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  • input type="text" not clickable in a jcarousel (jQuery based carousel) element

    - by AkaiKen
    Hello ! I work on a website where almost all objects are in a jCarousel element : <div> <ul id="mycarousel"> <li>object 1</li> <li>object 2</li> </ul> </div> is the "written" code, and : <div class=" jcarousel-skin-tango"> <div class="jcarousel-container jcarousel-container-horizontal" style="display: block;"> <div class="jcarousel-prev jcarousel-prev-horizontal jcarousel-prev-disabled jcarousel-prev-disabled-horizontal" style="display: block;" disabled="true"></div> <div class="jcarousel-next jcarousel-next-horizontal" style="display: block;" disabled="false"></div> <div class="jcarousel-clip jcarousel-clip-horizontal"> <ul class=" jcarousel-list jcarousel-list-horizontal" id="mycarousel" style="width: 2853px; left: 0px;"> <li class="jcarousel-item jcarousel-item-horizontal jcarousel-item-1 jcarousel-item-1-horizontal" jcarouselindex="1" style="width: 307px;"> object 1 </li> <li class="jcarousel-item jcarousel-item-horizontal jcarousel-item-1 jcarousel-item-1-horizontal" jcarouselindex="1" style="width: 307px;"> object 2 </li> </ul> </div> </div> is the generated code (here it lacks the ultimate </div>, maybe a number of rows limitation ?). I'm sorry I can't provide a link, I work on a local server currently. It works perfectly =) but... my problem is : an <input type="text" /> won't be clickable in this environment. I tried the others type of input, radio, checkbox, file : works. But text does not. I can specify a value on my input (it's its purpose on my work : a search in a database for datas to be modified and reinjected in database). In fact, I can access to the text input by clicking-right in then left. But it's pretty 'unergonomic', and in my project it's unthinkable. Ah, and I tried to style this input with a style="z-index:1000;", no changes, I think it's not a CSS problem. Does anybody have an idea ? Thank you very much in advance.

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  • Translating itunes affiliate rss via xslt

    - by jd
    I can't get this working for the life of me. Here is a snippet of the xml I get from an RSS feed from itunes affiliate. I want top print the values within tags but I cannot for some reason: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <feed xmlns:im="http://itunes.apple.com/rss" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2005/Atom" xml:lang="en"> <id>http://ax.itunes.apple.com/WebObjects/MZStoreServices.woa/ws/RSS/toppaidapplications/sf=143441/limit=100/genre=6014/xml</id><title>iTunes Store: Top Paid Applications</title><updated>2010-03-24T15:36:42-07:00</updated><link rel="alternate" type="text/html" href="http://itunes.apple.com/WebObjects/MZStore.woa/wa/viewTop?id=25180&amp;popId=30"/><link rel="self" href="http://ax.itunes.apple.com/WebObjects/MZStoreServices.woa/ws/RSS/toppaidapplications/sf=143441/limit=100/genre=6014/xml"/><icon>http://phobos.apple.com/favicon.ico</icon><author><name>iTunes Store</name><uri>http://www.apple.com/itunes/</uri></author><rights>Copyright 2008 Apple Inc.</rights> <entry> <updated>date</updated> <id>someID</id> <title>a</title> <im:name>b</im:name> </entry> <entry> <updated>date2/updated> <id>someID2</id> <title>a2</title> <im:name>b2</im:name> </entry> </feed> If I try <xsl:apply-templates match="entry"/> it spits out the entire contents of file. If I use <xsl:call-template name="entry"> it will show only one entry and I have to use <xsl:value-of select="//*[local-name(.)='name']"/> to get name but that's a hack. I've used xslt before for xml without namespaces and xml that has proper parent child relationships but not like this RSS feed. Notice entry is not wrapped in entries or anything. Any help is appreciated. I want to use xslt because I want to alter the itunes link to go through my affiliate account - so something automated wouldn't work for me.

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  • IE and Content-disposition inline vs. extension-token

    - by pinkgothic
    Preamble So IE does Mime-Type sniffing. That part's old news. Suggestions of how to combat it tend to be along the lines of 'supply a content-type IE trusts' (i.e. anything that isn't text/plain or application/octet-stream) or 'add extraneous data at the start of the file that is definitely of the type you're serving'. Now, I'm working on an application that has to allow message attachments (like in e-mails), and we want to close up XSS vectors. IE's mime sniffing is one of those vectors - a text/plain file with html content will trigger as html. Recoding isn't an option at this point, changing the attachments the user has provided can only happen if there is absolutely no doubt about the maliciousness of the file - and someone might want to send HTML as text. Now, Microsoft's MSDN article implies the situation might be easier to fix than advertised: If Internet Explorer knows the Content-Type specified and there is no Content-Disposition data, Internet Explorer performs a "MIME sniff," [...] Great! Except I don't have IE nor current means to reliably install it (I realise this is a fairly sad state for a webdeveloper to be in, I hope to fix this soon) and this is grey theory that I can't quite seem to get confirmed one way or the other. Local sources say that line is hogwash - IE will mime sniff anything that is Content-Disposition: inline / <default> and not specific enough for its tastes in -Type. But what about x-* ('extension-token' in the RFC)? Trying to google for how browsers handle Content-Disposition: <extension-token> hasn't yielded anything (though I may just be doing it wrong, my understanding of Google is seriously slipping lately). I found one question that looked promising, but turned out to be a misunderstanding on side of the thread author, meaning that the train of thought was never actually addressed there. Question(s) Does IE really Mime sniff if you expressly pass Content-Disposition: inline? If so: Does anyone here know how browsers handle Content-Disposition: <extension-token>? If they do this in a way that is for my purposes benign, by presuming it to be synonymous with the default (effectively 'inline', though I hear it's not defined anywhere?), is it specific enough for IE not to Mime sniff? Or am I actually shooting myself in the foot by thinking of pursuing this avenue?

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  • Detect Client Computer name when an RDP session is open

    - by Ubiquitous Che
    Hey all, My manager has pointed out to me a few nifty things that one of our accounting applications can do because it can load different settings based on the machine name of the host and the machine name of the client when the package is opened in an RDP session. We want to provide similar functionality in one of my company's applications. I've found out on this site how to detect if I'm in an RDP session, but I'm having trouble finding information anywhere on how to detect the name of the client computer. Any pointers in the right direction would be great. I'm coding in C# for .NET 3.5 EDIT The sample code I cobbled together from the advice below - it should be enough for anyone who has a use for the WTSQuerySessionInformation to get a feel for what's going on. Note that this isn't necessarily the best way of doing it - just a starting point that I've found useful. When I run this locally, I get boring, expected answers. When I run it on our local office server in an RDP session, I see my own computer name in the WTSClientName property. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; namespace TerminalServicesTest { class Program { const int WTS_CURRENT_SESSION = -1; static readonly IntPtr WTS_CURRENT_SERVER_HANDLE = IntPtr.Zero; static void Main(string[] args) { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); uint byteCount; foreach (WTS_INFO_CLASS item in Enum.GetValues(typeof(WTS_INFO_CLASS))) { Program.WTSQuerySessionInformation( WTS_CURRENT_SERVER_HANDLE, WTS_CURRENT_SESSION, item, out sb, out byteCount); Console.WriteLine("{0}({1}): {2}", item.ToString(), byteCount, sb); } Console.WriteLine(); Console.WriteLine("Press any key to exit..."); Console.ReadKey(); } [DllImport("Wtsapi32.dll")] public static extern bool WTSQuerySessionInformation( IntPtr hServer, int sessionId, WTS_INFO_CLASS wtsInfoClass, out StringBuilder ppBuffer, out uint pBytesReturned); } enum WTS_INFO_CLASS { WTSInitialProgram = 0, WTSApplicationName = 1, WTSWorkingDirectory = 2, WTSOEMId = 3, WTSSessionId = 4, WTSUserName = 5, WTSWinStationName = 6, WTSDomainName = 7, WTSConnectState = 8, WTSClientBuildNumber = 9, WTSClientName = 10, WTSClientDirectory = 11, WTSClientProductId = 12, WTSClientHardwareId = 13, WTSClientAddress = 14, WTSClientDisplay = 15, WTSClientProtocolType = 16, WTSIdleTime = 17, WTSLogonTime = 18, WTSIncomingBytes = 19, WTSOutgoingBytes = 20, WTSIncomingFrames = 21, WTSOutgoingFrames = 22, WTSClientInfo = 23, WTSSessionInfo = 24, WTSSessionInfoEx = 25, WTSConfigInfo = 26, WTSValidationInfo = 27, WTSSessionAddressV4 = 28, WTSIsRemoteSession = 29 } }

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  • Strange behavior with Powershell scriptblock variable scope and modules, any suggestions?

    - by DanMan
    NOTE: I'm using PowerShell 2.0 on Windows Vista. I'm trying to add support for specifying build arguments to psake, but I've run into some strange PowerShell variable scoping behavior dealing specifically with calling functions that have been exported using Export-ModuleMember (which is how psake exposes it's main method). Following is a simple PowerShell module to illustrate (named repoCase.psm1): function Test { param( [Parameter(Position=0,Mandatory=0)] [scriptblock]$properties = {} ) $defaults = {$message = "Hello, world!"} Write-Host "Before running defaults, message is: $message" . $defaults #At this point, $message is correctly set to "Hellow, world!" Write-Host "Aftering running defaults, message is: $message" . $properties #At this point, I would expect $message to be set to whatever is passed in, #which in this case is "Hello from poperties!", but it isn't. Write-Host "Aftering running properties, message is: $message" } Export-ModuleMember -Function "Test" To test the module, run the following sequence of commands (be sure you're in the same directory as the repoCase.psm1): Import-Module .\repoCase.psm1 #Note that $message should be null Write-Host "Before execution - In global scope, message is: $message" Test -properties { "Executing properties, message is $message"; $message = "Hello from properties!"; } #Now $message is set to the value from the script block. The script block affected only the global scope. Write-Host "After execution - In global scope, message is: $message" Remove-Module repoCase The behavior I expected was for the script block I passed to Test to affect the local scope of Test. It is being 'dotsourced' in, so any changes it makes should be within the scope of the caller. However, that's not what's happening, it seems to be affecting the scope of where it was declared. Here's the output: Before execution - In global scope, message is: Before running defaults, message is: Aftering running defaults, message is: Hello, world! Executing properties, message is Aftering running properties, message is: Hello, world! After execution - In global scope, message is: Hello from properties! Interestingly, if I don't export Test as a module and instead just declare the function and invoke it, everything works just like I would expect it to. The script block affects only Test's scope, and does not modify the global scope. I'm not a PowerShell guru, but can someone explain this behavior to me?

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  • Linked List Design

    - by Jim Scott
    The other day in a local .NET group I attend the following question came up: "Is it a valid interview question to ask about Linked Lists when hiring someone for a .NET development position?" Not having a computer sciense degree and being a self taught developer my response was that I did not feel it was appropriate as I in 5 years of developer with .NET had never been exposed to linked lists and did not hear any compeling reason for a use for one. However the person commented that it is a very common interview question so I decided when I left that I would do some reasearch on linked lists and see what I might be missing. I have read a number of posts on stack overflow and various google searches and decided the best way to learn about them was to write my own .NET classes to see how they worked from the inside out. Here is my class structure Single Linked List Constructor public SingleLinkedList(object value) Public Properties public bool IsTail public bool IsHead public object Value public int Index public int Count private fields not exposed to a property private SingleNode firstNode; private SingleNode lastNode; private SingleNode currentNode; Methods public void MoveToFirst() public void MoveToLast() public void Next() public void MoveTo(int index) public void Add(object value) public void InsertAt(int index, object value) public void Remove(object value) public void RemoveAt(int index) Questions I have: What are typical methods you would expect in a linked list? What is typical behaviour when adding new records? For example if I have 4 nodes and I am currently positioned in the second node and perform Add() should it be added after or before the current node? Or should it be added to the end of the list? Some of the designs I have seen explaining things seem to expose outside of the LinkedList class the Node object. In my design you simply add, get, remove values and know nothing about any node object. Should the Head and Tail be placeholder objects that are only used to define the head/tail of the list? I require my Linked List be instantiated with a value which creates the first node of the list which is essentially the head and tail of the list. Would you change that ? What should the rules be when it comes to removing nodes. Should someone be able to remove all nodes? Here is my Double Linked List Constructor public DoubleLinkedList(object value) Properties public bool IsHead public bool IsTail public object Value public int Index public int Count Private fields not exposed via property private DoubleNode currentNode; Methods public void AddFirst(object value) public void AddLast(object value) public void AddBefore(object existingValue, object value) public void AddAfter(object existingValue, object value) public void Add(int index, object value) public void Add(object value) public void Remove(int index) public void Next() public void Previous() public void MoveTo(int index)

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  • JbossESB jmsProvider cannot convert IBMMQ JMS Message JMSTextMessage

    - by Himanshu
    I am trying to integrate IBMMQ v6.0.2 with jbossESB. we have local Queue available on IBMMQ on one of our QA QUEUEMANAGER. I am able to listen to the QUEUE using JMSprovider of jboss ESB. As soon as a message (of type jms_text ) is dropped , esb listen to it and pick it up and before it hit the next action it throws following error message. ERROR [JmsComposer] Unsupported JMS message type: com.ibm.jms.JMSTextMessage Here are the steps I followed. jboss-service.mxl : Defined Connection Factory and QUEUE added jars ( com.ibm.mq.* ) to ${jbossesb}/server/${mynode}/lib Added jms lsinterner configuration on jboss-esb.xml Please guide me what I m missing here... Do I need to create custom MessagePlugin ? jboss-esb looks like this <jms-provider name="WSMQ" connection-factory="MQQueueConnectionFactory"> <jms-bus busid="queuestartGwChannel"> <jms-message-filter dest-type="QUEUE" dest-name="wsmq/SerivceOrderQueue" acknowledge-mode ="AUTO_ACKNOWLEDGE" /> </jms-bus> <jms-bus busid="queuestartEsbChannel"> <jms-message-filter dest-type="QUEUE" dest-name="wsmq/SerivceOrderQueue" /> </jms-bus> </jms-provider> jboss-service.xml looks like this <mbean code="jmx.service.wsmq.WSMQConnectionFactory" name="jmx.service.wsmq:service=MQQueueConnectionFactory"> <attribute name="JndiName">MQQueueConnectionFactory</attribute> <attribute name="JMSStyle">Queue</attribute> <attribute name="IsXA">false</attribute> <attribute name="QueueManagerName">SQAT0083</attribute> <attribute name="HostName">111.111.111.111</attribute> <attribute name="Port">1415</attribute> <attribute name="Channel">MYCO.SVRCONN</attribute> <attribute name="TransportType">CLIENT</attribute> <depends>jboss:service=Naming</depends> </mbean> <mbean code="jmx.service.wsmq.WSMQDestination" name="jmx.service.wsmq:service=WSMQRequestQueue"> <attribute name="JndiName">wsmq/SerivceOrderQueue</attribute> <attribute name="JMSStyle">Queue</attribute> <attribute name="QueueManagerName">SQAT0083</attribute> <attribute name="DestinationName">MYCO.SERVICEORDER.QA01.QL01</attribute> <attribute name="TargetClient">MQ</attribute> <depends>jboss:service=Naming</depends> </mbean> I am using jboss-eap-4.3. Really appreciate any help.

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  • VS2008: File creation fails randomly in unit testing?

    - by Tim
    I'm working on implementing a reasonably simple XML serializer/deserializer (log file parser) application in C# .NET with VS 2008. I have about 50 unit tests right now for various parts of the code (mostly for the various serialization operations), and some of them seem to be failing mostly at random when they deal with file I/O. The way the tests are structured is that in the test setup method, I create a new empty file at a certain predetermined location, and close the stream I get back. Then I run some basic tests on the file (varying by what exactly is under test). In the cleanup method, I delete the file again. A large portion (usually 30 or more, though the number varies run to run) of my unit tests will fail at the initialize method, claiming they can't access the file I'm trying to create. I can't pin down the exact reason, since a test that will work one run fails the next; they all succeed when run individually. What's the problem here? Why can't I access this file across multiple unit tests? Relevant methods for a unit test that will fail some of the time: [TestInitialize()] public void LogFileTestInitialize() { this.testFolder = System.Environment.GetFolderPath( System.Environment.SpecialFolder.LocalApplicationData ); this.testPath = this.testFolder + "\\empty.lfp"; System.IO.File.Create(this.testPath); } [TestMethod()] public void LogFileConstructorTest() { string filePath = this.testPath; LogFile target = new LogFile(filePath); Assert.AreNotEqual(null, target); Assert.AreEqual(this.testPath, target.filePath); Assert.AreEqual("empty.lfp", target.fileName); Assert.AreEqual(this.testFolder + "\\empty.lfp.lfpdat", target.metaPath); } [TestCleanup()] public void LogFileTestCleanup() { System.IO.File.Delete(this.testPath); } And the LogFile() constructor: public LogFile(String filePath) { this.entries = new List<Entry>(); this.filePath = filePath; this.metaPath = filePath + ".lfpdat"; this.fileName = filePath.Substring(filePath.LastIndexOf("\\") + 1); } The precise error message: Initialization method LogFileParserTester.LogFileTest.LogFileTestInitialize threw exception. System.IO.IOException: System.IO.IOException: The process cannot access the file 'C:\Users\<user>\AppData\Local\empty.lfp' because it is being used by another process..

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  • How to call a JavaScript function from one frame to another in Chrome/Webkit with file protocol

    - by bambax
    I have developed an application that has a list of items in one frame; when one clicks on an item it does something in another frame (loads an image). This used to work fine in all browsers, including Chrome 3; now it still works fine in Firefox but in recent versions of Chrome (I believe since 4) it throws this error: Unsafe JavaScript attempt to access frame with URL (...) from frame with URL (...). Domains, protocols and ports must match. This is obviously a security "feature" but is it possible to get around it? Here is a simple test: index.html: <html> <frameset cols="50%,50%"> <frame src="left.html" name="left"/> <frame src="right.html" name="right"/> </frameset> </html> left.html: <html> <body> <a href="javascript:parent.right.test('hello');">click me</a> </body> </html> right.html: <html> <body> <script> function test(msg) { alert(msg); } </script> </body> </html> The above works in Firefox 3.6 and Chrome 3 but in Chrome 5 it throws the above error... Edit: added the @cols attribute to the frameset element in fact it works in Chrome if and only if the pages are served with the http protocol (and from the same domain) but my problem is when pages are local and served from a file:// protocol. Then it works in Firefox (all versions) and Chrome 3 but not Chrome 5 (I don't have Chrome 4 so I'm not shure about that specific version (and don't know if it's even possible to download a specific Chrome version?) -- but for Chrome 5 I'm very sure it doesn't work).

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  • SQL Server 2008 Filestream Impersonation Access Denied error

    - by Adi
    I've been trying to upload a file to the database using SQL SERVER 2008 Filestream and Impersonation technique to save the file in the file system, but i keep getting Access Denied error; even though i've set the permissions for the impersonating user to the Filestream folder(C:\SQLFILESTREAM\Dev_DB). when i debugged the code, i found the server return a unc path(\Server_Name\MSSQLSERVER\v1\Dev_LMDB\dbo\FileData\File_Data\13C39AB1-8B91-4F5A-81A1-940B58504C17), which was not accessible through windows explorer. I've my web application hosted on local maching(Windows 7). SQL Server is located on a remote server(Windows Server 2008 R2). Sql authentication was used to call the stored procedure. Following is the code i've used to do the above operations. SqlCommand sqlCmd = new SqlCommand("AddFile"); sqlCmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; sqlCmd.Parameters.Add("@File_Name", SqlDbType.VarChar, 512).Value = filename; sqlCmd.Parameters.Add("@File_Type", SqlDbType.VarChar, 5).Value = Path.GetExtension(filename); sqlCmd.Parameters.Add("@Username", SqlDbType.VarChar, 20).Value = username; sqlCmd.Parameters.Add("@Output_File_Path", SqlDbType.VarChar, -1).Direction = ParameterDirection.Output; DAManager PDAM = new DAManager(DAManager.getConnectionString()); using (SqlConnection connection = (SqlConnection)PDAM.CreateConnection()) { connection.Open(); SqlTransaction transaction = connection.BeginTransaction(); WindowsImpersonationContext wImpersonationCtx; NetworkSecurity ns = null; try { PDAM.ExecuteNonQuery(sqlCmd, transaction); string filepath = sqlCmd.Parameters["@Output_File_Path"].Value.ToString(); sqlCmd = new SqlCommand("SELECT GET_FILESTREAM_TRANSACTION_CONTEXT()"); sqlCmd.CommandType = CommandType.Text; byte[] Context = (byte[])PDAM.ExecuteScalar(sqlCmd, transaction); byte[] buffer = new byte[4096]; int bytedRead; ns = new NetworkSecurity(); wImpersonationCtx = ns.ImpersonateUser(IMP_Domain, IMP_Username, IMP_Password, LogonType.LOGON32_LOGON_INTERACTIVE, LogonProvider.LOGON32_PROVIDER_DEFAULT); SqlFileStream sfs = new SqlFileStream(filepath, Context, System.IO.FileAccess.Write); while ((bytedRead = inFS.Read(buffer, 0, buffer.Length)) != 0) { sfs.Write(buffer, 0, bytedRead); } sfs.Close(); transaction.Commit(); } catch (Exception ex) { transaction.Rollback(); } finally { sqlCmd.Dispose(); connection.Close(); connection.Dispose(); ns.undoImpersonation(); wImpersonationCtx = null; ns = null; } } Can someone help me with this issue. Reference Exception: Type : System.ComponentModel.Win32Exception, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089 Message : Access is denied Source : System.Data Help link : NativeErrorCode : 5 ErrorCode : -2147467259 Data : System.Collections.ListDictionaryInternal TargetSite : Void OpenSqlFileStream(System.String, Byte[], System.IO.FileAccess, System.IO.FileOptions, Int64) Stack Trace : at System.Data.SqlTypes.SqlFileStream.OpenSqlFileStream(String path, Byte[] transactionContext, FileAccess access, FileOptions options, Int64 allocationSize) at System.Data.SqlTypes.SqlFileStream..ctor(String path, Byte[] transactionContext, FileAccess access, FileOptions options, Int64 allocationSize) at System.Data.SqlTypes.SqlFileStream..ctor(String path, Byte[] transactionContext, FileAccess access) Thanks

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  • Tracking upstream svn changes with git-svn and github?

    - by Joseph Turian
    How do I track upstream SVN changes using git-svn and github? I used git-svn to convert an SVN repo to git on github: $ git svn clone -s http://svn.osqa.net/svnroot/osqa/ osqa $ cd osqa $ git remote add origin [email protected]:turian/osqa.git $ git push origin master I then made a few changes in my git repo, committed, and pushed to github. Now, I am on a new machine. I want to take upstream SVN changes, merge them with my github repo, and push them to my github repo. This documentation says: "If you ever lose your local copy, just run the import again with the same settings, and you’ll get another working directory with all the necessary SVN metainfo." So I did the following. But none of the commands work as desired. How do I track upstream SVN changes using git-svn and github? What am I doing wrong? $ git svn clone -s http://svn.osqa.net/svnroot/osqa/ osqa $ cd osqa $ git remote add origin [email protected]:turian/osqa.git $ git push origin master To [email protected]:turian/osqa.git ! [rejected] master -> master (non-fast forward) error: failed to push some refs to '[email protected]:turian/osqa.git' $ git pull remote: Counting objects: 21, done. remote: Compressing objects: 100% (17/17), done. remote: Total 17 (delta 7), reused 9 (delta 0) Unpacking objects: 100% (17/17), done. From [email protected]:turian/osqa * [new branch] master -> origin/master From [email protected]:turian/osqa * [new tag] master -> master You asked me to pull without telling me which branch you want to merge with, and 'branch.master.merge' in your configuration file does not tell me either. Please name which branch you want to merge on the command line and try again (e.g. 'git pull <repository> <refspec>'). See git-pull(1) for details on the refspec. ... $ /usr//lib/git-core/git-svn rebase warning: refname 'master' is ambiguous. First, rewinding head to replay your work on top of it... Applying: Added forum/management/commands/dumpsettings.py error: Ref refs/heads/master is at 6acd747f95aef6d9bce37f86798a32c14e04b82e but expected a7109d94d813b20c230a029ecd67801e6067a452 fatal: Cannot lock the ref 'refs/heads/master'. Could not move back to refs/heads/master rebase refs/remotes/trunk: command returned error: 1

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  • Using PHP's IMAP library triggers Kaspersky's Antivirus

    - by TMG
    Hello, I just started today working with PHP's IMAP library, and while imap_fetchbody or imap_body are called, it is triggering my Kaspersky antivirus. The viruses are Trojan.Win32.Agent.dmyq and Trojan.Win32.FraudPack.aoda. I am running this off a local development machine with XAMPP and Kaspersky AV. Now, I am sure there are viruses there since there is spam in the box (who doesn't need a some viagra or vicodin these days?). And I know that since the raw body includes attachments and different mime-types, bad stuff can be in the body. So my question is: are there any risks using these libraries? I am assuming that the IMAP functions are retrieving the body, caching it to disk/memory and the AV scanning it sees the data. Is that correct? Are there any known security concerns using this library (I couldn't find any)? Does it clean up cached message parts perfectly or might viral files be sitting somewhere? Is there a better way to get plain text out of the body than this? Right now I am using the following code (credit to Kevin Steffer): function get_mime_type(&$structure) { $primary_mime_type = array("TEXT", "MULTIPART","MESSAGE", "APPLICATION", "AUDIO","IMAGE", "VIDEO", "OTHER"); if($structure->subtype) { return $primary_mime_type[(int) $structure->type] . '/' .$structure->subtype; } return "TEXT/PLAIN"; } function get_part($stream, $msg_number, $mime_type, $structure = false, $part_number = false) { if(!$structure) { $structure = imap_fetchstructure($stream, $msg_number); } if($structure) { if($mime_type == get_mime_type($structure)) { if(!$part_number) { $part_number = "1"; } $text = imap_fetchbody($stream, $msg_number, $part_number); if($structure->encoding == 3) { return imap_base64($text); } else if($structure->encoding == 4) { return imap_qprint($text); } else { return $text; } } if($structure->type == 1) /* multipart */ { while(list($index, $sub_structure) = each($structure->parts)) { if($part_number) { $prefix = $part_number . '.'; } $data = get_part($stream, $msg_number, $mime_type, $sub_structure,$prefix . ($index + 1)); if($data) { return $data; } } // END OF WHILE } // END OF MULTIPART } // END OF STRUTURE return false; } // END OF FUNCTION $connection = imap_open($server, $login, $password); $count = imap_num_msg($connection); for($i = 1; $i <= $count; $i++) { $header = imap_headerinfo($connection, $i); $from = $header->fromaddress; $to = $header->toaddress; $subject = $header->subject; $date = $header->date; $body = get_part($connection, $i, "TEXT/PLAIN"); }

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  • How to get hibernate3-maven-plugin hbm2ddl to find JDBC driver?

    - by HDave
    I have a Java project I am building with Maven. I am now trying to get the hibernate3-maven-plugin to run the hbm2ddl tool to generate a schema.sql file I can use to create the database schema from my annotated domain classes. This is a JPA application that uses Hibernate as the provider. In my persistence.xml file I call out the mysql driver: <property name="hibernate.dialect" value="org.hibernate.dialect.MySQLDialect"/> <property name="hibernate.connection.driver_class" value="com.mysql.jdbc.Driver"/> When I run Maven, I see it processing all my classes, but when it goes to output the schema, I get the following error: ERROR org.hibernate.connection.DriverManagerConnectionProvider - JDBC Driver class not found: com.mysql.jdbc.Driver java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: com.mysql.jdbc.Driver I have the MySQL driver as a dependency of this module. However it seems like the hbm2ddl tool cannot find it. I would have guessed that the Maven plugin would have known to search the local Maven file repository for this driver. What gives? The relevant part of my pom.xml is this: <plugin> <groupId>org.codehaus.mojo</groupId> <artifactId>hibernate3-maven-plugin</artifactId> <executions> <execution> <phase>process-classes</phase> <goals> <goal>hbm2ddl</goal> </goals> </execution> </executions> <configuration> <components> <component> <name>hbm2ddl</name> <implementation>jpaconfiguration</implementation> </component> </components> <componentProperties> <persistenceunit>my-unit</persistenceunit> </componentProperties> </configuration> </plugin>

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  • Coldfusion Report Builder - How can you set different datasources externally between prod/staging/de

    - by Smooth Operator
    Coldfusion Report Builder is great. One small issue. We use ANT+CFANT to deploy. When we create the report, say in a datasource called MyApp_dev on a dev box. Everything works great when the report is created. We deploy the report to our staging server, which has a datasource of MyApp_Staging. That server also, may or may not, have the live app working under MyApp_Live. Ant pushes the update to Staging just great. Run the report, crashes and burns. Why? It seems the report is looking for the MyApp_Dev data_source, even though the application is using the MyApp_Staging datasource. In digging around I found a few approaches, I would like to do this one, final, ideal way from the beginning instead of having to go back to do dozens of reports differently when I have a new Aha! moment. 1) Obvious: Pass in the datasource in to the cfreport tag. Doesn't work for ColdFusion Builder Reports as of v8, or v9 as tested on Linux. 2) Most realistic option (but painful) so far: Pass in the query as an object into the ColdFusion Builder report. Let's think about this: Create the Report with the report builder to my heart's content using the RDS, etc on my local box. When I'm done, copy the query into a snippet of code, or into a database column to be dynamically be injected at runtime with correct datasource. Modify my "run report" event to find the query from the database column, insert it into another dynamic cfquery and potentially... evaluate (!?!) it? Fun side is I can set the cfquery datasource to what I would need for each environment. When I modify the report's columns in CF Report Builder, I always have to update the query in the database. Is there a snippet of code that can extract this for me? Hmm. 3) Less than ideal. Suck it up and let all the reports in staging run off the live server. Maybe copy the live data into staging (sans structural changes) to let it seem similar. Are there any eloquent ways to accomplish the above? Thanks in Advance!

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  • SharePoint 2010 Custom WCF Service - Windows and FBA Authentication

    - by e-rock
    I have SharePoint 2010 configured for Claims Based Authentication with both Windows and Forms Based Authentication (FBA) for external users. I also need to develop custom WCF Services. The issue is that I want Windows credentials passed into the WCF Service(s); however, I cannot seem to get the Windows credentials passed into the services. My custom WCF service appears to be using Anonymous authentication (which has to be enabled in IIS in order to display the FBA login screen). The example I have tried to follow is found at http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff521581.aspx. The WCF service gets deployed to _vti_bin (ISAPI folder). Here is the code for the .svc file <%@ ServiceHost Language="C#" Debug="true" Service="MyCompany.CustomerPortal.SharePoint.UI.ISAPI.MyCompany.Services.LibraryManagers.LibraryUploader, $SharePoint.Project.AssemblyFullName$" Factory="Microsoft.SharePoint.Client.Services.MultipleBaseAddressBasicHttpBindingServiceHostFactory, Microsoft.SharePoint.Client.ServerRuntime, Version=14.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=71e9bce111e9429c" CodeBehind="LibraryUploader.svc.cs" %> Here is the code behind for the .svc file [ServiceContract] public interface ILibraryUploader { [OperationContract] string SiteName(); } [BasicHttpBindingServiceMetadataExchangeEndpoint] [AspNetCompatibilityRequirements(RequirementsMode = AspNetCompatibilityRequirementsMode.Required)] public class LibraryUploader : ILibraryUploader { //just try to return site title right now… public string SiteName() { WindowsIdentity identity = ServiceSecurityContext.Current.WindowsIdentity; ClaimsIdentity claimsIdentity = new ClaimsIdentity(identity); return SPContext.Current.Web.Title; } } The WCF test client I have just to test it out (WPF app) uses the following code to call the WCF service... private void Button1Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { BasicHttpBinding binding = new BasicHttpBinding(); binding.Security.Mode = BasicHttpSecurityMode.TransportCredentialOnly; binding.Security.Transport.ClientCredentialType = HttpClientCredentialType.Ntlm; EndpointAddress endpoint = new EndpointAddress( "http://dev.portal.data-image.local/_vti_bin/MyCompany.Services/LibraryManagers/LibraryUploader.svc"); LibraryUploaderClient libraryUploader = new LibraryUploaderClient(binding, endpoint); libraryUploader.ClientCredentials.Windows.AllowedImpersonationLevel = System.Security.Principal.TokenImpersonationLevel.Impersonation; MessageBox.Show(libraryUploader.SiteName()); } I am somewhat inexperienced with IIS security settings/configurations when it comes to Claims and trying to use both Windows and FBA. I am also inexperienced when it comes to WCF configurations for security. I usually develop internal biz apps and let Visual Studio decide what to use because security is rarely a concern.

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  • .net List<string>.Remove bug Should I submit a MS Connect bug report on this?

    - by Dean Lunz
    So I was beating my head against a wall for a while before it dawned on me. I have some code that saves a list of names into a text file ala ... System.IO.File.WriteAllLines(dlg.FileName, this.characterNameMasterList.Distinct().ToArray()); The character names can contain special characters. These names come from the wow armory at www.wowarmory.com There are about 26000 names or so saved in the .txt file. The names get saved to the .txt file just fine. I wrote another application that reads these names from that .txt file using this code // download the names from the db var webNames = this.DownloadNames("character"); // filter names and get ones that need to be added to the db var localNames = new List<string>(System.IO.File.ReadAllLines(dlg.FileName)); foreach (var name in webNames) { if (localNames.Contains(name.Trim())) localNames.Remove(name); } return localNames; ... the code downloads a list of names from my website that are already in the db. Then reads the local .txt file and singles out every name that is not yet in the db so it can later add it. The names that get read from the .txt file also get read just fine with no problems. The problem comes in when removing names from the localNames list. localNames is a List type. As soon as localNames.Remove(name) gets called any names in the list that had special characters in them would get corrupted and be converted into ? characters. See for screen cap http://yfrog.com/12badcharsp So i tried doing it another way using ... // download the names from web that are already in the db var webNames = this.DownloadNames("character"); // filter names and get ones that need to be added to the db var localNames = new List<string>(System.IO.File.ReadAllLines(dlg.FileName)); int index = 0; while (index < webNames.Count) { var name = webNames[index++]; var pos = localNames.IndexOf(name.Trim()); if (pos != -1) localNames.RemoveAt(pos); } return localNames; .. But using localNames.RemoveAt also corrupts the items in the list converting special characters into ?. So is this a known bug with the List.remove methods? Does anyone know? Has anyone else had this problem? I also used .NET Reflector to disassemble/inspect the list.remove and list.RemoveAt code and it appear to be calling some external Copy function. Aside from the fact that this is prob not the best way to get a unique list of items from 2 lists am I missing something or should be aware of when using the List.Remove methods ? I am running windows 7 vs2010 and my app is set for .net 4 (no client profile )

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  • C# Spell checker Problem

    - by reggie
    I've incorporated spell check into my win forms C# project. This is my code. public void CheckSpelling() { try { // declare local variables to track error count // and information int SpellingErrors = 0; string ErrorCountMessage = string.Empty; // create an instance of a word application Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.Application WordApp = new Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.Application(); // hide the MS Word document during the spellcheck //WordApp.WindowState = WdWindowState.wdWindowStateMinimize; // check for zero length content in text area if (this.Text.Length > 0) { WordApp.Visible = false; // create an instance of a word document _Document WordDoc = WordApp.Documents.Add(ref emptyItem, ref emptyItem, ref emptyItem, ref oFalse); // load the content written into the word doc WordDoc.Words.First.InsertBefore(this.Text); // collect errors form new temporary document set to contain // the content of this control Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.ProofreadingErrors docErrors = WordDoc.SpellingErrors; SpellingErrors = docErrors.Count; // execute spell check; assumes no custom dictionaries WordDoc.CheckSpelling(ref oNothing, ref oIgnoreUpperCase, ref oAlwaysSuggest, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing); // format a string to contain a report of the errors detected ErrorCountMessage = "Spell check complete; errors detected: " + SpellingErrors; // return corrected text to control's text area object first = 0; object last = WordDoc.Characters.Count - 1; this.Text = WordDoc.Range(ref first, ref last).Text; } else { // if nothing was typed into the control, abort and inform user ErrorCountMessage = "Unable to spell check an empty text box."; } WordApp.Quit(ref oFalse, ref emptyItem, ref emptyItem); System.Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.ReleaseComObject(WordApp); // return report on errors corrected // - could either display from the control or change this to // - return a string which the caller could use as desired. // MessageBox.Show(ErrorCountMessage, "Finished Spelling Check"); } catch (Exception e) { MessageBox.Show(e.ToString()); } } The spell checker works well, the only problem is when I try to move the spell checker the main form blurs up for some reason. Also when I close the spell checker the main form is back to normal. It seems like it is opening up Microsoft word then hiding the window, only allowing the spell checker to be seen. Please help.

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  • .NET Impersonate not working!

    - by Jagd
    I have a webpage that allows a user to upload a file to a network share. When I run the webpage locally (within VS 2008) and try to upload the file, it works! However, when I deploy the website to the webserver and try to upload the file through the webpage, it doesn't work! The error being returned to me on the webserver says "Access to the path '\05prd1\emp\test.txt' is denied. So, obviously, this is a permissions issue. The network share is configured to allow full access both to me (NT authentication) and to the NETWORK SERVICE (which is .NET's default account and what we have set in our IIS application pool as the default user for this website). I have tried this with and without authentication, and neither one works on the webserver, yet both ways works on my local machine. The code that does the file upload is below. Please note that the code below includes impersonation, but like I said above, I've tried it with and without impersonation and it's made no difference. if (fuCourses.PostedFile != null && fuCourses.PostedFile.ContentLength > 0) { System.Security.Principal.WindowsImpersonationContext impCtx; impCtx = ((System.Security.Principal.WindowsIdentity)User.Identity).Impersonate(); try { lblMsg.Visible = true; // The courses file to be uploaded HttpPostedFile file = fuCourses.PostedFile; string fName = file.FileName; string uploadPath = "\\\\05prd1\\emp\\"; // Get the file name if (fName.Contains("\\")) { fName = fName.Substring( fName.LastIndexOf("\\") + 1); } // Delete the courses file if it is already on \\05prd1\emp FileInfo fi = new FileInfo(uploadPath + fName); if (fi != null && fi.Exists) { fi.Delete(); } // Open new file stream on \\05prd1\emp and read bytes into it from file upload FileStream fs = File.Create(uploadPath + fName, file.ContentLength); using (Stream stream = file.InputStream) { byte[] b = new byte[4096]; int read; while ((read = stream.Read(b, 0, b.Length)) > 0) { fs.Write(b, 0, read); } } fs.Close(); lblMsg.Text = "File Successfully Uploaded"; lblMsg.ForeColor = System.Drawing.Color.Green; } catch (Exception ex) { lblMsg.Text = ex.Message; lblMsg.ForeColor = System.Drawing.Color.Red; } finally { impCtx.Undo(); } } Any help on this would be very appreciated!

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  • Binding using ElementName for a control within the Grid\ListView

    - by i2nfo
    Hi I am currently busy with a WPF application that uses a "GridView". There are several template columns one of which is a ComboBox in column 3 named cmbInputControlType. What I would like to do using my Converter class, which I have already created, is binding the visibility of the TextBox(txtFrom) in column 4 to the selected value of the ComboBox(Column 3). Basically if you select a value from the the ComboBox(cmbInputControlType - column 3), it must update teh visibility of the TextBox(txtFrom - column 4) <ListView Height="150" ScrollViewer.HorizontalScrollBarVisibility="Auto" ScrollViewer.VerticalScrollBarVisibility="Auto" Width="435" HorizontalAlignment="Center" Margin="5,0,5,5" Name="lstInput" VerticalAlignment="Top" SelectionMode="Single" HorizontalContentAlignment="Left"> <ListView.Resources> <local:InputControlTypeConverter x:Key="InputConType" /> </ListView.Resources> <ListView.View> <GridView> <!--Column 1--> <GridViewColumn Header="ParameterName" x:Name="lblParameterName" DisplayMemberBinding="{Binding ParameterName}" Width="100" /> <!--Column 2--> <GridViewColumn Header="DisplayName"> <GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBox x:Name="txtDisplayName" Width="150" /> </DataTemplate> </GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> </GridViewColumn> <!--Column 3--> <GridViewColumn Header="ControlType"> <GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <ComboBox x:Name="cmbInputControlType" Width="100" SelectionChanged="cmbInputControlType_SelectionChanged" > <ComboBoxItem Content="TextBox" /> <ComboBoxItem Content="Copy" /> </ComboBox> </DataTemplate> </GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> </GridViewColumn> <!--Column 4--> <GridViewColumn Header="From"> <GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBox x:Name="txtCopyFrom" Width="150" Visibility="{Binding ElementName=cmbInputControlType,Path=SelectedItem, Converter={StaticResource InputConType}}" /> </DataTemplate> </GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> </GridViewColumn> <!--Column 5--> <GridViewColumn Header="To"> <GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBox x:Name="txtCopyTo" Width="150" /> </DataTemplate> </GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> </GridViewColumn> </GridView> </ListView.View> </ListView>

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  • Debugging site written mainly in JScript with AJAX code injection

    - by blumidoo
    Hello, I have a legacy code to maintain and while trying to understand the logic behind the code, I have run into lots of annoying issues. The application is written mainly in Java Script, with extensive usage of jQuery + different plugins, especially Accordion. It creates a wizard-like flow, where client code for the next step is downloaded in the background by injecting a result of a remote AJAX request. It also uses callbacks a lot and pretty complicated "by convention" programming style (lots of events handlers are created on the fly based on certain object names - e.g. current page name, current step name). Adding to that, the code is very messy and there is no obvious inner structure - the functions are scattered in the code, file names do not reflect the business role of the code, lots of functions and code snippets are most likely not used at all etc. PROBLEM: How to approach this code base, so that the inner flow of the code can be sort-of "reverse engineered" using a suite of smart debugging tools. Ideally, I would like to be able to attach to the running application and step through the code, breaking on each new function call. Also, it would be nice to be able to create a "diagram of calls" in the application (i.e. in order to run a particular page logic, this particular flow of function calls was executed in a particular order). Not to mention to be able to run a coverage analysis, identifying potentially orphaned code fragments. I would like to stress out once more, that it is impossible to understand the inner logic of the application just by looking at the code itself, unless you have LOTS of spare time and beer crates, which I unfortunately do not have :/ (shame...) An IDE of some sort that would aid in extending that code would be also great, but I am currently looking into possibility to use Visual Studio 2010 to do the job, as the site itself is a mix of Classic ASP and ASP.NET (I'd say - 70% Java Script with jQuery, 30% ASP). I have obviously tried FireBug, but I was unable to find a way to define a breakpoint or step into the code, which is "injected" into the client JS using AJAX calls (i.e. the application retrieves the code by invoking an URL and injects it to the client local code). Venkman debugger had similar issues. Any hints would be welcome. Feel free to ask additional questions.

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  • NSXMLDocument objectByApplyingXSLT with XSL Include

    - by Kristof
    I'm having some trouble with XSL-processing when there are stylesheets that include other stylesheets relatively. (the XML-files may be irrelevant but are included for completeness - code is at the bottom). Given the XML-file: <?xml version="1.0" ?> <famous-persons> <persons category="medicine"> <person> <firstname> Edward </firstname> <name> Jenner </name> </person> <person> <firstname> Gertrude </firstname> <name> Elion </name> </person> </persons> </famous-persons> and the XSL-file: <?xml version="1.0" ?> <xsl:stylesheet xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:xi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XInclude" version="1.0"> <xsl:template match="/"> <html><head><title>Sorting example</title></head><body> <xsl:apply-templates select="famous-persons/persons"> <xsl:sort select="@category" /> </xsl:apply-templates> </body></html> </xsl:template> <xsl:include href="included.xsl" /> </xsl:stylesheet> referencing this stylesheet in included.xsl: <?xml version="1.0"?> <xsl:stylesheet xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:xi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XInclude" version="1.0"> <xsl:template match="persons"> <h2><xsl:value-of select="@category" /></h2> <ul>Irrelevant</ul> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> how can I make it that the following code fragment: NSError *lError = nil; NSXMLDocument *lDocument = [ [ NSXMLDocument alloc ] initWithContentsOfURL: [ NSURL URLWithString: @"file:///pathto/data.xml" ] options: 0 error: &lError ]; NSXMLDocument *lResult = [ lDocument objectByApplyingXSLTAtURL: [ NSURL URLWithString: @"file:///pathto/style.xsl" ] arguments: nil error: nil ]; does not give me the error: I/O warning : failed to load external entity "included.xsl" compilation error: element include xsl:include : unable to load included.xsl I have been trying all sorts of options. Also loading XML documents with NSXMLDocumentXInclude beforehand does not seem to help. Is there any way to make the XSL processing so that a stylesheet can include another stylesheet in its local path?

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  • What's the best way to do base36 arithmetic in perl?

    - by DVK
    What's the best way to do base36 arithmetic in Perl? To be more specific, I need to be able to do the following: Operate on positive N-digit numbers in base 36 (e.g. digits are 0-9 A-Z) N is finite, say 9 Provide basic arithmetic, at the very least the following 3: Addition (A+B) Subtraction (A-B) Whole division, e.g. floor(A/B). Strictly speaking, I don't really need a base10 conversion ability - the numbers will 100% of time be in base36. So I'm quite OK if the solution does NOT implement conversion from base36 back to base10 and vice versa. I don't much care whether the solution is brute-force "convert to base 10 and back" or converting to binary, or some more elegant approach "natively" performing baseN operations (as stated above, to/from base10 conversion is not a requirement). My only 3 considerations are: It fits the minimum specifications above It's "standard". Currently we're using and old homegrown module based on base10 conversion done by hand that is buggy and sucks. I'd much rather replace that with some commonly used CPAN solution instead of re-writing my own bicycle from scratch, but I'm perfectly capable of building it if no better standard possibility exists. It must be fast-ish (though not lightning fast). Something that takes 1 second to sum up 2 9-digit base36 numbers is worse than anything I can roll on my own :) P.S. Just to provide some context in case people decide to solve my XY problem for me in addition to answering the technical question above :) We have a fairly large tree (stored in DB as a bunch of edges), and we need to superimpose order on a subset of that tree. The tree dimentions are big both depth- and breadth- wise. The tree is VERY actively updated (inserts and deletes and branch moves). This is currently done by having a second table with 3 columns: parent_vertex, child_vertex, local_order, where local_order is an 9-character string built of A-Z0-9 (e.g. base 36 number). Additional considerations: It is required that the local order is unique per child (and obviously unique per parent), Any complete re-ordering of a parent is somewhat expensive, and thus the implementation is to try and assign - for a parent with X children - the orders which are somewhat evenly distributed between 0 and 36**10-1, so that almost no tree inserts result in a full re-ordering.

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  • Hibernate save() and transaction rollback

    - by Marco
    Hi, In Hibernate when i save() an object in a transaction, and then i rollback it, the saved object still remains in the DB. It's strange because this issue doesn't happen with the update() or delete() method, just with save(). Here is the code i'm using: DbEntity dbEntity = getDbEntity(); HibernateUtil.beginTransaction(); Session session = HibernateUtil.getCurrentSession(); session.save(dbEntity); HibernateUtil.rollbackTransaction(); And here is the HibernateUtil class (just the involved functions, i guarantee the getSessionFactory() method works well - there is an Interceptor handler, but it doesn't matter now): private static final ThreadLocal<Session> threadSession = new ThreadLocal<Session>(); private static final ThreadLocal<Transaction> threadTransaction = new ThreadLocal<Transaction>(); /** * Retrieves the current Session local to the thread. * <p/> * If no Session is open, opens a new Session for the running thread. * * @return Session */ public static Session getCurrentSession() throws HibernateException { Session s = (Session) threadSession.get(); try { if (s == null) { log.debug("Opening new Session for this thread."); if (getInterceptor() != null) { log.debug("Using interceptor: " + getInterceptor().getClass()); s = getSessionFactory().openSession(getInterceptor()); } else { s = getSessionFactory().openSession(); } threadSession.set(s); } } catch (HibernateException ex) { throw new HibernateException(ex); } return s; } /** * Start a new database transaction. */ public static void beginTransaction() throws HibernateException { Transaction tx = (Transaction) threadTransaction.get(); try { if (tx == null) { log.debug("Starting new database transaction in this thread."); tx = getCurrentSession().beginTransaction(); threadTransaction.set(tx); } } catch (HibernateException ex) { throw new HibernateException(ex); } } /** * Rollback the database transaction. */ public static void rollbackTransaction() throws HibernateException { Transaction tx = (Transaction) threadTransaction.get(); try { threadTransaction.set(null); if ( tx != null && !tx.wasCommitted() && !tx.wasRolledBack() ) { log.debug("Tyring to rollback database transaction of this thread."); tx.rollback(); } } catch (HibernateException ex) { throw new HibernateException(ex); } finally { closeSession(); } } Thanks

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  • Reporting Services as PDF through WebRequest in C# 3.5 "Not Supported File Type"

    - by Heath Allison
    I've inherited a legacy application that is supposed to grab an on the fly pdf from a reporting services server. Everything works fine up until the point where you try to open the pdf being returned and adobe acrobat tells you: Adobe Reader could not open 'thisStoopidReport'.pdf' because it is either not a supported file type or because the file has been damaged(for example, it was sent as an email attachment and wasn't correctly decoded). I've done some initial troubleshooting on this. If I replace the url in the WebRequest.Create() call with a valid pdf file on my local machine ie: @"C:temp/validpdf.pdf") then I get a valid PDF. The report itself seems to work fine. If I manually type the URL to the reporting services report that should generate the pdf file I am prompted for user authentication. But after supplying it I get a valid pdf file. I've replace the actual url,username,userpass and domain strings in the code below with bogus values for obvious reasons. WebRequest request = WebRequest.Create(@"http://x.x.x.x/reportServer?/reports/reportNam&rs:format=pdf&rs:command=render&rc:parameters=blahblahblah"); int totalSize = 0; request.Credentials = new NetworkCredential("validUser", "validPass", "validDomain"); request.Timeout = 360000; // 6 minutes in milliseconds. request.Method = WebRequestMethods.Http.Post; request.ContentLength = 0; WebResponse response = request.GetResponse(); Response.Clear(); BinaryReader reader = new BinaryReader(response.GetResponseStream()); Byte[] buffer = new byte[2048]; int count = reader.Read(buffer, 0, 2048); while (count > 0) { totalSize += count; Response.OutputStream.Write(buffer, 0, count); count = reader.Read(buffer, 0, 2048); } Response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; Response.Cache.SetCacheability(HttpCacheability.Private); Response.CacheControl = "private"; Response.Expires = 30; Response.AddHeader("Content-Disposition", "attachment; filename=thisStoopidReport.pdf"); Response.AddHeader("Content-Length", totalSize.ToString()); reader.Close(); Response.Flush(); Response.End();

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  • Problems using FluentNHibernate + SQLite with .NET4?

    - by stiank81
    I have a WPF application running with VS2010 .Net3.5 using Nhibernate with FluentNHibernate + SQLite, and all works fine. Now I want to change to use .Net4, but this has turned into a more painful experience then I expected.. When setting up the connection a FluentConfigurationException is thrown from FluentConfiguration.BuildConfiguration saying: An invalid or incomplete configuration was used while creating a SessionFactory. Check PotentialReasons collection, and InnerException for more details. The inner exception gives us more information: Could not create the driver from NHibernate.Driver.SQLite20Driver, NHibernate, Version=2.1.2.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4. It has an InnerException again: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation. Which again has an InnerException: The IDbCommand and IDbConnection implementation in the assembly System.Data.SQLite could not be found. Ensure that the assembly System.Data.SQLite is located in the application directory or in the Global Assembly Cache. If the assembly is in the GAC, use element in the application configuration file to specify the full name of the assembly. Now - to me it sounds like it doesn't find System.Data.SQLite.dll, but I can't understand this. Everywhere this is referenced I have "Copy Local", and I have verified that it is in every build folder for projects using SQLite. I have also copied it manually to every Debug folder of the solution - without luck. Notes: This is exactly the same code that worked just fine before I upgraded to .Net4. I did see some x64 x86 mismatch problems earlier, but I have switched to use x86 as the target platform and for all referenced dlls. I have verified that all files in the Debug-folder are x86. I have tried the precompiled Fluent dlls, I have tried compiling myself, and I have compiled my own version of Fluent using .Net4. I see that there are also others that have seen this problem, but I haven't really seen any solution yet. After @devio's answer I tried adding a reference to the SQLite dll. This didn't change anything, but I hope I made it right though.. This is what I added to the root node of the app.config file: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <qualifyAssembly partialName="System.Data.SQLite" fullName="System.Data.SQLite, Version=1.0.60.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=db937bc2d44ff139" /> </assemblyBinding> </runtime> Anyone out there using Fluent with .Net4 and SQLite successfully? Help! I'm lost...

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