??If it's not,any comment regarding how to write a better code??Correct me if I'm wrong,I heard some of the people say "a good code is not evaluate solely on whether it works or not,but in terms of speed,the ability to comprehend the code,and could posssibly let others to understand the code easily".Is is true??

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• Emulating Button Press Using Kinect/SimpleOpenNI + Processing Depth

  - by Alex Lu

  I am using Kinect with Simple OpenNI and Processing, and I was trying to use the Z position of a hand to emulate a button press. So far when I try it using one hand it works really well, however, when I try to get it to work with a second hand, only one of the hands work. (I know it can be more efficient by moving everything except the fill out of the if statements, but I kept those in there just in case I want to change the sizes or something.) irz and ilz are the initial Z positions of the hands when they are first recognized by onCreateHands and rz and lz are the current Z positions. As of now, the code works fine with one hand, but the other hand will either stay pressed or unpressed. If i comment one of the sections out, it works fine as well. if (rz - irz > 0) { pushStyle(); fill(60); ellipse(rx, ry, 10, 10); popStyle(); rpressed = true; } else { pushStyle(); noFill(); ellipse(rx, ry, 10, 10); popStyle(); rpressed = false; } if (lz - ilz > 0) { pushStyle(); fill(60); ellipse(lx, ly, 10, 10); popStyle(); lpressed = true; } else { pushStyle(); noFill(); ellipse(lx, ly, 10, 10); popStyle(); lpressed = false; } I tried outputting the values of rz - irz and lz - ilz and the numbers range from small negative values to small positive values (around -8 to 8) for lz - ilz. But rz - irz outputs numbers from around 8-30 depending on each time I run it and is never consistent. Also, when I comment out the code for the lz-ilz, the values for rz-irz look just fine and it operates as intended. Is there a reason tracking both Z positions throws off one hand? And is there a way to get it to work? Thanks!

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• Why does this textbox binding example work in WPF but not in Silverlight?

  - by Edward Tanguay

  Why is it in the following silverlight application that when I: change the default text in the first textbox move the cursor to the second text box (i.e. take focus off first textbox) click the button that inside the button handler, it still has the old value "default text"? What do I have to do to get the binding to work in Silverlight? The same code works fine in WPF. XAML: <UserControl x:Class="TestUpdate123.MainPage" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" mc:Ignorable="d" d:DesignWidth="640" d:DesignHeight="480"> <StackPanel Margin="10" HorizontalAlignment="Left"> <TextBox Text="{Binding InputText}" Height="200" Width="600" Margin="0 0 0 10"/> <StackPanel HorizontalAlignment="Left"> <Button Content="Convert" Click="Button_Convert_Click" Margin="0 0 0 10"/> </StackPanel> <TextBox Height="200" Width="600" Margin="0 0 0 10"/> <TextBlock Text="{Binding OutputText}"/> </StackPanel> </UserControl> Code Behind: using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Controls; using System.ComponentModel; namespace TestUpdate123 { public partial class MainPage : UserControl, INotifyPropertyChanged { #region ViewModelProperty: InputText private string _inputText; public string InputText { get { return _inputText; } set { _inputText = value; OnPropertyChanged("InputText"); } } #endregion #region ViewModelProperty: OutputText private string _outputText; public string OutputText { get { return _outputText; } set { _outputText = value; OnPropertyChanged("OutputText"); } } #endregion public MainPage() { InitializeComponent(); DataContext = this; InputText = "default text"; } private void Button_Convert_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { OutputText = InputText; } #region INotifiedProperty Block public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; protected void OnPropertyChanged(string propertyName) { PropertyChangedEventHandler handler = PropertyChanged; if (handler != null) { handler(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } } #endregion } }

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• Grid sorting with persistent master sort

  - by MikeWyatt

  I have a UI with a grid. Each record in the grid is sorted by a "master" sort column, let's call it a page number. Each record is a story in a magazine. I want the user to be able to drag and drop a record to a new position in the grid and automatically update the page number field to reflect the updated position. Easy enough, right? Now imagine that I also want to have the grid sortable by any other column (story title, section, author name, etc.). How does the drag and drop operation work now? Revert to page number sort during or after the drag and drop operation? This could confuse the user (why did my sort just change?). It would also result in arbitrary row positioning. Would the story now be before the row that was after it when the user dropped it? Or, would it be after the row that was before it? Those rows may now be widely separated after the master order sort. Disable the drag and drop feature if the grid isn't currently sorted by the page number? This would be easy, but the user might wonder why he can't drag and drop at certain times. Knowing to first sort by page number may not be very intuitive. Let the user rearrange his rows, but not make any changes to the page number? Require the user to enter a "Arrange Stories" mode, in which the grid sort is temporarily switched to page number and drag and drop is enabled? They would then exit the mode, and the previous sort would be reapplied. The big difference between this and the second option is that it would be more explicit than simply clicking on a column header. Any other ideas, or reasons why one of the above is the way to go? EDIT I'd like to point out that any of the above is technically possible, and easy to implement. My question is design-related. What is the most intuitive way to solve this problem, from the user's perspective?

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• Slow MySQL query....only sometimes

  - by Shane N

  I have a query that's used in a reporting system of ours that sometimes runs quicker than a second, and other times takes 1 to 10 minutes to run. Here's the entry from the slow query log: # Query_time: 543 Lock_time: 0 Rows_sent: 0 Rows_examined: 124948974 use statsdb; SELECT count(distinct Visits.visitorid) as 'uniques' FROM Visits,Visitors WHERE Visits.visitorid=Visitors.visitorid and candidateid in (32) and visittime>=1275721200 and visittime<=1275807599 and (omit=0 or omit>=1275807599) AND Visitors.segmentid=9 AND Visits.visitorid NOT IN (SELECT Visits.visitorid FROM Visits,Visitors WHERE Visits.visitorid=Visitors.visitorid and candidateid in (32) and visittime<1275721200 and (omit=0 or omit>=1275807599) AND Visitors.segmentid=9); It's basically counting unique visitors, and it's doing that by counting the visitors for today and then substracting those that have been here before. If you know of a better way to do this, let me know. I just don't understand why sometimes it can be so quick, and other times takes so long - even with the same exact query under the same server load. Here's the EXPLAIN on this query. As you can see it's using the indexes I've set up: id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 PRIMARY Visits range visittime_visitorid,visitorid visittime_visitorid 4 NULL 82500 Using where; Using index 1 PRIMARY Visitors eq_ref PRIMARY,cand_visitor_omit PRIMARY 8 statsdb.Visits.visitorid 1 Using where 2 DEPENDENT SUBQUERY Visits ref visittime_visitorid,visitorid visitorid 8 func 1 Using where 2 DEPENDENT SUBQUERY Visitors eq_ref PRIMARY,cand_visitor_omit PRIMARY 8 statsdb.Visits.visitorid 1 Using where I tried to optimize the query a few weeks ago and came up with a variation that consistently took about 2 seconds, but in practice it ended up taking more time since 90% of the time the old query returned much quicker. Two seconds per query is too long because we are calling the query up to 50 times per page load, with different time periods. Could the quick behavior be due to the query being saved in the query cache? I tried running 'RESET QUERY CACHE' and 'FLUSH TABLES' between my benchmark tests and I was still getting quick results most of the time. Note: last night while running the query I got an error: Unable to save result set. My initial research shows that may be due to a corrupt table that needs repair. Could this be the reason for the behavior I'm seeing? In case you want server info: Accessing via PHP 4.4.4 MySQL 4.1.22 All tables are InnoDB We run optimize table on all tables weekly The sum of both the tables used in the query is 500 MB MySQL config: key_buffer = 350M max_allowed_packet = 16M thread_stack = 128K sort_buffer = 14M read_buffer = 1M bulk_insert_buffer_size = 400M set-variable = max_connections=150 query_cache_limit = 1048576 query_cache_size = 50777216 query_cache_type = 1 tmp_table_size = 203554432 table_cache = 120 thread_cache_size = 4 wait_timeout = 28800 skip-external-locking innodb_file_per_table innodb_buffer_pool_size = 3512M innodb_log_file_size=100M innodb_log_buffer_size=4M

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• Zend Framework decorator subform add a class tag to DD wrapper tag

  - by Samuele

  I have this form: class Request_Form_Prova extends Zend_Form { public function init() { $this->setMethod('post'); $SubForm_Step = new Zend_Form_SubForm(); $SubForm_Step->setAttrib('class','Step'); $this->addSubform($SubForm_Step, 'Chicco'); $PrivacyCheck = $SubForm_Step->createElement('CheckBox', 'PrivacyCheck'); $PrivacyCheck->setLabel('I have read and I agre bla bla...') ->setRequired(true) ->setUncheckedValue(''); $PrivacyCheck->getDecorator('Label')->setOption('class', 'inline'); $SubForm_Step->addElement($PrivacyCheck); $SubForm_Step->addElement('submit', 'submit', array( 'ignore' => true, 'label' => 'OK', )); } } That generate this HTML: <form enctype="application/x-www-form-urlencoded" method="post" action=""> <dl class="zend_form"> <dt id="Chicco-label">&nbsp;</dt> <dd id="Chicco-element"> <fieldset id="fieldset-Chicco" class="Step"> <dl> <dt id="Chicco-PrivacyCheck-label"><label for="Chicco-PrivacyCheck" class="inline required">I have read and I agre bla bla...</label></dt> <dd id="Chicco-PrivacyCheck-element"> <input type="hidden" name="Chicco[PrivacyCheck]" value=""><input type="checkbox" name="Chicco[PrivacyCheck]" id="Chicco-PrivacyCheck" value="1"> </dd> <dt id="submit-label">&nbsp;</dt> <dd id="submit-element"> <input type="submit" name="Chicco[submit]" id="Chicco-submit" value="OK"> </dd> </dl> </fieldset> </dd> </dl> </form> How can I add a class="Test" to the <dd id="Chicco-element"> elemnt? In order to have it like that: <dd id="Chicco-element" class="Test"> I thought something like that but it don't work: $SubForm_Step->getDecorator('DdWrapper')->setOption('class', 'Test'); OR $SubForm_Step->getDecorator('DtDdWrapper')->setOption('class', 'Test'); How can I do it? And last question: How can I wrap that DD and DT element of a SubForm in another DL element? Like that: ( second line ) <dl class="zend_form"> <dl> <dt id="Chicco-label">&nbsp;</dt> <dd id="Chicco-element"> <fieldset id="fieldset-Chicco" class="Step"> <dl> .......

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• Navigation bar(s) disappear when the window gets too small

  - by Leron

  The title maybe is a little misleading but I'm not 100% sure how this effect is called. I'm pretty sure what I meant is that my navigation bar is disappearing instead of collapsing. However my set up is this - I am working on the Layout view of ASP.NET MVC 4 project. I'm using bootstrap 3x but also have included jQuery libs so my <head> part is like this: @Scripts.Render("~/Scripts/bootstrap.min.js") @Styles.Render("~/Content/bootstrap.css") @Styles.Render("~/Content/themes/base/jquery.ui.smoothness.css") @Scripts.Render("~/Scripts/jquery-2.0.3.min.js") @Scripts.Render("~/Scripts/jquery-ui-1.10.3.min.js") //just skipped the standard stuff In the body I want to have two navbars and one side menu which will be the same for all my pages but I've noticed that when I start to narrow the window at some point instead of getting an effect similar to this example (noticed how the elements get repositioned) I just got both my navbars gone, I can't see them. The markup for my first navbar is this : <div class="navbar navbar-static-top navbar-inverse navbar-collapse collapse" role="navigation"> <ul class="nav navbar-nav "> <li><a href="#">Info</a></li> <li><a href="#">Info</a></li> </ul> </div> and the second one is : <div class="navbar navbar-collapse collapse" role="navigation" id="main-navigation-bar"> <ul class="nav nav-pills nav-justified"> <li style="border: 1px solid grey"><a href="#">Link</a></li> <li><a href="#">Link</a></li> <li><a href="#">Link</a></li> </ul> In fact the only thing left in my _Layout body is this: <div class="container-fluid"> @RenderBody() </div> which is just for compiling purposes and renders this view : <p>1</p> <p>2</p> <p>3</p> <p>4</p> <p>5</p> So when I make the window small enough so that my navbars disappear the only thing left is 1..5 numbers from the rendered view. I tested with only one navbar (commented the other) - no matter which one is commented, when I narrow the window I loose the navbar. How can I keep them using bootstrap 3x?

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• one to many jpa relationship

  - by user309944

  Hai I have created two table first table as student package com.crimson.rship; import javax.persistence.Basic; import javax.persistence.Entity; import javax.persistence.FetchType; import javax.persistence.Id; import javax.persistence.OneToMany; @Entity(name="student") public class student { @Id private String stumailid; @Basic private String fathername; @Basic private String mothername; @Basic private String doa; @Basic private String dob; public student(String stumailid,String fathername,String mothername,String doa,String dob) { // TODO Auto-generated constructor stub this.stumailid=stumailid; this.fathername=fathername; this.mothername=mothername; this.doa=doa; this.dob=dob; } public void setStumailid(String stumailid) { this.stumailid = stumailid; } public String getStumailid() { return stumailid; } public void setFathername(String fathername) { this.fathername = fathername; } public String getFathername() { return fathername; } public void setMothername(String mothername) { this.mothername = mothername; } public String getMothername() { return mothername; } public void setDoa(String doa) { this.doa = doa; } public String getDoa() { return doa; } public void setDob(String dob) { this.dob = dob; } public String getDob() { return dob; } } Second table as mark package com.crimson.rship; import java.util.Collection; import javax.persistence.Basic; import javax.persistence.Entity; import javax.persistence.FetchType; import javax.persistence.Id; import javax.persistence.JoinColumn; import javax.persistence.JoinTable; import javax.persistence.OneToMany; @Entity(name="mark") public class mark { @Id private String stumailid; @Basic private String fathername; @Basic private String mothername; @OneToMany(mappedBy="mark",targetEntity=student.class,fetch=FetchType.EAGER) private Collection orders; public mark(String stumailid,String fathername,String mothername) { // TODO Auto-generated constructor stub this.stumailid=stumailid; this.fathername=fathername; this.mothername=mothername; } public void setStumailid(String stumailid) { this.stumailid = stumailid; } public String getStumailid() { return stumailid; } public void setFathername(String fathername) { this.fathername = fathername; } public String getFathername() { return fathername; } public void setMothername(String mothername) { this.mothername = mothername; } public String getMothername() { return mothername; } public void setOrders(Collection orders) { this.orders = orders; } public Collection getOrders() { return orders; } } But this above coding working is not working correctly.can any one help me Thanks in advance

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• Remove links with Javascript

  - by Arlen Beiler

  How do I remove links from a webpage with Javascript. I am using Google Chrome. The code I tried is: function removehyperlinks() { try { alert(document.anchors.length); alert(document.getElementsByTagName('a')); for(i=0;i=document.anchors.length;i++) { var a = document.anchors[i]; a.outerHTML = a.innerHTML; var b = document.getElementsByTagName('a'); b[i].outerHTML = b[i].innerHTML; } } catch(e) { alert (e);} alert('done'); } Of course, this is test code, which is why I have the alerts and 2 things trying at the same time. The first alert returns "0" the second [Object NodeList] and the third returns "done". My html body looks like this: <body onload="removehyperlinks()"> <ol style="text-align:left;" class="messagelist"> <li class="accesscode"><a href="#">General information, Updates, &amp; Meetings<span class="extnumber">141133#</span></a> <ol> <li><a href="#">...</a></li> <li><a href="#">...</a></li> <li><a href="#">...</a></li> <li><a href="#">...</a></li> <li><a href="#">...</a></li> <li><a href="#">...</a></li> <li><a href="#">...</a></li> <li><a href="#">...</a></li> <li start="77"><a href="#"">...</a></li> <li start="88"><a href="#">...</a></li> <li start="99"><a href="#">...</a></li> </ol> </li> </ol> </body>

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• Xcode + Perforce: it frequently shows me the spinning wheel for no reason! What can i do?

  - by GamingHorror

  While working on an Xcode project i keep getting the spinning wheel while switching files, scrolling, searching, typing, debugging, removing breakpoints, switching back from another app or saving. It also happens before compiling but usually it just happens from time to time for no apparent reason. This is the second time this started happening in a Xcode project and it's driving me nuts. It completely breaks my flow of work to have to wait for the spinning wheel to go away (2-5 seconds). What on earth could i possibly do to ... figure out what's causing the problem? resolve the problem? More details: When any project is small, everything is super-smooth with Xcode and Perforce. Two of my projects eventually had this spinning wheel problem after about 4 weeks of work. It only happened with those two projects so far. They consist of around 1000-1200 files in source control, most of them assets. The problem occurs even if i manually check out the whole project in Perforce. The problem is gone when i copy the project directory and work in the copy which is no longer under source control, or if i create a branch in Perforce and work in the branch (under source control). One of these projects i shared with a colleague, and he had exactly the same issues on his Mac. We eventually switched to Subversion and the spinning-wheel issue immediately went away. Now that i've received an updated copy of the project and simply put it under Perforce as a new project, the problem also went away (so far it did not resurface). It leads me to think that it may be caused by a larger number of file revisions. The server itself (version 2009.1) is on a different (Windows) machine on my LAN, so there's definetely no Internet lag involved. The complete repository is just 1 GB in size spread over a dozen projects or so. I'm sorry if the question seems more like a support inquiry for Perforce. However i'm using the free version of Perforce so i'm not entitled to get support from them. I hope no one minds me asking here. I'm really bummed out by this. I don't want to have to create a new branch for the project each time the spinning wheel problem surfaces.

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• Best way to return result from business layer to presentation layer when using LINQ-to-SQL

  - by samsur

  I have a business layer that has DTOs that are used in the presentation layer. This application uses entity framework. Here is an example of a class called RoleDTO: public class RoleDTO { public Guid RoleId { get; set; } public string RoleName { get; set; } public string RoleDescription { get; set; } public int? OrganizationId { get; set; } } In the BLL I want to have a method that returns a list of DTO. I would like to know which is the better approach: returning IQueryable or list of DTOs. Although I feel that returning IQueryable is not a good idea because the connection needs to be open. Here are the 2 different methods using the different approaches: First approach public class RoleBLL { private servicedeskEntities sde; public RoleBLL() { sde = new servicedeskEntities(); } public IQueryable<RoleDTO> GetAllRoles() { IQueryable<RoleDTO> role = from r in sde.Roles select new RoleDTO() { RoleId = r.RoleID, RoleName = r.RoleName, RoleDescription = r.RoleDescription, OrganizationId = r.OrganizationId }; return role; } Note: in the above method the DataContext is a private attribute and set in the constructor, so that the connection stays opened. Second approach public static List<RoleDTO> GetAllRoles() { List<RoleDTO> roleDTO = new List<RoleDTO>(); using (servicedeskEntities sde = new servicedeskEntities()) { var roles = from pri in sde.Roles select new { pri.RoleID, pri.RoleName, pri.RoleDescription }; //Add the role entites to the DTO list and return. This is necessary as anonymous types can be returned acrosss methods foreach (var item in roles) { RoleDTO roleItem = new RoleDTO(); roleItem.RoleId = item.RoleID; roleItem.RoleDescription = item.RoleDescription; roleItem.RoleName = item.RoleName; roleDTO.Add(roleItem); } return roleDTO; } } Please let me know, if there is a better approach.

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• How can I progrommatically change the target framework from 4.0 to 3.5 of a project/solution?

  - by scott

  Edit 3: After more googling it looks like you can't have the TargetFrameworkMoniker property in a .NET 3.5 application. So I guess I should be asking a different question. How do I change the Target framework from 4.0 to 3.5? Unfortunately, I can only find stuff on how to go the other way. or better yet how do i progrommatically set the target framework version of a project to something other than 4.0? Original question: I just switched to vs2010. I have an application that uses .net 3.5. It loads plugins which are generated by a different app. The plugins are using .net 4 and there for cannot be loaded. I'm using EnvDTE.Project to create a project and set the settings. I can't find what setting needs to be set for this. Edit 1: I'm generating code for about 50 solutions. When I made the switch from vs2005 to vs2010 the projects in those solutions are defaulting to .NET Framework 4.0. So I need to set the .NET Framework to 3.5 when I am generating the code for these solutions. Edit 2: After a lot of googling I found this. so then I tried this: loProp = vsGetProperty("TargetFrameworkMoniker"); vsSetValue(loProp, ".NETFramework,Version=v3.5"); the definitions for those two methods are below. as far as I can tell they do the same this as project.Properties.Item("TargetFrameworkMoniker").Value = ".NETFramework,Version=v4.0,Profile=Client"; I start getting an Property Unavailable Exception later in the code. When I remove the new lines everything works except the projects target framework is still 4.0. The code generators target framework is 3.5 so I can't use the FrameworkName class like shown in the second example in that link. here is vsGetProperty protected Property vsGetProperty(string aProperty) { bool lbDone = false; int liCount = 0; Property loProp; while (!lbDone && liCount < pMaxRetries) { try { loProp = pProject.Properties.Item(aProperty); lbDone = true; return loProp; } catch (System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException loE) { liCount++; if ((uint)loE.ErrorCode == 0x80010001) { // RPC_E_CALL_REJECTED - sleep half sec then try again System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(pDelayBetweenRetry); } } } return null; } and vsSetValue protected void vsSetValue(Property aProperty, string aValue) { bool lbDone = false; int liCount = 0; while (!lbDone && liCount < pMaxRetries) { try { aProperty.Value = aValue; lbDone = true; } catch (System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException loE) { liCount++; if ((uint)loE.ErrorCode == 0x80010001) { // RPC_E_CALL_REJECTED - sleep half sec then try again System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(pDelayBetweenRetry); } } } }

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