Search Results

Search found 21343 results on 854 pages for 'pass by reference'.

Page 655/854 | < Previous Page | 651 652 653 654 655 656 657 658 659 660 661 662  | Next Page >

  • Accessing XUL anonymous content using C++

    - by Vaibhav Gade
    Hi All, I am writing Firefox extension using C++. I am trying to access XUL:tabox element in "TabOpen" event handler, but I am unable access any XUL element. I am putting here pseudocode of my extension for reference: HandleEvent() { if (event type is TabOpen) { nsCOMPtr<nsIDOMNode> OriginalNode = do_QueryInterface(event->GetTarget); nsCOMPtr<nsIDOMNodeList> childlist; // // Note here that I got OriginalNode's local name as "tabbrowser" // OriginalNode->GetChildNodes(getter_AddRefs(childlist)); PRUint32 len; childlist->GetLength(&len); // Return 1; consider only "popup" child element. nsString localName; nsCOMPtr<nsIDOMNode> node1; childlist->Item(0, getter_AddRefs(node1)); node1->GetLocalName(localName); // Returns "popup" as the local name. } } By traversing the DOM tree through DOM Inspector, I came to know that XUL elements are anonymous content. How do I access these XUL elements? Very Thanks in advance, Vaibhav.

    Read the article

  • What is the WCF equivalent?

    - by klausbyskov
    I am trying to port some code that is based on WSE3.0 to WCF. Basically, the old code has the following configuration: <microsoft.web.services3> <diagnostics> <trace enabled="true" input="InputTrace.webinfo" output="OutputTrace.webinfo" /> </diagnostics> <tokenIssuer> <statefulSecurityContextToken enabled="false" /> </tokenIssuer> </microsoft.web.services3> When calling the same service through my "Service Reference" I get this error: Request does not contain required Security header My binding looks like this: <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="LegalUnitGetBinding" closeTimeout="00:01:00" openTimeout="00:01:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:01:00" allowCookies="false" bypassProxyOnLocal="false" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" maxBufferSize="65536" maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxReceivedMessageSize="65536" messageEncoding="Text" textEncoding="utf-8" transferMode="Buffered" useDefaultWebProxy="true"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="8192" maxArrayLength="16384" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> <security mode="Transport"> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> From what I have understood, the service I'm calling only requires an SSL connection, since it receives a username and password as part of a request parameter. Any help or suggestions would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How to avoid using this in a contructor

    - by Paralife
    I have this situation: interface MessageListener { void onMessageReceipt(Message message); } class MessageReceiver { MessageListener listener; public MessageReceiver(MessageListener listener, other arguments...) { this.listener = listener; } loop() { Message message = nextMessage(); listener.onMessageReceipt(message); } } and I want to avoid the following pattern: (Using the this in the Client constructor) class Client implements MessageListener { MessageReceiver receiver; MessageSender sender; public Client(...) { receiver = new MessageReceiver(this, other arguments...); sender = new Sender(...); } . . . @Override public void onMessageReceipt(Message message) { if(Message.isGood()) sender.send("Congrtulations"); else sender.send("Boooooooo"); } } The reason why i need the above functionality is because i want to call the sender inside the onMessageReceipt() function, for example to send a reply. But I dont want to pass the sender into a listener, so the only way I can think of is containing the sender in a class that implements the listener, hence the above resulting Client implementation. Is there a way to achive this without the use of 'this' in the constructor? It feels bizare and i dont like it, since i am passing myself to an object(MessageReceiver) before I am fully constructed. On the other hand, the MessageReceiver is not passed from outside, it is constructed inside, but does this 'purifies' the bizarre pattern? I am seeking for an alternative or an assurance of some kind that this is safe, or situations on which it might backfire on me.

    Read the article

  • Sharepoint: Integrity of lookup fields after a list import

    - by driAn
    Hi there I got a question about the behavior of lookup fields when importing data. I wonder how the lookup fields behave when the list they point to is being replaced/imported. To explain the issue, I will provide a quick example below: As example, assume we have these two sharepoint lists: Product Types ------------- + Type Name + Code Nr + etc Products -------- + Product Name + Product Type (Lookup field to list "Product Types") + etc In my scenario, the Products List contains production data on the production Sharepoint platform. It is filled with data by the business users. However the Product Types list contains rather static data and is maintained by the developer. Now after a development cycle, the developer wants to deploy his new webparts and his new data (product types list). The developer performs the following procedure: On the dev machine: Export "product type" list using stsadm On the production machine: Delete all items in the "product type" list On the production machine: Import the "product type" list using stsadm This means we basically replace the "product type" list on the production server while keeping the "product" list as it is. Now the question: Is this safe? Will the lookup references break under certain circumstances? Any downside of this import/export procedure? What happens if someone accesses a "product" during the import? Will the (now invalid) reference clear its own content (become a null value). What happens if the schema of the "product type" list changes (new column)? Will this cause any troubles? Thanks for all feedback and suggestions!

    Read the article

  • Rails, RSpec and Webrat: Expected output matches rendered output but still getting error in view spe

    - by Anthony Burns
    Hello all, I've just gotten started using BDD with RSpec/Cucumber/Webrat and Rails and I've run into some frustration trying to get my view spec to pass. First of all, I am running Ruby 1.9.1p129 with Rails 2.3.2, RSpec and RSpec-Rails 1.2.6, Cucumber 0.3.11, and Webrat 0.4.4. Here is the code relevant to my question config/routes.rb: map.b_posts 'backend/posts', :controller => 'backend/posts', :action => 'backend_index', :conditions => { :method => :get } map.connect 'backend/posts', :controller => 'backend/posts', :action => 'create', :conditions => { :method => :post } views/backend/posts/create.html.erb: <% form_tag do %> <% end %> *spec/views/backend/posts/create.html.erb_spec.rb:* describe "backend/posts/create.html.erb" do it "should render a form to create a post" do render "backend/posts/create.html.erb" response.should have_selector("form", :method => 'post', :action => b_posts_path) do |form| # Nothing here yet. end end end Here is the relevant part of the output when I run script/spec: 'backend/posts/create.html.erb should render a form to create a post' FAILED expected following output to contain a <form method='post' action='/backend/posts'/> tag: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/REC-html40/loose.dtd"> <html><body><form action="/backend/posts" method="post"> </form></body></html> It would appear to me that what have_selector is looking for is exactly what the template generates, yet the example still fails. I am very much looking forward to seeing my error (because I have a feeling it is my error). Any help is much appreciated!

    Read the article

  • PHP, jQuery and Ajax Object Orientation

    - by pastylegs
    I'm a fairly experienced programmer getting my head around PHP and Ajax for the first time, and I'm having a bit of trouble figuring out how to incorperate object oriented PHP into my ajax webapp. I have an admin page (admin.php) that will load and write information (info.xml) from an XML file depending on the users selection of a form on the admin page. I have decided to use an object (ContentManager.php) to manage the loading and writing of the XML file to disk, i.e : class ContentManager{ var $xml_attribute_1 ... function __construct(){ //load the xml file from disk and save its contents into variables $xml_attribute = simplexml_load_file(/path/to/xml) } function get_xml_contents(){ return xml_attribute; } function write_xml($contents_{ } function print_xml(){ } } I create the ContentManager object in admin.php like so <?php include '../includes/CompetitionManager.php'; $cm = new CompetitionManager() ?> <script> ...all my jquery </script> <html> ... all my form elements </html> So now I want to use AJAX to allow the user to retrieve information from the XML file via the ContentManger app using an interface (ajax_handler.php) like so <?php if(_POST[]=="get_a"){ }else if() } ... ?> I understand how this would work if I wasn't using objects, i.e. the hander php file would do a certain action depending on a variable in the .post request, but with my setup, I can't see how I can get a reference to the ContentManager object I have created in admin.php in the ajax_handler.php file? Maybe my understanding of php object scope is flawed. Anyway, if anyone can make sense of what I'm trying to do, I would appreciate some help!

    Read the article

  • Scalaz: request for use case for Cokleisli composition

    - by oxbow_lakes
    This question isn't meant as flame-bait! As it might be apparent, I've been looking at Scalaz recently. I'm trying to understand why I need some of the functionality that the library provides. Here's something: import scalaz._ import Scalaz._ type NEL[A] = NonEmptyList[A] val NEL = NonEmptyList I put some println statements in my functions to see what was going on (aside: what would I have done if I was trying to avoid side effects like that?). My functions are: val f: NEL[Int] => String = (l: NEL[Int]) => {println("f: " + l); l.toString |+| "X" } val g: NEL[String] => BigInt = (l: NEL[String]) => {println("g: " + l); BigInt(l.map(_.length).sum) } Then I combine them via a cokleisli and pass in a NEL[Int] val k = cokleisli(f) =>= cokleisli(g) println("RES: " + k( NEL(1, 2, 3) )) What does this print? f: NonEmptyList(1, 2, 3) f: NonEmptyList(2, 3) f: NonEmptyList(3) g: NonEmptyList(NonEmptyList(1, 2, 3)X, NonEmptyList(2, 3)X, NonEmptyList(3)X) RES: 57 The RES value is the character count of the (String) elements in the final NEL. Two things occur to me: How could I have known that my NEL was going to be reduced in this manner from the method signatures involved? (I wasn't expecting the result at all) What is the point of this? Can a reasonably simple and easy-to-follow use case be distilled for me? This question is a thinly-veiled plea for some lovely person like retronym to explain how this powerful library actually works.

    Read the article

  • PJSIP Custom Registration Header (iOS)

    - by Daniel Redington
    I am attempting to setup SIP communication with an internal server (using the PJSIP library), however, this server requires a custom header field with a specified header value for the REGISTRATION call. For example's sake we'll call this required header "MyHeader". From what I've found, the pjsua_acc_add() function will add an account and register it to the server using a config struct. The parameter "reg_hdr_list" of the config struct has the description "The optional custom SIP headers to be put in the registration request." Which sounds like exactly what I need, however doesn't seem to have any effect on the call itself. Here's what I have so far: pjsua_acc_config cfg; pjsua_acc_config_default(&cfg); //...Some other config stuff related to the server... pjsip_hdr test; test.name = pj_str("MyHeader"); test.sname = pj_str("MyHdr"); test.type = PJSIP_H_OTHER; test.prev = cfg.reg_hdr_list.prev; test.next = cfg.reg_hdr_list.next; cfg.reg_hdr_list = test; pj_status_t status; status = pjsua_acc_add(&cfg, PJ_TRUE, &acc_id); From the server side, there are no extra header fields or anything. And the struct that is used to define the header (pjsua_hdr) has no "value" or equivalent field, so even if it did create the header, how does it set the value? Here's the refrence for the header list definition: Link And the reference for the header struct: Link Any help would be greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • C# TCP Async EndReceive() throws InvalidOperationException ONLY on Windows XP 32-bit

    - by James Farmer
    I have a simple C# Async Client using a .NET socket that waits for timed messages from a local Java server used for automating commands. The messages come in asynchronously and is written to a ring buffer. This implementation seems to work fine on Windows Vista/7/8 and OSX, but will randomly throw this exception while it's receiving a message from the local Java server: Unhandled Exception: System.InvalidOperationException: EndReceive can only be called once for each asynchronous operation.     at System.Net.Sockets.Socket.EndReceive(IAsyncResult asyncResult, SocketError& errorCode)     at System.Net.Sockets.Socket.EndReceive(IAsyncResult asyncResult)     at SocketTest.Controller.RecvAsyncCallback(IAsyncResult ar)     at System.Net.LazyAsyncResult.Complete(IntPtr userToken)     ... I've looked online for this error, but have found nothing really helpful. This is the code where it seems to break: /// <summary> /// Callback to receive socket data /// </summary> /// <param name="ar">AsyncResult to pass to End</param> private void RecvAsyncCallback(IAsyncResult ar) { // The exception will randomly happen on this call int bytes = _socket.EndReceive(_recvAsyncResult); // check for connection closed if (bytes == 0) { return; } _ringBuffer.Write(_buffer, 0, bytes); // Checks buffer CheckBuffer(); _recvAsyncResult = _sock.BeginReceive(_buffer, 0, _buffer.Length, SocketFlags.None, RecvAsyncCallback, null); } The error doesn't happen on any particular moment except in the middle of receiving a message. The message itself can be any length for this to happen, and the exception can happen right away, or sometimes even up to a minute of perfect communication. I'm pretty new with sockets and network communication, and I feel I might be missing something here. I've tested on at least 8 different computers, and the only similarity with the computers that throw this exception is that their OS is Windows XP 32-bit.

    Read the article

  • CentOS - Convert Each WAV File to MP3/OGG

    - by Benny
    I am trying to build a script (I'm pretty new to linux scripting) and I can't seem to figure out why I'm not able to run this script. If I keep the header (#!/bin/sh) in, I get the following: -bash: /tmp/ConvertAndUpdate.sh: /bin/sh^M: bad interpreter: No such file or directory If I take it out, I get the following: 'tmp/ConvertAndUpdate.sh: line 2: syntax error near unexpected token `do 'tmp/ConvertAndUpdate.sh: line 2: `do Any ideas? Here is the full script: #!/bin/sh for file in *.wav; do mp3=$(basename .$file. .wav).mp3; #echo $mp3 nice lame -b 16 -m m -q 9 .resample 8 .$file. .$mp3.; touch .reference .$file. .$mp3.; chown apache.apache .$mp3.; chmod 600 .$mp3.; rm -f .$file.; mv .$file. /converted; sql="UPDATE recordings SET IsReady=1 WHERE Filename='${file%.*}'" echo $sql | mysql --user=me --password=pasword Recordings #echo $sql done

    Read the article

  • FluentNHibernate Overrides: UseOverridesFromAssemblyOf non-generic version

    - by ThiagoAlves
    Hi, I have a repository class that inherits from a generic implementation: public namespace RepositoryImplementation { public class PersonRepository : Web.Generics.GenericNHibernateRepository<Person> } The generic repository implementation uses Fluent NHibernate conventions. They're working fine. One of those conventions is that all properties are not nullable. Now I need to define that specific properties may be nullable outside the conventions. Fluent NHibernate has an interesting override mechanism: public namespace RepositoryImplementation { public class PersonMappingOverride : IAutoMappingOverride<Person> { public void Override(FluentNHibernate.Automapping.AutoMapping<Funcionario> mapping) { mapping.Map(x => x.PhoneNumber).Nullable(); } } } Now I need to register the override class into Fluent NHibernate. I have the following code in the Web.Generics.GenericNHibernateRepository generic class: AutoMap.AssemblyOf<Person>() .Where(type => type.Namespace == "Entities") .UseOverridesFromAssemblyOf<PersonMappingOverride>(); The problem is: UseOverridesFromAssemblyOf is a generic method, and I can't do something like that: .UseOverridesFromAssemblyOf<PersonMappingOverride>(); Because that would cause a circular reference. I don't want the generic repository to know the either repository or the mapping override class, because they vary from project to project. I see another solution: in the GenericNHibernateRepository class I can do this.GetType() and get the repository implementation type (e.g.: PersonRepository). However I can't call UseOverridesFromAssemblyOf() passing a type. Is there another way to configure overrides in FluentNHibernate? If not, how could I call UseOverridesFromAssemblyOf<T> without making the generic repository depend upon the repository implementation or the mapping override class? (Source: http://wiki.fluentnhibernate.org/Auto_mapping#Overrides)

    Read the article

  • Getting rid of the Expires node in the WS security header

    - by Nick
    From the snippet below, how do i get rid of the <wsu:Expires> tag? I want to either get rid of it or pass it in as a empty element. It is a read only property in objClient.RequestSoapContext.Security.Timestamp.Expires. Any help is appreciated. <wsse:Security soap:mustUnderstand="1"> <wsu:Timestamp wsu:Id="Timestamp-26d09d54-10ef-4141-aa2c-11c75ed8172b"> <wsu:Created>2010-03-08T15:32:16Z</wsu:Created> <wsu:Expires>2010-03-08T15:37:16Z</wsu:Expires> </wsu:Timestamp> <wsse:UsernameToken xmlns:wsu="http://docs.oasis-open.org/wss/2004/01/oasis-200401-wss-wssecurity-utility-1.0.xsd" wsu:Id="SecurityToken-7c9b80ec-98e9-4e41-af2e-ad37070cbdd3"> <wsse:Username>bubba</wsse:Username> <wsse:Password Type="http://docs.oasis-open.org/wss/2004/01/oasis-200401-wss-username-token-profile-1.0#PasswordDigest">dsfdfsdfsfs+-dasdf=</wsse:Password> <wsse:Nonce>QQ3C4HUfO2CyGx7HrjzMzg==</wsse:Nonce> <wsu:Created>2010-03-08T15:32:16Z</wsu:Created> </wsse:UsernameToken> </wsse:Security>

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Model Binding into a List

    - by Maxim Z.
    In my ASP.NET MVC site, part of a feature allows the user to enter the hours when a certain venue is open. I've decided to store these hours in a VenueHours table in my database, with a FK-to-PK relationship to a Venues table, as well as DayOfWeek, OpeningTime, and ClosingTime parameters. In my View, I want to allow the user to only input the times they know about; in other words, some days may not be filled in for a Venue. I'm thinking of creating checkboxes that the user can check to enable the OpeningTime and ClosingTime fields for the DayOfWeek that the checkbox belongs to. My question relates to how to pass this information to my HttpPost Controller Action. As I know the maximum amount of Days that can be passed in (7), I could of course just write 7 nullable VenueHour parameters into my Action, but I'm sure there's a better way. Can I somehow bind the View information into a List that is passed to my Action? This will also help me if I run into a scenario where there is no limit to how much information the user can fill in.

    Read the article

  • dynamic link_to_remote in rails with jquery

    - by Claus Lensbøl
    Hi I'm trying to pass a string with a link_to_remote call as the :id, and the string should be collected from an input field with and id of "movie_title". <div id="search_list">Nothing here yet</div> <br /> <% semantic_form_for @movie do |f| %> <% f.inputs do -%> <%= f.input :title, :class => "movie_title" %> <%= link_to_remote( 'Search...', { :url => { :action => :imdb_search, :id => "'+$('\#movie_title').value+'" } }, { :title => "Search for this movie", :class => "imdb_search" } ) -%> [...removed text that does not matter...] <% end -%> <%= f.buttons %> <% end %> I keep getting an javascript error, and if I remove the # from the jquery in the link, it returns "Undefined". The link I get is: <a class="imdb_search" href="#" onclick="jQuery.ajax({data:'authenticity_token=' + encodeURIComponent('yHPHYTZsPTQLi9JYSauUYcoie/pqPPk2uHBTN0PzNsQ='), dataType:'script', type:'post', url:'/movies/imdb_search/'+$('%23movie_title').value+''}); return false;" title="Search for this movie">Search...</a> So I want the link updated with the contents of movie_title. How do I do that?

    Read the article

  • Previously working emberjs1.0-pre form on jsfiddle returns "error": "Please use POST request"

    - by brg
    This code ** http://jsfiddle.net/wagenet/ACzaJ/8/ ** was working a few days ago, when i returned to it today, it throws {"error": "Please use POST request"}, when i click add button Also the jsfiddle editor.js always throws exception on this line: function stop(){cc = stop; throw StopIteration;}; Does anyone knows the cause of this issue. Many thanks Update 1 Based on @Peter Wagenet's suggestions below, the form now logs entries or inputs to the console but it doesn't display on the result section of jsfiddle instead what is displayed on jsfiddle result section or page is still this error {"error": "Please use POST request"} ** http://jsfiddle.net/ACzaJ/18/ Update 2 In this fiddle, http://jsfiddle.net/ACzaJ/19/, i have successfully eliminated this error {"error": "Please use POST request"} by adding event.preventDefault(); to the submit action in Todos.TodoFormView. That allows us to use arbitrary view methods as action handlers. The existing issue is that the input to the form, only displays on the console and not on jsfiddle result section, though no error displays on the result section, there is a new error appearing in the console of the updated fiddle: Uncaught Error: Cannot perform operations on a Metamorph that is not in the DOM. Finally solved I needed to comment out App.initialize() for it to work as expected. This the working fiddle ** http://jsfiddle.net/ACzaJ/20/. I don't know why that is so, but my guess is that, App.initialize works with other parts like the router for routing, ApplicationController and ApplicationView with {{outlet}} in the handlebars, which i didn't need for this fiddle. Finally Finally and completely solved This ** http://jsfiddle.net/tQWn8/ works with App.initialize. But you have to declare all those components above and pass the router to App.initialize, like this App..initialize(router). If you don't do this, then you will get the old error Uncaught Error: Cannot perform operations on a Metamorph that is not in the DOM.

    Read the article

  • Link to Hotmail / Windows Live email compose -- maintaining BCC

    - by Curtis Gibby
    My app creates a mailto-esque link that takes the end user to a Hotmail compose screen with various attributes pre-filled. Most of the functionality I need is working: to, cc, subject, body. However, Hotmail seems to be stripping out any BCC attributes that I pass into the URL. For example, this link works as advertised: http://mail.live.com/mail/EditMessageLight.aspx?n=&[email protected]&[email protected];%[email protected]&subject=the%20subject&body=the%20body I get the one email address in the To field and two in the CC field. But when I try the exact same URL except substituting "bcc" for "cc", the two addresses are nowhere to be found. http://mail.live.com/mail/EditMessageLight.aspx?n=&[email protected]&[email protected];%[email protected]&subject=the%20subject&body=the%20body This link format is posted all over the web (along with a variation like http://mail.live.com/default.aspx?rru=compose%3f[attributes] ), but none of the various settings that I've tried actually work to bring in the BCC addresses. I need the BCC so that the email recipients are not given each others' email addresses. My versions of this url for regular old mailto, along with Gmail and Yahoo Mail, work perfectly. Surprise surprise.

    Read the article

  • Ruby on Rails / Yellow Maps For Ruby Plugin woes...

    - by Zach
    Okay I've read through the plugin comments and the docs as well and I have yet to come up with an answer as to how to do this. Here's my problem I want to use the :info_window_tabs and the :icon option, but I don't know what format to pass my information in. According to the documentation the following code should be correct. Here's my code: @mapper.overlay_init(GMarker.new([map.lat, map.lng], :title => map.name, :info_window_tabs => [ {:tab => "HTML", :content => @marker_html}, {:tab => "Attachments", :content => "stuff"}], :icon => { :image => "../images/icon.png" })) The readme and documentation can be viewed here. And the relevant ruby file that I am trying to interact with, including the author's comments, can be viewed here. I have tried the #rubyonrails channel in IRC as well as emailing the author directly and reporting an issue at GitHub. It really is just a question of syntax. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Blackberry Apps - Importing a code-signed jar into an application project

    - by Eric Sniff
    Hi everyone, I'm working on a library project that Blackberry Java developers can import into their projects. It uses protected RIM APIs which require that it be code-signed, which I have done. But, I can't get my Jar imported and working with a simple helloWorld app. I'm using the eclipse plug-in Blackberry-JDE. Here is what I have tried: First: Building myLibProject with BlackBerry_JDE_PluginFull_1.0.0.67 into a JAR, signing it and importing it into a BlackBerry_JDE_PluginFull_1.0.0.67 application project -- I get a class not found error, while compiling the application project. Next: I imported myLibProject into an BlackBerry_JDE_PluginFull_1.1.1.* library project, built it into a jar, signed it and imported it into a BlackBerry_JDE_PluginFull_1.1.1.* application project. It built this time, but while loading up the simulator to test it I get the following error ( Access violation reading from 0xFFFFFFC ) before the simulator can loadup and it crashs the simulator. Other stuff I've tried: I also tried importing the jar into it's own project and having the HelloWorld app project reference that project. If I include the src in my application project it works fine... But Im looking for a way to deploy this as compiled code. Any Ideas? Or help?

    Read the article

  • Strange C++ performance difference?

    - by STingRaySC
    I just stumbled upon a change that seems to have counterintuitive performance ramifications. Can anyone provide a possible explanation for this behavior? Original code: for (int i = 0; i < ct; ++i) { // do some stuff... int iFreq = getFreq(i); double dFreq = iFreq; if (iFreq != 0) { // do some stuff with iFreq... // do some calculations with dFreq... } } While cleaning up this code during a "performance pass," I decided to move the definition of dFreq inside the if block, as it was only used inside the if. There are several calculations involving dFreq so I didn't eliminate it entirely as it does save the cost of multiple run-time conversions from int to double. I expected no performance difference, or if any at all, a negligible improvement. However, the perfomance decreased by nearly 10%. I have measured this many times, and this is indeed the only change I've made. The code snippet shown above executes inside a couple other loops. I get very consistent timings across runs and can definitely confirm that the change I'm describing decreases performance by ~10%. I would expect performance to increase because the int to double conversion would only occur when iFreq != 0. Chnaged code: for (int i = 0; i < ct; ++i) { // do some stuff... int iFreq = getFreq(i); if (iFreq != 0) { // do some stuff with iFreq... double dFreq = iFreq; // do some stuff with dFreq... } } Can anyone explain this? I am using VC++ 9.0 with /O2. I just want to understand what I'm not accounting for here.

    Read the article

  • Grails bean-fields plugin

    - by Don
    Hi, I'm having problems using the Grails bean-fields plugin with a class this is annotated Validateable, but is not a domain/command class. The root cause of the problem appears to be in this method of BeanTagLib.groovy private def getBeanConstraints(bean) { if (bean?.metaClass?.hasProperty(bean, 'constraints')) { def cons = bean.constraints if (cons != null) { if (log.debugEnabled) { log.debug "Bean is of type ${bean.class} - the constraints property was a [${cons.class}]" } // Safety check for the case where bean is no a proper domain/command object // This avoids confusing errors where constraints comes back as a Closure if (!(cons instanceof Map)) { if (log.warnEnabled) { log.warn "Bean of type ${bean.class} is not a domain class, command object or other validateable object - the constraints property was a [${cons.class}]" } } } else { if (log.warnEnabled) { log.warn "Bean of type ${bean.class} has no constraints" } } return cons } else return null } I tested out this method above in the grails console and when I pass an instance of MyBean into this method, it logs: Bean of type ${bean.class} is not a domain class, command object or other validateable object - the constraints property was a [${cons.class}] Because the constraints are returned as an instance of Closure instead of a Map. If I could figue out how to get a Map reference to the constraints of a @Validateable class (that is not a domain/command class), I guess I could resolve the problem. Thanks, Don

    Read the article

  • Publish Maven artifacts on FTP with Hudson FTP Publisher Plugin

    - by jaguard
    I'm building a number of artefacts (zip files for different environments: test, dev) using the maven-assembly-plugin using a specialized Maven profile. These artefacts I want to copy/collect on on a FTP server keeping the version (01.07.10.16.Wed-1626) as a folder, so I need to copy from test/build/01.07.10.16.Wed-1626/ to ftp://my-ftp-server:21/projects/myserver-1.7/01.07.10.16.Wed-1626/ The layout for the Maven output is this: target/ build/ 01.07.10.16.Wed-1626/ my-server-01.07.10.16.Wed-1626-dev.zip my-server-01.07.10.16.Wed-1626-test.zip For copying the artefacts I'm using FTP Publisher Plugin but it seams I miss something since that even the build is OK and the artefacts are build without problem but the job is finishing without copying the artefacts, and in the console there is no log info about copying the artefacts My FTP publisher config (FTP repository hosts) is: Hostname: my-ftp-server Port: 21 Timeout: 10000 Root Repository Path: projects User Name: my-user Password: my-pass My Hudson job FTP publisher config (Publish artifacts to FTP) is: FTP site: my-ftp-server Files to upload Source: target/build/** Destination: myserver-1.7 1: There is any log to check if there are any FTP copy errors ? 2: There is any problem with the file pattern (source) or with the dest ?

    Read the article

  • Can I indicate where my MySQL parameter should go more meaningfully than just having a ? to mark the

    - by Paul H
    I've got a chunk of code where I can pass info into a MySQL command using parameters through an ODBC connection. Example code showing surname passed in using string surnameToLookFor: using (OdbcConnection DbConn = new OdbcConnection( connectToDB )) { OdbcDataAdapter cmd = new OdbcDataAdapter( "SELECT Firstname, Address, Postcode FROM customers WHERE Surname = ?", DbConn); OdbcParameter odbcParam = new OdbcParameter("surname", surnameToLookFor); cmd.SelectCommand.Parameters.Add(odbcParam); cmd.Fill(dsCustomers, "customers"); } What I'd like to know is whether I can indicate where my parameter should go more meaningfully than just having a ? to mark the position - as I could see this getting quite hard to debug if there are multiple parameters being replaced. I'd like to provide a name to the parameter in a manner something like this: SELECT Firstname, Address, Postcode FROM customers WHERE Surname = ?surname ", When I try this it just chokes. The following code public System.Data.DataSet Customer_Open(string sConnString, long ld) { using (MySqlConnection oConn = new MySqlConnection(sConnString)) { oConn.Open(); MySqlCommand oCommand = oConn.CreateCommand(); oCommand.CommandText = "select * from cust_customer where id=?id"; MySqlParameter oParam = oCommand.Parameters.Add("?id", MySqlDbType.Int32); oParam.Value = ld; oCommand.Connection = oConn; DataSet oDataSet = new DataSet(); MySqlDataAdapter oAdapter = new MySqlDataAdapter(); oAdapter.SelectCommand = oCommand; oAdapter.Fill(oDataSet); oConn.Close(); return oDataSet; } } is from http://www.programmingado.net/a-389/MySQL-NET-parameters-in-query.aspx and includes the fragment where id=?id Which would be ideal. Is this only available through the .Net connector rather than the ODBC? If it is possible to do using ODBC how would I need to change my code fragment to enable this?

    Read the article

  • WinForms data binding with a Save button?

    - by Mat
    How is data binding in C# WinForms supposed to work when you have a Save button? I don't want the data updated until I press Save! I have two forms (list and detail) backed by a BindingList<T> collection and my custom object from that collection, respectively. I can bind each form to the list or object appropriately. However, any changes made in the detail form are immediately reflected in the list form - I don't want to save the changes and update the details shown in the list until the Save button is pressed. Is data binding designed to support this? Is there a common pattern for doing so? Whichever way I look at it, binding doesn't seem to be able to support this scenario. I've considered the following: Pass a clone of the object to the detail form, but then I have to reconcile the changes on Save - changes may have been made to the copy in the list in the meantime. Implementing IEditableObject and calling EndEdit on save almost works as I can prevent the list being notified of the changes made until Save is pressed, but if something else causes a refresh the list is updated with the interim data. I'm currently left with dispensing with data binding in my detail view, and doing it all manually. Which is rather annoying.

    Read the article

  • Alternative to jQuery's .toggle() method that supports eventData?

    - by Bungle
    The jQuery documentation for the .toggle() method states: The .toggle() method is provided for convenience. It is relatively straightforward to implement the same behavior by hand, and this can be necessary if the assumptions built into .toggle() prove limiting. The assumptions built into .toggle have proven limiting for my current task, but the documentation doesn't elaborate on how to implement the same behavior. I need to pass eventData to the handler functions provided to toggle(), but it appears that only .bind() will support this, not .toggle(). My first inclination is to use a flag global to a single handler function to store the click state. In other words, rather than: $('a').toggle(function() { alert('odd number of clicks'); }, function() { alert('even number of clicks'); }); do this: var clicks = true; $('a').click(function() { if (clicks) { alert('odd number of clicks'); clicks = false; } else { alert('even number of clicks'); clicks = true; } }); I haven't tested the latter, but I suspect it would work. Is this the best way to do something like this, or is there a better way that I'm missing? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • AS3 microphone recording/saving works, in-flash PCM playback double speed

    - by Lowgain
    I have a working mic recording script in AS3 which I have been able to successfully use to save .wav files to a server through AMF. These files playback fine in any audio player with no weird effects. For reference, here is what I am doing to capture the mic's ByteArray: (within a class called AudioRecorder) public function startRecording():void { _rawData = new ByteArray(); _microphone.addEventListener(SampleDataEvent.SAMPLE_DATA, _samplesCaptured, false, 0, true); } private function _samplesCaptured(e:SampleDataEvent):void { _rawData.writeBytes(e.data); } This works with no problems. After the recording is complete I can take the _rawData variable and run it through a WavWriter class, etc. However, if I run this same ByteArray as a sound using the following code which I adapted from the adobe cookbook: (within a class called WavPlayer) public function playSound(data:ByteArray):void { _wavData = data; _wavData.position = 0; _sound.addEventListener(SampleDataEvent.SAMPLE_DATA, _playSoundHandler); _channel = _sound.play(); _channel.addEventListener(Event.SOUND_COMPLETE, _onPlaybackComplete, false, 0, true); } private function _playSoundHandler(e:SampleDataEvent):void { if(_wavData.bytesAvailable <= 0) return; for(var i:int = 0; i < 8192; i++) { var sample:Number = 0; if(_wavData.bytesAvailable > 0) sample = _wavData.readFloat(); e.data.writeFloat(sample); } } The audio file plays at double speed! I checked recording bitrates and such and am pretty sure those are all correct, and I tried changing the buffer size and whatever other numbers I could think of. Could it be a mono vs stereo thing? Hope I was clear enough here, thanks!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 651 652 653 654 655 656 657 658 659 660 661 662  | Next Page >