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  • Java - Calling all methods of a class

    - by Thomas Eschemann
    I'm currently working on an application that has to render several Freemarker templates. So far I have a Generator class that handles the rendering. The class looks more or less like this: public class Generator { public static void generate(…) { renderTemplate1(); renderTemplate2(); renderTemplate3(); } private static void render(…) { // renders the template } private static void renderTemplate1() { // Create config object for the rendering // and calls render(); }; private static void renderTemplate1() { // Create config object for the rendering // and calls render(); }; … } This works, but it doesn't really feel right. What I would like to do is create a class that holds all the renderTemplate...() methods and then call them dynamically from my Generator class. This would make it cleaner and easier to extend. I was thinking about using something like reflection, but it doesn't really feel like a good solution either. Any idea on how to implement this properly ?

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  • Why is my code stopping and not returning an exception?

    - by BeckyLou
    I have some code that starts a couple of threads to let them execute, then uses a while loop to check for the current time passing a set timeout period, or for the correct number of results to have been processed (by checking an int on the class object) (with a Thread.Sleep() to wait between loops) Once the while loop is set to exit, it calls Abort() on the threads and should return data to the function that calls the method. When debugging and stepping through the code, I find there can be exceptions in the code running on the separate threads, and in some cases I handle these appropriately, and at other times I don't want to do anything specific. What I have been seeing is that my code goes into the while loop and the thread sleeps, then nothing is returned from my function, either data or an exception. Code execution just stops completely. Any ideas what could be happening? Code sample: System.Threading.Thread sendThread = new System.Threading.Thread(new System.Threading.ThreadStart(Send)); sendThread.Start(); System.Threading.Thread receiveThread = new System.Threading.Thread(new System.Threading.ThreadStart(Receive)); receiveThread.Start(); // timeout Int32 maxSecondsToProcess = this.searchTotalCount * timeout; DateTime timeoutTime = DateTime.Now.AddSeconds(maxSecondsToProcess); Log("Submit() Timeout time: " + timeoutTime.ToString("yyyyMMdd HHmmss")); // while we're still waiting to receive results & haven't hit the timeout, // keep the threads going while (resultInfos.Count < this.searchTotalCount && DateTime.Now < timeoutTime) { Log("Submit() Waiting..."); System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(10 * 1000); // 1 minute } Log("Submit() Aborting threads"); // <== this log doesn't show up sendThread.Abort(); receiveThread.Abort(); return new List<ResultInfo>(this.resultInfos.Values);

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  • unexpected behaviour of object stored in web service Session

    - by draconis
    Hi. I'm using Session variables inside a web service to maintain state between successive method calls by an external application called QBWC. I set this up by decorating my web service methods with this attribute: [WebMethod(EnableSession = true)] I'm using the Session variable to store an instance of a custom object called QueueManager. The QueueManager has a property called ChangeQueue which looks like this: [Serializable] public class QueueManager { ... public Queue<QBChange> ChangeQueue { get; set; } ... where QBChange is a custom business object belonging to my web service. Now, every time I get a call to a method in my web service, I use this code to retrieve my QueueManager object and access my queue: QueueManager qm = (QueueManager)Session[ticket]; then I remove an object from the queue, using qm.dequeue() and then I save the modified query manager object (modified because it contains one less object in the queue) back to the Session variable, like so: Session[ticket] = qm; ready for the next web service method call using the same ticket. Now here's the thing: if I comment out this last line //Session[ticket] = qm; , then the web service behaves exactly the same way, reducing the size of the queue between method calls. Now why is that? The web service seems to be updating a class contained in serialized form in a Session variable without being asked to. Why would it do that? When I deserialize my Queuemanager object, does the qm variable hold a reference to the serialized object inside the Session[ticket] variable?? This seems very unlikely.

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  • Multiple Exception Handling in one if statement [closed]

    - by JA3N
    I am having trouble with throwing and catching exceptions. Here is the code for assignSeat(), assignSeat is called in a try block in another class. void assignSeat(String passengerName, int x, int y) throws SeatOccupiedException, InvalidPassengerNameException { Seat tSeat = airplane.getSeat(x,y); if (tSeat!=null) { if (passengerName.isEmpty() || !passengerName.matches("[a-zA-Z]+")) { throw new InvalidPassengerNameException(); } //excluded else if else if (foundPassenger(passengerName)) { airplane.seatList.get(airplane.seatNumber(passengerName)).unOccupy(); tSeat.occupy(); for (int i = 0; i<passengers.size();i++) if (passengers.get(i).getName().equals(passengerName)) passengers.get(i).changeSeat(tSeat.getSeatName()); } else if (!tSeat.occupied) { tSeat.occupy(); addPassenger(passengerName, tSeat.getSeatName()); } else if (tSeat.occupied) { throw new SeatOccupiedException(); } } and here is the code that calls assignSeat() and is in another class (I won't copy the whole class to make it look clearer) if (afComp.currentAF != null) { try { afComp.currentAF.assignSeat(nameField.getText(), x, y); //<-Problem here, "Unhandled exception type SeatOccupiedException" } catch (SeatOccupiedException exception) //<-Problem here, "Unreachable catch block, This exception is never thrown from the try statement body" { } catch(InvalidPassengerNameException exception) //<-No problems. { } } Whats wrong with the try block? why won't it throw the SeatOccupiedException? Exception classes: SeatOccupied: package a2; public class SeatOccupiedException extends Exception { public SeatOccupiedException(){} } InvalidPassengerName: package a2; public class InvalidPassengerNameException extends Exception { public InvalidPassengerNameException() {} } Every class I have is in package a2 imports for class that calls assignSeat package a2; import java.awt.event.ActionEvent; import java.awt.event.ActionListener; import java.awt.event.MouseListener; import java.awt.event.MouseMotionListener; import java.awt.event.MouseEvent; import java.awt.BorderLayout; import javax.swing.*; import javax.swing.event.*; imports for class that has assignSeat package a2; import java.util.ArrayList;

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  • javascript watching for variable change via a timer

    - by DA
    I have a slide show where every 10 seconds the next image loads. Once an image loads, it waits 10 seconds (setTimeout) and then calls a function which fades it out, then calls the function again to fade in the next image. It repeats indefinitely. This works. However, at times, I'm going to want to over-ride this "function1 call - pause - function2 call - function1 call" loop outside of this function (for instance, I may click on a slide # and want to jump directly to that slide and cancel the current pause). One solution seems to be to set up a variable, allow other events to change that variable and then in my original function chain, check for any changes before continuing the loop. I have this set up: var ping = 500; var pausetime = 10000; for(i=0; i<=pausetime; i=i+ping){ setTimeout(function(){ console.log(gocheckthevariable()); console.log(i); pseudoIf('the variable is true AND the timer is done then...do the next thing') },i) } The idea is that I'd like to pause for 10 seconds. During this pause, every half second I'll check to see if this should be stopped. The above will write out to the console the following every half second: true 10000 true 10000 true 10000 etc... But what I want/need is this: true 0 true 500 true 1000 etc... The basic problem is that the for loop executes before each of the set timeouts. While I can check the value of the variable every half second, I can't match that against the current loop index. I'm sure this is a common issue, but I'm at a loss what I should actually be searching for.

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  • Wicket application + Apache + mod_jk - AJP queues are filling up!

    - by nojyarg
    Dear community, We are having a Wicket-based Java application deployed in a production server cluster using Apache (2.2.3) with mod_jk (1.2.30) as load balancing component w/ sticky session and Jboss 5 as application container for the Java application. We are inconsistently seeing an issue in our production environment where our AJP queues between Apache and Jboss as shown in the JMX console fill up with requests to the point where the application server is no longer taking on any new requests. When looking at all involved system components (overall traffic, load db, process list db, load of all clustered application server nodes) nothing points towards a capacity issue which would explain why the calls are being stalled in the AJP queue. Instead all systems appear sufficiently idle. So far, our only remedy to this issue is to restart the appservers and the load balancer which only occasionally clears the AJP queues. We are trying to figure out why the queues are filling up to the point that no calls get returned to the end user although the system is not under a high load. Has anyone else experienced similar problems? Are there any other system metrics we should monitor that could explain the queuing behavior? Is this potentially a mod_jk issue? If so, is it advisable to swap mod_jk with mod_cluster to resolve the issue? Any advice is highly appreciated. If I can provide additional information for the sake of troubleshooting I would be more than willing to do so. /Ben

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  • What's the correct way to pass parameters from VBScript to COM interface implemented in C#?

    - by nopopem
    I'm trying to expose a fairly simple C# class to COM which should be usable from VBScript (among others). Some objects need to be created via COM calls and will be used in furter calls later on. The definition of the exposed classes and interfaces looks like this: namespace Test { [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IComInterface { IFoo CreateFoo(); void UseFoo(int x, IFoo f); } [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public sealed class CComInterface : IComInterface { public CComInterface() {} public IFoo CreateFoo() { return new Foo(); } public void UseFoo(int x, IFoo f) { f.Bar(); } } [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IFoo { void Bar(); } [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public class Foo : IFoo { internal Foo() {} public void Bar() {} } } The simplest thinkable COM client in VBScript does this: Dim ci Set ci = WScript.CreateObject("Test.CComInterface") Dim foo Set foo = ci.CreateFoo foo.Bar ci.UseFoo 0, foo While the call to Bar succeeds, calling UseFoo fails with "Error 5: invalid procedure call or invalid argument" The generated IDL seems ok to me: dispinterface IComInterface { properties: methods: [id(0x60020003)] IFoo* CreateFoo(); [id(0x60020004)] void UseFoo( [in] long x, [in] IFoo* f); }; The vbs call succeeds when I wrap the second parameter in parentheses like this: ci.UseFoo 0, (foo) As far as I understand (I'm no VBScript expert however) this forces the reference to foo to be passed by value, i.e. a copy of the reference is being made. How can I change the interface so that it can be called with the foo reference directly? Since this will be a public interface used by customers I don't like the idea of having to explain why all the objects created need to be passed back in an extra pair of parentheses...

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  • tcp/ip accept not returning, but client does

    - by paquetp
    server: vxworks 6.3 calls the usual socket, bind, listen, then: for (;;) { client = accept(sfd,NULL,NULL); // pass client to worker thread } client: .NET 2.0 TcpClient constructor to connect to server that takes the string hostname and int port, like: TcpClient client = new TcpClient(server_ip, port); This is working fine when the server is compiled and executed in windows (native c++). intermittently, the constructor to TcpClient will return the instance, without throwing any exception, but the accept call in vxWorks does not return with the client fd. tcpstatShow indicates no accept occurred. What could possibly make the TcpClient constructor (which calls 'Connect') return the instance, while the accept call on the server not return? It seems to be related to what the system is doing in the background - it seems more likely to get this symptom to occur when the server is busy persisting data to flash or an NFS share when the client attempts to connect, but can happen when it isn't also. I've tried adjusting priority of the thread running accept I've looked at the size of the queue in 'listen'. There's enough. The total number of file descriptors available should be enough (haven't validated this yet though, first thing in the morning)

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  • How to run perl script with a few arguments from php

    - by Cristalla
    My html webpage calls php script to upload files to the server from a local computer as follows. <form enctype="multipart/form-data" action="upload.php" method="POST"> <p><b><h3> <font color="#003366"> (1) Upload your reading text file. </font> </h3> </b> </p> <INPUT type="file" name="uploaded" size="50" > <br/> <input type="submit" name="files" value="upload"> </form> In order to process with an uploaded file, my php script calls shell script $output=system('/bin/sh connector_0.sh'); and my shell script is composed of a series of python/perl scripts. #!/bin/sh python main_senselearner_final_0.py senseLearner.pl -i Uploaded_Files/slinput_0.txt -o Uploaded_Files/presloutput_0 .txt -model modelNNCollocations -model modelJJCollocations -model modelVBColloc ations -pos python smutngslout_0.py python genhtml_0.py Now, the problem is the following: all python scripts in shell script worked fine through php. But perl script didn't work. When I run shell script by myself in my server, all four scripts in shell worked perfectly. However, when I run shell script from php, only perl script doesn't work. Would you please give me any tips to solve this problem? Many thanks!!!

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  • Invalid Argument javascript error only on certain computers

    - by Jen
    Getting an error whenever we click a particular button/link on our site. It is generating a javascript "Invalid Argument" error. I know in the other posts it is typically because it is a syntax error in the javascript however it only just seems to have started happening and it doesn't happen on all pcs. ie. in our client's environment if I remote onto their web server and view the uat website I get the javascript error. If I remote onto their sql server and view the uat website I don't get the javascript error. If it was a syntax error then I would always get the error wouldn't I? both browsers are the same version of IE6 (yeah I know...) :) I have tried deleting temporary internet files - including viewing the files and deleting them myself - but no joy. client uses citrix.. and they're all getting the error :( Any ideas would be appreciated - Thanks! :) Update - Sorry I haven't posted specific code as there is too much to post (and I'm not sure where the error is occurring). The "button" launches a new window which in turn opens up a couple of aspx pages and calls lots of javascript. So the window opens ok, and there's a function that gets called to resize the window - but before it calls the resizing of the window/content it throws the invalid argument error. Am busy trying to get alerts to trigger to see if I can see where it's falling over but so far no luck. Again not sure why this error doesn't occur when I use a particular PC (same browser version)

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  • Releasing Autopool crashes on iOS 4.0 (and only on 4.0)

    - by samsam
    Hi there. I'm wondering what could cause this. I have several methods in my code that i call using performSelectorInBackground. Within each of these methods i have an Autoreleasepool that is being alloced/initialized at the beginning and released at the end of the method. this perfectly works on iOS 3.1.3 / 3.2 / 4.2 / 4.2.1 but it fataly crashes on iOS 4.0 with a EXC_BAD_ACCESS Exception that happens after calling [myPool release]. After I noticed this strange behaviour I was thinking about rewriting portions of my code and to make my app "less parallel" in case that the client os is 4.0. After I did that, the next point where the app crashed was within the ReachabilityCallback-Method from Apples Reachability "Framework". well, now I'm not quite sure what to do. The things i do within my threaded methods is pretty simple xml parsing (no cocoa calls or stuff that would affect the UI). After each method finishes it posts a notification which the coordinating-thread listens to and once all the parallelized methods have finished, the coordinating thread calls viewcontrollers etc... I have absolutely no clue what could cause this weird behaviour. Especially because Apples Code fails as well. any help is greatly appreciated! thanks, sam

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  • How to model in J2EE / JEE?

    - by Harry
    Let's say, I have decided to go with J(2)EE stack for my enterprise application. Now, for domain modelling (or: for designing the M of MVC), which APIs can I safely assume and use, and which I should stay away from... say, via a layer of abstraction? For example, Should I go ahead and litter my Model with calls to Hibernate/JPA API? Or, should I build an abstraction... a persistence layer of my own to avoid hard-coding against these two specific persistence APIs? Why I ask this: Few years ago, there was this Kodo API which got superseded by Hibernate. If one had designed a persistence layer and coded the rest of the model against this layer (instead of littering the Model with calls to specific vendor API), it would have allowed one to (relatively) easily switch from Kodo to Hibernate to xyz. Is it recommended to make aggressive use of the *QL provided by your persistence vendor in your domain model? I'm not aware of any real-world issues (like performance, scalability, portability, etc) arising out of a heavy use of an HQL-like language. Why I ask this: I would like to avoid, as much as possible, writing custom code when the same could be accomplished via query language that is more portable than SQL. Sorry, but I'm a complete newbie to this area. Where could I find more info on this topic? Many thanks in advance. /HS

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  • Freetype2 (error-)return value documentation

    - by Awaki
    In short, I'm looking for documentation that would limit the error situations to check for after a Freetype library function failed, much like the OpenGL and Win32 APIs document the error codes generated by their respective functions. I can't seem to find such documentation though, so I was wondering how to best handle translation of Freetype errors to typed exceptions. Background: I am currently in the process of implementing font-rendering capability (using Freetype) for my GUI framework, which makes strong use of typed exceptions to indicate error situations. However, the Freetype docs seem to completely omit what errors can be expected from what functions. That, if such documentation does indeed not exist, would basically leave me with two options: either guessing which errors make sense for a certain Freetype function (obviously prone to mistakes on my part), or considering every error code for translation into appropriate exceptions (less verbose since I would have to write the translation only once). Performance isn't really critical in the code that calls the Freetype library, so even the latter option would probably be acceptable, but surely there must be some kind of documentation on which library calls may return what Freetype error? Is there any such documentation which I just somehow managed to not find? Should I go the route of generically expecting every error code for translation? Or are there other ways to approach this problem? By the way, I wanted to avoid introducing some kind of generic FreetypeException (containing a description of the Freetype error) since I intended to completely hide what libraries I'm using (not from a legal point-of-view, mind you), but I guess I can be convinced to do this anyway if the consensus is that it would be the best option. I don't think it matters for this question, but I'm writing in C++.

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  • Will this cause a problem with different runtimes with DLL?

    - by Milo
    My gui application supports polymorphic timed events so that means that the user calls new, and the gui calls delete. This can create a problem if the runtimes are incompatible. So I was told a proposed solution would be this: class base; class Deallocator { void operator()(base* ptr) { delete ptr; } } class base { public: base(Deallocator dealloc) { m_deleteFunc = dealloc; } ~base() { m_deleteFunc(this); } private: Deallocator m_deleteFunc; } int main { Deallocator deletefunc; base baseObj(deletefunc); } While this is a good solution, it does demand that the user create a Deallocator object which I do not want. I was however wondering if I provided a Deallocator to each derived class: eg class derived : public base { Deallocator dealloc; public: Derived() : base(dealloc); { } }; I think this still does not work though. The constraint is that: The addTimedEvent() function is part of the Widget class which is also in the dll, but it is instanced by the user. The other constraint is that some classes which derive from Widget call this function with their own timed event classes. Given that "he who called new must call delete" what could work given these constraints? Thanks

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  • In .NET, how do you send multiple arguments into a DOS command prompt?

    - by donde
    I am trying to execute DOS commands in ASP.NET 2.0. What I have now calls a BAT file which, in turn, calls a CMD file. It works (with the end result being a file gets ftp'ed). However, I'd like to dump the BAT and CMD files and run everything in .NET. What is the format of sending multiple arguments into the command window? Here is what I have now. The .NET Code: System.Diagnostics.Process proc = new System.Diagnostics.Process(); proc.EnableRaisingEvents = false; proc.StartInfo.FileName = "C:\\MyBat.BAT"; proc.Start(); proc.WaitForExit(); The Bat File looks like this (all it does is run the cmd file): ftp.exe -s:C:\MyCMD.cmd And here is the content of the Cmd file: open <my host> <my user name> <my pw> quote site cyl pri=1 sec=1 lrecl=1786 blksize=0 recfm=fb retpd=30 put C:\MyDTLFile.dtl 'MyDTLFile.dtl' quit

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  • My Rails session is getting reset when I have concurrent requests

    - by alex_c
    I think I might be misunderstanding something about Rails sessions, so please bear with me, I might not be phrasing my question the best way. I'm working on an iPhone app with a Ruby on Rails backend. I have a web view which by default goes to the index action of one controller (and uses sessions), and in the background a bunch of API calls going to a different controller (and which don't need to use sessions). The problem is, the sessions set by my web view seem to be overwitten by the API calls. My staging server is pretty slow, so there's lots of time for the requests to overlap each other - what I see in the logs is basically this: Request A (first controller) starts. Session is empty. Request B (second controller) starts. Session is empty. Request A finishes. Request A has done authentication, and stored the user ID in the session. Session contains user ID. Request B finishes. Session is empty. Request C starts. Session is empty - not what I want. Now, the strange thing is that request B should NOT be writing anything to the session. I do have before and after filters which READ from the session - things like: user = User.find_by_id(session[:id]) or logger.debug session.inspect and if I remove all of those, then everything works as expected - session contents get set by request A, and they're still there when request C starts. So. I think I'm missing something about how sessions work. Why would reading from the session overwrite it? Should I be accessing it some other way? Am I completely on the wrong track and the problem is elsewhere? Thank you for any insights!

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  • Statically checking a Java app for link errors

    - by monorailkitty
    I have a scenario where I have code written against version 1 of a library but I want to ship version 2 of the library instead. The code has shipped and is therefore not changeable. I'm concerned that it might try to access classes or members of the library that existed in v1 but have been removed in v2. I figured it would be possible to write a tool to do a simple check to see if the code will link against the newer version of the library. I appreciate that the code may still be very broken even if the code links. I am thinking about this from the other side - if the code won't link then I can be sure there is a problem. As far as I can see, I need to run through the bytecode checking for references, method calls and field accesses to library classes then use reflection to check whether the class/member exists. I have three-fold question: (1) Does such a tool exist already? (2) I have a niggling feeling it is much more complicated that I imagine and that I have missed something major - is that the case? (3) Do you know of a handy library that would allow me to inspect the bytecode such that I can find the method calls, references etc.? Thanks!

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  • Find telephonenumbers - finding number with and without an phone extension

    - by nWorx
    Hello there I've a table with about 130 000 records with telephonenumbers. The numbers are all formated like this +4311234567. The numbers always include international country code, local area code and then the phonenumber and sometimes an extension. There is a webservice which checks for the caller's number in the table. That service works already. But now the client wants that also if someone calls from a company which number is already in the database but not his extension, that the service will return some result. Example for table. **id** | **telephonenumber** | **name** | 1 | +431234567 | company A | 2 | +431234567890 | employee in company A | 3 | +4398765432 | company b now if somebody from company A calls with a different extension for example +43123456777, than it should return id1. But the problem is, that I don't know how many digits the extensions have. It could have 3,4 or more digits. Are there any patterns for string kind of matchings? The data is stored in a sql2005 database. Thanks

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  • Inline form editing on client side

    - by bykasif
    I see some web sites use dynamic forms(I am not sure about how to call them!) to edit a group of data. For example: there is a group of data such as name, last name, city, country.etc. when user clicks on EDIT button, instead of doing postback, a form, consisisting of 2 textboxes + 2 comboboxes, dynamically opens to edit,And then when you click on Save button, edit form disappears, and all data updates.. Now, I know what happens over here is using Ajax for server calls and some javascript for dom manipulation.. I even found some jquery plugins for textbox editing.. However, I could not found anything for full implementation of form fields. Therefore I have implemented it on asp.net by jquery ajax calls and dom manipulation manually. here is my process: 1) when Edit button clicked: Make a ajax call to server to retrieve necessary formedit.aspx 2) it returns editable form fields with values assigned. 3) when Save button clicked: make ajax call to server to retrieve formupdateprocess.aspx page. it basically do the database updates and then return necessary DOM snipplet (...) to insert current page.. well it works but MY PROBLEM, is performance.. Result seems slower than samples I see in other sites.:(( IS there anything that I dont know? a better way to implement this??

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  • Magento: The best way to hook into the checkout process

    - by dan.codes
    I am integrating with a third party order management system and I have to make calls to it throughout the checkout process. The problem is, I don't think there are many events available because of how the onepage checkout is all done in javascript/ajax calls. There are a few like after saving the shipping method, and none of the dynamic events seem to fit either. basically I need to know as soon as the user is getting access to the shipping method tab to pass the billing shipping address over, then after the shipping method, to pass that over. Obviously there is an event for that. I know there are ones for when you submit an order so that should be good. I guess I only need to know when the billing/shipping address is saved. I was using controller_action_layout_render_before_checkout_onepage_progress but the progress gets called way to late. It just doesn't seem like there are a lot of hooks through the onepage checkout. if anyone can give me some examples of what they have done that would be great!

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  • When do Symfony's user attributes get written to session?

    - by Rob Wilkerson
    I have a Symfony app that populates the "widgets" of a portal application and I'm noticing something (that seems) odd. The portal app has iframes that make calls to the Symfony app. On each of those calls, a random user key is passed on the query string. The Symfony app stores that key its session using myUser->setAttribute(). If the incoming value is different from what it has in session, it overwrites the session value. In pseudo-code (and applying a synchronous nature for clarity even though it may not exist): # Widget request arrives with ?foo=bar if the user attribute 'foo' does not equal 'bar' overwrite the user attribute 'foo' with 'bar' end What I'm noticing is that, on a portal page with multiple widgets (read: multiple requests coming in more or less simultaneously) where the value needs to be overwritten, each request is trying to overwrite. Is this a timing problem? When I look at the log prints, I'd expect the first request that arrives to overwrite and subsequent requests to see that the user attribute they received matches what was just put into cache by the initial request. In this scenario, it could be that subsequent requests begin (and are checked) even before the first one--the one that should overwrite the cached value--has completely finished. Are session values not really available to subsequent requests until one request has completed entirely or could there be something else that I'm missing? Thanks.

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  • Using delegate Types vs methods

    - by Grant Sutcliffe
    I see increasing use of the delegate types offered in the System namespace (Action; Predicate etc). As these are delegates, my understanding is that they should be used where we have traditionally used delegates in the past (asynchronous calls; starting threads, event handling etc). Is it just preference or is it considered practice to use these delegate types in scenarios such as the below; rather than using calls to methods we have declared (or anonymous methods): public void MyMethod { Action<string> action = delegate(string userName { try { XmlDocument profile = DataHelper.GetProfile(userName); UpdateMember(profile); } catch (Exception exception) { if (_log.IsErrorEnabled) _log.ErrorFormat(exception.Message); throw (exception); } }; GetUsers().ForEach(action); } At first, I found the code less intuitive to follow than using declared or anonymous methods. I am starting to code this way, and wonder what the view are in this regard. The example above is all within a method. Is this delegate overuse.

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  • Apache Cordova (Phonegap): is jsop needed for cross-site scripting?

    - by DEX
    I've just started using Apache Cordova. I have an library that makes calls (via ajax) to a soap server. When I run these on my local machine in chrome, I get cross site scripting errors when trying to make calls to the service. When I run the same exact code using the Cordova browser in the iOS emulator, the scripts seem to hit the server fine and the response data is received properly. So my question is how is the Cordova browser able to make these requests without cross-site scripting permissions & JSONP ? One thing I noticed is that when the request is sent from iOS, there is no "Origin" header. Is this allowing the Cordova browser to stealthily circumvent cross-site scripting requirements? Is it possible that the node.js server on the device (I believe this is how Cordova works) is manipulating the headers to allow this? I'd like to avoid enabling cross-site scripting on my site so I think this "feature" is nice, but I'm wondering if it's a security hole as well. Anyone have experience with this?

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  • C++/Qt - Memory allocation question

    - by HardCoder1986
    Hello! I recently started investigating Qt for myself and have the following question: Suppose I have some QTreeWidget* widget. At some moment I want to add some items to it and this is done via the following call: QList<QTreeWidgetItem*> items; // Prepare the items QTreeWidgetItem* item1 = new QTreeWidgetItem(...); QTreeWidgetItem* item2 = new QTreeWidgetItem(...); items.append(item1); items.append(item2); widget->addTopLevelItems(items); So far it looks ok, but I don't actually understand who should control the objects' lifetime. I should explain this with an example: Let's say, another function calls widget->clear();. I don't know what happens beneath this call but I do think that memory allocated for item1 and item2 doesn't get disposed here, because their ownage wasn't actually transfered. And, bang, we have a memory leak. The question is the following - does Qt have something to offer for this kind of situation? I could use boost::shared_ptr or any other smart pointer and write something like shared_ptr<QTreeWidgetItem> ptr(new QTreeWidgetItem(...)); items.append(ptr.get()); but I don't know if the Qt itself would try to make explicit delete calls on my pointers (which would be disastrous since I state them as shared_ptr-managed). How would you solve this problem? Maybe everything is evident and I miss something really simple?

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  • Expose webservice directly to webclients or keep a thin server-side script layer in between?

    - by max
    Hi, I'm developing a REST webservice (Java, Jersey). The people I'm doing this for want to directly access the webservice via Javascript. Some instinct tells me this is not a good idea, but I cannot really explain that instinct. My natural approach would have been to have the webservice do the real logic and database access, but also have some (relatively thin) server-side script layer (e.g. in PHP). Clients would talk to the PHP layer which in turn would talk to the webservice. (The webservice would be pretty local to the apache/PHP server and implicitly trust calls from the script layer. The script layer would take care of session management.) (Btw, I am not talking about just hiding the webservice behind an Apache which simply redirects calls.) But as I find myself at a lack of words/arguments to explain my instinct, I wonder whether my instinct is right - note that while I have been developing all kinds of software in all kinds of languages and frameworks for like 17 years, this is the first time I develop a webservice. So my question is basically: what are your opinions? Are there any standard setups? Is my instinct totally wrong? Or partially? ;P Many thanks, Max PS: I might add a few bits of information about the planned usage of the whole application: will be accessed by different kinds of users, partly general public, partly privileged thus, all major OS/browser combinations can be expected as clients however, writing the client is not my responsibility will potentially have very high load/traffic logic of webservice will later be massively expanded for another product which is basically a superset of the functionality of the current project there is a significant likelihood that at some point an API should be exposed which can be used by 3rd party developers - obviously, with some restrictions at some point, the public view of the product should become accessible via smartphones, too (in other words, maybe a customized version of the site to adapt to the smaller display and different input methods)

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