Search Results

Search found 88745 results on 3550 pages for 'code snippet'.

Page 649/3550 | < Previous Page | 645 646 647 648 649 650 651 652 653 654 655 656  | Next Page >

  • how to enable iFrame designMode in a local webpage without using the localhost server?

    - by vjk2005
    The code... <html> <body> <iframe id="editableFrame"></iframe> <script type="text/javascript"> editableFrame.document.designMode="on"; </script> </body> </html> gets the iFrame editable only when run off a server(http://...)(online or from localhost). How do I get this working by simply opening it up as a local html file(file:///...) in the browser? Some browser specific notes: 1. Firefox needs slightly different code to enable designMode but the problem still remains. 2. IE8 gets me the behavior I want with this code, but it pops up a warning about enabling ActiveX controls which the user must accept before getting the iFrame editable. 3. Opera 10.5 is the only browser that has the behavior I want... iFrames are editable without needing to run the code off a server.

    Read the article

  • how avoids deadlock condition

    - by rima
    Hi I try to write a program like a compiler.In this case I must simulate these codes of SQLPL(This one can be just for example).for example in command prompt i wana do these: c:\> sqlplus .... Enter User-Name:(here we must enter username) xxxx Enter password:(same up)yyyyy ... sql>(now i want to send my sql command to shell)prompt "rima"; "rima" [<-output] sql> prompt "xxxx" sql> exit very simple. I try to use this code: ProcessStartInfo psi = new ProcessStartInfo( @"sqlplus"); psi.UseShellExecute = false; psi.CreateNoWindow = true; psi.RedirectStandardInput = true; psi.RedirectStandardOutput = true; //psi.RedirectStandardError = true; Process process = new Process(); process.StartInfo = psi; bool started = process.Start(); if (started) { process.StandardInput.WriteLine("user/password"); process.StandardInput.Flush(); string ret = process.StandardOutput.ReadLine(); // <-- stalls here System.Console.WriteLine("sqlplus says :" + ret + "\"."); } i find out it form here but as if u read this code has problem!DEADLOCK Condition problem! this is my second time i ask my question,every time my knowledge growing,but i cant get how I can solve my problem at last!!! So I kindly kiss your hand,please help me,these process is not clear for me.any one can give me a code that handle my problem?Already i look at all codes,also I try to use ProcessRunner that in my last post some one offer me,but I cant use it also,i receive an error. I hope by first example u find out what i want,and solve the second code problem... thanks I use C# for implemantation

    Read the article

  • .NET: How to know when serialization is completed?

    - by Ian Boyd
    When I construct my control (which inherits DataGrid), I add specific rows and columns. This works great at design time. Unfortunately, at runtime I add my rows and columns in the same constructor, but then the DataGrid is serialized (after the constructor runs) adding more rows and columns. After serialization is complete, I need to clear everything and re-initialize the rows and columns. Is there a protected method that I can override to know when the control is done serializing? Of course, I'd prefer to not have to do the work in the constructor, throw it away, and do it again after (potential) serialization. Is there a preferred event that is the equivalent of "set yourself up now", so that it is called once whether I'm serialized or not? The serialization i speak of comes from the InitializeComponent() method in the form's code-behind file. #region Windows Form Designer generated code /// <summary> /// Required method for Designer support - do not modify /// the contents of this method with the code editor. /// </summary> private void InitializeComponent() { ... } It would have been perfect if InitializeComponent was a virtual method defined by Control, then i could just override it and then perform my processing after i call base: protected override void InitializeComponent() { base.InitializeComponent(); InitializeMe(); } But it's not an ancestor method, it's declared only in the code-behind file. i notice that InitializeComponent calls SuspendLayout and ResumeLayout on various Controls. i thought it could override ResumeLayout, and perform my initialization then: public override void ResumeLayout() { base.ResumeLayout(); InitializeMe(); } But ResumeLayout is not virtual, so that's out. Anymore ideas? i can't be the first person to create a custom control.

    Read the article

  • Shell script task status monitoring

    - by Bikram Agarwal
    I'm running an ANT task in background and checking in 60 second intervals whether that task is complete or not. If it is not, every 60 seconds, a message should be displayed on screen - "Deploy process is still running. $slept seconds since deploy started", where $slept is 60, 120, 180 n so on. There's a limit of 1200 seconds, after which the script will show the log via 'ant log' command and ask the user whether to continue. If the user chooses to continue, 300 seconds are added to the time limit and the process repeats. The code that I am using for this task is - ant deploy & limit=1200 deploy_check() { while [ ${slept:-0} -le $limit ]; do sleep 60 && slept=`expr ${slept:-0} + 60` if [ $$ = "`ps -o ppid= -p $!`" ]; then echo "Deploy process is still running. $slept seconds since deploy started." else wait $! && echo "Application ${New_App_Name} deployed successfully" || echo "Deployment of ${New_App_Name} failed" break fi done } deploy_check if [ $$ = "`ps -o ppid= -p $!`" ]; then echo "Deploy process did not finish in $slept seconds. Here's the log." ant log echo "Do you want to kill the process? Press Ctrl+C to kill. Press Enter to continue." read log limit=`expr ${limit} + 300` deploy_check fi Now, the problem is - this code is not working. This looks like a perfectly good code and yet, this is not working. Can anyone point out what is wrong with this code, please.

    Read the article

  • firefox lead dot in cookie issue

    - by Jon
    Hi all, We are having an annoying issue with Firefox and cookies. We have the following domains: sub1.mydomain.com sub2.mydomain.com sub3.mydomain.com otherdomain.com We have converting our framework to be multilingual and providing a drop down to change the language at any point during site. The code base is shared across all the domains above. We can not set a cookie across all "mydomain.com" sites, they have to be on each of the sub domains. To get this to work we set a JavaScript cookie when the users chooses a new language. When the page posts back to the server the code picks this up and sets the users preferences to that new language code, (this is all C# and ASP.NET). We have to set the host to be "subX.mydomain.com" and the path to be "/" in the cookie so that it is just for the subdomain and all parts of that domain. This works great on all browsers apart from FireFox. It seems that firefox will pre append a DOT to the beginning of domain so ".subX.mydomain.com". When the code posts back with FireFox the cookie is always null. Has anyone had this situation, (I imagine it is not al that uncommon). I have read a lot of people saying, remove the domain from the cookie, but that can not work for us as we have multiple subdomains that need their own cookie values. Thanks

    Read the article

  • How can I protect my .NET assemblies from decompilation?

    - by Holli
    One if the first things I learned when I started with C# was the most important one. You can decompile any .NET assembly with Reflector or other tools. Many developers are not aware of this fact and most of them are shocked when I show them their source code. Protection against decompilation is still a difficult task. I am still looking for a fast, easy and secure way to do it. I don't want to obfuscate my code so my method names will be a,b,c or so. Reflector or other tools should be unable to recognize my application as .NET assembly at all. I know about some tools already but they are very expensive. Is there any other way to protect my applications? EDIT: The reason for my question is not to prevent piracy. I only want to stop competitors from reading my code. I know they will and they already did. They even told me so. Maybe I am a bit paranoid but business rivals reading my code doesn't make me feel good.

    Read the article

  • Separating Javascript functions

    - by msharma
    I am wondering how javascripts get included in a jsp - can we put any code which the jsp will recognize and not just javascript code only in the .js file? I have some common javascript code which needs to get executed on different pages, so I decided to place it in its own separate .js file and include it on all jsps which call that function. The js function now refers to a key from a properties file and some other non-javascript code: function openPrivacyStmntWindow(){ var url = <h:outputText escape="false" value="\"#{urls.url_privacyStatement}\";" /> newwindow=window.open(url,'Terms','height=600,width=800,left=300,top=100,scrollbars=1'); newwindow.focus(); return false; } This function worked just fine when it was included in the jsp itself. Now that I have separated it into its own file it doesnt, do I need to include the properties bundle in this file. The value="\"#{urls.url_privacyStatement}\";" is referring to a bundle called "urls" which has a key called "url_privacyStatement" Also in Line 1 var url = <h:outputText escape="false" value="\"#{urls.url_privacyStatement}\";" /> the <h:outputText escape="false" ... /> will it cause any issues? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Switching from form_for to remote_form_for problems with submit changes in Rails

    - by Matthias Günther
    Hi there, another day with Rails and today I want to use Ajax. linkt_remote_link for changing a text was pretty easy so I thought it would also be easy to switch my form_for loop just to an ajax request form with remote_form_for, but the problem with the remote_form_for is that it doesn't save my changes? Here the code that worked: <% form_for bill, :url => {:action => 'update', :id => bill.id} do |f| %> # make the processing e.g. displaying texfields and so on <%= submit_tag 'speichern'%> It produces the following html code: <form action="/adminbill/update/58" class="edit_bill" id="edit_bill_58" method="post"><div style="margin:0;padding:0;display:inline"><input name="_method" type="hidden" value="put" /></div> <!-- here the html things for the forms --> <input class="button" name="commit" type="submit" value="speichern" /> Here the code which don't save me the changes and submit them: <% remote_form_for bill, :url => {:action => 'update', :id => bill.id} do |f| %> # make the processing e.g. displaying texfields and so on <%= submit_tag 'speichern'%> It produces the following html code: <form action="/adminbill/update/58" class="edit_bill" id="edit_bill_58" method="post" onsubmit="$.ajax({data:$.param($(this).serializeArray()), dataType:'script', type:'post', url:'/adminbill/update/58'}); return false;"><div style="margin:0;padding:0;display:inline"><input name="_method" type="hidden" value="put" /></div> <!-- here the html things for the forms --> <input class="button" name="commit" type="submit" value="speichern" /> I don't know if I have to consider something special when using remote_form_for (see remote_form_for)

    Read the article

  • Processing XML form input in ASP

    - by Omar Kooheji
    I'm maintaining a legacy application which consists of some ASP.Net pages with c# code behinds and some asp pages. I need to change the way the application accepts it's input from reading a set of parameters from some form fields to reading in one form field which contains contains some XML and parsing to get the parameters out. I've written a C# class that takes an The NameValueCollection from the C# HttpRequest's Form Element. Like so NameValueCollection form = Request.Form; Dictionary<string, string> fieldDictionary = RequestDataExtractor.BuildFieldDictionary(form); The code in the class looks for a particular parameter and if it's there processes the XML and outputs a Dictionary, if its not there it just cycles through the Form parameters and puts them all into the dictionary (Allowing the old method to still work) How would I do this in ASP? Can I use my same class, or a modified version of it? or do I have to write some new code to get this working? If I have to write ASP code Whats the best way to process the XML in ASP? Sorry if this seems like a stupid question but I know next to nothing about ASP and VB.

    Read the article

  • RegisterStartupScript not working after upgrading to framework 3.5

    - by AaronS
    I'm trying to upgrade an asp.net c# web project from framework 2.0 to 3.5. When I do this, the client side script that gets written using RegisterStartupScript isn't rendered on the client page. This works perfectly when I compile for 2.0, and for 3.0, but not when I compile for 3.5. Here is the code that isn't getting rendered: Page myPage = (Page)HttpContext.Current.Handler; ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(myPage, myPage.GetType(), "alertscript", "alert('test');", true); This is called from a class project, and not the web project itself, which is why I'm using the HttpContext.Current.Handler. There are no errors getting generated from the compiler, the CLR, and there are no client side JavaScript errors. If I do a search for the "alertscript" in my rendered page, the above code actually isn't there. Anyone have ideas as to what is going on? -Edit- This seems to be an issue when I'm trying to register the script from an external project. If I use the exact same code in a class file in the web project (not the code behind), it works. However, if I make a call to a method in a class from another project, it does not work. Does the ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript not get registered correctly if performed from somewhere besides the web project itself?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC jQuery autocomplete with url.action helper in a script included in a page.

    - by Boob
    I have been building my first ASP.NET MVC web app. I have been using the jQuery autocomplete widget in a number of places like this: <head> $("#model").autocomplete({ source: '<%= Url.Action("Model", "AutoComplete") %>' }); </head> The thing is I have this jQuery code in a number of different places through my web app. So i thought I would create a seperate javascript script (script.js) where I could put this code and then just include it in the master page. Then i can put all these repeated pieces of code in that script and just call them where I need too. So I did this. My code is shown below: In the site.js script I put this function: function doAutoComplete() { $("#model").autocomplete({ source: '<%= Url.Action("Model", "AutoComplete") %>' }); } On the page I have: <head> <script src="../../Scripts/site.js" type="text/javascript"></script> doAutoComplete(); </head> But when I do this I get an Invalid Argument exception and the autocomplete doesnt work. What am I doing wrong? Any ideas?Do i need to pass something to the doAutoComplete function?

    Read the article

  • Operation is not valid due to the current state of the object?

    - by Bill
    I am programming in C#; the code was working about a week ago, however it throws an exception and I don't understand at all what could be wrong with it. Var root = new CalculationNode(); -> Throw exception. In the call stack thats the only thing listed, I've been told that it could be that I need a clean build, but I am open to any ideas or suggestions. Thanks, -Bill Update: Exception's Detail System.InvalidOperationException was unhandled by user code Message=Operation is not valid due to the current state of the object. Source=Calculator.Logic StackTrace: at ~.Calculator.Logic.MyBaseExpressionParser.Parse(String expression) in ~\Source\Calculator.Logic\MyBaseExpressionParser.cs:line 44 at ~.Calculator.Logic.Tests.MyBaseCalculatorServiceTests.BasicMathDivision() in ~\Projects\Tests\Calculator.Logic.Tests\MyBaseCalculatorServiceTests.cs:line 60 InnerException: CalculationNode's code: public sealed calss CalculationNode { public CalculationNode() { this.Left = null; this.Right = null; this.Element = new CalculationElement(); } public CalculationNode Left {get;set;} public CalculationNode Right {get;set;} public CalculationElement Element {get; set;} } CalculationElement's code: public sealed class CalculationElement { public CalculationElement() { Value = string.Empty; IsOperator = false; } public string Value {get; set} public bool IsOperator {get; set} }

    Read the article

  • How to query AD to get name email from lan id

    - by Kumar
    I have some code in asp.net ( kindly given by someone else ) to query AD to get user name and email etc. using System.DirectoryServices; using System.DirectoryServices.ActiveDirectory; using ActiveDs; DirectorySearcher search = new DirectorySearcher(new DirectoryEntry(), string.Format("(samaccountname={0})", id)); if (search == null) return id; if (search.FindOne() == null) return id; DirectoryEntry usr = search.FindOne().GetDirectoryEntry(); IADsUser oUsr = (IADsUser)usr.NativeObject; return string.Format("{0} {1}", usr.Properties["givenname"].Value, usr.Properties["sn"].Value); However this requires impersonation with an id that's required to be changed every 2 weeks and then updated in the web.config which is often forgotten Is there any non impersonation code to achieve the same result ? UPDATE - it's a config tool and it looks up name, email id etc. I like the service a/c idea Q - How is it possible to run ( impersonate ) just the AD code with a "service" a/c ? any samples/code ? how do you impersona

    Read the article

  • Returning a CSS element

    - by TMP
    Is there a way to return a CSS element? I was using Adobe Edge and adding some of my own code in their code tab, but in order to create boundaries I would need to keep track of margin-top or margin-left. The following code works to move the element "woo" but I'm not sure how to call the elements to add something like "|| sym.$("woo").css({"margin-left"0px"}) to the move left code. //Move RIGHT if (e.which == 39) { sym.$("woo").css({"margin-left":"+=10px"}); } //Move UP else if (e.which == 38) { sym.$("woo").css({"margin-top":"-=10px"}); } //Move Left else if (e.which == 37) { sym.$("woo").css({"margin-left":"-=10px"}); } //Move DOWN else if (e.which == 40) { sym.$("woo").css({"margin-top":"+=10px"}); } EDIT: I changed the Left if statement to the following: else if (e.which == 37 && ($("woo").css("margin-left")>0)) { It seems to be working to some extent except for now it won't move left at all! I tried doing <0 too in case I was screwing up a sign but it won't let me move the element left either.

    Read the article

  • How to I pass parameters to Ruby/Python scripts from inside PHP?

    - by Roger
    Hi, everybody. I need to turn HTML into equivalent Markdown-structured text. From what I could discover, I have only two good choices: Python: Aaron Swartz's html2text.py Ruby: Singpolyma's html2markdown.rb As I am programming in PHP, I need to pass the HTML code, call the Ruby/Python Script and receive the output back. I started creating a simple test just to know if my server was configured to run both languages. PHP code: echo exec('./hi.rb'); Ruby code: #!/usr/bin/ruby puts "Hello World!" It worked fine and I am ready to go to the next step. Unfortunately, all I know is that the function is Ruby works like this: HTML2Markdown.new('<h1>HTMLcode</h1>').to_s I don't know how to make PHP pass the string (with the HTML code) to Ruby nor how to make the ruby script receive the variable and pass it back to PHP (after have parsed it into Markdown). Believe it or not: I know less of Python. A folk made a similar question here ("how to call ruby script from php?") but with no practical information to my case. Any help would be a joy - thanks. Rogério Madureira. atipico.com.br

    Read the article

  • Returning a variable in a public void...

    - by James Rattray
    Hello, I'm abit new to programming Android App's, however I have come across a problem, I can't find a way to make global variables -unlike other coding like php or VB.NET, are global variables possible? If not can someone find a way (and if possible implement the way into the code I will provide below) to get a value from the variable 'songtoplay' so I can use in another Public Void... Here is the code: final Spinner hubSpinner = (Spinner) findViewById(R.id.myspinner); ArrayAdapter adapter = ArrayAdapter.createFromResource( this, R.array.colours, android.R.layout.simple_spinner_item); adapter .setDropDownViewResource(android.R.layout.simple_spinner_dropdown_item); hubSpinner.setAdapter(adapter); // hubSpinner.setOnItemSelectedListener(new OnItemSelectedListener() { public void onItemSelected(AdapterView<?> parentView, View selectedItemView, int position, long id) { //code Object ttestt = hubSpinner.getSelectedItem(); final String test2 = ttestt.toString(); Toast message1 = Toast.makeText(Textbox.this, test2, Toast.LENGTH_LONG); message1.show(); String songtoplay = test2; // Need songtoplay to be available in another 'Public Void' } public void onNothingSelected(AdapterView<?> parentView) { //Code } }); Basically, it gets the value from the Spinner 'hubSpinner' and displays it in a Toast. I then want it to return a value for string variable 'songtoplay' -or find a way to make it global or useable in another Public Void, (Which is will a button, -loading the song to be played) Please help me, Thanks alot. James

    Read the article

  • to connect matlab with java

    - by user304005
    Through the below given code I was able to connect to matlab. But I was not able to execute the script file containing matlab code...Please help me to modify the code so as to execute the matlab code.... Here luck2 is a .m file.... import java.io.InputStreamReader; import java.io.*; public class matlab { private static File myMATLABScript; public static String runScript(File luck2) { String output = "" ; String error = ""; try { String commandToRun ="C:\\Program Files\\MATLAB\\R2009a\\bin\\matlab -nodisplay <" + "Z:\\sem\\java\\luck2"; //String commandToRun = "matlab -nosplash -r myMATLABScript -nodisplay -nodesktop < " + opentxt; System.out.println(commandToRun); Process p = Runtime.getRuntime().exec(commandToRun); String s; BufferedReader stdInput = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(p.getInputStream())); BufferedReader stdError = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(p.getErrorStream())); System.out.println("\nHere is the standard output of the command:\n"); while ((s = stdInput.readLine()) != null) { System.out.println("haiiiiiiiiiiii"); output = s + "\n"; System.out.println(s); } while ((s = stdError.readLine()) != null) { error = s + "\n"; System.out.println(s); } } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println("exception happened here what I know:"); e.printStackTrace(); System.exit(-1); } return output + error; } public static void main(String[] args) throws IOException { matlab m = new matlab(); matlab.runScript(myMATLABScript); //matlab.runScript(); } }

    Read the article

  • How to create custom omniauth provider (how to return data)

    - by user2803917
    I searched all around the net, how to create a custom provider for omniauth.. and i succedded partly.. I created a gem, and it worked perfectly, except the part, that i cant understand how to return the gathered data to sessions controller, like other providers do.. here is the code in auth gem: require 'multi_json' require 'digest/md5' require 'rest-client' module OmniAuth module Strategies class Providername < OmniAuth::Strategies::OAuth attr_accessor :app_id, :api_key, :auth def initialize(app, app_id = nil, api_key = nil, options = {}) super(app, :providername) @app_id = app_id @api_key = api_key end protected def request_phase redirect "http://valid_url" end def callback_phase if request.params['code'] && request.params['status'] == 'ok' response = RestClient.get("http://valid_url2/?code=#{request.params['auth_code']}") auth = MultiJson.decode(response.to_s) unless auth['error'] @auth_data = auth if @auth_data @return_data = OmniAuth::Utils.deep_merge(super, { 'uid' => @auth_data['uid'], 'nickname' => @auth_data['nick'], 'user_info' => { 'first_name' => @auth_data['name'], 'last_name' => @auth_data['surname'], 'location' => @auth_data['place'], }, 'credentials' => { 'apikey' => @auth_data['apikey'] }, 'extra' => {'user_hash' => @auth_data} }) end end else fail!(:invalid_request) end rescue Exception => e fail!(:invalid_response, e) end end end end and here i call it in my initializers: Rails.application.config.middleware.use OmniAuth::Builder do provider "providername", Settings.providers.providername.app_id, Settings.providers.providername.app_secret end in this code, everything works fine so far, the provider gets called, i get the info from provider, i create a hash (@auth_data) with info, but how do i return it

    Read the article

  • Is it OK to use WPF assemblies in a web app?

    - by Chris
    I have an ASP.NET MVC 2 app targeting .NET 4 that needs to be able to resize images on the fly and write them to the response. I have code that does this and it works. I am using System.Drawing.dll. However, I want to enhance my code so that not only am I resizing the image, but I am dropping it from 24bpp down to 4bit grayscale. I could not, for the life of me, find code on how to do this with System.Drawing.dll. But I did find a bunch of WPF stuff. This is my working/sample code (runs in LinqPad). // Load the original 24 bit image var bitmapImage = new BitmapImage(); bitmapImage.BeginInit(); bitmapImage.UriSource = new Uri(@"C:\Temp\Resized\18_appa2_015.png", UriKind.Absolute); //bitmapImage.DecodePixelWidth = 600; bitmapImage.EndInit(); // Create the destination image var formatConvertedBitmap = new FormatConvertedBitmap(); formatConvertedBitmap.BeginInit(); formatConvertedBitmap.Source = bitmapImage; formatConvertedBitmap.DestinationFormat = PixelFormats.Gray4; formatConvertedBitmap.EndInit(); // Encode and dump the image to disk var encoder = new PngBitmapEncoder(); encoder.Frames.Add(BitmapFrame.Create(formatConvertedBitmap)); using (var fileStream = File.Create(@"C:\Temp\Resized\18_appa2_015_s2.png")) { encoder.Save(fileStream); } It uses System.Xaml.dll, WindowsBase.dll, PresentationCore.dll, and PresentationFramework.dll. The namespaces used are: System.Windows.Controls, System.Windows.Media, and System.Windows.Media.Imaging. Is there any problem using these namespaces in my web application? It doesn't seem right. If anyone knows how to drop the bit depth without all this WPF stuff (which I barely understand, BTW) I would be thrilled to see that too.

    Read the article

  • How do I add two alternating UITableViews to an existing UINavigationController view?

    - by Ron Flax
    I'm new to iPhone development and I am writing an iPhone app that needs two different table views, which are selectable using a button bar or tab bar. These table views are both the same size, but only cover about two thirds of the screen from the bottom up. The top portion of the screen remains the same when either of these tables is displayed. I'd also like to animate (flip) these views when the user selects one or the other. The view that these two tables will be displayed on is the detail view of my app where the user has already selected an item from the primary screen's table. I'm using a UINavigationController to manage the primary and detail views and I have this working. I also have the first of these two detail tables working as part of my detail view, but I think it makes more sense to isolate the code for these two tables and not duplicate all of the code for the part of the detail view that doesn't change. I don't really care how these two table views are created (either in code or via IB). I've tried several things and I can't seem to figure it out. Any help or ideas (with sample code) would be greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • XMLHttpRequest() and Google Analytics Tracking

    - by sjw
    I have implemented an XMLHttpRequest() call to a standalone html page which simply has an html, title & body tag which Google Analytics Tracking code. I want to track when someone makes a request to display information (i.e. phone number) to try and understand what portion of people look at my directory versus obtaining a phone number to make a call. It is very simple code: var xhReq = new XMLHttpRequest(); xhReq.open("GET", "/registerPhoneClick.htm?id=" + id, false); xhReq.send(null); var serverResponse = xhReq.responseText Yet I cannot see the "hit" in Analytics... Has anyone had this issue? All the analytics tracking code does is call: <script type="text/javascript"> var gaJsHost = (("https:" == document.location.protocol) ? "https://ssl." : "http://www."); document.write(unescape("%3Cscript src='" + gaJsHost + "google-analytics.com/ga.js' type='text/javascript'%3E%3C/script%3E")); </script> <script type="text/javascript"> try { var pageTracker = _gat._getTracker("UA-XXXXXXX"); pageTracker._trackPageview(); } catch(err) {}</script> So realistically, my XmlHTTPRequest() calls an htm file within which a script is execute to make an outbound call to Google Analytics. Is there any reason why an XmlHTTPRequest() would not execute this? Does an XmlHTTPRequest() still bring the code to the client before execution? Help Please

    Read the article

  • Using XPath on String in Android (JAVA)

    - by Rav
    I am looking for some examples of using xpath in Android? Or if anyone can share their experiences. I have been struggeling to make tail or head of this problem :-( I have a string that contains a standard xml file. I believe I need to convert that into an xml document. I have found this code which I think will do the trick: public static Document stringToDom(String xmlSource) throws SAXException, ParserConfigurationException, IOException { DocumentBuilderFactory factory = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); DocumentBuilder builder = factory.newDocumentBuilder(); return builder.parse(new InputSource(new StringReader(xmlSource))); } Next steps Assuming the code above is OK, I need to apply xpath to get values from cat: "/animal/mammal/feline/cat" I look at the dev doc here: http://developer.android.com/reference/javax/xml/xpath/XPath.html and also look online, but I am not sure where to start! I have tried to use the following code: XPathFactory xPathFactory = XPathFactory.newInstance(); // To get an instance of the XPathFactory object itself. XPath xPath = xPathFactory.newXPath(); // Create an instance of XPath from the factory class. String expression = "SomeXPathExpression"; XPathExpression xPathExpression = xPath.compile(expression); // Compile the expression to get a XPathExpression object. Object result = xPathExpression.evaluate(xmlDocument); // Evaluate the expression against the XML Document to get the result. But I get "Cannot be resolved". Eclipse doesn't seem to be able to fix this import. I tried manually entering: javax.xml.xpath.XPath But this did not work. Does anyone know any good source code that I can utilise, for Android platform? 1.5

    Read the article

  • Android GPS cloud of confusion!

    - by Anthony Forloney
    I am trying to design my first Android application with the use of GPS. As of right now, I have a drawable button that when clicked, alerts a Toast message of the longitude and latitude. I have tried to use the telnet localhost 5554 and then geo fix #number #number to feed in values but no results display just 0 0. I have also tried DDMS way of sending GPS coordinates and I get the same thing. My question is what exactly is the code equivalent to the geo fix and the DDMS way of sending coordinates. I have used Location, LocationManger and LocationListener but I am not sure which is the right choice. Could anyone explain to me what the code-equivalent just so I can get a better understanding of how to fix my application not working. Code is given, just in case if the error exists with the code @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); Button button = (Button) findViewById(R.id.track); button.setOnClickListener(this); LocationManager location =(LocationManager)getSystemService(Context.LOCATION_SERVICE); Location loc = location.getLastKnownLocation(location.GPS_PROVIDER); updateWithNewLocation(loc); } private final LocationListener locationListener = new LocationListener() { public void onLocationChanged(Location location) { updateWithNewLocation(location); } private void updateWithNewLocation(Location l) { longitude = l.getLongitude(); latitude = l.getLatitude(); provider = l.getProvider(); } public void onClick(View v) { Toast.makeText(this, "Your location is " + longitude + " and " + latitude + " provided by: " + provider, Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } }

    Read the article

  • Nested Class member function can't access function of enclosing class. Why?

    - by Rahul
    Please see the example code below: class A { private: class B { public: foobar(); }; public: foo(); bar(); }; Within class A & B implementation: A::foo() { //do something } A::bar() { //some code foo(); //more code } A::B::foobar() { //some code foo(); //<<compiler doesn't like this } The compiler flags the call to foo() within the method foobar(). Earlier, I had foo() as private member function of class A but changed to public assuming that B's function can't see it. Of course, it didn't help. I am trying to re-use the functionality provided by A's method. Why doesn't the compiler allow this function call? As I see it, they are part of same enclosing class (A). I thought the accessibility issue for nested class meebers for enclosing class in C++ standards was resolved. How can I achieve what I am trying to do without re-writing the same method (foo()) for B, which keeping B nested within A? I am using VC++ compiler ver-9 (Visual Studio 2008). Thank you for your help.

    Read the article

  • jQuery .html not writing span on page load, rights the span on ajax response

    - by pedalpete
    I've got a bit of a calendar I'm building with events that go beyond the boundary of one day. I've got a graph which shows how many events are running concurrently. In order to graph out the events which go into another day, I look for hours24, and run an extra bit of code. jQuery('li#hour'+placeGroup+'_'+schedDay2+'_'+thisHour,nextDay).data('count', numStaff).html(''+printHour+''+numEvents+' scheduled').css('height',numEvents*5+'px'); The code is working, the li items are being found, proper height is the css is being applied, data is set, which I've checked by running alert(jQuery('li#hour'+placeGroup+'_'+schedDay2+'_'+thisHour,nextDay).data('count')); right after the pervious bit of code. The only thing that isn't being done is the .html(add span) stuff. I run this code in two places. Once when the page loads, and once when an action is taken which changes the number of events via an ajax response. The li DOM object I'm writting to is created before the script is run, and the height is being applied, but not the span, and only on page load. Any ideas on this one? I'm stumped.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 645 646 647 648 649 650 651 652 653 654 655 656  | Next Page >