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• joomla sometimes messes up urls, probably cache involved

  - by Bakaburg

  Is a bit i'm having this problem and i really cannot get the hang of it... Every once in while my joomla site messes up links url and for example from something like this: http://www.sism.org/index.php?option=com_comprofiler&task=userslist&listid=4&Itemid=123 it becomes like this: http://www.sism.org/index.php/component/k2/administrator/components/com_dump/assets/css/images/stories/inrilievo/sism/htm/index.php?option=com_comprofiler&task=userslist&listid=4&Itemid=123 the new page has the right content but there are no css and other linked resources. Usually i solve the problem by deleting all the cache and turning it off and on again. Of course this is pretty annoying especially for my association. Does any one have any clue on this? Watching the URLs the components involved seems to be K2 and Jdump. Thanks

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• IIS 6 nested virtual directory redirection

  - by threedaysatsea

  We're running IIS 6 on a WinServer2k3 box and we're having some trouble with the following problem: E-mails were sent out to users asking them to go to the following URL: alias.contoso.com/directory2/view.aspx?queryparam1=no&queryparam2=blue However, the URLS are actually supposed to be: server.contoso.com/directory2/view.aspx?queryparam1=no&queryparam2=blue It's too late to recall all of the e-mails, and we'd like to redirect traffic to make this as seamless as possible for our users. The real problem here is that the server (server.contoso.com) is hosting the alias (alias.contoso.com) as a redirect thusly, and the existing redirect we need to keep functional: Default Web Site (server.contoso.com) --Directory1 --Directory2 --Directory3 Redirection to Directory3 (alias.contoso.com) --Essentially alias.contoso.com will take the user to server.contoso.com/Directory3 Is there any way to host a separate redirect inside of the existing redirect? We need to keep alias.contoso.com taking the user to server.contoso.com/Directory3 but also make alias.contoso.com/directory2/view.aspx?queryparam1=no&queryparam2=blue point to server.contoso.com/directory2/view.aspx?queryparam1=no&queryparam2=blue Any tips? Is this even possible?

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• SEO: best way to deal with short lifetime URLs?

  - by Mike Norgate

  I am currently in the process of redesigning a job advert site and am trying to put a lot more effort into my SEO. My question is how should I deal with the URLs that point to job adverts when the advert expires. The options I have thought of so far are: Return a 404 error and redirect to a 404 page. Will it have an effect on ranking if there are a lot of URLs that return 404s after only being up for a few weeks? Redirect to job listing page - When the user requests a URL for an advert that has expired just redirect to the main job listing page. Show the advert but tell the user to has closed - Show the advert page but with a notification that the advert has closed. The issue I see with this is that the user will visit the page, see its closed and then leave the site again which would not be good for rankings

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• phishing attack. Where do I start the cleanup?

  - by Suz

  I'm a newbie webmaster. I've got a domain and a site... and no clue about the web (I'm OK with files and programs... ) I got a message from google that my site is a possible phishing site, with a link the the suspect page: http://www.mydomain.com/~phishers/Paypal/us/Confirm.php needless to say, I didn't put that up. Can someone point me to a good tutorial on what to do now? I'd like to figure out what happened so I can defend against it the next time around. How do I identify what kind of attach this is? Also, what is the tilde doing in the URL path? I couldn't find any path like this on my hosting account, so I'm not entirely sure how to delete it.

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• Link to pages on site without .html extension appearing in browser?

  - by Anime163

  I've modified my .htaccess file to allow access to html files without having to include the extension on the end, for example: www.mysite.com/document directs to www.mysite.com/document.html However, when I want to link to pages within my site using something like <a href="page.html"></a> I still get the .html appearing in the URL. So am I allowed to exclude the extension and leave a link as <a href="page"></a> so that the extension doesn't appear in the browser? Or is there a better way to do it?

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• Configuring httpd.conf to handle wildcard domains and multiple scripts?

  - by Steve

  I have a full-blown site like: http://www.example.com (uses index.php) http://www.example.com/scriptA.php http://www.example.com/scriptB.php I now want to have the possibility of setting up subsites like: http://alpha.example.com http://alpha.example.com/scriptA.php http://alpha.example.com/scriptB.php From http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2844004/subdomain-url-rewriting-and-web-apps/2844033#2844033 , I understand that I have to do: RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^([^./]+)\.example\.com$ RewriteCond %1 !=www RewriteRule ^ index.php?domain=%1 But what about the other scripts like scriptA and scriptB? How do I tell httpd.conf to handle those properly as well? How can I tell httpd.conf that handle everything after the 'forwardslash', exactly as it does on the main site, but pass a parameter flag like ?domain=alpha (Cross posted at: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/11365566/configuring-httpd-conf-to-handle-wildcard-domains-and-multiple-scripts)

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• How do I forward/redirect a website from a folder in a subdomain to another server?

  - by dozza

  I have a client with a site at: subdomain.theirdomain.com/folder It's a 50Gb gallery site that i've now cloned and have locally in MAMP. Once i've made some changes to it I need to host it at alternative physical server/hosting (I intend using a dedicated server I have access to with a technical domain name currently). However, the client would ideally like to keep the existing URL as it has been used extensively in marketing. I've done HTTP redirects and forwards and 301 redirects in the past, but I'm not sure how or even if I can do what the client wants. How can I achieve this, possibly using .htaccess and DNS entries? Caveats: I can't have the site at a 3rd party domain and the client isn't able/allowed to register any additional domains:

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• On which page(s) to add canonical?

  - by user6211

  I have two pages with same content and same meta title and meta description. they also have very simular url: http://www.mysite.com/new-york http://www.mysite.com/new_york I need first link to be "official". To avoid having duplicated pages, i want to add canonical meta tag in header... but on which page? does it have to be on both of them or only on second? On on first? Can you give me some advice please?

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• Put together two uploaded songs into one? [on hold]

  - by user32218

  We've uploaded our track Turnover two times. This because one of the tracks was uploaded on a Swedish radio channel and we wanted to see how many listeners it generated. Our question to you is if we can put together the two songs so we get the amount of listeners, likes, comments and repost into one? It would be great if you could fix this. We want to save the URL from the one with most listeners since the link to that track still is uploaded on Swedish National Radio P3s site.

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• iPad Safari's mapping of mouse events to touch events in image-maps

  - by Tim

  My website makes extensive use of image-maps. The images are of pages from a medieval manuscript. The mouseOver event of the AREA tags has a tooltip attached to it, which displays a modern typographic transcription of the ancient script for the line the mouse is hovering over. I just checked my website out on the iPad at the Apple store. The iPad is many respects a joy to use, however, I am wondering about Apple's mapping of the mouseEvents to the finger-touch events. Apple probably had a good reason for doing things as they did, but their choices seem counterintuitive an overly complicated to me. Specifically, the iPad Safari browser clearly was responding to both fingerDown and fingerTap, and in different ways. When I tapped an area of the image-map, the tooltip wired to the mouse-over event pf the AREA tag was displayed, and remained visible until I tapped somewhere else. When I held my finger down on an area of the image-map, the area changed color. So if iPad Safari detects a mouseOver eventhandler, it executes the mouseOver code and apparently prevents the "click" event from propagating, so that if you also have something wired to the click event, it doesn't work? Is that right? But more importantly, why isn't fingerDown the iPad-Safari counterpart for mouseOver? FingerDown seems a more likely candidate than Tap when mapping the mousePOver event. I would have expected things to be mapped in this way: MouseClick : FingerTap (i.e. finger down and then immediately up) MouseOver : FingerDown (finger down and stays on the spot) If Apple had treated fingerDown as the counterpart to mouseOver, then the tooltip could be displayed upon FingerDown and made invisible again on fingerUp, which would be the counterpart to mouseOut. Perhaps someone could enlighten me about the thinking process that led Apple to these particular mouse-to-touch event-mappings? Thanks

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• IIS 6 with wildcard mapping and UNC virtual directory problem

  - by El Che

  Hi. On our production servers (win 2003 with IIS6 and load balanced with an F5 BIGIP), we have a problem when introducing wildcardmapping on IIS6. We use .net Framework 3.5 SP1. The issue manifests itself as by the server only sometimes serving the images stored on a virtual directory pointing to a UNC path. Sometimes the images are displayed, and sometimes not. Removing the wildcard mapping solved this problem. I will need wildcard mapping on the server for future features, so any help/pointers to if this is a known problem will be very helpful. In advance, thanks for any help. Edit: The exception it fails with is the following: Message: Failed to start monitoring changes to '\ourFileServer\folder1\thumbnails' because the network BIOS command limit has been reached. For more information on this error, please refer to Microsoft knowledge base article 810886. Hosting on a UNC share is not supported for the Windows XP Platform. Source: System.Web Data: System.Collections.ListDictionaryInternal TargetSizeVoid .ctor(System.Web.DirectoryMonitor, System.String, Boolean, UInt32) StackTrace at System.Web.DirMonCompletion..ctor(DirectoryMonitor dirMon, String dir, Boolean watchSubtree, UInt32 notifyFilter) at System.Web.DirectoryMonitor.StartMonitoring() at System.Web.DirectoryMonitor.StartMonitoringFile(String file, FileChangeEventHandler callback, String alias) at System.Web.FileChangesMonitor.StartMonitoringFile(String alias, FileChangeEventHandler callback) at System.Web.Configuration.WebConfigurationHost.StartMonitoringStreamForChanges(String streamName, StreamChangeCallback callback) at System.Configuration.BaseConfigurationRecord.MonitorStream(String configKey, String configSource, String streamname) at System.Configuration.BaseConfigurationRecord.InitConfigFromFile()

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• Inheritance mapping with Fluent NHibernate

  - by Berryl

  Below is an example of how I currently use automapping overrides to set up a my db representation of inheritance. It gets the job done functionality wise BUT by using some internal default values. For example, the discriminator column name winds up being the literal value 'discriminator' instead of "ActivityType, and the discriminator values are the fully qualified type of each class, instead of "ACCOUNT" and "PROJECT". I am guessing that this is a bug that doesn't get much attention now that conventions are preferred, and that the convention approach works correctly. I am looking for a sample of usage. Cheers, Berryl public class ActivityBaseMap : IAutoMappingOverride<ActivityBase> { public void Override(AutoMapping<ActivityBase> mapping) { ... mapping.DiscriminateSubClassesOnColumn("ActivityType"); } } public class AccountingActivityMap : SubclassMap<AccountingActivity> { public AccountingActivityMap() { ... DiscriminatorValue("ACCOUNT"); } } public class ProjectActivityMap : SubclassMap<ProjectActivity> { public ProjectActivityMap() { ... DiscriminatorValue("PROJECT"); } }

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• OpenGl texture mapping blocking colours on FreeType?

  - by Dororo

  I'm using FreeType in order to allow fonts to be used in OpenGL. However, I'm having a problem where I cannot change the font colour whenever I do texture mapping. No matter what I select using glColor3f it will just come out white. The texture works fine. glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT); glLoadIdentity(); glColor3f(0.5,0.0,0.5); glPushMatrix(); glEnable(GL_BLEND); glBlendFunc(GL_SRC_ALPHA, GL_ONE_MINUS_SRC_ALPHA); glEnable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); glTexEnvf(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_TEXTURE_ENV_MODE, GL_REPLACE); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, texName); glBegin(GL_POLYGON); glTexCoord2f(0,1); glVertex2f(-16,-16); glTexCoord2f(0,0); glVertex2f(-16,16); glTexCoord2f(1,0); glVertex2f(16,16); glTexCoord2f(1,1); glVertex2f(16,-16); glEnd(); glDisable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); glDisable(GL_BLEND); glPopMatrix(); glColor3f(1,0,0); print(our_font, -300+screenWidth/2.0, screenHeight/2.0, "fifty two - %7.2f", spin); This is the problem code, I can confirm that drawing a polygon beneath this code will indeed make it red. The text is not changing to red though which it should; if you remove the texture mapping above it will turn red again, I can only think it is a problem with enabling and disabling and I've forgotten to do something...?

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• NHibernate slow mapping

  - by Rob A

  My question is what can I do to determine the cause of the slowness, or what can I do to speed it up without knowing the exact cause. I am running a simple query and it appears that the mapping back to the entities is taking taking forever. The result set is 350, which is not much data in my opinion. IRepository repo = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IRepository>(); var q = repo.Query<Order>(item => item.Ordereddate > DateTime.Now.AddDays(-40)); foreach (var order in q) { Console.WriteLine(order.TransactionNumber); } The profiler is telling me it is executing the query 7ms / 35257ms, I am assuming that the former is the actual response from the db and the latter is the time it takes NH to do it's magic. 35 seconds is too long. This is a simple mapping, one table, nested components, using fluent interface to do mappings. I just start up a simple console app and run the one query, the slowness is measured after the SessionFactory is initialized, there should only be one session, and I am not using a transaction. Thanks

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• Mapping enum with fluent nhibernate

  - by Puneet

  I am following the http://wiki.fluentnhibernate.org/Getting%5Fstarted tutorial to create my first NHibernate project with Fluent NHibernate I have 2 tables 1) Account with fields Id AccountHolderName AccountTypeId 2) AccountType with fields Id AccountTypeName Right now the account types can be Savings or Current So the table AccountTypes stores 2 rows 1 - Savings 2 - Current For AccoutType table I have defined enum public enum AccountType { Savings=1, Current=2 } For Account table I define the entity class public class Account { public virtual int Id {get; private set;} public virtual string AccountHolderName {get; set;} public virtual string AccountType {get; set;} } The fluent nhibernate mappings are: public AgencyMap() { Id(o => o.Id); Map(o => o.AccountHolderName); Map(o => o.AccountType); } When I try to run the solution, it gives an exception - InnerException = {"(XmlDocument)(2,4): XML validation error: The element 'class' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2' has incomplete content. List of possible elements expected: 'meta, subselect, cache, synchronize, comment, tuplizer, id, composite-id' in namespace 'ur... I guess that is because I have not speciofied any mapping for AccountType. The questions are: How can I use AccountType enum instead of a AccountType class? Maybe I am going on wrong track. Is there a better way to do this? Thanks!

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• LinQ XML mapping to a generic type

  - by Manuel Navarro

  I´m trying to use an external XML file to map the output from a stored procedure into an instance of a class. The problem is that my class is of a generic type: public class MyValue<T> { public T Value { get; set; } } Searching through a lot of blogs an articles I've managed to get this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <Database Name="" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/linqtosql/mapping/2007"> <Table Name="MyValue" Member="MyNamespace.MyValue`1" > <Type Name="MyNamespace.MyValue`1"> <Column Name="Category" Member="Value" DbType="VarChar(100)" /> </Type> </Table> <Function Method="GetResourceCategories" Name="myprefix_GetResourceCategories" > <ElementType Name="MyNamespace.MyValue`1"/> </Function> </Database> The MyNamespace.MyValue`1 trick works fine, and the class is recognized. I expect four rows from the stored procedure, and I'm getting four MyValue<string> instances, but the big problem is that the property Value for the all four instances is null. The property is not getting mapped and I don't really get why. Maybe worth noting that the property Value is generic, and that when the mapping is done using attributes it works perfect. Anyone have a clue? BTW the method GetResourceCategories: public ISingleResult<MyValue<string>> GetResourceCategories() { IExecuteResult result = this.ExecuteMethodCall( this, (MethodInfo)MethodInfo.GetCurrentMethod()); return (ISingleResult<MyValue<string>>)result.ReturnValue; }

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• NHibernate / Fluent - Mapping multiple objects to single lookup table

  - by Al

  Hi all I am struggling a little in getting my mapping right. What I have is a single self joined table of look up values of certain types. Each lookup can have a parent, which can be of a different type. For simplicities sake lets take the Country and State example. So the lookup table would look like this: Lookups Id Key Value LookupType ParentId - self joining to Id base class public class Lookup : BaseEntity { public Lookup() {} public Lookup(string key, string value) { Key = key; Value = value; } public virtual Lookup Parent { get; set; } [DomainSignature] [NotNullNotEmpty] public virtual LookupType LookupType { get; set; } [NotNullNotEmpty] public virtual string Key { get; set; } [NotNullNotEmpty] public virtual string Value { get; set; } } The lookup map public class LookupMap : IAutoMappingOverride<DBLookup> { public void Override(AutoMapping<Lookup> map) { map.Table("Lookups"); map.References(x => x.Parent, "ParentId").ForeignKey("Id"); map.DiscriminateSubClassesOnColumn<string>("LookupType").CustomType(typeof(LookupType)); } } BASE SubClass map for subclasses public class BaseLookupMap : SubclassMap where T : DBLookup { protected BaseLookupMap() { } protected BaseLookupMap(LookupType lookupType) { DiscriminatorValue(lookupType); Table("Lookups"); } } Example subclass map public class StateMap : BaseLookupMap<State> { protected StateMap() : base(LookupType.State) { } } Now I've almost got my mappings set, however the mapping is still expecting a table-per-class setup, so is expecting a 'State' table to exist with a reference to the states Id in the Lookup table. I hope this makes sense. This doesn't seem like an uncommon approach when wanting to keep lookup-type values configurable. Thanks in advance. Al

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• Hibernate collection mapping Problem

  - by Geln Yang

  Hi, There is a table Item like, code,name 01,parent1 02,parent2 0101,child11 0102,child12 0201,child21 0202,child22 Create a java object and hbm xml to map the table.The Item.parent is a Item whose code is equal to the first two characters of its code : class Item{ String code; String name; Item parent; List<Item> children; .... setter/getter.... } <hibernate-mapping> <class name="Item" table="Item"> <id name="code" length="4" type="string"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" column="name" length="50" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="parent" class="Item" not-found="ignore"> <formula> <![CDATA[ (select i.code,r.name from Item i where (case length(code) when 4 then i.code=SUBSTRING(code,1,2) else false end)) ]]> </formula> </many-to-one> <bag name="children"></bag> </class> </hibernate-mapping> I try to use formula to define the many-to-one relationship,but it doesn't work!Is there something wrong?Or is there other method? Thanks! ps,I use mysql database.

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• Hibernate mapping Problem

  - by Geln Yang

  Hi, There is a table Item like, code,name 01,parent1 02,parent2 0101,child11 0102,child12 0201,child21 0202,child22 Create a java object and hbm xml to map the table.The Item.parent is a Item whose code is equal to the first two characters of its code : class Item{ String code; String name; Item parent; List<Item> children; .... setter/getter.... } <hibernate-mapping> <class name="Item" table="Item"> <id name="code" length="4" type="string"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" column="name" length="50" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="parent" class="Item" not-found="ignore"> <formula> <![CDATA[ (select i.code,r.name from Item i where (case length(code) when 4 then i.code=SUBSTRING(code,1,2) else false end)) ]]> </formula> </many-to-one> <bag name="children"></bag> </class> </hibernate-mapping> I try to use formula to define the many-to-one relationship,but it doesn't work!Is there something wrong?Or is there other method? Thanks! ps,I use mysql database.

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• Association Mapping Details confusion?

  - by AaronLS

  I have never understood why the associations in EntityFramework look the way they do in the Mapping Details window. When I select the line between 2 tables for an association, for example FK_ApplicationSectionsNodes_FormItems, it shows this: Association Maps to ApplicationSectionNodes FormItems (key symbol) FormItemId:Int32 <--> FormItemId:int ApplicationSectionNodes (key symbol) NodeId:Int32 <--> (key symbol) NodeId : int Fortunately this one was create automatically for me based on the foreign key constraints in my database, but whenever no constraints exist, I have a hard to creating associations manually(when the database doesn't have a diagram setup) because I don't understand the mapping details for associations. FormItems table has a primary key identity column FormItemId, and ApplicationSectionNodes contains a FormItemId column that is the foreign key and has NodeId as a primary key identity column. What really makes no sense to me is why the association has anything listed about the NodeId, when NodeId doesn't have anything to do with the foreign key relationship? (It's even more confusing with self referencing relationships, but maybe if I could understand the above case I'd have a better handle). CREATE TABLE [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes]( [NodeID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [OutlineText] [varchar](5000) NULL, [ParentNodeID] [int] NULL, [FormItemId] [int] NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_ApplicationSectionNodes] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [NodeID] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY], CONSTRAINT [UQ_ApplicationSectionNodesFormItemId] UNIQUE NONCLUSTERED ( [FormItemId] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes] WITH NOCHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_ApplicationSectionNodes_ApplicationSectionNodes] FOREIGN KEY([ParentNodeID]) REFERENCES [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes] ([NodeID]) GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes] NOCHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_ApplicationSectionNodes_ApplicationSectionNodes] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes] WITH NOCHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_ApplicationSectionNodes_FormItems] FOREIGN KEY([FormItemId]) REFERENCES [dbo].[FormItems] ([FormItemId]) GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes] NOCHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_ApplicationSectionNodes_FormItems] GO FormItems Table: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[FormItems]( [FormItemId] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [FormItemType] [int] NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_FormItems] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [FormItemId] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[FormItems] WITH NOCHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_FormItems_FormItemTypes] FOREIGN KEY([FormItemType]) REFERENCES [dbo].[FormItemTypes] ([FormItemTypeId]) GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[FormItems] NOCHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_FormItems_FormItemTypes] GO

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• "Function object is unsubscriptable" in basic integer to string mapping function

  - by IanWhalen

  I'm trying to write a function to return the word string of any number less than 1000. Everytime I run my code at the interactive prompt it appears to work without issue but when I try to import wordify and run it with a test number higher than 20 it fails as "TypeError: 'function' object is unsubscriptable". Based on the error message, it seems the issue is when it tries to index numString (for example trying to extract the number 4 out of the test case of n = 24) and the compiler thinks numString is a function instead of a string. since the first line of the function is me defining numString as a string of the variable n, I'm not really sure why that is. Any help in getting around this error, or even just help in explaining why I'm seeing it, would be awesome. def wordify(n): # Convert n to a string to parse out ones, tens and hundreds later. numString = str(n) # N less than 20 is hard-coded. if n < 21: return numToWordMap(n) # N between 21 and 99 parses ones and tens then concatenates. elif n < 100: onesNum = numString[-1] ones = numToWordMap(int(onesNum)) tensNum = numString[-2] tens = numToWordMap(int(tensNum)*10) return tens+ones else: # TODO pass def numToWordMap(num): mapping = { 0:"", 1:"one", 2:"two", 3:"three", 4:"four", 5:"five", 6:"six", 7:"seven", 8:"eight", 9:"nine", 10:"ten", 11:"eleven", 12:"twelve", 13:"thirteen", 14:"fourteen", 15:"fifteen", 16:"sixteen", 17:"seventeen", 18:"eighteen", 19:"nineteen", 20:"twenty", 30:"thirty", 40:"fourty", 50:"fifty", 60:"sixty", 70:"seventy", 80:"eighty", 90:"ninety", 100:"onehundred", 200:"twohundred", 300:"threehundred", 400:"fourhundred", 500:"fivehundred", 600:"sixhundred", 700:"sevenhundred", 800:"eighthundred", 900:"ninehundred", } return mapping[num] if __name__ == '__main__': pass

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• Simple Fluent NHibernate Mapping Problem

  - by user500038

  I have the following tables I need to map: +-------------------------+ | Person | +-------------------------+ | PersonId | | FullName | +-------------------------+ +-------------------------+ | PersonAddress | +-------------------------+ | PersonId | | AddressId | | IsDefault | +-------------------------+ +-------------------------+ | Address | +-------------------------+ | AddressId | | State | +-------------------------+ And the following classes: public class Person { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string FullName { get; set; } } public class PersonAddress { public virtual Person Person { get; set; } public virtual Address Address { get; set; } public virtual bool IsDefault { get; set; } } public class Address { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string State { get; set; } } And finally the mappings: public class PersonMap : ClassMap<Person> { public PersonMap() { Id(x => x.Id, "PersonId"); } } public class PersonAddressMap : ClassMap<PersonAddress> { public PersonAddressMap() { CompositeId().KeyProperty(x => x.Person, "PersonID") .KeyProperty(x => x.Address, "AddressID"); } } public class AddressMap: ClassMap<Address> { public AddressMap() { Id(x => x.Id, "AddressId"); } } Assume I cannot alter the tables. If I take the mapping class (PersonAddress) out of the equation, everything works fine. If I put it back in I get: Could not determine type for: Person, Person, Version=1.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null, for columns: NHibernate.Mapping.Column(PersonId) What am I missing here? I'm sure this must be simple.

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• Check for existing mapping when writing a custom applier in ConfORM

  - by Philip Fourie

  I am writing my first custom column name applier for ConfORM. How do I check if another column has already been map with same mapping name? This is what I have so far: public class MyColumnNameApplier : IPatternApplier<PropertyPath, IPropertyMapper> { public bool Match(PropertyPath subject) { return (subject.LocalMember != null); } public void Apply(PropertyPath subject, IPropertyMapper applyTo) { string shortColumnName = ToOracleName(subject); // How do I check if the short columnName already exist? applyTo.Column(cm => cm.Name(shortColumnName)); } private string ToOracleName(PropertyPath subject) { ... } } } I need to shorten my class property names to less than 30 characters to fit in with Oracle's 30 character limit. Because I am shortening the column names it is possible that I generate the same name for two different properties. I would like to know when a duplicate mapping occurs. If I don't handle this scenario ConfORM/NHibernate allows two different properties to 'share' the same column name - this is obviously creates a problem for me.

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• Apache URL rewriting in reverse proxy

  - by Jeremy Gooch

  I'm deploying Apache in front of a Karaf-hosted application (Apache and Karaf are on separate servers). I want Apache to operate as a reverse proxy and also to hide part of the URL. The URL to get the log-in page of the application directly from the app server is http://app-server:8181/jellyfish. Pages are served by the Jetty instance running within Karaf. Of course, this behaviour would usually be blocked by the firewall for everything except the reverse proxy server. With the firewall off, if you hit this URL then Jetty loads the log-in page. The browser's address bar correctly changes to http://app-server:8181/jellyfish/login?0 and everything works. What I want is for http://web-server (i.e. from the root) to map to Jetty on the app server with the name of the app (jellyfish) suppressed. e.g. The browser would change to show http://web-server/login?0 in the address bar and all subsequent URLs and content would be served with the web-server's domain and without the jellyfish clutter. I can get Apache to operate as a simple reverse proxy, using the following config (snippet):- ProxyPass /jellyfish http://app-server:8181/jellyfish ProxyPassReverse / http://app-server:8181/ ...but this requires the browser's URL to contain jellyfish and going to the root URL (http://web-server) gives a 404 Not Found. I've spent a lot of time trying to use mod_rewrite with and without its [P] flag to get around this, but without success. I then tried the ProxyPassMatch directive, but I can't seem to get that quite correct either. Here's the current config, as is loaded into /etc/apache2/sites-available/ on the web server. Note that there is a locally-hosted images directory. I've also kept the mod_rewrite proxy exploit protection and am suppressing a couple of mod_security rules that were giving false positives. <VirtualHost *:80> ServerAdmin admin@drummer-server ServerName drummer-server ErrorLog ${APACHE_LOG_DIR}/error.log LogLevel warn CustomLog ${APACHE_LOG_DIR}/access.log combined Alias /images/ "/var/www/images/" RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/ RewriteRule .* - [R=400,L] ProxyPass /images ! ProxyPassMatch ^/(.*) http://granny-server:8181/jellyfish/$1 ProxyPassReverse / http://granny-server:8181/jellyfish ProxyPreserveHost On SecRuleRemoveById 981059 981060 <Directory "/var/www/images"> Options Indexes MultiViews FollowSymLinks AllowOverride None Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> </VirtualHost> If I go to http://web-server, I get redirected to http://web-server/jellyfish/home but this gives a 404, with a complaint about trying to access /jellyfish/jellyfish/home - NB the browser's address bar does not contain the double /jellyfish. HTTP ERROR 404 Problem accessing /jellyfish/jellyfish/home. Reason: Not Found And, if I go to http://web-server/login, I get redirected to http://web-server/jellyfish/login?0 but this gives a 404, with a complaint about trying to access /jellyfish/jellyfish/login. HTTP ERROR 404 Problem accessing /jellyfish/jellyfish/login. Reason: Not Found So, I'm guessing I'm somehow passing through the rules twice. I am also slightly bemused as to where the home bit of the URL comes from in the first example. Can someone point me in the right direction, please? Thanks, J.

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• Hibernate - EhCache - Which region to Cache associations/sets/collections ??

  - by lifeisnotfair

  Hi all, I am a newcomer to hibernate. It would be great if someone could comment over the following query that i have: Say i have a parent class and each parent has multiple children. So the mapping file of parent class would be something like: parent.hbm.xml <hibernate-mapping > <class name="org.demo.parent" table="parent" lazy="true"> <cache usage="read-write" region="org.demo.parent"/> <id name="id" column="id" type="integer" length="10"> <generator class="native"> </generator> </id> <property name="name" column="name" type="string" length="50"/> <set name="children" lazy="true"> <cache usage="read-write" region="org.demo.parent.children" /> <key column="parent_id"/> <one-to-many class="org.demo.children"/> </set> </class> </hibernate-mapping> children.hbm.xml <hibernate-mapping > <class name="org.demo.children" table="children" lazy="true"> <cache usage="read-write" region="org.demo.children"/> <id name="id" column="id" type="integer" length="10"> <generator class="native"> </generator> </id> <property name="name" column="name" type="string" length="50"/> <many-to-one name="parent_id" column="parent_id" type="integer" length="10" not-null="true"/> </class> </hibernate-mapping> So for the set children, should we specify the region org.demo.parent.children where it should cache the association or should we use the cache region of org.demo.children where the children would be getting cached. I am using EHCache as the 2nd level cache provider. I tried to search for the answer to this question but couldnt find any answer in this direction. It makes more sense to use org.demo.children but I dont know in which scenarios one should use a separate cache region for associations/sets/collections as in the above case. Kindly provide your inputs also let me know if I am not clear in my question. Thanks all.

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