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  • how to escape white space in bash loop list

    - by MCS
    I have a bash shell script that loops through all child directories (but not files) of a certain directory. The problem is that some of the directory names contain spaces. Here are the contents of my test directory: $ls -F test Baltimore/ Cherry Hill/ Edison/ New York City/ Philadelphia/ cities.txt And the code that loops through the directories: for f in `find test/* -type d`; do echo $f done Here's the output: test/Baltimore test/Cherry Hill test/Edison test/New York City test/Philadelphia Cherry Hill and New York City are treated as 2 or 3 separate entries. I tried quoting the filenames, like so: for f in `find test/* -type d | sed -e 's/^/\"/' | sed -e 's/$/\"/'`; do echo $f done but to no avail. There's got to be a simple way to do this. Any ideas? The answers below are great. But to make this more complicated - I don't always want to use the directories listed in my test directory. Sometimes I want to pass in the directory names as command-line parameters instead. I took Charles' suggestion of setting the IFS and came up with the following: dirlist="${@}" ( [[ -z "$dirlist" ]] && dirlist=`find test -mindepth 1 -type d` && IFS=$'\n' for d in $dirlist; do echo $d done ) and this works just fine unless there are spaces in the command line arguments (even if those arguments are quoted). For example, calling the script like this: test.sh "Cherry Hill" "New York City" produces the following output: Cherry Hill New York City Again, I know there must be a way to do this - I just don't know what it is...

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  • Possible to use multiple ServiceReference.ClientConfig files?

    - by Maciek
    I'm building a modular Silverlight application, using Prism. In the Shell project, I'm loading 2x modules, each hailing from a separate assembly. For convenience let's call them ModuleA and ModuleB ModuleA makes calls to WebServiceA. A ServiceReference.ClientConfig file is present in ModuleA's assembly. In order for this to work, in the shell project, I've added an "existing item" (path set to the forementioned config file in ModuleA's folder) as a link. The shell launched and the ModuleA made a successful call to the WebServiceA. Currently, I'm working on ModuleB, it also needs to make webservice calls, this time to WebServiceB. The service reference has been added, and a ServiceReference.ClientConfig file has appeared in ModuleB's assembly. I've attempted to add that config file as a link to the shell project as well, but I've failed. Q1 : Is it possible to use multiple ServiceReference.ClientConfig files like this? Q2 : Are there any best-practices for this case? Q3 : Is it possible to rename a *.config or *.ClientConfig file ? How is it done? How do I tell the application what file to use? Edit : Formatting

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  • Explicit behavior with checks vs. implicit behavior

    - by Silviu
    I'm not sure how to construct the question but I'm interested to know what do you guys think of the following situations and which one would you prefer. We're working at a client-server application with winforms. And we have a control that has some fields automatically calculated upon filling another field. So we're having a field currency which when filled by the user would determine an automatic filling of another field, maybe more fields. When the user fills the currency field, a Currency object would be retrieved from a cache based on the string introduced by the user. If entered currency is not found in the cache a null reference is returned by the cache object. Further down when asking the application layer to compute the other fields based on the currency, given a null currency a null specific field would be returned. This way the default, implicit behavior is to clear all fields. Which is the expected behavior. What i would call the explicit implementation would be to verify that the Currency object is null in which case the depending fields are cleared explicitly. I think that the latter version is more clear, less error prone and more testable. But it implies a form of redundancy. The former version is not as clear and it implies a certain behavior from the application layer which is not expressed in the tests. Maybe in the lower layer tests but when the need arises to modify the lower layers, so that given a null currency something else should be returned, i don't think a test that says just that without a motivation is going to be an impediment for introducing a bug in upper layers. What do you guys think?

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  • Rewriting URL's in codeigniter with url_title()?

    - by Craig Ward
    I am rewriting my website with codeigniter and have something I want to do but not sure it is possible. I have a gallery on my site powered by the Flickr API. Here is an example of the code I use to display the Landscape pictures: <?php foreach ($landscapes->photoset->photo as $l->photoset->photo) : ?> <a >photoset->photo->farm ?>/<?php echo $l->photoset->photo->server ?>/<?php echo $l->photoset->photo->id ?>/<?php echo $l->photoset->photo->secret ?>/<?php echo $l->photoset->photo->title ?>'> <img class='f_thumb'>photoset->photo->farm ?>.static.flickr.com/<?php echo $l->photoset->photo->server ?>/<?php echo $l->photoset->photo->id ?>_<?php echo $l->photoset->photo->secret ?>_s.jpg' title='<?php echo $l->photoset->photo->title ?>' alt='<?php echo $l->photoset->photo->title ?>' /></a> <?php endforeach; ?> As you can see when a user clicks on a picture I pass over the Farm, Server, ID, Secret and Title elements using URI segments and build the page in the controller using $data['farm'] = $this->uri->segment(3); $data['server'] = $this->uri->segment(4); $data['id'] = $this->uri->segment(5); $data['secret'] = $this->uri->segment(6); $data['title'] = $this->uri->segment(7); Everything works and is fine but the URL’s are a tad long, example “http://localhost:8888/wip/index.php/gallery/focus/3/2682/4368875046/e8f97f61d9/Old Mill House in Donegal” Is there a way to rewrite the URL so its more like “http://localhost:8888/wip/index.php/gallery/focus/Old_Mill_House_in_Donegal” I was looking at using: $url_title = $this->uri->segment(7); $url_title = url_title($url_title, 'underscore', TRUE); But I don’t seem to be able to get it to work. Any ideas?

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  • Mocking WebResponse's from a WebRequest

    - by Rob Cooper
    I have finally started messing around with creating some apps that work with RESTful web interfaces, however, I am concerned that I am hammering their servers every time I hit F5 to run a series of tests.. Basically, I need to get a series of web responses so I can test I am parsing the varying responses correctly, rather than hit their servers every time, I thought I could do this once, save the XML and then work locally. However, I don't see how I can "mock" a WebResponse, since (AFAIK) they can only be instantiated by WebRequest.GetResponse How do you guys go about mocking this sort of thing? Do you? I just really don't like the fact I am hammering their servers :S I dont want to change the code too much, but I expect there is a elegant way of doing this.. Update Following Accept Will's answer was the slap in the face I needed, I knew I was missing a fundamental point! Create an Interface that will return a proxy object which represents the XML. Implement the interface twice, on that uses WebRequest, the other that returns static "responses". The interface implmentation then either instantiates the return type based on the response, or the static XML. You can then pass the required class when testing or at production to the service layer. Once I have the code knocked up, I'll paste some samples. Thanks Will :)

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  • Unable to run WCAT against DotNetNuke with NTLM authentication

    - by David Neale
    I have a ubr file setup to stress test an internal DotNetNuke site with WCAT: transaction { id = "Intranet Home Page"; weight = 1000; cookies{clear = true;} sleep{delay = rand("1","500");} request { url = "/"; statuscode = 401; } request { url = "/"; authentication = ntlm; username = "mydomain\\accountname"; password = "password"; statuscode = 200; } close{ method = reset;} } When running this (wcat.wsf -run -clients localhost -s myserver -t test.ubr -f settings.ubr -x) I simply get lots of error 500s: 2010-03-08 10:29:31 192.168.11.239 GET / - 80 - 192.168.52.139 - 401 2 2148074254 2010-03-08 10:29:31 192.168.11.239 GET / - 80 - 192.168.52.139 - 401 1 0 2010-03-08 10:29:31 192.168.11.239 GET /Default.aspx - 80 mydomain\myaccount 192.168.52.139 - 500 0 0 DNN is reporting these errors as: AssemblyVersion: 5.2.3 PortalID: 0 PortalName: My Company UserID: -1 UserName: ActiveTabID: 39 ActiveTabName: Home RawURL: /Default.aspx AbsoluteURL: /Default.aspx AbsoluteURLReferrer: UserAgent: DefaultDataProvider: DotNetNuke.Data.SqlDataProvider, DotNetNuke.SqlDataProvider ExceptionGUID: 28d8821f-1ef2-41db-8a65-d33e97a69130 InnerException: *Unhandled Error:* FileName: FileLineNumber: 0 FileColumnNumber: 0 Method: DotNetNuke.Authentication.ActiveDirectory.HttpModules.AuthenticationModule.OnAuthenticateRequest StackTrace: Message: System.Exception: Unhandled Error: --- System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at DotNetNuke.Authentication.ActiveDirectory.HttpModules.AuthenticationModule.OnAuthenticateRequest(Object s, EventArgs e) at System.Web.HttpApplication.SyncEventExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() at System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) --- End of inner exception stack trace --- Source: Server Name: MYSERVER It seems to be losing the username somehow.

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  • How to clean-up an Entity Framework object context?

    - by Daniel Brückner
    I am adding several entities to an object context. try { forach (var document in documents) { this.Validate(document); // May throw a ValidationException. this.objectContext.AddToDocuments(document); } this.objectContext.SaveChanges(); } catch { // How to clean-up the object context here? throw; } If some of the documents pass the the validation and one fails, all documents that passed the validation remain added to the object context. I have to clean-up the object context because it may be reused and the following can happen. var documentA = new Document { Id = 1, Data = "ValidData" }; var documentB = new Document { Id = 2, Data = "InvalidData" }; var documentC = new Document { Id = 3, Data = "ValidData" }; try { // Adding document B will cause a ValidationException but only // after document A is added to the object context. this.DocumentStore.AddDocuments(new[] { documentA, documentB, documentC }); } catch (ValidationException) { } // Try again without the invalid document B. this.DocumentStore.AddDocuments(new[] { documentA, documentC }); This will again add document A to the object context and in consequence SaveChanges() will throw an exception because of a duplicate primary key. So I have to remove all already added documents in the case of an validation error. I could of course perform the validation first and only add all documents after they have been successfully validated. But sadly this does not solve the whole problem - if SaveChanges() fails all documents still remain add but unsaved. I tried to detach all objects returned by this.objectContext.ObjectStateManager.GetObjectStateEntries(EntityState.Added) but I am getting a exception stating that the object is not attached. So how do I get rid of all added but unsaved objects?

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  • Any way for a class to prevent outside code from declaring variables of its type?

    - by supercat
    Is it possible for a class of exposing a type for function returns, without allowing users of that class to create variables of that type? A couple usage scenarios: A Fluent interface on a large class; a statement like "foo=bar.WithX(5).WithY(9).WithZ(19);" would be inefficient if it had to create three new instances of the class, but could be much more efficient if the WithX could create one instance, and the other statements could simply use it. A class may wish to support a statement like "foo[19].x = 9;" even when foo itself isn't an array, and does not hold the data in class instances that can be exposed to the public; one way to do that is to have foo[19] return a struct which holds a reference to 'foo' and the value '19', and has a member property 'x' which could call "foo.SetXValue(19, 9);" Such a struct could have a conversion operator to convert itself to the "apparent" type of foo[19]. In both of these scenarios, storing the value returned by a method or property into a variable and then using it more than once would cause strange behavior. It would be desirable if the designer of the class exposing such methods or properties could ensure that callers wouldn't be able to use them more than once. Is there any practical way to accomplish that?

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  • using wget against protected site with NTLM

    - by Joey V.
    Trying to mirror a local intranet site and have found previous questions using 'wget'. It works great with sites that are anonymous, but I have not been able to use it against a site that is expecting username\password (IIS with Integrated Windows Authentication). Here is what I pass in: wget -c --http-user='domain\user' --http-password=pwd http://local/site -dv Here is the debug output (note I replaced some with dummy values obviously): Setting --verbose (verbose) to 1 DEBUG output created by Wget 1.11.4 on Windows-MSVC. --2009-07-14 09:39:04-- http://local/site Host `local' has not issued a general basic challenge. Resolving local... seconds 0.00, x.x.x.x Caching local = x.x.x.x Connecting to local|x.x.x.x|:80... seconds 0.00, connected. Created socket 1896. Releasing 0x003e32b0 (new refcount 1). ---request begin--- GET /site/ HTTP/1.0 User-Agent: Wget/1.11.4 Accept: */* Host: local Connection: Keep-Alive ---request end--- HTTP request sent, awaiting response... ---response begin--- HTTP/1.1 401 Access Denied Server: Microsoft-IIS/5.1 Date: Tue, 14 Jul 2009 13:39:04 GMT WWW-Authenticate: Negotiate WWW-Authenticate: NTLM Content-Length: 4431 Content-Type: text/html ---response end--- 401 Access Denied Closed fd 1896 Unknown authentication scheme. Authorization failed.

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  • Nant build fails - but only in TeamCity

    - by wayne
    Hi I have a nant build file set up which works fine from the cmd line but not in TeamCity. I've checked that the comand I execute is run from the same directory TC is working in and checked all the references but it still fails with the following error: [build] Compile the project using Debug configuration... [10:30:05]: [build] msbuild (1m:18s) [10:30:06]: [msbuild] Starting MSBuild... [10:30:07]: [msbuild] Starting 'C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v3.5\msbuild.exe (@"G:\TeamCity\buildAgent\work\9de21b975852dd95\src\Irm.Web.App\Irm.Web.App.sln.teamcity.msbuild.tcargs")' in 'G:\TeamCity\buildAgent\work\9de21b975852dd95' [10:30:09]: [msbuild] MSBUILD : error MSB1025: An internal failure occurred while running MSBuild. [10:31:18]: [msbuild] Unhandled Exception: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. [10:31:18]: [msbuild] at Microsoft.Build.CommandLine.MSBuildApp.BuildProject(String projectFile, String[] targets, String toolsVersion, BuildPropertyGroup propertyBag, ILogger[] loggers, LoggerVerbosity verbosity, DistributedLoggerRecord[] distributedLoggerRecords, Boolean needToValidateProject, String schemaFile, Int32 cpuCount, Boolean enableNodeReuse) [10:31:18]: [msbuild] at Microsoft.Build.CommandLine.MSBuildApp.Execute(String commandLine) [10:31:18]: [msbuild] at Microsoft.Build.CommandLine.MSBuildApp.Main() [10:31:24]: G:\TeamCity\buildAgent\work\9de21b975852dd95\Irm-deploy.build(22,10): External Program Failed: msbuild (return code was -1073741819) Does anyone have any idea why TC would not be able to run the build yet I know it works? Cheers w://

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  • Hibernate "JOIN ... ON"?

    - by CaptainAwesomePants
    I have an application that uses Hibernate for its domain objects. One part of the app is common between a few apps, and it has no knowledge of the other systems. In order to handle relations, our class looks like this: @Entity public class SystemEvent { @Id @GeneratedValue public int entity_id; @Column(name="event_type") public String eventType; @Column(name="related_id") public int relatedObjectId; } relatedObjectId holds a foreign key to one of several different objects, depending on the type of event. When a system wants to know about events that are relevant to its interests, it grabs all the system events with eventType "NewAccounts" or some such thing, and it knows that all of those relatedObjectIds are IDs to a "User" object or similar. Unfortunately, this has caused a problem down the line. I can't figure out a way to tell Hibernate about this mapping, which means that HQL queries can't do joins. I'd really like to create an HQL query that looks like this: SELECT users FROM SystemEvent event join Users newUsers where event.eventType = 'SignUp' However, Hibernate has no knowledge of the relationship between SystemEvent and Users, and as far as I can tell, there's no way to tell it. So here's my question: Is there any way to tell Hibernate about a relationship when your domain objects reference each other via ID numbers and not class references?

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  • Searching for flexible way to specify conenction string used by APS.NET membership

    - by bzamfir
    Hi, I develop an asp.net web application and I use ASP.NET membership provider. The application uses the membership schema and all required objects inside main application database However, during development I have to switch to various databases, for different development and testing scenarios. For this I have an external connection strings section file and also an external appsettings section, which allow me to not change main web.config but switch the db easily, by changing setting only in appsettings section. My files are as below: <connectionStrings configSource="connections.config"> </connectionStrings> <appSettings file="local.config"> .... ConnectionStrings looks as usual: <connectionStrings> <add name="MyDB1" connectionString="..." ... /> <add name="MyDB2" connectionString="..." ... /> .... </connectionStrings> And local.config as below <appSettings> <add key="ConnectionString" value="MyDB2" /> My code takes into account to use this connection string But membership settings in web.config contains the connection string name directly into the setting, like <add name="MembershipProvider" connectionStringName="MyDB2" ...> .... <add name="RoleProvider" connectionStringName="MyDB2" ...> Because of this, every time I have to edit them too to use the new db. Is there any way to config membership provider to use an appsetting to select db connection for membership db? Or to "redirect" it to read connection setting from somewhere else? Or at least to have this in some external file (like local.config) Maybe is some easy way to wrap asp.net membership provider intio my own provider which will just read connection string from where I want and pass it to original membership provider, and then just delegate the whole membership functionality to asp.net membership provider. Thanks.

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  • To GAC, or not to GAC?

    - by Jagd
    I have a data access layer (DAL) that is written in ASP.NET 3.5 and uses the Microsoft patterns & practices libraries (hereafter referred to as P&P) in order to accomplish its data access. I installed P&P and it resides in my GAC, so, logically, my DAL references it in the GAC. Therefore, the P&P libraries are never pulled down to the bin folder of my DAL. I use this DAL project in at least five (more than that even, but I'm too lazy to try to count them all) different websites. And this has all worked just fine for me because I'm the only developer who works on these websites. But, now I have other developers who are going to work on some of these websites. The problem: if a developer pulls the DAL project down from our code repository, it won't build for them if they don't have the P&P libraries installed. My question: should I expect the developers to install the P&P libraries, or should I just dump them in the bin folder and be done with it? I realize that dumping them into the bin folder is probably the easiest way to deal with the problem, but I've never been a big fan of the bin folder if I can reference them in the GAC instead.

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  • Big problem with Dijkstra algorithm in a linked list graph implementation

    - by Nazgulled
    Hi, I have my graph implemented with linked lists, for both vertices and edges and that is becoming an issue for the Dijkstra algorithm. As I said on a previous question, I'm converting this code that uses an adjacency matrix to work with my graph implementation. The problem is that when I find the minimum value I get an array index. This index would have match the vertex index if the graph vertexes were stored in an array instead. And the access to the vertex would be constant. I don't have time to change my graph implementation, but I do have an hash table, indexed by a unique number (but one that does not start at 0, it's like 100090000) which is the problem I'm having. Whenever I need, I use the modulo operator to get a number between 0 and the total number of vertices. This works fine for when I need an array index from the number, but when I need the number from the array index (to access the calculated minimum distance vertex in constant time), not so much. I tried to search for how to inverse the modulo operation, like, 100090000 mod 18000 = 10000 and, 10000 invmod 18000 = 100090000 but couldn't find a way to do it. My next alternative is to build some sort of reference array where, in the example above, arr[10000] = 100090000. That would fix the problem, but would require to loop the whole graph one more time. Do I have any better/easier solution with my current graph implementation?

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  • jQuery - manipulate dropped element in sortable list

    - by WastedSpace
    Hi there, I have a draggable list (.field) where you can drag & drop items from it into a sortable list (.sortlist). I did it this way because I didn't want the master list (.field) altered in any way. It works fine, except I cannot work out how to manipulate the dropped field in a sortable list. I can do it from a draggable into a droppable area by using the following in a function for 'drop:' in droppable(): $(this).append('html code here to change content of dragged field'); However this doesn't work inside a sortable(). My code looks like this: $(".sortlist").sortable({ receive: function(event, ui) { var dropElemTxt = $(ui.item).text(); var dropElemId = $(ui.item).attr('id'); $(ui.item).replaceWith('<li class="box" id="'+dropElemId+'">Updated field! '+dropElemTxt+'</li>'); } }); $(ui.item).replaceWith changes the master field that was being dragged, so this doesn't work. And I tried $(this).replaceWith, but that updates the sortable area (.sortlist). Any idea what code I need to reference the dragged item? Many thanks, Ali.

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  • Currency exchange rates for paypal

    - by Jacco
    Does anyone know a way to get the currency exchange rates for paypal? We have custom shopping cart and use Paypal (Website Payments Standard) to handle payments. Our 'home' currency is Euro, but we would like to present our customers the option to pay in different currencies (USD, CAD, AUD and GBP). PayPal offers the option to:     a) automatically convert our Euro quoted prices to, for example, USD upon checkout     b) checkout in USD directly With option a): We get paid in Euro, the customer pays for the currency exchange (good). The customer does not know what he/she is going to be charged in USD until checkout. (bad) With option b) The customer pays in USD, then the currency is converted into EUR and we pay the the currency exchange. The customer never has to worry about the different currencies (excellent) We do not know the exchange rate PayPal is going to use so we cannot quote the correct prices to our customer (showstopper) So my question is:   Does anybody know a way to get the PayPal exchange rates? or   Does anybody know how to make a good estimate? Update: PayPal updates it's exchange rate 2 times a day. (at least, that is what they state). They use the Interbank Exchange Rate provided by ??? and add a 2.5% spread above this rate to determine their retail foreign exchange rates. Unforunately, there the Interbank Exchange Rates vary from source to source and from minute to minute. We have been monitoring the PayPal exchange rates and cross referenced them with the Official reference rates provides by the European Central Bank. the results vary widely, somewhere from 1 to 6 ! percent...

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  • Setting custom behaviour via .config file - why doesn't this work?

    - by Andrew Shepherd
    I am attempting to insert a custom behavior into my service client, following the example here. I appear to be following all of the steps, but I am getting a ConfigurationErrorsException. Is there anyone more experienced than me who can spot what I'm doing wrong? Here is the entire app.config file. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <behaviors> <endpointBehaviors> <behavior name="ClientLoggingEndpointBehaviour"> <myLoggerExtension /> </behavior> </endpointBehaviors> </behaviors> <extensions> <behaviorExtensions> <add name="myLoggerExtension" type="ChatClient.ClientLoggingEndpointBehaviourExtension, ChatClient, Version=0.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null"/> </behaviorExtensions> </extensions> <bindings> </bindings> <client> <endpoint behaviorConfiguration="ClientLoggingEndpointBehaviour" name="ChatRoomClientEndpoint" address="http://localhost:8016/ChatRoom" binding="wsDualHttpBinding" contract="ChatRoomLib.IChatRoom" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> Here is the exception message: An error occurred creating the configuration section handler for system.serviceModel/behaviors: Extension element 'myLoggerExtension' cannot be added to this element. Verify that the extension is registered in the extension collection at system.serviceModel/extensions/behaviorExtensions. Parameter name: element (C:\Documents and Settings\Andrew Shepherd\My Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\WcfPractice\ChatClient\bin\Debug\ChatClient.vshost.exe.config line 5) I know that I've correctly written the reference to the ClientLoggingEndpointBehaviourExtensionobject, because through the debugger I can see it being instantiated.

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  • Django inlineformset validation and delete

    - by Andrew Gee
    Hi, Can someone tell me if a form in an inlineformset should go through validation if the DELETE field is checked. I have a form that uses an inlineformset and when I check the DELETE box it fails because the required fields are blank. If I put data in the fields it will pass validation and then be deleted. Is that how it is supposed to work, I would have thought that if it is marked for delete it would bypass the validation for that form. Regards Andrew Follow up - but I would still appreciate some others opinions/help What I have figured out is that for validation to work the a formset form must either be empty or complete(valid) otherwise it will have errors when it is created and will not be deleted. As I have a couple of hidden fields in my formset forms and they are pre-populated when the page loads via javascript the form fails validation on the other required fields which might still be blank. The way I have gotten around this by adding in a check in the add_fields that tests if the DELETE input is True and if it is it makes all fields on the form not required, which means it passes validation and will then delete. def add_fields(self, form, index) #add other fields that are required.... deleteValue = form.fields['DELETE'].widget.value_from datadict(form.data, form.files, form.add_prefix('DELETE')) if bool(deleteValue) or deleteValue == '': for name, field in form.fields.items(): form.fields[name].required= False This seems to be an odd way to do things but I cannot figure out another way. Is there a simpler way that I am missing? I have also noticed that when I add the new form to my page and check the Delete box, there is no value passed back via the request, however an existing form (one loaded from the database) has a value of on when the Delete box is checked. If the box is not checked then the input is not in the request at all. Thanks Andrew

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  • C# File IO with Streams - Best Memory Buffer Size

    - by AJ
    Hi, I am writing a small IO library to assist with a larger (hobby) project. A part of this library performs various functions on a file, which is read / written via the FileStream object. On each StreamReader.Read(...) pass, I fire off an event which will be used in the main app to display progress information. The processing that goes on in the loop is vaired, but is not too time consuming (it could just be a simple file copy, for example, or may involve encryption...). My main question is: What is the best memory buffer size to use? Thinking about physical disk layouts, I could pick 2k, which would cover a CD sector size and is a nice multiple of a 512 byte hard disk sector. Higher up the abstraction tree, you could go for a larger buffer which could read an entire FAT cluster at a time. I realise with today's PC's, I could go for a more memory hungry option (a couple of MiB, for example), but then I increase the time between UI updates and the user perceives a less responsive app. As an aside, I'm eventually hoping to provide a similar interface to files hosted on FTP / HTTP servers (over a local network / fastish DSL). What would be the best memory buffer size for those (again, a "best-case" tradeoff between perceived responsiveness vs. performance). Thanks in advance for any ideas, Adam

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  • Problem with JSONResult

    - by vikitor
    Hi, I' still newby to this so I'll try to explain what I'm doing. Basically what I want is to load a dropdownlist depending on the value of a previous one, and I want it to load the data and appear when the other one is changed. This is the code I've written in my controller: public ActionResult GetClassesSearch(bool ajax, string phylumID, string kingdom){ IList<TaxClass> lists = null; int _phylumID = int.Parse(phylumID); int _kingdom = int.Parse(kingdom); lists = _taxon.getClassByPhylumSearch(_phylumID, _kingdom); return Json(lists.count); } and this is how I call the method from the javascript function: function loadClasses(_phylum) { var phylum = _phylum.value; $.getJSON("/Suspension/GetClassesSearch/", { ajax: true, phylumID: phylum, kingdom: kingdom }, function(data) { alert(data); alert('no fallo') document.getElementById("pClass").style.display = "block"; document.getElementById("sClass").options[0] = new Option("-select-", "0", true, true); //for (i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { // $('#sClass').addOption(data[i].classID, data[i].className); //} }); } The thing is that just like this it works, I pass the function the number of classes within a selected phylum, and it displays the pclass element, the problem gets when I try to populate the slist with data (which should contain the objects retrieved from the database), because when there is data returned by the database changing return Json(lists) instead of return Json(lists.count) I keep getting the same error: A circular reference was detected while serializing an object of type 'SubSonic.Schema.DatabaseColumn'. I've been going round and round debugging and making tests but I can't make it work, and it is suppossed to be a simple thing, but I'm missing something. I have commented the for loop because I'm not quite sure if that's the way you access the data, because I've not been able to make it work when it finds records. Can anyone help me? Thanks in advance, Victor

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  • Mapping a collection of enums with NHibernate

    - by beaufabry
    Mapping a collection of enums with NHibernate Specifically, using Attributes for the mappings. Currently I have this working mapping the collection as type Int32 and NH seems to take care of it, but it's not exactly ideal. The error I receive is "Unable to determine type" when trying to map the collection as of the type of the enum I am trying to map. I found a post that said to define a class as public class CEnumType : EnumStringType { public CEnumType() : base(MyEnum) { } } and then map the enum as CEnumType, but this gives "CEnumType is not mapped" or something similar. So has anyone got experience doing this? So anyway, just a simple reference code snippet to give an example with [NHibernate.Mapping.Attributes.Class(Table = "OurClass")] public class CClass : CBaseObject { public enum EAction { do_action, do_other_action }; private IList<EAction> m_class_actions = new List<EAction>(); [NHibernate.Mapping.Attributes.Bag(0, Table = "ClassActions", Cascade="all", Fetch = CollectionFetchMode.Select, Lazy = false)] [NHibernate.Mapping.Attributes.Key(1, Column = "Class_ID")] [NHibernate.Mapping.Attributes.Element(2, Column = "EAction", Type = "Int32")] public virtual IList<EAction> Actions { get { return m_class_actions; } set { m_class_actions = value;} } } So, anyone got the correct attributes for me to map this collection of enums as actual enums? It would be really nice if they were stored in the db as strings instead of ints too but it's not completely necessary.

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  • Database structure - is mySQL the right choice?

    - by Industrial
    Hi everyone, We are currently planning the database structure of a quite complex e-commerce web app that has flexibility as it's main cornerstone. Our app features a large amount of data (products) and we have run into a slight headache trying to keep performance high without compromizing normalization rules in the database, or leaving our highly beloved flexibility concept behind when integrating product options (also widely known as product attributes or parameters). Based on various references and sources available, we have made up lists on pros and cons of all major and well known database patterns to solve this. After comparing these, we have come up with two final alternatives: EAV (Entity-attribute-value model) : Pros: Database is used for all sorting. Cons: All related queries will include a number of joins between multiple tables in order to complete the collection of data. SLOB (Serialized LOB, also known as Facade?) : Pros: Very flexible. Keeping the number of necessary joins low compared to a EAV design pattern. Easy to update/add/remove data from each product. Cons: All sorting will be done by the application instead of the database. Will use lots of performance (memory?) when big datasets is processed by a large number of users. Our main questions: Which pattern/structure would you use, or maybe even a different solution? Is there better databases besides mySQL available nowadays to accomplish what we want? Thanks a lot! Reference: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/695752/product-table-many-kinds-of-product-each-product-has-many-parameters

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  • Did I find a bug in WriteableBitmap when using string literals

    - by liserdarts
    For performance reasons I'm converting a large list of images into a single image. This code does exactly what I want. Private Function FlattenControl(Control As UIElement) As Image Control.Measure(New Size(1000, 1000)) Control.Arrange(New Rect(0, 0, 1000, 1000)) Dim ImgSource As New Imaging.WriteableBitmap(1000, 1000) ImgSource.Render(Control, New TranslateTransform) ImgSource.Invalidate Dim Img As New Image Img.Source = ImgSource Return Img End Function I can add all the images into a canvas pass the canvas to this function and I get back one image. My code to load all the images looks like this. Public Function BuildTextures(Layer As GLEED2D.Layer) As FrameworkElement Dim Container As New Canvas For Each Item In Layer.Items If TypeOf Item Is GLEED2D.TextureItem Then Dim Texture = CType(Item, GLEED2D.TextureItem) Dim Url As New Uri(Texture.texture_filename, UriKind.Relative) Dim Img As New Image Img.Source = New Imaging.BitmapImage(Url) Container.Children.Add(Img) End If Next Return FlattenControl(Container) End Function The GLEED2D.Layer and GLEED2D.TextureItem classes are from the free level editor GLEED2D (http://www.gleed2d.de/). The texture_filename on every TextureItem is "Images/tree_clipart_pine_tree.png" This works just fine, but it's just a proof of concept. What I really need to do (among other things) is have the path to the image hard coded. If I replace Texture.texture_filename in the code above with the string literal "Images/tree_clipart_pine_tree.png" the images do not appear in the final merged image. I can add a breakpoint and see that the WriteableBitmap has all of it's pixels as 0 after the call to Invalidate. I have no idea how this could cause any sort of difference, but it gets stranger. If I remove the call to FlattenControl and just return the Canvas instead, the images are visible. It's only when I use the string literal with the WriableBitmap that the images do not appear. I promise you that the value in the texture_filename property is exactly "Images/tree_clipart_pine_tree.png". I'm using Silverlight 3 and I've also reproduced this in Silverlight 4. Any ideas?

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  • How to force two process to run on the same CPU?

    - by kovan
    Context: I'm programming a software system that consists of multiple processes. It is programmed in C++ under Linux. and they communicate among them using Linux shared memory. Usually, in software development, is in the final stage when the performance optimization is made. Here I came to a big problem. The software has high performance requirements, but in machines with 4 or 8 CPU cores (usually with more than one CPU), it was only able to use 3 cores, thus wasting 25% of the CPU power in the first ones, and more than 60% in the second ones. After many research, and having discarded mutex and lock contention, I found out that the time was being wasted on shmdt/shmat calls (detach and attach to shared memory segments). After some more research, I found out that these CPUs, which usually are AMD Opteron and Intel Xeon, use a memory system called NUMA, which basically means that each processor has its fast, "local memory", and accessing memory from other CPUs is expensive. After doing some tests, the problem seems to be that the software is designed so that, basically, any process can pass shared memory segments to any other process, and to any thread in them. This seems to kill performance, as process are constantly accessing memory from other processes. Question: Now, the question is, is there any way to force pairs of processes to execute in the same CPU?. I don't mean to force them to execute always in the same processor, as I don't care in which one they are executed, altough that would do the job. Ideally, there would be a way to tell the kernel: If you schedule this process in one processor, you must also schedule this "brother" process (which is the process with which it communicates through shared memory) in that same processor, so that performance is not penalized.

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  • Getting gridview column value as parameter for javascript function

    - by newName
    I have a gridview with certain number of columns and the ID column where I want to get the value from is currently set to visible = false. The other column is a TemplateField column (LinkButton) and as the user clicks on the button it will grab the value from the ID column and pass the value to one of my javascript function. WebForm: <script language=javascript> function openContent(contentID) { window.open('myContentPage.aspx?contentID=' + contentID , 'View Content','left=300,top=300,toolbar=no,scrollbars=yes,width=1000,height=500'); return false; } </script> <asp:GridView ID="gvCourse" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="False" OnRowCommand="gvCourse_RowCommand" OnRowDataBound="gvCourse_RowDataBound" BorderStyle="None" GridLines="None"> <RowStyle BorderStyle="None" /> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <asp:LinkButton ID="lnkContent" runat="server" CommandName="View" CommandArgument='<%#Eval("contentID") %>' Text='<%#Eval("contentName") %>'> </asp:LinkButton> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:BoundField DataField="contentID" HeaderText="contentID" ReadOnly="True" SortExpression="contentID" Visible="False" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="ContentName" HeaderText="ContentName" ReadOnly="True" SortExpression="ContentName" Visible="False" /> </Columns> <AlternatingRowStyle BorderStyle="None" /> Code behind: protected void gvCourse_RowCommand(object sender, GridViewCommandEventArgs e) { if (e.CommandName == "View") { intID = Convert.ToInt32(e.CommandArgument); } } protected void gvCourse_RowDataBound(object sender, System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridViewRowEventArgs e) { if (e.Row.RowType == DataControlRowType.DataRow) { ((LinkButton)e.Row.FindControl("lnkContent")).Attributes.Add("onclick", "return openContent('" + intID + "');"); } } right not i'm trying to get the intID based on user selected item so when the user clicks on the linkbutton it will open a popup window using javascript and the ID will be used as querystring.

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