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• Is it possible to use 2 versions of jQuery on the same page?

  - by Ben McCormack

  NOTE: I know similar questions have already been asked here and here, but I'm looking for additional clarification as to how to make this work. I'm adding functionality to an existing web site that is already using an older version of the jQuery library (1.1.3.1). I've been writing my added functionality against the newest version of the jQuery library (1.4.2). I've tested the website using only the newer version of jQuery and it breaks functionality, so now I'm looking at using both versions on the same page. How is this possible? What do I need to do in my code to specify that I'm using one version of jQuery instead of another? For example, I'll put <script> tags for both versions of jQuery in the header of my page, but what do I need to do so that I know for sure in my calling code that I'm calling one version of the library or another? Maybe something like this: //Put some code here to specify a variable that will be using the newer //version of jquery: var $NEW = jQuery.theNewestVersion(); //Now when I use $NEW, I'll know it's the newest version and won't //conflict with the older version. $NEW('#personName').text('Ben'); //And when I use the original $ in code, or simply 'jquery', I'll know //it's the older version. $('#personName').doSomethingWithTheOlderVersion();

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• When should I be cautious using data binding in .NET?

  - by Ben McCormack

  I just started working on a small team of .NET programmers about a month ago and recently got in a discussion with our team lead regarding why we don't use databinding at all in our code. Every time we work with a data grid, we iterate through a data table and populate the grid row by row; the code usually looks something like this: Dim dt as DataTable = FuncLib.GetData("spGetTheData ...") Dim i As Integer For i = 0 To dt.Rows.Length - 1 '(not sure why we do not use a for each here)' gridRow = grid.Rows.Add() gridRow(constantProductID).Value = dt("ProductID").Value gridRow(constantProductDesc).Value = dt("ProductDescription").Value Next '(I am probably missing something in the code, but that is basically it)' Our team lead was saying that he got burned using data binding when working with Sheridan Grid controls, VB6, and ADO recordsets back in the nineties. He's not sure what the exact problem was, but he remembers that binding didn't work as expected and caused him some major problems. Since then, they haven't trusted data binding and load the data for all their controls by hand. The reason the conversation even came up was because I found data binding to be very simple and really liked separating the data presentation (in this case, the data grid) from the in-memory data source (in this case, the data table). "Loading" the data row by row into the grid seemed to break this distinction. I also observed that with the advent of XAML in WPF and Silverlight, data-binding seems like a must-have in order to be able to cleanly wire up a designer's XAML code with your data. When should I be cautious of using data-binding in .NET?

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• Android 1.5/1.6 issue with style and autogenerated R.java file

  - by Gaks

  I'm having strange issue with R.java file and styles defined in my resources. Here's some code: In res/values/strings.xml: <style parent="android:Theme.Dialog" name="PopupWindowStyle"> <item name="android:windowBackground">@drawable/bg1</item> <item name="android:textColor">@android:color/black</item> </style> In AndroidManifest.xml: <activity android:name=".RegisterScreen" android:icon="@drawable/ico" android:label="@string/applicationName" android:theme="@style/PopupWindowStyle" android:configChanges="locale|touchscreen|keyboard|keyboardHidden|navigation|orientation|fontScale"> </activity> In autogenerated gen/.../R.java: public static final class style { public static final int PopupWindowStyle=0x7f090000; } After some changes in the project, eclipse changed autogenerated value for PopupWindowStyle from 0x7f080000 to 0x7f090000. After that, on Android 1.5, RegisterScreen activity is displayed without PopupWindowStyle style - there is an error displayed in logcat: Skipping entry 0x7f090000 in package table 0 because it is not complex! On Android 1.6 however everything works fine - PopupWindowStyle works like it was before it's integer value has changed. I was testing this issue, by reverting the source code to older revisions. I can confirm, that this problem started occurring after src code commit, which changed two files completely unrelated to this part of code - and an autogenerated R.java file. Any idea what could cause that?

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• How do I prevent a C# method from executing using an attribute validator?

  - by Boydski

  I'd like to create an attribute-based validator that goes a few steps beyond what I've seen in examples. It'll basically prevent methods or other functionality from executing. Please be aware that I'm having to use AzMan since I have no availability to Active Directory in this scenario. Here's some pseudo code of what what I'm looking for: // Attribute validator class AttributeUsage is arbitrary at this point and may include other items [AttributeUsage( AttributeTargets.Method | AttributeTargets.Property, AllowMultiple = true, Inherited = true )] public class PermissionsValidatorAttribute : Attribute { public PermissionsValidatorAttribute(PermissionEnumeration permission){...} public bool UserCanCreateAndEdit(){...} public bool UserCanDelete(){...} public bool UserCanUpload(){...} } Here's a sample of a class/member that'll be decorated. The method will not be executed at all if the PermissionValidator.UserCanDelete() doesn't return true from wherever it's executed: public class DoStuffNeedingPermissions { [PermissionValidator(PermissionEnumeration.MustHaveDeletePermission)] public void DeleteSomething(){...} } I know this is a simple, incomplete example. But you should get the gist of what I'm needing. Make the assumption that DeleteSomething() already exists and I'm preferring to NOT modify the code within the method at all. I'm currently looking at things like the Validation Application Block and am messing with custom attribute POC's. But I'd love to hear opinions with code samples from everyone out there. I'm also certainly not opposed to other methods of accomplishing the same thing such as extension methods or whatever may work to accomplish the same thing. Please remember I'm making the attempt to minimize changes to existing DoStuffNeedingPermissions code. Thanks everyone!

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• Python subprocess Popen.communicate() equivalent to Popen.stdout.read()?

  - by Christophe

  Very specific question (I hope): What are the differences between the following three codes? (I expect it to be only that the first does not wait for the child process to be finished, while the second and third ones do. But I need to be sure this is the only difference...) I also welcome other remarks/suggestions (though I'm already well aware of the shell=True dangers and cross-platform limitations) Note that I already read Python subprocess interaction, why does my process work with Popen.communicate, but not Popen.stdout.read()? and that I do not want/need to interact with the program after. Also note that I already read Alternatives to Python Popen.communicate() memory limitations? but that I didn't really get it... First code: from subprocess import Popen, PIPE def exe_f(command='ls -l', shell=True): "Function to execute a command and return stuff" process = Popen(command, shell=shell, stdout=PIPE, stderr=PIPE) stdout = process.stdout.read() stderr = process.stderr.read() return process, stderr, stdout Second code: from subprocess import Popen, PIPE from subprocess import communicate def exe_f(command='ls -l', shell=True): "Function to execute a command and return stuff" process = Popen(command, shell=shell, stdout=PIPE, stderr=PIPE) (stdout, stderr) = process.communicate() return process, stderr, stdout Third code: from subprocess import Popen, PIPE from subprocess import wait def exe_f(command='ls -l', shell=True): "Function to execute a command and return stuff" process = Popen(command, shell=shell, stdout=PIPE, stderr=PIPE) code = process.wait() stdout = process.stdout.read() stderr = process.stderr.read() return process, stderr, stdout Thanks.

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• radio buttons and cookie settings

  - by Cola

  I don't know nothing about cookies and how to set them and i need some advice. I have this 2 radio buttons. For example if an option is changed from one to another, that option will remain even if the page is refreshed or changed on other pages where this radio buttons exist , and i need to make the cookie setting for this code. Can someone can give me an advice what code should i add to my php? thanks This is js code: $(document).ready(function() { $('radio[name=radio]').each(function() { $(this).click(function() { my_function(); }); }); }); my_function() { var value_checked = $("input[name='radio']:checked").val(); $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: 'page.php', data: {'value_checked':value_checked}, }); } html code <form> <div id="radio"> <input type="radio" id="radio1" name="radio" checked="checked" /><label for="radio1">Choice 1</label> <input type="radio" id="radio2" name="radio" /><label for="radio2">Choice 2</label> </div> </form>

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• Proper Usage of SqlConnection in .NET

  - by Jojo

  Hi guys, I just want an opinion on the proper usage or a proper design with regards to using SqlConnection object. Which of the 2 below is the best use: A data provider class whose methods (each of them) contain SqlConnection object (and disposed when done). Like: IList<Employee> GetAllEmployees() { using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(this.connectionString)) { // Code goes here... } } Employee GetEmployee(int id) { using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(this.connectionString)) { // Code goes here... } } or SqlConnection connection; // initialized in constructor IList<Employee> GetAllEmployees() { this.TryOpenConnection(); // tries to open member SqlConnection instance // Code goes here... this.CloseConnection(); // return } Employee GetEmployee(int id) { this.TryOpenConnection(); // tries to open member SqlConnection instance // Code goes here... this.CloseConnection(); // return } Or is there a better approach than this? I have a focused web crawler type of application and this application will crawl 50 or more websites simultaneously (multithreaded) with each website contained in a crawler object and each crawler object has an instance of a data provider class (above). Please advise. Thanks.

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• Object suddenly missing from HttpServletRequest

  - by Jeune

  I print a list directly in the servlet using the print writer and the list prints. When I try to put in the jsp however the list doesn't print whether I use JSTL or scriptlets. I tried to test in JSTL and scriptlet if the object is null and turns out that it is! Why does this happen and how can I fix this? Servlet code that works for (Artist artist:artists){ resp.getWriter().println(artist.getName()); } Servlet code that puts object in the request public void doGet(HttpServletRequest req, HttpServletResponse resp) throws IOException { ApplicationContext ctx = new ClassPathXmlApplicationContext("com/helloworld/beans/helloworld-context.xml"); ArtistDao artistDao = (ArtistDao) ctx.getBean("artistDao"); List<Artist> artists = null; try { artists = artistDao.getAll(); } catch (SQLException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } req.setAttribute("artists", artists); try { req.getRequestDispatcher("index.jsp").forward(req, resp); } catch (ServletException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } scriptlet code that suddenly finds the object null <% List<Artist> artists = (List<Artist>) request.getAttribute("artists"); if (artists == null) { out.println("artists null"); } else { for (Artist artist: artists){ out.println(artist.getName()); } } %> Even the jstl code seems to agree <c:if test="${artists eq null}"> Artists are null </c:if> <c:forEach var="artist" items="${artists}"> ${artist.name} </c:forEach> For my app I am using weblogic, spring 2.5.6 and ibatis.

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• XMLHttpRequest open() returning access denied

  - by rjovic

  Hi! I have problem with xhr open() method. My code follows : var xmlhttp=false; if(!xmlhttp) try { xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } catch(e) { xmlhttp=false; } function returnPage(url) { if(!xmlhttp) return alert("Your browser doesn't seem to support XMLHttpRequests."); xmlhttp.open("GET",url,true); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if(xmlhttp.readyState!=4) return; if(!xmlhttp.status||xmlhttp.status==200) alert(xmlhttp.responseText); else alert("Request failed!"); }; //onreadystatechange xmlhttp.send(null); } Call : <a href='#' onclick="returnPage('http://www.something.com'); return false;">Link 1</a></p> I'm using IE8 (because I'm building web slice) and I received error "Access denied". I found on the Internet that problem is that XHR isn't working across different domains, but I used code from Firefox Add-on which is working OK. And that add-on and "my" code (which are the same) are calling the same page. How that add-on have access and my code not?

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• .NET: How to know when serialization is completed?

  - by Ian Boyd

  When I construct my control (which inherits DataGrid), I add specific rows and columns. This works great at design time. Unfortunately, at runtime I add my rows and columns in the same constructor, but then the DataGrid is serialized (after the constructor runs) adding more rows and columns. After serialization is complete, I need to clear everything and re-initialize the rows and columns. Is there a protected method that I can override to know when the control is done serializing? Of course, I'd prefer to not have to do the work in the constructor, throw it away, and do it again after (potential) serialization. Is there a preferred event that is the equivalent of "set yourself up now", so that it is called once whether I'm serialized or not? The serialization i speak of comes from the InitializeComponent() method in the form's code-behind file. #region Windows Form Designer generated code /// <summary> /// Required method for Designer support - do not modify /// the contents of this method with the code editor. /// </summary> private void InitializeComponent() { ... } It would have been perfect if InitializeComponent was a virtual method defined by Control, then i could just override it and then perform my processing after i call base: protected override void InitializeComponent() { base.InitializeComponent(); InitializeMe(); } But it's not an ancestor method, it's declared only in the code-behind file. i notice that InitializeComponent calls SuspendLayout and ResumeLayout on various Controls. i thought it could override ResumeLayout, and perform my initialization then: public override void ResumeLayout() { base.ResumeLayout(); InitializeMe(); } But ResumeLayout is not virtual, so that's out. Anymore ideas? i can't be the first person to create a custom control.

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• Reducing Time Complexity in Java

  - by Koeneuze

  Right, this is from an older exam which i'm using to prepare my own exam in january. We are given the following method: public static void Oorspronkelijk() { String bs = "Dit is een boodschap aan de wereld"; int max = -1; char let = '*'; for (int i=0;i<bs.length();i++) { int tel = 1; for (int j=i+1;j<bs.length();j++) { if (bs.charAt(j) == bs.charAt(i)) tel++; } if (tel > max) { max = tel; let = bs.charAt(i); } } System.out.println(max + " keer " + let); } The questions are: what is the output? - Since the code is just an algorithm to determine the most occuring character, the output is "6 keer " (6 times space) What is the time complexity of this code? Fairly sure it's O(n²), unless someone thinks otherwise? Can you reduce the time complexity, and if so, how? Well, you can. I've received some help already and managed to get the following code: public static void Nieuw() { String bs = "Dit is een boodschap aan de wereld"; HashMap<Character, Integer> letters = new HashMap<Character, Integer>(); char max = bs.charAt(0); for (int i=0;i<bs.length();i++) { char let = bs.charAt(i); if(!letters.containsKey(let)) { letters.put(let,0); } int tel = letters.get(let)+1; letters.put(let,tel); if(letters.get(max)<tel) { max = let; } } System.out.println(letters.get(max) + " keer " + max); } However, I'm uncertain of the time complexity of this new code: Is it O(n) because you only use one for-loop, or does the fact we require the use of the HashMap's get methods make it O(n log n) ? And if someone knows an even better way of reducing the time complexity, please do tell! :)

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• how avoids deadlock condition

  - by rima

  Hi I try to write a program like a compiler.In this case I must simulate these codes of SQLPL(This one can be just for example).for example in command prompt i wana do these: c:\> sqlplus .... Enter User-Name:(here we must enter username) xxxx Enter password:(same up)yyyyy ... sql>(now i want to send my sql command to shell)prompt "rima"; "rima" [<-output] sql> prompt "xxxx" sql> exit very simple. I try to use this code: ProcessStartInfo psi = new ProcessStartInfo( @"sqlplus"); psi.UseShellExecute = false; psi.CreateNoWindow = true; psi.RedirectStandardInput = true; psi.RedirectStandardOutput = true; //psi.RedirectStandardError = true; Process process = new Process(); process.StartInfo = psi; bool started = process.Start(); if (started) { process.StandardInput.WriteLine("user/password"); process.StandardInput.Flush(); string ret = process.StandardOutput.ReadLine(); // <-- stalls here System.Console.WriteLine("sqlplus says :" + ret + "\"."); } i find out it form here but as if u read this code has problem!DEADLOCK Condition problem! this is my second time i ask my question,every time my knowledge growing,but i cant get how I can solve my problem at last!!! So I kindly kiss your hand,please help me,these process is not clear for me.any one can give me a code that handle my problem?Already i look at all codes,also I try to use ProcessRunner that in my last post some one offer me,but I cant use it also,i receive an error. I hope by first example u find out what i want,and solve the second code problem... thanks I use C# for implemantation

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• Rails routing problem

  - by Steve

  I am new to Rails routing and I currently have a problem and hope someone can explain it to me. I am using Rails 2.3.5 Firstly, let me describe my working-fine code: I have a text example, which has a controller (cars_controller) with an update action (along with some other actions). The update action needs the :id parameter. The edit.html.erb has a form: <% form_for :car, :url = {:controller = 'cars', :action = 'update' } % ... # rest of the form content. In the configuration/routes.rb, I have a self-defined routing rule for update: map.connect 'car/update/:id', :controller = 'cars', :action = 'update' This works fine. Secondly, I change the code. All I change is the self-defined routing rule to map.connect 'car/:action/:id, :controller = 'cars' To me, this rule covers the self-written routing rule. Of course, this rule is also used by other actions such as edit. But the edit.html.erb doesn't work. It complains that update action misses the :id parameter. I have to change the form_for helper to: <% form_for :car, :url = {:controller = 'cars', :action = 'update', :id = @car }% ... # @car is the instance passed to edit view. I know that if missing the :id parameter, update action will complain. What I don't understand is why my first code works (with my self-defined routing rule) but my second code fails. It seems to me that I didn't provide :id parameter in my self-defined routing rule. Anyone has an idea?

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• android python full integration

  - by Grzegorz Oledzki

  Is there a way to fully integrate Python with Java code on Android platform? Yes, I saw the question about running Python on Android and Android Scripting Environment (ASE). But that doesn't seem to be enough (correct me if I am wrong). I wanted to be able not only to invoke a Python script from within Java code, but have a full integration. The feature I need the most is the ability to have a state of execution of python code saved and be able to run several parts of code on demand against the same execution state. On JavaSE I would rely on Jython. I believe its simplest example shows it all (and some other features too, like something I would call variable state introspection): http://www.jython.org/archive/21/docs/embedding.html PythonInterpreter interp = new PythonInterpreter(); System.out.println("Hello, brave new world"); interp.exec("import sys"); interp.exec("print sys"); interp.set("a", new PyInteger(42)); interp.exec("print a"); interp.exec("x = 2+2"); PyObject x = interp.get("x"); System.out.println("x: "+x); System.out.println("Goodbye, cruel world"); Is it possible on Android? Is ASE a way to go?

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• SQL: How do I INSERT primary key values from two tables INTO a master table.

  - by Stefan

  Hello, I would appreciate some help with an SQL statement I really can't get my head around. What I want to do is fairly simple, I need to take the values from two different tables and copy them into an master table when a new row is inserted into one of the two tables. The problem is perhaps best explained like this: I have three tables, productcategories, regioncategories and mastertable. --------------------------- TABLE: PRODUCTCATEGORIES --------------------------- COLUMNS: CODE | DESCRIPTION --------------------------- VALUES: BOOKS | Books --------------------------- --------------------------- TABLE: REGIONCATEGORIES --------------------------- COLUMNS: CODE | DESCRIPTION --------------------------- VALUES: EU | European Union --------------------------- --------------------------- TABLE: MASTERTABLE --------------------------- COLUMNS: REGION | PRODUCT --------------------------- VALUES: EU | BOOKS --------------------------- I want the values to be inserted like this when a new row is created in either productcategories or regioncategories. New row is created. --------------------------- TABLE: PRODUCTCATEGORIES --------------------------- COLUMNS: CODE | DESCRIPTION --------------------------- VALUES: BOOKS | Books --------------------------- VALUES: DVD | DVDs --------------------------- And a SQL statement copies the new values into the mastertable. --------------------------- TABLE: MASTERTABLE --------------------------- COLUMNS: REGION | PRODUCT --------------------------- VALUES: EU | BOOKS --------------------------- VALUES: EU | DVD --------------------------- The same goes if a row is created in the regioncategories. New row. --------------------------- TABLE: REGIONCATEGORIES --------------------------- COLUMNS: CODE | DESCRIPTION --------------------------- VALUES: EU | European Union --------------------------- VALUES: US | United States --------------------------- Copied to the mastertable. --------------------------- TABLE: MASTERTABLE --------------------------- COLUMNS: REGION | PRODUCT --------------------------- VALUES: EU | BOOKS --------------------------- VALUES: EU | DVD --------------------------- VALUES: US | BOOKS --------------------------- VALUES: US | DVD --------------------------- I hope it makes sense. Thanks, Stefan

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• phpUnit - mock php extended exception object

  - by awongh

  I'm testing some legacy code that extends the default php exception object. This code prints out a custom HTML error message. I would like to mock this exception object in such a way that when the tested code generates an exception it will just echo the basic message instead of giving me the whole HTML message. I cannot figure out a way to do this. It seems like you can test for explicit exceptions, but you can't change in a general way the behavior of an exception, and you also can't mock up an object that extends a default php functionality. ( can't think of another example of this beyond exceptions... but it would seem to be the case ) I guess the problem is, where would you attach the mocked object?? It seems like you can't interfere with 'throw new' and this is the place that the object method is called.... Or if you could somehow use the existing phpunit exception functionality to change the exception behavior the way you want, in a general way for all your code... but this seems like it would be hacky and bad....

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• How to prevent linq-to-sql designer undo my changing

  - by anonim.developer

  Dear All, Thanks for your attention in advance, I’ve met an issue with LINQ-2-SQL designer in VS 2008 SP1 which has made me CRAZY. I use Linq2sql as my DAL. It seems Linq2sql speeds up coding in the first step but lots of issues arise in feature specifically with table or object inheritance. In this case I have a class Entity that all other entity classes generated by Linq2sql designer inherit from. public abstract class Entity { public virtual Guid ID { get; protected set; } } public partial class User : monius.Data.Entity { } And the following generated by L2S designer (DataModel.designer.cs) [Column(Storage = "_ID", AutoSync = AutoSync.OnInsert, DbType = "UniqueIdentifier NOT NULL", IsPrimaryKey = true, IsDbGenerated = true, UpdateCheck = UpdateCheck.Never)] [DataMember(Order = 1)] public System.Guid ID { get { return this._ID; } set { if ((this._ID != value)) { this.OnIDChanging(value); this.SendPropertyChanging(); this._ID = value; this.SendPropertyChanged("ID"); this.OnIDChanged(); } } } When I compile the code VS warns me that Warning 1 'User.ID' hides inherited member 'Entity.ID'. To make the current member override that mplementation, add the override keyword. Otherwise add the new keyword. That warning is obvious and I have to change the code generated by L2S designer (DataModel.designer.cs) to […] public override System.Guid ID { … protected set … } And the code compiled with no error or warning and everyone is happy. But that is not the end of story. As soon as I made changes to entities of the diagram (dbml) or even I open dbml file to view it, any change manually I made to designer has been vanished and POOF! Redo AGAIN. That is a painful job. Now I wonder if there is a way to force L2S designer not changing portions of auto-generated code. I’ll be appreciated if someone kindly helps me with this issue.

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• Django + Virtualenv: manage.py commands fail with ImportError of project name.

  - by Bartek

  This is blowing my mind because it's probably an easy solution, but I can't figure out what could be causing this. So I have a new dev box and am setting everything up. I installed virtualenv, created a new environment for my project under ~/.virtualenvs/projectname Then, I cloned my project from github into my projects directory. Nothing fancy here. There are no .pyc files sitting around so it's a clean slate of code. Then, I activated my virtualenv and installed Django via pip. All looks good so far. Then, I run python manage.py syncdb within my project dir. This is where I get confused: ImportError: No module named projectname So I figured I may have had some references of projectname within my code. So I grep (ack, actually) through my code base and I find nothing of the sorts. So now I'm at a loss, given this environment why am I getting an ImportError on a module named projectname that isn't referenced anywhere in my code? I look forward to a solution .. thanks guys!

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• How can I protect my .NET assemblies from decompilation?

  - by Holli

  One if the first things I learned when I started with C# was the most important one. You can decompile any .NET assembly with Reflector or other tools. Many developers are not aware of this fact and most of them are shocked when I show them their source code. Protection against decompilation is still a difficult task. I am still looking for a fast, easy and secure way to do it. I don't want to obfuscate my code so my method names will be a,b,c or so. Reflector or other tools should be unable to recognize my application as .NET assembly at all. I know about some tools already but they are very expensive. Is there any other way to protect my applications? EDIT: The reason for my question is not to prevent piracy. I only want to stop competitors from reading my code. I know they will and they already did. They even told me so. Maybe I am a bit paranoid but business rivals reading my code doesn't make me feel good.

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• Legitimate uses of the Function constructor

  - by Marcel Korpel

  As repeatedly said, it is considered bad practice to use the Function constructor (also see the ECMAScript Language Specification, 5th edition, § 15.3.2.1): new Function ([arg1[, arg2[, … argN]],] functionBody) (where all arguments are strings containing argument names and the last (or only) string contains the function body). To recapitulate, it is said to be slow, as explained by the Opera team: Each time […] the Function constructor is called on a string representing source code, the script engine must start the machinery that converts the source code to executable code. This is usually expensive for performance – easily a hundred times more expensive than a simple function call, for example. (Mark ‘Tarquin’ Wilton-Jones) Though it's not that bad, according to this post on MDC (I didn't test this myself using the current version of Firefox, though). Crockford adds that [t]he quoting conventions of the language make it very difficult to correctly express a function body as a string. In the string form, early error checking cannot be done. […] And it is wasteful of memory because each function requires its own independent implementation. Another difference is that a function defined by a Function constructor does not inherit any scope other than the global scope (which all functions inherit). (MDC) Apart from this, you have to be attentive to avoid injection of malicious code, when you create a new Function using dynamic contents. Lots of disadvantages and it is intelligible that ECMAScript 5 discourages the use of the Function constructor by throwing an exception when using it in strict mode (§ 13.1). That said, T.J. Crowder says in an answer that [t]here's almost never any need for the similar […] new Function(...), either, again except for some advanced edge cases. So, now I am wondering: what are these “advanced edge cases”? Are there legitimate uses of the Function constructor?

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• Simplest way to automatically alter "const" value in Java during compile time

  - by Michael Mao

  Hi all: This is a question corresponds to my uni assignment so I am very sorry to say I cannot adopt any one of the following best practices in a short time -- you know -- assignment is due tomorrow :( link to Best way to alter const in Java on StackOverflow Basically the only task (I hope so) left for me is the performance tuning. I've got a bunch of predefined "const" values in my single-class agent source code like this: //static final values private static final long FT_THRESHOLD = 400; private static final long FT_THRESHOLD_MARGIN = 50; private static final long FT_SMOOTH_PRICE_IDICATOR = 20; private static final long FT_BUY_PRICE_MODIFIER = 0; private static final long FT_LAST_ROUNDS_STARTTIME = 90; private static final long FT_AMOUNT_ADJUST_MODIFIER = 5; private static final long FT_HISTORY_PIRCES_LENGTH = 10; private static final long FT_TRACK_DURATION = 5; private static final int MAX_BED_BID_NUM_PER_AUC = 12; I can definitely alter the values manually and then compile the code to give it another go around. But the execution time for a thorough "statistic analysis" usually requires over 2000 times of execution, which will typically lasts more than half an hour on my own laptop... So I hope there is a way to alter values using other ways than dig into the source code to change the "const" values there, so I can automatically distributed compiled code to other people's PC and let them run the statistic analysis instead. One other reason for a automatically value adjustment is that I can try using my own agent to defeat itself by choosing different "const" values. Although my values are derived from previous history and statistical results, they are far from the most optimized values. I hope there is a easy way so I can quickly adopt that so to have a good sleep tonight while the computer does everything for me... :) Any hints on this sort of stuff? Any suggestion is welcomed and much appreciated.

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• C# webservice async callback not getting called on HTTP 407 error.

  - by Ben

  Hi, I am trying to test the use-case of a customer having a proxy with login credentials, trying to use our webservice from our client. If the request is synchronous, my job is easy. Catch the WebException, check for the 407 code, and prompt the user for the login credentials. However, for async requests, I seem to be running into a problem: the callback is never getting called! I ran a wireshark trace and did indeed see that the HTTP 407 error was being passed back, so I am bewildered as to what to do. Here is the code that sets up the callback and starts the request: TravelService.TravelServiceImplService svc = new TravelService.TravelServiceImplService(); svc.Url = svcUrl; svc.CreateEventCompleted += CbkCreateEventCompleted; svc.CreateEventAsync(crReq, req); And the code that was generated when I consumed the WSDL: public void CreateEventAsync(TravelServiceCreateEventRequest CreateEventRequest, object userState) { if ((this.CreateEventOperationCompleted == null)) { this.CreateEventOperationCompleted = new System.Threading.SendOrPostCallback(this.OnCreateEventOperationCompleted); } this.InvokeAsync("CreateEvent", new object[] { CreateEventRequest}, this.CreateEventOperationCompleted, userState); } private void OnCreateEventOperationCompleted(object arg) { if ((this.CreateEventCompleted != null)) { System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs invokeArgs = ((System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs)(arg)); this.CreateEventCompleted(this, new CreateEventCompletedEventArgs(invokeArgs.Results, invokeArgs.Error, invokeArgs.Cancelled, invokeArgs.UserState)); } } Debugging the WS code, I found that even the SoapHttpClientProtocol.InvokeAsync method was not calling its callback as well. Am I missing some sort of configuration?

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• Switching from form_for to remote_form_for problems with submit changes in Rails

  - by Matthias Günther

  Hi there, another day with Rails and today I want to use Ajax. linkt_remote_link for changing a text was pretty easy so I thought it would also be easy to switch my form_for loop just to an ajax request form with remote_form_for, but the problem with the remote_form_for is that it doesn't save my changes? Here the code that worked: <% form_for bill, :url => {:action => 'update', :id => bill.id} do |f| %> # make the processing e.g. displaying texfields and so on <%= submit_tag 'speichern'%> It produces the following html code: <form action="/adminbill/update/58" class="edit_bill" id="edit_bill_58" method="post"><div style="margin:0;padding:0;display:inline"><input name="_method" type="hidden" value="put" /></div> <!-- here the html things for the forms --> <input class="button" name="commit" type="submit" value="speichern" /> Here the code which don't save me the changes and submit them: <% remote_form_for bill, :url => {:action => 'update', :id => bill.id} do |f| %> # make the processing e.g. displaying texfields and so on <%= submit_tag 'speichern'%> It produces the following html code: <form action="/adminbill/update/58" class="edit_bill" id="edit_bill_58" method="post" onsubmit="$.ajax({data:$.param($(this).serializeArray()), dataType:'script', type:'post', url:'/adminbill/update/58'}); return false;"><div style="margin:0;padding:0;display:inline"><input name="_method" type="hidden" value="put" /></div> <!-- here the html things for the forms --> <input class="button" name="commit" type="submit" value="speichern" /> I don't know if I have to consider something special when using remote_form_for (see remote_form_for)

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• RegisterStartupScript not working after upgrading to framework 3.5

  - by AaronS

  I'm trying to upgrade an asp.net c# web project from framework 2.0 to 3.5. When I do this, the client side script that gets written using RegisterStartupScript isn't rendered on the client page. This works perfectly when I compile for 2.0, and for 3.0, but not when I compile for 3.5. Here is the code that isn't getting rendered: Page myPage = (Page)HttpContext.Current.Handler; ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(myPage, myPage.GetType(), "alertscript", "alert('test');", true); This is called from a class project, and not the web project itself, which is why I'm using the HttpContext.Current.Handler. There are no errors getting generated from the compiler, the CLR, and there are no client side JavaScript errors. If I do a search for the "alertscript" in my rendered page, the above code actually isn't there. Anyone have ideas as to what is going on? -Edit- This seems to be an issue when I'm trying to register the script from an external project. If I use the exact same code in a class file in the web project (not the code behind), it works. However, if I make a call to a method in a class from another project, it does not work. Does the ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript not get registered correctly if performed from somewhere besides the web project itself?

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• Separating Javascript functions

  - by msharma

  I am wondering how javascripts get included in a jsp - can we put any code which the jsp will recognize and not just javascript code only in the .js file? I have some common javascript code which needs to get executed on different pages, so I decided to place it in its own separate .js file and include it on all jsps which call that function. The js function now refers to a key from a properties file and some other non-javascript code: function openPrivacyStmntWindow(){ var url = <h:outputText escape="false" value="\"#{urls.url_privacyStatement}\";" /> newwindow=window.open(url,'Terms','height=600,width=800,left=300,top=100,scrollbars=1'); newwindow.focus(); return false; } This function worked just fine when it was included in the jsp itself. Now that I have separated it into its own file it doesnt, do I need to include the properties bundle in this file. The value="\"#{urls.url_privacyStatement}\";" is referring to a bundle called "urls" which has a key called "url_privacyStatement" Also in Line 1 var url = <h:outputText escape="false" value="\"#{urls.url_privacyStatement}\";" /> the <h:outputText escape="false" ... /> will it cause any issues? Thanks.

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