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• Have you had DLL's fail after upgrading to 64 bit server?

  - by quakkels

  Hey All, I'm wondering if anyone else has experienced failed DLL's after upgrading their servers. My company is in the process of upgrading our code and server's after ten years of using classic ASP. We've set up our new server running Windows 2008 and IIS 7. Our classic ASP code and our new asp.net mvc code work pretty well. Our problems started happening when we began moving our old websites to the new server. When trying to load the page on the actual server machine's browser, we initially got a 500 error. If we refreshed the page then some of the page would load but then display an error: Server object error 'ASP 0177 : 800401f3' Server.CreateObject Failed /folder/scriptname.asp, line 24 800401f3 btw: On remote machines we would just get 500 errors. Line 24 is the first executable code in the script: '23 lines of comments set A0SQL_DATA = server.createobject("olddllname.Data") 'the rest of the script That specific line is trying to use a ten year old DLL to create a server object. I don't think the server configuration is a problem because I'm able to create "adodb.recordset" server objects without any problems. Is there an issue when running correctly registered old DLL's on 64 bit systems? Is there a way to get old DLL's working on 64 bit systems?

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• Problem with displaying image from DB using asp.net MVC 2

  - by Renato

  Hello! I'm having trouble with displaying image from db. I think that method for saving image is working, because I see in DB that varbinary fields have some value, and that image type is correct. Also the size of image. But when I want to display image for product i don't get anything. Just blank space.. here is my code... public byte[] GetImage(int productID) { Product product = products.GetByID(productID); byte[] imageData = product.ImageData.ToArray(); return imageData; } That code is in my controller. Second is code from view : <% if (product.ImageData != null) { %> <img src='/product/getimage/<%= Html.Encode(product.ID) %>' alt=""/> <% } %> I tried some solutions found here on stack overflow, and everyone do it like this, but it's working for them. I dont have any idea why images aren't displayed. When i look at source code of page at debugging i have : <img src='/product/getimage/18' alt=""/> I'm using .net 4.0, MVC 2, VS 2010... Thanks in advance

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• Concurrent Programming:Should I write a sequential program first, then add thread safety?

  - by evthim

  I'm working on a project where we have to create a number of threads(actual number will be inputted in by testers (TA's)). I'm having trouble not only with the programming but also with the design, I can't wrap my head around all of the threads that will be invoked and where I might cause errors. The project is due soon so I don't want to waste time on this if it'll actually set me back, but I was wondering if I should write the program like only one thread will be running and everything should be sequential and then later go back and try to add the thread safety parts of the code? Would that take twice the original amount of time? Project Description: Note:I'm going to be as vague as possible so I don't violate any honor codes, sorry :( your program should accept n number of objectA threads, m number of objectB threads, and r number of objectC objectB threads interact with code in objectA. objectA threads interact with code in objectB and objectC objectB and objectC don't directly interact, but do so indirectly through objectA -ex: objectB needs something from objectA. objectA gets the result for that something by calling objectC my confusion stems mostly from the fact that all of this interactions will be done by m+n threads and there are various restrictions throughout the descriptions, like objectB can request something from objectA, and objectA has to wait for objectC to finish that something before returning it to objectB. Also each objectA thread can only work on one instruction from objectB at a time, etc. etc. I just want to know if I write the code so that there is only 1 objectA, 1 objectB and 1 object C, can I go back and easily modify it so that those 1's can be changed to m, n and r? Sorry again, if my description is a little bit confusing.

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• Python modules not updating after restarting the main module.

  - by Ian

  I've recently come back to a project having had to stop for about 6 months, and after reinstalling my operating system and coming back to it I'm having all kinds of crazy things happen. I made sure to install the same version(2.6) of python that I was using before. It started by giving me strange tkinter error that I hadn't had trouble with before, the program is relatively simple and the 2 or 3 bugs that were left when i quit, I had documented and weren't related to the interface. Things got even weirder when the same error would pop up even after I had removed the offending section of code. In fact, the traceback pointed to a line that didn't even exist in the module it was referencing, eg: line 262 when the module was only 200 lines long. After just starting a completely new file for the main module and copy/pasting it finally recognized that the offending code was gone and I stopped getting the error only to find that any updates to the code I made in another module didn't show up when I restarted the program through the shell. (I didn't forget to save.) After fiddling with this, of course, the old interface error came back, only in a different section of code that had been working previously. In fact, if I revert back to the files I had six months ago, the program works fine. As soon as I change anything in the main module, however, the interface bug comes back. Here's the original error: Exception in Tkinter callback Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\Python26\lib\lib-tk\Tkinter.py", line 1410, in __call__ return self.func(*args) File "C:\PyStuff\interface.py", line 202, in dispOne __main__.top.destroy() File "C:\Python26\lib\lib-tk\Tkinter.py", line 1938, in destroy self.tk.call('destroy', self._w) TclError: can't invoke "destroy" command: application has been destroyed I'm guessing something else is going on here other than my own poor programming. Anyone have any ideas?

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• How to accept an incoming call by clicking a button?

  - by upright

  HI, all! I'm trying to implement my own phone call handling UI. What I want to do is, if a call comes in, the incoming telephone number and a picture are displayed, and, if I press a button, the incoming call will be accepted/answered. The related codes are: @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); answerButton = (Button) findViewById(R.id.pickup); answerButton.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { public void onClick(final View v) { Intent intent = new Intent("android.intent.action.ANSWER"); intent.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); startActivity(intent); } }); Sadly, the code does not work. At first, an exception is thrown if I press my answer button: ActivityNotFoundException: No Activity found to handle Intent { act=android.intent.action.ANSWER Then I added an entry in the AndroidManifest.xml: I run the app again, there is no exception anymore. However, I doubt the incoming call is not really accepted. Because if the press the Android's screen answer button (green button), the incoming call is accepted and a green button is also displayed on the upper left corner of the emulator screen, while my app doesn't. I also read the Phone app's source code in android source. There is method such as acceptCall() in the Phone class. But these codes seem difficult for me to use, because there are many imports declaration in the code, such as : import com.android.internal.telephony.Call; import com.android.internal.telephony.CallStateException; import com.android.internal.telephony.CallerInfo; import com.android.internal.telephony.CallerInfoAsyncQuery; import com.android.internal.telephony.Connection; import com.android.internal.telephony.MmiCode; import com.android.internal.telephony.Phone; And, if I add these imports in my code, there will be too many errors, such as : "The import com.android.internal.telephony cannot be resolved" What is the right and simple way for my problem? Thanks in advance!

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• Jquery cant get facebox working inside ajax call

  - by John

  From my main page I call an ajax file via jquery, in that ajax file is some additional jquery code. Original link looks like this: <a href="/page1.php" class="guest-action notify-function"><img src="/icon1.png"></a> Then the code: $(document).ready(function(){ $('a[rel*=facebox]').facebox(); $('.guest-action').click( function() { $.get( $(this).attr('href'), function(responseText) { $.jGrowl(responseText); }); return false; }); $('.notify-function').click( function() { $(this).find('img').attr('src','/icon2.png'); $(this).attr('href','/page2.php'); $(this).removeClass('guest-action').removeClass('notify-function').attr('rel','facebox'); }); }); So basically after notify-function is clicked I am changing the icon and the url of the link, I then am removing the classes so that the click wont be ran again and add rel="facebox" to the link so that the facebox window will pop up if they try to click the new icon2.png that shows up. The problem is after I click the initial icon everything works just fine except when I try to click the new icon2.png it still executes the jgrowl code from the guest-action. But when I view the source it shows this: <a href="/page2.php" rel="facebox" class=""><img src="/icon2.png"></a> So it seemed that should work right? What am I doing wrong? I tried adding the facebox code to the main page that is calling the ajax file as well and still same issue.

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• .htaccess redirect or rewrite to default language url

  - by Saif Bechan

  I have a website that is currently in Dutch. Now I want to make the website multi-language starting with English. I am not that good at .htaccess files and the information on the web is quite confusing. The website I have now uses pretty urls, so all my urls look like this: http://mydomain.com/about/info http://mydomain.com/about/contact The code that I use for that is the following: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-l RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php?rt=$1 [L,QSA] </IfModule> I really do not know what this means, esp the [L,QSA]. But it's ok, it works for now. But now I want to add a default redirect to the code. So it becomes as follow http://mydomain.com becomes http://mydomain.com/nl I assume all my old links http://mydomain.com/about/info will not work anymore, but that is a step I am willing to take. Can someone please help me with this code. I have seen a lot of peaces of code, but I can not find the right one.

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• read the currency format

  - by user485783

  perhaps for some people this is easy, but I want to learn There are 2 currency formats: first currency format is 1,123,123.12 and this format may be like $1,123,123.12 or 1,123,123.12€ and second currency format is 1.123.123,12 and this may be such $1.123.123,12 or 1.123.123,12€ so the difference is the placement of dots and commas The above format will be $this->value('one of the currency format insert here'); e.g. $this->value('$1,123,123.12'); or $this->value('1.123.123,12€'); that I want to know is the code if (first currency format) {use blah .. blah ..} elseif (second currency format) {use blah .. blah ..} else {/ / unsupported format} so how the code to identify whether the entry is input the first currency format or second currency format? thanks for the your pointers and ideas. UPDATED: I apologize for mistake in giving examples When I tried to test the code I have a little confused because it seems not working then I changed my prevoious parts, so that $value['amount'] it may be use first currency format 1,123,123.12 and this format may be like $1,123,123.12 or 1,123,123.12€ and second currency format 1.123.123,12 and this may be such $1.123.123,12 or 1.123.123,12€ then the value['amount'] will identify first with code like the following conditional class curr_format { private bla...bla..1 private bla...bla..2 var etc.. public function curr_format ($bla...,$and_bla..) { //then make conditional is here if (first currency format) {//use blah .. blah ..} elseif (second currency format) {//use blah .. blah ..} else {/ / unsupported format} //another codes.. at the end output as look like: $identify = new curr_format(); echo $identify->curr_format($value['amount'],$else_statement);

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• Difference in behaviour (GCC and Visual C++)

  - by Prasoon Saurav

  Consider the following code. #include <stdio.h> #include <vector> #include <iostream> struct XYZ { int X,Y,Z; }; std::vector<XYZ> A; int rec(int idx) { int i = A.size(); A.push_back(XYZ()); if (idx >= 5) return i; A[i].X = rec(idx+1); return i; } int main(){ A.clear(); rec(0); puts("FINISH!"); } I couldn't figure out the reason why the code gives a segmentation fault on Linux (IDE used: Code::Blocks) whereas on Windows (IDE used: Visual C++) it doesn't. When I used Valgrind just to check what actually the problem was, I got this output. I got Invalid write of size 4 at four different places. Then why didn't the code crash when I used Visual C++? Am I missing something?

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• Problem with UITextView

  - by user367039

  I have a strange problem with trying to pass a string from one viewcontroller to another view controller if the string originates from a UITextview instead of UITextfield. Both UITextview.text and UITextfield.text are of type NSString. The following code takes either Textfield.text or Textview.text depending on the fieldType and puts it into a string called aString. NSString *aString = [[NSString alloc] init]; if (fieldType == 3) { aString = textView.text; } else { aString = textField.text; } When I examine aString on either cases, I can see that it has successfully assigned the text into aString. I then pass the string to the other view controller using this code. [delegate updateSite:aString :editedFieldKey :fieldType]; [self.navigationController popViewControllerAnimated:YES]; This works fine if aString originated from textfield.text but nothing happens except the view controller is popped if aString was from textview.text This is the code that takes aString and does stuff with it, however it doesn't even execute the first line of code "NSLog(@"Returned object: %@, field type:%@", aString,editedFieldKey);" if aString was from textview.text Any help will be appreciated. -(void)updateSite:(NSString *)aString :(NSString *)editedFieldKey :(int)fieldType { NSLog(@"Returned object: %@, field type:%@", aString,editedFieldKey); switch (fieldType) { case 0: //string [aDiveSite setValue:aString forKey:editedFieldKey] ; NSLog(@"String set %@",[aDiveSite valueForKey:editedFieldKey] ); break; case 1: //int [aDiveSite setValue:[NSNumber numberWithInt:aString.intValue] forKey:editedFieldKey]; NSLog(@"Integer set"); break; case 2: //float NSLog(@"Saving floating value"); [aDiveSite setValue:[NSNumber numberWithFloat:aString.floatValue] forKey:editedFieldKey]; NSLog(@"Float set"); break; case 3: //Text view [aDiveSite setValue:aString forKey:editedFieldKey]; NSLog(@"Textview text saved"); default: break; } [self.tableView reloadData]; }

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• iPhone: Calling dealloc on parentViewController causes an exception

  - by arielcamus

  Hi, I'm dealing with viewDidUnload and dealloc methods and I've founded a problem when calling [super dealloc]; in parent view controller. I have a lot of view controllers with custom code which I have putted outside on a parent view controller. So, when defining my view controllers I set a reference to the super class: @interface LoginViewController : AbstractViewController Then, at the dealloc method I call the AbstractViewController dealloc method: //(Login View Controller code) - (void)dealloc { [user release]; [passwd release]; [super dealloc]; } [super dealloc] execute the following code: //(Abstract View Controller code) - (void)dealloc { [dbUtils release]; [loadingView release]; [super dealloc]; } If I simulate a memory warning on iPhone Simulator, the following exception is thrown: 2010-03-03 11:27:45.805 MyApp[71563:40b] Received simulated memory warning. 2010-03-03 11:27:45.808 MyApp[71563:40b] *** -[LoginViewController isViewLoaded]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x13b51b0 kill quit However, if I comment the [super dealloc] line in AbstractViewController the exception is not thrown and my app still running. Thank you for your help once again!

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• How to detect a gamepad button press on OSX 10.5 and higher?

  - by Steph Thirion

  How do I detect a button press on a USB gamepad on OSX 10.5 and higher? I can't wrap my head around the ridiculously complex HID Manager (even though apparently it was simplified with 10.5), and the code samples at Apple have thousands of lines of code that would take days to understand and isolate what I need, so I'd appreciate if someone posts a simple, and fully coded solution for this isolated problem. EDIT: so far all answers are links to source code or semi obscure libraries for all kinds of HID devices, which will require more research time than what I'd like to invest on this. I am starting a bounty to get an actual snippet of code that solves this simple problem (using an external library or not). EDIT POS BOUNTY: thanks to all for you help; but unfortunately the answer that has been automatically selected by the system is not working for me, can't figure out why; and the author has not yet replied to my comments. Any insight would be appreciated, but until a fix is found, anyone looking for resources on this topic should take this answer with a pinch of salt.

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• Most efficient way to bind a Listbox with SelectionMode=Multiple

  - by Draak

  Hi, I have an ASP.NET webform that has a listbox (lbxRegions) with multi-select option enabled. In my db, I have a table with an xml field that holds a list of regions. I need to populate the listbox with all available regions and then "check off" the list items that match the regions in the db table. The list options also need to be ordered by region name. So, I wrote the following code that works just fine -- no problems. But I was wondering if anyone can think of a better (more succinct, more efficient) way to have done the same thing. Thanks in advance. Dim allRegions = XElement.Load(Server.MapPath(Request.ApplicationPath) & "\Regions.xml").<country>.<regions>.<region> Dim selectedRegions = (From ev In dc.Events Where ev.EventId = 2951).Single.CEURegions.<country>.<regions>.<region> Dim unselectedRegions = allRegions.Except(selectedRegions) Dim selectedItems = From x In selectedRegions Select New ListItem() _ With {.Value = x.@code, .Text = x.Value, .Selected = True} Dim unselectedItems = From x In unselectedRegions Select New ListItem() _ With {.Value = x.@code, .Text = x.Value} Dim allItems = selectedItems.Union(unselectedItems).OrderBy(Function(x) x.Text) lbxRegions.Items.AddRange(allItems.ToArray()) P.S. You can post code in C# if you like.

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• How do I connect to SQL Server with VB?

  - by Wayne Werner

  Hi, I'm trying to connect to a SQL server from VB. The SQL server is across the network uses my windows login for authentication. I can access the server using the following python code: import odbc conn = odbc.odbc('SignInspection') c = conn.cursor() c.execute("SELECT * FROM list_domain") c.fetchone() This code works fine, returning the first result of the SELECT. However, I've been trying to use the SqlClient.SqlConnection in VB, and it fails to connect. I've tried several different connection strings but this is the current code: Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim conn As New SqlClient.SqlConnection conn.ConnectionString = "data source=signinspection;initial catalog=signinspection;integrated security=SSPI" Try conn.Open() MessageBox.Show("Sweet Success") 'Insert some code here, woo Catch ex As Exception MessageBox.Show("Failed to connect to data source.") MessageBox.Show(ex.ToString()) Finally conn.Close() End Try End Sub It fails miserably, and it gives me an error that says "A network-related or instance-specific error occurred... (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) I'm fairly certain it's my connection string, but nothing I've found has given me any solid examples (server=mySQLServer is not a solid example) of what I need to use. Thanks! -Wayne

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• How do you organise multiple git repositories?

  - by dbr

  With SVN, I had a single big repository I kept on a server, and checked-out on a few machines. This was a pretty good backup system, and allowed me easily work on any of the machines. I could checkout a specific project, commit and it updated the 'master' project, or I could checkout the entire thing. Now, I have a bunch of git repositories, for various projects, several of which are on github. I also have the SVN repository I mentioned, imported via the git-svn command.. Basically, I like having all my code (not just projects, but random snippets and scripts, some things like my CV, articles I've written, websites I've made and so on) in one big repository I can easily clone onto remote machines, or memory-sticks/harddrives as backup. The problem is, since it's a private repository, and git doesn't allow checking out of a specific folder (that I could push to github as a separate project, but have the changes appear in both the master-repo, and the sub-repos) I could use the git submodule system, but it doesn't act how I want it too (submodules are pointers to other repositories, and don't really contain the actual code, so it's useless for backup) Currently I have a folder of git-repos (for example, ~/code_projects/proj1/.git/ ~/code_projects/proj2/.git/), and after doing changes to proj1 I do git push github, then I copy the files into ~/Documents/code/python/projects/proj1/ and do a single commit (instead of the numerous ones in the individual repos). Then do git push backupdrive1, git push mymemorystick etc So, the question: How do your personal code and projects with git repositories, and keep them synced and backed-up?

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• ASP.NET MVC: Can't figure out what VirtualPath is?

  - by Ryan_Pitts

  I have a View that displays a list of images and i am now trying to get it to display the images as thumbnails. Well, i'm pretty sure i got most of it right using VirtualPath's from a custom ActionResult although i can't seem to figure out what it is making the VirtualPath url?? BTW, i'm using XML to store the data from the images instead of SQL. Here is my code: Code from my custom ActionResult: public class ThumbnailResult : ActionResult { public ThumbnailResult(string virtualPath) { this.VirtualPath = virtualPath; } public string VirtualPath { get; set; } public override void ExecuteResult(ControllerContext context) { context.HttpContext.Response.ContentType = "image/bmp"; string fullFileName = context.HttpContext.Server.MapPath("~/Galleries/WhereConfusionMeetsConcrete/" + VirtualPath); using (System.Drawing.Image photoImg = System.Drawing.Image.FromFile(fullFileName)) { using (System.Drawing.Image thumbPhoto = photoImg.GetThumbnailImage(100, 100, null, new System.IntPtr())) { using (System.IO.MemoryStream ms = new System.IO.MemoryStream()) { thumbPhoto.Save(ms, System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Jpeg); context.HttpContext.Response.BinaryWrite(ms.ToArray()); context.HttpContext.Response.End(); } } } } } Code for my Controller: public ActionResult Thumbnail(string id) { return new ThumbnailResult(id); } Code for my View: <% foreach (var image in ViewData.Model) { %> <a href="../Galleries/TestGallery1/<%= image.Path %>"><img src="../Galleries/TestGallery1/thumbnail/<%= image.Path %>" alt="<%= image.Caption %>" /></a> <br /><br /><%= image.Caption %><br /><br /><br /> <% } %> Any help would be greatly appreciated!! Let me know of any questions you have as well. :) Thanks!

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• PHP static function self:: in joomla JFactory class explanation?

  - by Carbon6

  Hi I'm looking at the code of Joomla and trying to figure out what exactly happends in this function. index.php makes a call to function $app = JFactory::getApplication('site'); jfactory.php code public static function getApplication($id = null, $config = array(), $prefix='J') { if (!self::$application) { jimport('joomla.application.application'); self::$application = JApplication::getInstance($id, $config, $prefix); } return self::$application; } application.php code.. public static function getInstance($client, $config = array(), $prefix = 'J') { static $instances; if (!isset($instances)) { $instances = array(); } ....... more code ........ return $instances[$client]; } Now I cannot figure out in function getApplication why is self:$application used. self::$application = JApplication::getInstance($id, $config, $prefix); $application is always null, what is the purpose of using this approach. I tryied modifying it to $var = JApplication::getInstance($id, $config, $prefix); and returnig it but it doesn't work. I would be very glad if someone with more knowledge could explain what is happening here detailed as possible. Many thanks.

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• Trouble with building up a string in Clojure

  - by Aki Iskandar

  Hi gang - [this may seem like my problem is with Compojure, but it isn't - it's with Clojure] I've been pulling my hair out on this seemingly simple issue - but am getting nowhere. I am playing with Compojure (a light web framework for Clojure) and I would just like to generate a web page showing showing my list of todos that are in a PostgreSQL database. The code snippets are below (left out the database connection, query, etc - but that part isn't needed because specific issue is that the resulting HTML shows nothing between the <body> and </body> tags). As a test, I tried hard-coding the string in the call to main-layout, like this: (html (main-layout "Aki's Todos" "Haircut<br>Study Clojure<br>Answer a question on Stackoverfolw")) - and it works fine. So the real issue is that I do not believe I know how to build up a string in Clojure. Not the idiomatic way, and not by calling out to Java's StringBuilder either - as I have attempted to do in the code below. A virtual beer, and a big upvote to whoever can solve it! Many thanks! ============================================================= ;The master template (a very simple POC for now, but can expand on it later) (defn main-layout "This is one of the html layouts for the pages assets - just like a master page" [title body] (html [:html [:head [:title title] (include-js "todos.js") (include-css "todos.css")] [:body body]])) (defn show-all-todos "This function will generate the todos HTML table and call the layout function" [] (let [rs (select-all-todos) sbHTML (new StringBuilder)] (for [rec rs] (.append sbHTML (str rec "<br><br>"))) (html (main-layout "Aki's Todos" (.toString sbHTML))))) ============================================================= Again, the result is a web page but with nothing between the body tags. If I replace the code in the for loop with println statements, and direct the code to the repl - forgetting about the web page stuff (ie. the call to main-layout), the resultset gets printed - BUT - the issue is with building up the string. Thanks again. ~Aki

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• why can't i bind ipv6 socket to a linklocal address

  - by Haiyuan Zhang

  #include <sys/types.h> #include <sys/socket.h> #include <netinet/in.h> #include <netdb.h> #include <stdio.h> void error(char *msg) { perror(msg); exit(0); } int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { int sock, length, fromlen, n; struct sockaddr_in6 server; struct sockaddr_in6 from; int portNr = 5555; char buf[1024]; length = sizeof (struct sockaddr_in6); sock=socket(AF_INET6, SOCK_DGRAM, 0); if (sock < 0) error("Opening socket"); bzero((char *)&server, length); server.sin6_family=AF_INET6; server.sin6_addr=in6addr_any; server.sin6_port=htons(portNr); inet_pton( AF_INET6, "fe80::21f:29ff:feed:2f7e", (void *)&server.sin6_addr.s6_addr); //inet_pton( AF_INET6, "::1", (void *)&server.sin6_addr.s6_addr); if (bind(sock,(struct sockaddr *)&server,length)<0) error("binding"); fromlen = sizeof(struct sockaddr_in6); while (1) { n = recvfrom(sock,buf,1024,0,(struct sockaddr *)&from,&fromlen); if (n < 0) error("recvfrom"); write(1,"Received a datagram: ",21); write(1,buf,n); n = sendto(sock,"Got your message\n",17, 0,(struct sockaddr *)&from,fromlen); if (n < 0) error("sendto"); } } when I compile and run the above code I got : binding: Invalid argument and if change to bind the ::1 and leave other thing unchanged in the source code, the code works! so could you tell me what's wrong with my code ? thanks in advance.

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• Add class to textbox when invalid, using .Net Validators

  - by CoreyT

  I'm working on a multipage form in .Net using AJAX (UpdatePanels). I am stuck right now trying to get a class added to the textbox that is invalid to basically highlight it red. I found a sample online using this code: $("span.invalid").bind("DOMAttrModified propertychange", function (e) { // Exit early if IE because it throws this event lots more if (e.originalEvent.propertyName && e.originalEvent.propertyName != "isvalid") return; var controlToValidate = $("#" + this.controltovalidate); var validators = controlToValidate.attr("Validators"); if (validators == null) return; var isValid = true; $(validators).each(function () { if (this.isvalid !== true) { isValid = false; } }); if (isValid) { controlToValidate.removeClass("invalid"); } else { controlToValidate.addClass("invalid"); } }); That works perfectly, in IE only. For some reason this code does not ever fire in Firefox. I've looked up the DOMAttrModified event and it sounds like this should work in Firefox, hence it being in the code. I must be missing something though because it does not work. I'm open to other solutions for what I am trying to accomplish here if anyone has something good. Basically the form is 3 pages right now. Page 1 has a variable number of fields that require validation. It could be 5, or 13 fields, based on a checkbox. Page 2 has another set of fields that need to be validated separately. Obviously when I am on page 1 it should not try to validate page 2, and vice versa. Pleas help with either some help to fix the code I have, or an alternative.

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• jQuery ajax form submit - how to ensure dynamically loaded form's action is used

  - by kenny99

  Hi, i'm having a problem with dynamically loaded forms - instead of using the action attribute of the newly loaded form, my jquery code is still using the action attribute of the first form loaded. I have the following code: //generic ajax form handler - calls next page load on success $('input.next:not(#eligibility)').live("click", function(){ $(".form_container form").validationEngine({ ajaxSubmit: true, ajaxSubmitFile: $(this).attr('action'), success : function() { var url = $('input.next').attr('rel'); ajaxFormStage(url); }, failure : function() { } }); }); But when the next form is loaded, the above code does not pick up the new action attribute. I have tried adding the above code to my callback on successful ajax load (shown below), but this doesn't make any difference. Can anyone help? Many thanks function ajaxFormStage(url) { var $data = $('#main_body #content'); $.validationEngine.closePrompt('body'); //close any validation messages $data.fadeOut('fast', function(){ $data.load(url, function(){ $data.animate({ opacity: 'show' }, 'fast'); '); //generic ajax form handler - calls next page load on success $('input.next:not(#eligibility)').live("click", function(){ $(".form_container form").validationEngine({ ajaxSubmit: true, ajaxSubmitFile: $(this).attr('action'), success : function() { var url = $('input.next').attr('rel'); ajaxFormStage(url); }, failure : function() { } }); }); }); });

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• How can I show print statements in debug mode of OPNET Modeler?

  - by Here now

  I'm writing C++ code in OPNET Modeler. I try to simulate my scenario in debugger mode & I need to trace the function that I wrote it. I need to show print statements which I put it in my code. I used in debugger mode: ***ltr function_name()*** then ***c*** But the result looks like: Type 'help' for Command Summary ODB> ltr enqueue_packet() Added trace #0: trace on label (enqueue_packet()) ODB> c |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Progress: Time (1 min. 52 sec.); Events (500,002) | | Speed: Average (82,575 events/sec.); Current (82,575 events/sec.) | | Time : Elapsed (6.1 sec.) | | DES Log: 28 entries | |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Progress: Time (1 min. 55 sec.); Events (1,000,002) | | Speed: Average (69,027 events/sec.); Current (59,298 events/sec.) | | Time : Elapsed (14 sec.) | | DES Log: 28 entries | |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Progress: Time (1 min. 59 sec.); Events (1,500,002) | | Speed: Average (51,464 events/sec.); Current (34,108 events/sec.) | | Time : Elapsed (29 sec.) | | DES Log: 28 entries | |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Simulation Completed - Collating Results. | | Events: Total (1,591,301); Average Speed (48,803 events/sec.) | | Time : Elapsed (33 sec.); Simulated (2 min. 0 sec.) | | DES Log: 29 entries | |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Reading network model. | |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| I need to show the print statements in my code. Where it has to be appeared? Is there any step before run the simulation to insure that OPNET debugger using Visual Studio & go through my code??

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• How do I create an inheritable Semaphore in .NET?

  - by pauldoo

  I am trying to create a Win32 Semaphore object which is inheritable. This means that any child processes I launch may automatically have the right to act on the same Win32 object. My code currently looks as follows: Semaphore semaphore = new Semaphore(0, 10); Process process = Process.Start(pathToExecutable, arguments); But the semaphore object in this code cannot be used by the child process. The code I am writing is a port of come working C++. The old C++ code achieves this by the following: SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES security = {0}; security.nLength = sizeof(security); security.bInheritHandle = TRUE; HANDLE semaphore = CreateSemaphore(&security, 0, LONG_MAX, NULL); Then later when CreateProcess is called the bInheritHandles argument is set to TRUE. (In both the C# and C++ case I am using the same child process (which is C++). It takes the semaphore ID on command line, and uses the value directly in a call to ReleaseSemaphore.) I suspect I need to construct a special SemaphoreSecurity or ProcessStartInfo object, but I haven't figured it out yet.

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• Question about the benefit of using an ORM

  - by johnny

  I want to use an ORM for learning purposes and am try nhibernate. I am using the tutorial and then I have a real project. I can go the "old way" or use an ORM. I'm not sure I totally understand the benefit. On the one hand I can create my abstractions in code such that I can change my databases and be database independent. On the other it seems that if I actually change the database columns I have to change all my code. Why wouldn't I have my application without the ORM, change my database and change my code, instead of changing my database, orm, and code? Is it that they database structure doesn't change that much? I believe there are real benefits because ORMs are used by so many. I'm just not sure I get it yet. Thank you. EDIT: In the tutorial they have many files that are used to make the ORM work http://www.hibernate.org/362.html In the event of an application change, it seems like a lot of extra work just to say that I have "proper" abstraction layers. Because I'm new at it it doesn't look that easy to maintain and again seems like extra work, not less.

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• INSERT data from Textbox to Postgres SQL

  - by user1479013

  I just learn how to connect C# and PostgresSQL. I want to INSERT data from tb1(Textbox) and tb2 to database. But I don't know how to code My previous code is SELECT from database. this is my code private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { bool blnfound = false; NpgsqlConnection conn = new NpgsqlConnection("Server=127.0.0.1;Port=5432;User Id=postgres;Password=admin123;Database=Login"); conn.Open(); NpgsqlCommand cmd = new NpgsqlCommand("SELECT * FROM login WHERE name='" + tb1.Text + "' and password = '" + tb2.Text + "'",conn); NpgsqlDataReader dr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); if (dr.Read()) { blnfound = true; Form2 f5 = new Form2(); f5.Show(); this.Hide(); } if (blnfound == false) { MessageBox.Show("Name or password is incorrect", "Message Box", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Exclamation, MessageBoxDefaultButton.Button1); dr.Close(); conn.Close(); } } So please help me the code.

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