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• Is it possible to use 2 versions of jQuery on the same page?

  - by Ben McCormack

  NOTE: I know similar questions have already been asked here and here, but I'm looking for additional clarification as to how to make this work. I'm adding functionality to an existing web site that is already using an older version of the jQuery library (1.1.3.1). I've been writing my added functionality against the newest version of the jQuery library (1.4.2). I've tested the website using only the newer version of jQuery and it breaks functionality, so now I'm looking at using both versions on the same page. How is this possible? What do I need to do in my code to specify that I'm using one version of jQuery instead of another? For example, I'll put <script> tags for both versions of jQuery in the header of my page, but what do I need to do so that I know for sure in my calling code that I'm calling one version of the library or another? Maybe something like this: //Put some code here to specify a variable that will be using the newer //version of jquery: var $NEW = jQuery.theNewestVersion(); //Now when I use $NEW, I'll know it's the newest version and won't //conflict with the older version. $NEW('#personName').text('Ben'); //And when I use the original $ in code, or simply 'jquery', I'll know //it's the older version. $('#personName').doSomethingWithTheOlderVersion();

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• Destructors not called when native (C++) exception propagates to CLR component

  - by Phil Nash

  We have a large body of native C++ code, compliled into DLLs. Then we have a couple of dlls containing C++/CLI proxy code to wrap the C++ interfaces. On top of that we have C# code calling into the C++/CLI wrappers. Standard stuff, so far. But we have a lot of cases where native C++ exceptions are allowed to propagate to the .Net world and we rely on .Net's ability to wrap these as System.Exception objects and for the most part this works fine. However we have been finding that destructors of objects in scope at the point of the throw are not being invoked when the exception propagates! After some research we found that this is a fairly well known issue. However the solutions/ workarounds seem less consistent. We did find that if the native code is compiled with /EHa instead of /EHsc the issue disappears (at least in our test case it did). However we would much prefer to use /EHsc as we translate SEH exceptions to C++ exceptions ourselves and we would rather allow the compiler more scope for optimisation. Are there any other workarounds for this issue - other than wrapping every call across the native-managed boundary in a (native) try-catch-throw (in addition to the C++/CLI layer)?

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• How should a programmer go about getting started with Flash/Flex/ActionScript?

  - by Graphics Noob

  What is the shortest path between zero (ie no flash related development software on my computer or information about where to obtain it or get started) to running a "hello world" ActionScript? I'm hoping for an answer that gives step by step instructions about exactly what software is needed to get started, an example of some "hello world" code, and instructions for compiling and running the code. I've spent more time than I think should be necessary researching this question and not found much information. Hopefully this question will be found by programmers like me who want to get started with Flash/Flex/ActionScript (After my morning of researching I still don't even know what terminology to use so I'll just throw it all out there). ActionScript tutorials I've found are focused on programming concepts, ie logic, branching, OOP, etc, and some even have code examples to download, but not a single one I've found explains how to compile and run the code. They all seem to assume you have an IDE standing by but no knowledge of programming, exactly the opposite of the position I'm in. Here are the most related SO questions I've found: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/59083/what-is-adobe-flex-is-it-just-flash-ii http://stackoverflow.com/questions/554899/getting-started-with-flex-3-ui-actionscript-programming http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2123105/how-to-learn-flex

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• How do I prevent a C# method from executing using an attribute validator?

  - by Boydski

  I'd like to create an attribute-based validator that goes a few steps beyond what I've seen in examples. It'll basically prevent methods or other functionality from executing. Please be aware that I'm having to use AzMan since I have no availability to Active Directory in this scenario. Here's some pseudo code of what what I'm looking for: // Attribute validator class AttributeUsage is arbitrary at this point and may include other items [AttributeUsage( AttributeTargets.Method | AttributeTargets.Property, AllowMultiple = true, Inherited = true )] public class PermissionsValidatorAttribute : Attribute { public PermissionsValidatorAttribute(PermissionEnumeration permission){...} public bool UserCanCreateAndEdit(){...} public bool UserCanDelete(){...} public bool UserCanUpload(){...} } Here's a sample of a class/member that'll be decorated. The method will not be executed at all if the PermissionValidator.UserCanDelete() doesn't return true from wherever it's executed: public class DoStuffNeedingPermissions { [PermissionValidator(PermissionEnumeration.MustHaveDeletePermission)] public void DeleteSomething(){...} } I know this is a simple, incomplete example. But you should get the gist of what I'm needing. Make the assumption that DeleteSomething() already exists and I'm preferring to NOT modify the code within the method at all. I'm currently looking at things like the Validation Application Block and am messing with custom attribute POC's. But I'd love to hear opinions with code samples from everyone out there. I'm also certainly not opposed to other methods of accomplishing the same thing such as extension methods or whatever may work to accomplish the same thing. Please remember I'm making the attempt to minimize changes to existing DoStuffNeedingPermissions code. Thanks everyone!

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• SQL: How do I INSERT primary key values from two tables INTO a master table.

  - by Stefan

  Hello, I would appreciate some help with an SQL statement I really can't get my head around. What I want to do is fairly simple, I need to take the values from two different tables and copy them into an master table when a new row is inserted into one of the two tables. The problem is perhaps best explained like this: I have three tables, productcategories, regioncategories and mastertable. --------------------------- TABLE: PRODUCTCATEGORIES --------------------------- COLUMNS: CODE | DESCRIPTION --------------------------- VALUES: BOOKS | Books --------------------------- --------------------------- TABLE: REGIONCATEGORIES --------------------------- COLUMNS: CODE | DESCRIPTION --------------------------- VALUES: EU | European Union --------------------------- --------------------------- TABLE: MASTERTABLE --------------------------- COLUMNS: REGION | PRODUCT --------------------------- VALUES: EU | BOOKS --------------------------- I want the values to be inserted like this when a new row is created in either productcategories or regioncategories. New row is created. --------------------------- TABLE: PRODUCTCATEGORIES --------------------------- COLUMNS: CODE | DESCRIPTION --------------------------- VALUES: BOOKS | Books --------------------------- VALUES: DVD | DVDs --------------------------- And a SQL statement copies the new values into the mastertable. --------------------------- TABLE: MASTERTABLE --------------------------- COLUMNS: REGION | PRODUCT --------------------------- VALUES: EU | BOOKS --------------------------- VALUES: EU | DVD --------------------------- The same goes if a row is created in the regioncategories. New row. --------------------------- TABLE: REGIONCATEGORIES --------------------------- COLUMNS: CODE | DESCRIPTION --------------------------- VALUES: EU | European Union --------------------------- VALUES: US | United States --------------------------- Copied to the mastertable. --------------------------- TABLE: MASTERTABLE --------------------------- COLUMNS: REGION | PRODUCT --------------------------- VALUES: EU | BOOKS --------------------------- VALUES: EU | DVD --------------------------- VALUES: US | BOOKS --------------------------- VALUES: US | DVD --------------------------- I hope it makes sense. Thanks, Stefan

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• Dynamic memory inside a struct

  - by Maximilien

  Hello, I'm editing a piece of code, that is part of a big project, that uses "const's" to initialize a bunch of arrays. Because I want to parametrize these const's I have to adapt the code to use "malloc" in order to allocate the memory. Unfortunately there is a problem with structs: I'm not able to allocate dynamic memory in the struct itself. Doing it outside would cause to much modification of the original code. Here's a small example: int globalx,globaly; struct bigStruct{ struct subStruct{ double info1; double info2; bool valid; }; double data; //subStruct bar[globalx][globaly]; subStruct ** bar=(subStruct**)malloc(globalx*sizeof(subStruct*)); for(int i=0;i<globalx;i++) bar[i]=(*subStruct)malloc(globaly*sizeof(subStruct)); }; int main(){ globalx=2; globaly=3; bigStruct foo; for(int i=0;i<globalx;i++) for(int j=0;j<globaly;j++){ foo.bar[i][j].info1=i+j; foo.bar[i][j].info2=i*j; foo.bar[i][j].valid=(i==j); } return 0; } Note: in the program code I'm editing globalx and globaly were const's in a specified namespace. Now I removed the "const" so they can act as parameters that are set exactly once. Summarized: How can I properly allocate memory for the substruct inside the struct? Thank you very much! Max

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• android python full integration

  - by Grzegorz Oledzki

  Is there a way to fully integrate Python with Java code on Android platform? Yes, I saw the question about running Python on Android and Android Scripting Environment (ASE). But that doesn't seem to be enough (correct me if I am wrong). I wanted to be able not only to invoke a Python script from within Java code, but have a full integration. The feature I need the most is the ability to have a state of execution of python code saved and be able to run several parts of code on demand against the same execution state. On JavaSE I would rely on Jython. I believe its simplest example shows it all (and some other features too, like something I would call variable state introspection): http://www.jython.org/archive/21/docs/embedding.html PythonInterpreter interp = new PythonInterpreter(); System.out.println("Hello, brave new world"); interp.exec("import sys"); interp.exec("print sys"); interp.set("a", new PyInteger(42)); interp.exec("print a"); interp.exec("x = 2+2"); PyObject x = interp.get("x"); System.out.println("x: "+x); System.out.println("Goodbye, cruel world"); Is it possible on Android? Is ASE a way to go?

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• Object suddenly missing from HttpServletRequest

  - by Jeune

  I print a list directly in the servlet using the print writer and the list prints. When I try to put in the jsp however the list doesn't print whether I use JSTL or scriptlets. I tried to test in JSTL and scriptlet if the object is null and turns out that it is! Why does this happen and how can I fix this? Servlet code that works for (Artist artist:artists){ resp.getWriter().println(artist.getName()); } Servlet code that puts object in the request public void doGet(HttpServletRequest req, HttpServletResponse resp) throws IOException { ApplicationContext ctx = new ClassPathXmlApplicationContext("com/helloworld/beans/helloworld-context.xml"); ArtistDao artistDao = (ArtistDao) ctx.getBean("artistDao"); List<Artist> artists = null; try { artists = artistDao.getAll(); } catch (SQLException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } req.setAttribute("artists", artists); try { req.getRequestDispatcher("index.jsp").forward(req, resp); } catch (ServletException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } scriptlet code that suddenly finds the object null <% List<Artist> artists = (List<Artist>) request.getAttribute("artists"); if (artists == null) { out.println("artists null"); } else { for (Artist artist: artists){ out.println(artist.getName()); } } %> Even the jstl code seems to agree <c:if test="${artists eq null}"> Artists are null </c:if> <c:forEach var="artist" items="${artists}"> ${artist.name} </c:forEach> For my app I am using weblogic, spring 2.5.6 and ibatis.

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• Proper Usage of SqlConnection in .NET

  - by Jojo

  Hi guys, I just want an opinion on the proper usage or a proper design with regards to using SqlConnection object. Which of the 2 below is the best use: A data provider class whose methods (each of them) contain SqlConnection object (and disposed when done). Like: IList<Employee> GetAllEmployees() { using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(this.connectionString)) { // Code goes here... } } Employee GetEmployee(int id) { using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(this.connectionString)) { // Code goes here... } } or SqlConnection connection; // initialized in constructor IList<Employee> GetAllEmployees() { this.TryOpenConnection(); // tries to open member SqlConnection instance // Code goes here... this.CloseConnection(); // return } Employee GetEmployee(int id) { this.TryOpenConnection(); // tries to open member SqlConnection instance // Code goes here... this.CloseConnection(); // return } Or is there a better approach than this? I have a focused web crawler type of application and this application will crawl 50 or more websites simultaneously (multithreaded) with each website contained in a crawler object and each crawler object has an instance of a data provider class (above). Please advise. Thanks.

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• Android 1.5/1.6 issue with style and autogenerated R.java file

  - by Gaks

  I'm having strange issue with R.java file and styles defined in my resources. Here's some code: In res/values/strings.xml: <style parent="android:Theme.Dialog" name="PopupWindowStyle"> <item name="android:windowBackground">@drawable/bg1</item> <item name="android:textColor">@android:color/black</item> </style> In AndroidManifest.xml: <activity android:name=".RegisterScreen" android:icon="@drawable/ico" android:label="@string/applicationName" android:theme="@style/PopupWindowStyle" android:configChanges="locale|touchscreen|keyboard|keyboardHidden|navigation|orientation|fontScale"> </activity> In autogenerated gen/.../R.java: public static final class style { public static final int PopupWindowStyle=0x7f090000; } After some changes in the project, eclipse changed autogenerated value for PopupWindowStyle from 0x7f080000 to 0x7f090000. After that, on Android 1.5, RegisterScreen activity is displayed without PopupWindowStyle style - there is an error displayed in logcat: Skipping entry 0x7f090000 in package table 0 because it is not complex! On Android 1.6 however everything works fine - PopupWindowStyle works like it was before it's integer value has changed. I was testing this issue, by reverting the source code to older revisions. I can confirm, that this problem started occurring after src code commit, which changed two files completely unrelated to this part of code - and an autogenerated R.java file. Any idea what could cause that?

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• When should I be cautious using data binding in .NET?

  - by Ben McCormack

  I just started working on a small team of .NET programmers about a month ago and recently got in a discussion with our team lead regarding why we don't use databinding at all in our code. Every time we work with a data grid, we iterate through a data table and populate the grid row by row; the code usually looks something like this: Dim dt as DataTable = FuncLib.GetData("spGetTheData ...") Dim i As Integer For i = 0 To dt.Rows.Length - 1 '(not sure why we do not use a for each here)' gridRow = grid.Rows.Add() gridRow(constantProductID).Value = dt("ProductID").Value gridRow(constantProductDesc).Value = dt("ProductDescription").Value Next '(I am probably missing something in the code, but that is basically it)' Our team lead was saying that he got burned using data binding when working with Sheridan Grid controls, VB6, and ADO recordsets back in the nineties. He's not sure what the exact problem was, but he remembers that binding didn't work as expected and caused him some major problems. Since then, they haven't trusted data binding and load the data for all their controls by hand. The reason the conversation even came up was because I found data binding to be very simple and really liked separating the data presentation (in this case, the data grid) from the in-memory data source (in this case, the data table). "Loading" the data row by row into the grid seemed to break this distinction. I also observed that with the advent of XAML in WPF and Silverlight, data-binding seems like a must-have in order to be able to cleanly wire up a designer's XAML code with your data. When should I be cautious of using data-binding in .NET?

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• How to prevent linq-to-sql designer undo my changing

  - by anonim.developer

  Dear All, Thanks for your attention in advance, I’ve met an issue with LINQ-2-SQL designer in VS 2008 SP1 which has made me CRAZY. I use Linq2sql as my DAL. It seems Linq2sql speeds up coding in the first step but lots of issues arise in feature specifically with table or object inheritance. In this case I have a class Entity that all other entity classes generated by Linq2sql designer inherit from. public abstract class Entity { public virtual Guid ID { get; protected set; } } public partial class User : monius.Data.Entity { } And the following generated by L2S designer (DataModel.designer.cs) [Column(Storage = "_ID", AutoSync = AutoSync.OnInsert, DbType = "UniqueIdentifier NOT NULL", IsPrimaryKey = true, IsDbGenerated = true, UpdateCheck = UpdateCheck.Never)] [DataMember(Order = 1)] public System.Guid ID { get { return this._ID; } set { if ((this._ID != value)) { this.OnIDChanging(value); this.SendPropertyChanging(); this._ID = value; this.SendPropertyChanged("ID"); this.OnIDChanged(); } } } When I compile the code VS warns me that Warning 1 'User.ID' hides inherited member 'Entity.ID'. To make the current member override that mplementation, add the override keyword. Otherwise add the new keyword. That warning is obvious and I have to change the code generated by L2S designer (DataModel.designer.cs) to […] public override System.Guid ID { … protected set … } And the code compiled with no error or warning and everyone is happy. But that is not the end of story. As soon as I made changes to entities of the diagram (dbml) or even I open dbml file to view it, any change manually I made to designer has been vanished and POOF! Redo AGAIN. That is a painful job. Now I wonder if there is a way to force L2S designer not changing portions of auto-generated code. I’ll be appreciated if someone kindly helps me with this issue.

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• Legitimate uses of the Function constructor

  - by Marcel Korpel

  As repeatedly said, it is considered bad practice to use the Function constructor (also see the ECMAScript Language Specification, 5th edition, § 15.3.2.1): new Function ([arg1[, arg2[, … argN]],] functionBody) (where all arguments are strings containing argument names and the last (or only) string contains the function body). To recapitulate, it is said to be slow, as explained by the Opera team: Each time […] the Function constructor is called on a string representing source code, the script engine must start the machinery that converts the source code to executable code. This is usually expensive for performance – easily a hundred times more expensive than a simple function call, for example. (Mark ‘Tarquin’ Wilton-Jones) Though it's not that bad, according to this post on MDC (I didn't test this myself using the current version of Firefox, though). Crockford adds that [t]he quoting conventions of the language make it very difficult to correctly express a function body as a string. In the string form, early error checking cannot be done. […] And it is wasteful of memory because each function requires its own independent implementation. Another difference is that a function defined by a Function constructor does not inherit any scope other than the global scope (which all functions inherit). (MDC) Apart from this, you have to be attentive to avoid injection of malicious code, when you create a new Function using dynamic contents. Lots of disadvantages and it is intelligible that ECMAScript 5 discourages the use of the Function constructor by throwing an exception when using it in strict mode (§ 13.1). That said, T.J. Crowder says in an answer that [t]here's almost never any need for the similar […] new Function(...), either, again except for some advanced edge cases. So, now I am wondering: what are these “advanced edge cases”? Are there legitimate uses of the Function constructor?

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• XMLHttpRequest open() returning access denied

  - by rjovic

  Hi! I have problem with xhr open() method. My code follows : var xmlhttp=false; if(!xmlhttp) try { xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } catch(e) { xmlhttp=false; } function returnPage(url) { if(!xmlhttp) return alert("Your browser doesn't seem to support XMLHttpRequests."); xmlhttp.open("GET",url,true); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if(xmlhttp.readyState!=4) return; if(!xmlhttp.status||xmlhttp.status==200) alert(xmlhttp.responseText); else alert("Request failed!"); }; //onreadystatechange xmlhttp.send(null); } Call : <a href='#' onclick="returnPage('http://www.something.com'); return false;">Link 1</a></p> I'm using IE8 (because I'm building web slice) and I received error "Access denied". I found on the Internet that problem is that XHR isn't working across different domains, but I used code from Firefox Add-on which is working OK. And that add-on and "my" code (which are the same) are calling the same page. How that add-on have access and my code not?

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• Simplest way to automatically alter "const" value in Java during compile time

  - by Michael Mao

  Hi all: This is a question corresponds to my uni assignment so I am very sorry to say I cannot adopt any one of the following best practices in a short time -- you know -- assignment is due tomorrow :( link to Best way to alter const in Java on StackOverflow Basically the only task (I hope so) left for me is the performance tuning. I've got a bunch of predefined "const" values in my single-class agent source code like this: //static final values private static final long FT_THRESHOLD = 400; private static final long FT_THRESHOLD_MARGIN = 50; private static final long FT_SMOOTH_PRICE_IDICATOR = 20; private static final long FT_BUY_PRICE_MODIFIER = 0; private static final long FT_LAST_ROUNDS_STARTTIME = 90; private static final long FT_AMOUNT_ADJUST_MODIFIER = 5; private static final long FT_HISTORY_PIRCES_LENGTH = 10; private static final long FT_TRACK_DURATION = 5; private static final int MAX_BED_BID_NUM_PER_AUC = 12; I can definitely alter the values manually and then compile the code to give it another go around. But the execution time for a thorough "statistic analysis" usually requires over 2000 times of execution, which will typically lasts more than half an hour on my own laptop... So I hope there is a way to alter values using other ways than dig into the source code to change the "const" values there, so I can automatically distributed compiled code to other people's PC and let them run the statistic analysis instead. One other reason for a automatically value adjustment is that I can try using my own agent to defeat itself by choosing different "const" values. Although my values are derived from previous history and statistical results, they are far from the most optimized values. I hope there is a easy way so I can quickly adopt that so to have a good sleep tonight while the computer does everything for me... :) Any hints on this sort of stuff? Any suggestion is welcomed and much appreciated.

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• Reducing Time Complexity in Java

  - by Koeneuze

  Right, this is from an older exam which i'm using to prepare my own exam in january. We are given the following method: public static void Oorspronkelijk() { String bs = "Dit is een boodschap aan de wereld"; int max = -1; char let = '*'; for (int i=0;i<bs.length();i++) { int tel = 1; for (int j=i+1;j<bs.length();j++) { if (bs.charAt(j) == bs.charAt(i)) tel++; } if (tel > max) { max = tel; let = bs.charAt(i); } } System.out.println(max + " keer " + let); } The questions are: what is the output? - Since the code is just an algorithm to determine the most occuring character, the output is "6 keer " (6 times space) What is the time complexity of this code? Fairly sure it's O(n²), unless someone thinks otherwise? Can you reduce the time complexity, and if so, how? Well, you can. I've received some help already and managed to get the following code: public static void Nieuw() { String bs = "Dit is een boodschap aan de wereld"; HashMap<Character, Integer> letters = new HashMap<Character, Integer>(); char max = bs.charAt(0); for (int i=0;i<bs.length();i++) { char let = bs.charAt(i); if(!letters.containsKey(let)) { letters.put(let,0); } int tel = letters.get(let)+1; letters.put(let,tel); if(letters.get(max)<tel) { max = let; } } System.out.println(letters.get(max) + " keer " + max); } However, I'm uncertain of the time complexity of this new code: Is it O(n) because you only use one for-loop, or does the fact we require the use of the HashMap's get methods make it O(n log n) ? And if someone knows an even better way of reducing the time complexity, please do tell! :)

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• Django + Virtualenv: manage.py commands fail with ImportError of project name.

  - by Bartek

  This is blowing my mind because it's probably an easy solution, but I can't figure out what could be causing this. So I have a new dev box and am setting everything up. I installed virtualenv, created a new environment for my project under ~/.virtualenvs/projectname Then, I cloned my project from github into my projects directory. Nothing fancy here. There are no .pyc files sitting around so it's a clean slate of code. Then, I activated my virtualenv and installed Django via pip. All looks good so far. Then, I run python manage.py syncdb within my project dir. This is where I get confused: ImportError: No module named projectname So I figured I may have had some references of projectname within my code. So I grep (ack, actually) through my code base and I find nothing of the sorts. So now I'm at a loss, given this environment why am I getting an ImportError on a module named projectname that isn't referenced anywhere in my code? I look forward to a solution .. thanks guys!

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• firefox lead dot in cookie issue

  - by Jon

  Hi all, We are having an annoying issue with Firefox and cookies. We have the following domains: sub1.mydomain.com sub2.mydomain.com sub3.mydomain.com otherdomain.com We have converting our framework to be multilingual and providing a drop down to change the language at any point during site. The code base is shared across all the domains above. We can not set a cookie across all "mydomain.com" sites, they have to be on each of the sub domains. To get this to work we set a JavaScript cookie when the users chooses a new language. When the page posts back to the server the code picks this up and sets the users preferences to that new language code, (this is all C# and ASP.NET). We have to set the host to be "subX.mydomain.com" and the path to be "/" in the cookie so that it is just for the subdomain and all parts of that domain. This works great on all browsers apart from FireFox. It seems that firefox will pre append a DOT to the beginning of domain so ".subX.mydomain.com". When the code posts back with FireFox the cookie is always null. Has anyone had this situation, (I imagine it is not al that uncommon). I have read a lot of people saying, remove the domain from the cookie, but that can not work for us as we have multiple subdomains that need their own cookie values. Thanks

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• Rails routing problem

  - by Steve

  I am new to Rails routing and I currently have a problem and hope someone can explain it to me. I am using Rails 2.3.5 Firstly, let me describe my working-fine code: I have a text example, which has a controller (cars_controller) with an update action (along with some other actions). The update action needs the :id parameter. The edit.html.erb has a form: <% form_for :car, :url = {:controller = 'cars', :action = 'update' } % ... # rest of the form content. In the configuration/routes.rb, I have a self-defined routing rule for update: map.connect 'car/update/:id', :controller = 'cars', :action = 'update' This works fine. Secondly, I change the code. All I change is the self-defined routing rule to map.connect 'car/:action/:id, :controller = 'cars' To me, this rule covers the self-written routing rule. Of course, this rule is also used by other actions such as edit. But the edit.html.erb doesn't work. It complains that update action misses the :id parameter. I have to change the form_for helper to: <% form_for :car, :url = {:controller = 'cars', :action = 'update', :id = @car }% ... # @car is the instance passed to edit view. I know that if missing the :id parameter, update action will complain. What I don't understand is why my first code works (with my self-defined routing rule) but my second code fails. It seems to me that I didn't provide :id parameter in my self-defined routing rule. Anyone has an idea?

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• Executing javascript script after ajax-loaded a page - doesn't work

  - by Deukalion

  I'm trying to get a page with AJAX, but when I get that page and it includes Javascript code - it doesn't execute it. Why? Simple code in my ajax page: <script type="text/javascript"> alert("Hello"); </script> ...and it doesn't execute it. I'm trying to use Google Maps API and add markers with AJAX, so whenever I add one I execute a AJAX page that gets the new marker, stores it in a database and should add the marker "dynamically" to the map. But since I can't execute a single javascript function this way, what do I do? Is my functions that I've defined on the page beforehand protected or private? ** UPDATED WITH AJAX FUNCTION ** function ajaxExecute(id, link, query) { if (query != null) { query = query.replace("amp;", ""); } if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { // code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else { // code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { if (id != null) { document.getElementById(id).innerHTML=xmlhttp.responseText; } } } if (query == null) { xmlhttp.open("GET",link,true); } else { if (query.substr(0, 1) != "?") { xmlhttp.open("GET",link+"?"+query,true); } else { xmlhttp.open("GET",link+query,true); } } xmlhttp.send(); }

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• how avoids deadlock condition

  - by rima

  Hi I try to write a program like a compiler.In this case I must simulate these codes of SQLPL(This one can be just for example).for example in command prompt i wana do these: c:\> sqlplus .... Enter User-Name:(here we must enter username) xxxx Enter password:(same up)yyyyy ... sql>(now i want to send my sql command to shell)prompt "rima"; "rima" [<-output] sql> prompt "xxxx" sql> exit very simple. I try to use this code: ProcessStartInfo psi = new ProcessStartInfo( @"sqlplus"); psi.UseShellExecute = false; psi.CreateNoWindow = true; psi.RedirectStandardInput = true; psi.RedirectStandardOutput = true; //psi.RedirectStandardError = true; Process process = new Process(); process.StartInfo = psi; bool started = process.Start(); if (started) { process.StandardInput.WriteLine("user/password"); process.StandardInput.Flush(); string ret = process.StandardOutput.ReadLine(); // <-- stalls here System.Console.WriteLine("sqlplus says :" + ret + "\"."); } i find out it form here but as if u read this code has problem!DEADLOCK Condition problem! this is my second time i ask my question,every time my knowledge growing,but i cant get how I can solve my problem at last!!! So I kindly kiss your hand,please help me,these process is not clear for me.any one can give me a code that handle my problem?Already i look at all codes,also I try to use ProcessRunner that in my last post some one offer me,but I cant use it also,i receive an error. I hope by first example u find out what i want,and solve the second code problem... thanks I use C# for implemantation

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• C# webservice async callback not getting called on HTTP 407 error.

  - by Ben

  Hi, I am trying to test the use-case of a customer having a proxy with login credentials, trying to use our webservice from our client. If the request is synchronous, my job is easy. Catch the WebException, check for the 407 code, and prompt the user for the login credentials. However, for async requests, I seem to be running into a problem: the callback is never getting called! I ran a wireshark trace and did indeed see that the HTTP 407 error was being passed back, so I am bewildered as to what to do. Here is the code that sets up the callback and starts the request: TravelService.TravelServiceImplService svc = new TravelService.TravelServiceImplService(); svc.Url = svcUrl; svc.CreateEventCompleted += CbkCreateEventCompleted; svc.CreateEventAsync(crReq, req); And the code that was generated when I consumed the WSDL: public void CreateEventAsync(TravelServiceCreateEventRequest CreateEventRequest, object userState) { if ((this.CreateEventOperationCompleted == null)) { this.CreateEventOperationCompleted = new System.Threading.SendOrPostCallback(this.OnCreateEventOperationCompleted); } this.InvokeAsync("CreateEvent", new object[] { CreateEventRequest}, this.CreateEventOperationCompleted, userState); } private void OnCreateEventOperationCompleted(object arg) { if ((this.CreateEventCompleted != null)) { System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs invokeArgs = ((System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs)(arg)); this.CreateEventCompleted(this, new CreateEventCompletedEventArgs(invokeArgs.Results, invokeArgs.Error, invokeArgs.Cancelled, invokeArgs.UserState)); } } Debugging the WS code, I found that even the SoapHttpClientProtocol.InvokeAsync method was not calling its callback as well. Am I missing some sort of configuration?

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• how to enable iFrame designMode in a local webpage without using the localhost server?

  - by vjk2005

  The code... <html> <body> <iframe id="editableFrame"></iframe> <script type="text/javascript"> editableFrame.document.designMode="on"; </script> </body> </html> gets the iFrame editable only when run off a server(http://...)(online or from localhost). How do I get this working by simply opening it up as a local html file(file:///...) in the browser? Some browser specific notes: 1. Firefox needs slightly different code to enable designMode but the problem still remains. 2. IE8 gets me the behavior I want with this code, but it pops up a warning about enabling ActiveX controls which the user must accept before getting the iFrame editable. 3. Opera 10.5 is the only browser that has the behavior I want... iFrames are editable without needing to run the code off a server.

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• .NET: How to know when serialization is completed?

  - by Ian Boyd

  When I construct my control (which inherits DataGrid), I add specific rows and columns. This works great at design time. Unfortunately, at runtime I add my rows and columns in the same constructor, but then the DataGrid is serialized (after the constructor runs) adding more rows and columns. After serialization is complete, I need to clear everything and re-initialize the rows and columns. Is there a protected method that I can override to know when the control is done serializing? Of course, I'd prefer to not have to do the work in the constructor, throw it away, and do it again after (potential) serialization. Is there a preferred event that is the equivalent of "set yourself up now", so that it is called once whether I'm serialized or not? The serialization i speak of comes from the InitializeComponent() method in the form's code-behind file. #region Windows Form Designer generated code /// <summary> /// Required method for Designer support - do not modify /// the contents of this method with the code editor. /// </summary> private void InitializeComponent() { ... } It would have been perfect if InitializeComponent was a virtual method defined by Control, then i could just override it and then perform my processing after i call base: protected override void InitializeComponent() { base.InitializeComponent(); InitializeMe(); } But it's not an ancestor method, it's declared only in the code-behind file. i notice that InitializeComponent calls SuspendLayout and ResumeLayout on various Controls. i thought it could override ResumeLayout, and perform my initialization then: public override void ResumeLayout() { base.ResumeLayout(); InitializeMe(); } But ResumeLayout is not virtual, so that's out. Anymore ideas? i can't be the first person to create a custom control.

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• Backdoor in OpenBSD how is it that no developer saw it ? And what about other Linux ? [closed]

  - by user310291

  It had been revealed that there have been backdoor implanted in OpenBSD http://www.infoworld.com/d/developer-world/software-security-honesty-the-best-policy-285 OpenBSD is opensource, how is it that nobody in the community developper could see it in the source code ? So how can one trust all the other "opensource" Linux Of course OpenBSD is only a case, the point is not about OpenBSD, it is about opensource in general. my question is not about Openbsd per se it's about source code os inspection especially c/c++ since most are written in these languages. Also once the source is compiled how one can be sure that it really reflects the source code ? If a law requires that a backdoor being implanted and obliges to deny that kind of action under the guise of security, how can you be sure that the system has not been corrupted by some tools ? As said there is there is a "nondisclosure agreement" My guess is that 99.99% of developpers in the world are just incapable of understanding os source code and won't even bother to look at it. And above all nobody wonders about why the gov wants such massive backdoor, and that of course they will pressure medias to deny.

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