Search Results

Search found 21343 results on 854 pages for 'pass by reference'.

Page 658/854 | < Previous Page | 654 655 656 657 658 659 660 661 662 663 664 665  | Next Page >

  • Why user control with code behind file doesn't want to compile under MVC2?

    - by kyrisu
    I have user control in my MVC2 app placed in the Content folder (it's not supposed to be a view, just reusable part of the app). UserControl1.ascx looks like: <@ Control AutoEventWireup="true" Language="C#" CodeFile="~/Content/UserControl1.ascx.cs" Inherits="MVCDrill.Content.UserControl1" %> <div runat="server" id="mydiv"> <asp:LinkButton id="lb_text" runat="server"></asp:LinkButton> </div> UserControl1.ascx.cs looks like: using System; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; namespace MVCDrill.Content { public class UserControl1 : UserControl { public string Text { get { return this.lb_text.Text; } set { this.lb_text.Text = value; } } } } I'm pretty sure this kind of stuff compiled under webforms but I'm getting compilation error: 'MVCDrill.Content.UserControl1' does not contain a definition for 'lb_text' and no extension method 'lb_text' accepting a first argument of type 'MVCDrill.Content.UserControl1' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) Am I missing something? How to change it (what is the alternative) in MVC2 ? p.s. Intellisense sees lb_text with no problem. I've tried with different controls with the same outcome.

    Read the article

  • Convert string to decimal retaining the exact input format

    - by Brett
    Hi All, I'm sure this is a piece of cake but I'm really struggling with something that seems trivial. I need to check the inputted text of a textbox on the form submit and check to see if it's within a desired range (I've tried a Range Validator but it doesn't work for some reason so I'm trying to do this server-side). What I want to do is: Get the value inputted (eg. 0.02), replace the commas and periods, convert that to a decimal (or double or equivalent) and check to see if it's between 0.10 and 35000.00. Here's what I have so far: string s = txtTransactionValue.Text.Replace(",", string.Empty).Replace(".", string.Empty); decimal transactionValue = Decimal.Parse(s); if (transactionValue >= 0.10M && transactionValue <= 35000.00M) // do something If I pass 0.02 into the above, transactionValue is 2. I want to retain the value as 0.02 (ie. do no format changes to it - 100.00 is 100.00, 999.99 is 999.99) Any ideas? Thanks in advance, Brett

    Read the article

  • Flash video player doesn't play after rewriting a url

    - by Joel
    Hi! I recently started a new job working on a content management system. One of the jobs was to implement url rewriting, which i've done, but for some reason the URL rewriting has killed the ability to play flv files through FLVPlayer_Progressive. An example can be seen below: Working if you then follow the link on the menu and go to Campaigns It's a Living Thing you can see how it's not working when the url is being re-written. Below is the html for the object tag i'm setting within a gui editor on the admin side, everything on that end works also! <object height="160" width="284" classid="clsid:D27CDB6E-AE6D-11cf-96B8-444553540000" codebase="http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=8,0,0,0" id="FLVPlayer"> <param name="movie" value="/sitefiles/PeachSocial/flash/FLVPlayer_Progressive.swf"> <param name="salign" value="lt"> <param name="quality" value="high"> <param name="scale" value="noscale"> <param name="FlashVars" value="&amp;MM_ComponentVersion=1&amp;skinName=Clear_Skin_1&amp;autoPlay=true&amp;autoRewind=true&amp;streamName=/sitefiles/PeachSocial/flash/dept_envrnmnt"> <embed src="/sitefiles/PeachSocial/flash/FLVPlayer_Progressive.swf" flashvars="&amp;MM_ComponentVersion=1&amp;skinName=Clear_Skin_1&amp;autoPlay=true&amp;autoRewind=true&amp;streamName=/sitefiles/PeachSocial/flash/dept_envrnmnt" quality="high" scale="noscale" name="FLVPlayer" salign="LT" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" pluginspage="http://www.adobe.com/shockwave/download/download.cgi?P1_Prod_Version=ShockwaveFlash" width="284" height="160"> </object> I would have thought giving the path the way i am would have taken it back to the server root and gone from there, but it doesn't seem to like it once the url rewriting happens. Anyways i'm outta ideas after a pretty frustrating day of trying to pass the thing absolute urls, relative paths and the like and am hoping a fresh set of eyes may help.

    Read the article

  • Break on EXC_BAD_ACCESS in XCode?

    - by jasonh
    I'm new to iPhone development and XCode in general and have no idea how to begin troubleshooting an EXC_BAD_ACCESS signal. How can I get XCode to break at the exact line that is causing the error? I can't seem to get XCode to stop on the line causing the problem, but I do see the following lines in my debug console: Sun Oct 25 15:12:14 jasonsmacbook TestProject[1289] : CGContextSetStrokeColorWithColor: invalid context Sun Oct 25 15:12:14 jasonsmacbook TestProject[1289] : CGContextSetLineWidth: invalid context Sun Oct 25 15:12:14 jasonsmacbook TestProject[1289] : CGContextAddPath: invalid context Sun Oct 25 15:12:14 jasonsmacbook TestProject[1289] : CGContextDrawPath: invalid context 2009-10-25 15:12:14.680 LanderTest[1289:207] *** -[CFArray objectAtIndex:]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x3c4e610 Now, I am attempting to draw to the context I retrieve from UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext() and pass to the object that I want to draw with. Further trial and error debugging and I found that an NSMutableArray I have a property for on my class was a zombie. I went into the init function for the class and here's the code I was using: if ((self = [super init])) { NSMutableArray *array = [NSMutableArray array]; self.terrainBlocks = array; [array release]; } return self; } I removed the [array release] line and it no longer gives me the EXC_BAD_ACCESS signal, but I'm now confused about why this works. I thought that when I used the property, it automatically retained it for me, and thus I should release it from within init so that I don't have a leak. I'm thoroughly confused about how this works and all the guides and Stackoverflow questions I've read only confuse me more about how to set properties within my init method. There seems to be no consensus as to which way is the best.

    Read the article

  • Objective-C Simple Inheritance and OO Principles

    - by bleeckerj
    I have a subclass SubClass that inherits from baseclass BaseClass. BaseClass has an initializer, like so: -(id)init { self = [super init]; if(self) { [self commonInit]; } return self; } -(void)commonInit { self.goodStuff = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; } SubClass does its initializer, like so: -(id)init { self = [super init]; if(self) { [self commonInit]; } return self; } -(void)commonInit { self.extraGoodStuff = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; } Now, I've *never taken a proper Objective-C course, but I'm a programmer more from the Electrical Engineering side, so I make do. I've developed server-side applications mostly in Java though, so I may be seeing the OO world through Java principles. When SubClass is initialized, it calls the BaseClass init and my expectation would be — because inheritance to me implies that characteristics of a BaseClass pass through to SubClass — that the commonInit method in BaseClass would be called during BaseClass init. It is not. I can *sorta understand maybe-possibly-stretch-my-imagination why it wouldn't be. But, then — why wouldn't it be based on the principles of OOP? What does "self" represent if not the instance of the class of the running code? Okay, so — I'm not going to argue that what a well-developed edition of Objective-C is doing is wrong. So, then — what is the pattern I should be using in this case? I want SubClass to have two main bits — the goodStuff that BaseClass has as well as the extraGoodStuff that it deserves as well. Clearly, I've been using the wrong pattern in this type of situation. Am I meant to expose commonInit (which makes me wonder about encapsulation principles — why expose something that, in the Java world at least, would be considered "protected" and something that should only ever be called once for each instance)? I've run into a similar problem in the recent past and tried to muddle through it, but now — I'm really wondering if I've got my principles and concepts all straight in my head. Little help, please.

    Read the article

  • Java: volatile guarantees and out-of-order execution

    - by WizardOfOdds
    Note that this question is solely about the volatile keyword and the volatile guarantees: it is not about the synchronized keyword (so please don't answer "you must use synchronize" for I don't have any issue to solve: I simply want to understand the volatile guarantees (or lack of guarantees) regarding out-of-order execution). Say we have an object containing two volatile String references that are initialized to null by the constructor and that we have only one way to modify the two String: by calling setBoth(...) and that we can only set their references afterwards to non-null reference (only the constructor is allowed to set them to null). For example (it's just an example, there's no question yet): public class SO { private volatile String a; private volatile String b; public SO() { a = null; b = null; } public void setBoth( @NotNull final String one, @NotNull final String two ) { a = one; b = two; } public String getA() { return a; } public String getB() { return b; } } In setBoth(...), the line assigning the non-null parameter "a" appears before the line assigning the non-null parameter "b". Then if I do this (once again, there's no question, the question is coming next): if ( so.getB() != null ) { System.out.println( so.getA().length ); } Am I correct in my understanding that due to out-of-order execution I can get a NullPointerException? In other words: there's no guarantee that because I read a non-null "b" I'll read a non-null "a"? Because due to out-of-order (multi)processor and the way volatile works "b" could be assigned before "a"? volatile guarantees that reads subsequent to a write shall always see the last written value, but here there's an out-of-order "issue" right? (once again, the "issue" is made on purpose to try to understand the semantics of the volatile keyword and the Java Memory Model, not to solve a problem).

    Read the article

  • Converting UnicodeString to PAnsiChar in Delphi XE

    - by moodforaday
    In Delphi XE I am using the BASS audio library, which contains this function: function BASS_StreamCreateURL(url: PAnsiChar; offset: DWORD; flags: DWORD; proc: DOWNLOADPROC; user: Pointer):HSTREAM; stdcall; external bassdll; The 'url' parameter is of type PAnsiChar, so in my code I do a cast: FStreamHandle := BASS_StreamCreateURL(PAnsiChar( url ) [...] The compiler emits a warning on this line: "suspicious typecast of string to PAnsiChar". In trying to eliminate the warning, I found that the recommended way is to use a double cast: FStreamHandle := BASS_StreamCreateURL(PAnsiChar( AnsiString( url )) [...] This does eliminate the warning, but the BASS function now returns error code 2 ("cannot open file"), which tells me the URL string it receives is somehow broken. I cannot see what the bass DLL actually receives, but using a breakpoint in the debugger the string looks good: var s : PAnsiChar; begin s := PAnsiChar( AnsiString( url )); At this point string s appears fine, but the BASS function fails when I pass it. My initial code: PAnsiChar( url ) works well with BASS, but emits a warning. So what's the correct way of getting from UnicodeString to PAnsiChar without a warning?

    Read the article

  • Sharepoint: Integrity of lookup fields after a list import

    - by driAn
    Hi there I got a question about the behavior of lookup fields when importing data. I wonder how the lookup fields behave when the list they point to is being replaced/imported. To explain the issue, I will provide a quick example below: As example, assume we have these two sharepoint lists: Product Types ------------- + Type Name + Code Nr + etc Products -------- + Product Name + Product Type (Lookup field to list "Product Types") + etc In my scenario, the Products List contains production data on the production Sharepoint platform. It is filled with data by the business users. However the Product Types list contains rather static data and is maintained by the developer. Now after a development cycle, the developer wants to deploy his new webparts and his new data (product types list). The developer performs the following procedure: On the dev machine: Export "product type" list using stsadm On the production machine: Delete all items in the "product type" list On the production machine: Import the "product type" list using stsadm This means we basically replace the "product type" list on the production server while keeping the "product" list as it is. Now the question: Is this safe? Will the lookup references break under certain circumstances? Any downside of this import/export procedure? What happens if someone accesses a "product" during the import? Will the (now invalid) reference clear its own content (become a null value). What happens if the schema of the "product type" list changes (new column)? Will this cause any troubles? Thanks for all feedback and suggestions!

    Read the article

  • jQuery .animate() not animating backgroundPosition in IE

    - by mikemike
    I'm trying to animate a background image to move down a set amount of pixels but remain in the center of the page. Upon another click of an element I need it to move back to the top, but still remain in the center. Below is the current code: $(document).ready(function() { $('#email_campaigns').click(function(){ var width = $(window).width(); width = (width / 2) - 700; if($('#email_campaigns_box').css('display') == 'none'){ //$('body').css('background-position','center 119px'); $('body').animate({ backgroundPosition: (width + "px 119px") }, {duration:500}); } else { //$('body').css('background-position','center top'); $('body').animate({ backgroundPosition: (width + "px 0px") }, {duration:500}); } $('#email_campaigns_box').slideToggle("slow"); $('#client_login_box').slideUp("slow"); }); $('#client_login').click(function(){ var width = $(window).width(); width = (width / 2) - 700; alert(width); if($('#client_login_box').css('display') == 'none'){ //$('body').css('background-position','center 119px'); $('body').animate({ backgroundPosition: (width + "px 119px") }, {duration:500}); } else { //$('body').css('background-position','center top'); $('body').animate({ backgroundPosition: (width + "px 0px") }, {duration:500}); } $('#client_login_box').slideToggle("slow"); $('#email_campaigns_box').slideUp("slow"); }); }); I cannot pass 'center', as it will onyl accept numeric values. My goal is to calulate the center of the page in pixels (width = (width / 2) - 700;), and then animate to this rough position (it's normally out by a few pixels due to scrollbars, and then force to the center using a .css() call. The problem is that IE does not want to play ball. IE will not animate at all. Firefox/Safari/Chrome all work as expected. Below is a live example: http://recklessnewmedia.com/new/# (click 'email campaigns' at the top). Thanks

    Read the article

  • Publish Maven artifacts on FTP with Hudson FTP Publisher Plugin

    - by jaguard
    I'm building a number of artefacts (zip files for different environments: test, dev) using the maven-assembly-plugin using a specialized Maven profile. These artefacts I want to copy/collect on on a FTP server keeping the version (01.07.10.16.Wed-1626) as a folder, so I need to copy from test/build/01.07.10.16.Wed-1626/ to ftp://my-ftp-server:21/projects/myserver-1.7/01.07.10.16.Wed-1626/ The layout for the Maven output is this: target/ build/ 01.07.10.16.Wed-1626/ my-server-01.07.10.16.Wed-1626-dev.zip my-server-01.07.10.16.Wed-1626-test.zip For copying the artefacts I'm using FTP Publisher Plugin but it seams I miss something since that even the build is OK and the artefacts are build without problem but the job is finishing without copying the artefacts, and in the console there is no log info about copying the artefacts My FTP publisher config (FTP repository hosts) is: Hostname: my-ftp-server Port: 21 Timeout: 10000 Root Repository Path: projects User Name: my-user Password: my-pass My Hudson job FTP publisher config (Publish artifacts to FTP) is: FTP site: my-ftp-server Files to upload Source: target/build/** Destination: myserver-1.7 1: There is any log to check if there are any FTP copy errors ? 2: There is any problem with the file pattern (source) or with the dest ?

    Read the article

  • Validating Application Settings Key Values in Isolated Storage for Windows Phone Applications

    - by Martin Anderson
    Hello everyone. I am very new at all this c# Windows Phone programming, so this is most probably a dumb question, but I need to know anywho... IsolatedStorageSettings appSettings = IsolatedStorageSettings.ApplicationSettings; if (!appSettings.Contains("isFirstRun")) { firstrunCheckBox.Opacity = 0.5; MessageBox.Show("isFirstRun not found - creating as true"); appSettings.Add("isFirstRun", "true"); appSettings.Save(); firstrunCheckBox.Opacity = 1; firstrunCheckBox.IsChecked = true; } else { if (appSettings["isFirstRun"] == "true") { firstrunCheckBox.Opacity = 1; firstrunCheckBox.IsChecked = true; } else if (appSettings["isFirstRun"] == "false") { firstrunCheckBox.Opacity = 1; firstrunCheckBox.IsChecked = false; } else { firstrunCheckBox.Opacity = 0.5; } } I am trying to firstly check if there is a specific key in my Application Settings Isolated Storage, and then wish to make a CheckBox appear checked or unchecked depending on if the value for that key is "true" or "false". Also I am defaulting the opacity of the checkbox to 0.5 opacity when no action is taken upon it. With the code I have, I get the warnings Possible unintended reference comparison; to get a value comparison, cast the left hand side to type 'string' Can someone tell me what I am doing wrong. I have explored storing data in an Isolated Storage txt file, and that worked, I am now trying Application Settings, and will finally try to download and store an xml file, as well as create and store user settings into an xml file. I want to try understand all the options open to me, and use which ever runs better and quicker

    Read the article

  • Redirecting users on select from autocomplete?

    - by juno-2
    Hi, i'm trying to implement the jquery autocomplete plugin. I've got it up and running, but something is not working properly. Basically i have a autocomplete-list of employees. The list is generated from a table in a sql-database (employee_names and employee_ID), using a VB.NET handler (.ashx file). The data is formatted as: employee_name-employee_ID. So far so good and all employees are listed in autocomplete. The problem is that i don't know how to redirect a user to a certain page (for example employee_profile.aspx) when they've selected an employee from autocomplete. This is my redirect-code, but it ain't working like it should: $('#fname2').result(function(event, data, formatted) { location.href = "employee_profile.aspx?id=" + data }); For example; a user selects It will redirect a user to employee_profile.aspx?id=name of employee-id of employee (for example: employee_profile.aspx?id=John Doe-91210) instead of employee_profile.aspx?id=91210. I know i can strip the employee_ID with: formatResult: function(data, value) { return value.split("-")[1]; } }); But i do not know how to pass that employee_ID to the redirect-page.. Here my whole code: $().ready(function() { $("#fname2").autocomplete("AutocompleteData.ashx", { minChars: 3, selectFirst: false, formatItem: function(data, i, n, value) { return value.split("-")[0]; }, //Not used, just for splitting employee_ID //formatResult: function(data, value) { // return value.split("-")[1]; //} }); $('#fname2').result(function(event, data, formatted) { location.href = "employee_profile.aspx?id=" + data }); }); I know i'm very close and it should be something really simple, but can anyone help me out?

    Read the article

  • Where does Tomcat append / to directory paths?

    - by Anonymouse
    Suppose my Tomcat webapps directory looks like this: webapps/ webapps/fooapp/ webapps/fooapp/WEB-INF/ webapps/fooapp/WEB-INF/web.xml webapps/fooapp/bardir/ When I make a GET request for /fooapp/bardir, Tomcat sees that webapps/fooapp/bardir is a directory and sends back a 302 to /fooapp/bardir/ (with a slash at the end). Here is my question: Where in the Tomcat source code does this take place? (I'm looking at 6.0.x but a correct answer for any version would be a great starting point.) The only reference material I can find on this subject is in the Catalina Functional Specifications which states, regarding the Default Servlet: On each HTTP GET request processed by this servlet, the following processing shall be performed: [...] If the requested resource is a directory: If the request path does not end with "/", redirect to a corresponding path with "/" appended so that relative references in welcome files are resolved correctly. However, this functionality does not appear to be in org.apache.catalina.servlets.DefaultServlet; or at least, it's not there exclusively: if I replace the default servlet in web.xml with a servlet whose servlet-class does not exist, directory paths still come back 302 to add the slash, while every other request comes back with an error as expected.

    Read the article

  • Calling Model Functions from a Library

    - by Abs
    Hello all, I have turned a normal PHP class into a library so I can use it in Codeigniter as a library. I can load it and call the functions I need in that class. Here is that class to help with the question. However, there are quite a few points where I have to call functions in my class. These functions reside in the model that instantiated my class. How can I do this as currently normal calls don't work. Here is my code: class Controlpanel_model extends Model { var $category = ''; var $dataa = 'a'; function Controlpanel_model(){ parent::Model(); } function import_browser_bookmarks(){ $this->load->library('BookmarkParser'); /* *In this function call to the class I pass * what model functions exist that it should call * You can view how this done by clicking the link above and looking at line 383 */ $this->bookmarkparser->parseNetscape("./bookmarks.html", 0, 'myURL', 'myFolder'); return $this->dataa; } function myURL($data, $depth, $no) { $category = $this->category; $this->dataa .= 'Tag = '.$category.'<br />'.'URL = '.$data["url"].'<br />'.'Title = '.$data["descr"].'<br />'.'<br /><br />'; } function myFolder($data, $depth, $no) { $this->category = $data["name"]; } } Thanks all for any help.

    Read the article

  • Asymptotic complexity of a compiler

    - by Meinersbur
    What is the maximal acceptable asymptotic runtime of a general-purpose compiler? For clarification: The complexity of compilation process itself, not of the compiled program. Depending on the program size, for instance, the number of source code characters, statements, variables, procedures, basic blocks, intermediate language instructions, assembler instructions, or whatever. This is highly depending on your point of view, so this is a community wiki. See this from the view of someone who writes a compiler. Will the optimisation level -O4 ever be used for larger programs when one of its optimisations takes O(n^6)? Related questions: When is superoptimisation (exponential complexity or even incomputable) acceptable? What is acceptable for JITs? Does it have to be linear? What is the complexity of established compilers? GCC? VC? Intel? Java? C#? Turbo Pascal? LCC? LLVM? (Reference?) If you do not know what asymptotic complexity is: How long are you willing to wait until the compiler compiled your project? (scripting languages excluded)

    Read the article

  • What is the best way to update an unattached entity on Entity Framework?

    - by Carlos Loth
    Hi, In my project I have some data classes to retrieve data from the database using the Entity Framework. We called these classes *EntityName*Manager. All of them have a method to retrieve entities from database and they behave most like this: static public EntityA SelectByName(String name) { using (var context = new ApplicationContext()) { var query = from a in context.EntityASet where a.Name == name select a; try { var entityA = query.First(); context.Detach(entityA); return entityA; } catch (InvalidOperationException ex) { throw new DataLayerException( String.Format("The entityA whose name is '{0}' was not found.", name), ex); } } } You can see that I detach the entity before return it to the method caller. So, my question is "what is the best way to create an update method on my *EntityA*Manager class?" I'd like to pass the modified entity as a parameter of the method. But I haven't figured out a way of doing it without going to the database and reload the entity and update its values inside a new context. Any ideas? Thanks in advance, Carlos Loth.

    Read the article

  • Calling SubmitChanges on DataContext does not update database.

    - by drasto
    In C# ASP.NET MVC application I use Link to SQL to provide data for my application. I have got simple database schema like this: In my controller class I reference this data context called Model (as you can see on the right side of picture in properties) like this: private Model model = new Model(); I've got a table (List) of Series rendered on my page. It renders properly and I was able to add delete functionality to delete Series like this: public ActionResult Delete(int id) { model.Series.DeleteOnSubmit(model.Series.SingleOrDefault(s => s.ID == id)); model.SubmitChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } Where appropriate action link looks like this: <%: Html.ActionLink("Delete", "Delete", new { id=item.ID })%> Also create (implemented in similar way) works fine. However edit does not work. My edit looks like this: public ActionResult Edit(int id) { return View(model.Series.SingleOrDefault(s => s.ID == id)); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(Series series) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { UpdateModel(series); series.Title = series.Title + " some string to ensure title has changed"; model.SubmitChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } I have controlled that my database has a primary key set up correctly. I debugged my application and found out that everything works as expected until the line with model.SubmitChanges();. This command does not apply the changes of Title property(or any other) against the database. Please help.

    Read the article

  • not a valid AllXsd value

    - by jun
    I got this from a Soap client request: Exception: SoapFault exception: [soap:Client] Server was unable to read request. --- There is an error in XML document (2, 273). --- The string '2010-5-24' is not a valid AllXsd value. in /path/filinet.php:21 Stack trace: #0 [internal function]: SoapClient-__call('SubIdDetailsByO...', Array) #1 /path/filinet.php(21): SoapClient-SubIdDetailsByOfferId(Array) #2 {main} Seems like I am sending an incorrect value, how do I format my value in an AllXsd in php? Here is my code: <?php $start = isset($_GET['start']) ? $_GET['start'] : date("Y-m-d"); $end = isset($_GET['end']) ? $_GET['end'] : date("Y-m-d"); //define parameter array $param = array('userName'=>'user', 'password'=>'pass', 'startDate' => $start, 'endDate' => $end, 'promotionId' => ''); //Get wsdl path $serverPath = "https://webservices.filinet.com/affiliate/reports.asmx?WSDL"; //Declare Soap client $client = new SoapClient($serverPath); try { //make the call $result = $client->SubIdDetailsByOfferId($param); //If error found display error if(isset($fault)) { echo "Error: ". $fault; } //If no error display response else { //Used to display raw XML in the Web Browser header("Content-Type: text/xml;"); //SubIdDetailsResult = XML results echo $result->SubIdDetailsByOfferIdResult; } } catch(SoapFault $ex) { echo "<b>Exception:</b> ". $ex; } unset($client); ?>

    Read the article

  • Android Custom Dialog NullPointerException

    - by Kyle Hughes
    I cannot for the life of me figure out why I'm getting a NullPointerException. When a user clicks on a particular image, a dialog window is supposed to pop-up and display a larger version of said image: private OnClickListener coverListener = new OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { showDialog(DIALOG_COVER); } }; DIALOG_COVER is set to = 0. The associated onCreateDialog looks like this: protected Dialog onCreateDialog(int id) { Dialog dialog; switch(id) { case DIALOG_COVER: dialog = new Dialog(mContext); dialog.setContentView(R.layout.cover_dialog); dialog.setTitle(book.getTitle()); ImageView coverLarge = (ImageView)findViewById(R.id.coverLarge); coverLarge.setImageBitmap(book.getCover()); break; default: dialog = null; } return dialog; } For reference, this is cover_dialog.xml: <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/coverDialog" android:orientation="horizontal" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:padding="10dp"> <ImageView android:id="@+id/coverLarge" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:scaleType="fitStart" /></LinearLayout> Now, when the image previously described is clicked, the application immediately crashes and throws the following error through LogCat: 06-08 13:29:17.727: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(2220): Uncaught handler: thread main exiting due to uncaught exception 06-08 13:29:17.757: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(2220): java.lang.NullPointerException 06-08 13:29:17.757: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(2220): at org.kylehughes.android.brarian.AndroidBrarian.onCreateDialog(AndroidBrarian.java:259) The line in question refers to this line inside of onCreateDialog: coverLarge.setImageBitmap(book.getCover()); Basically, I don't get why coverLarge is null at that point. Any help would be much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • DataGridComboBoxColumn was not found

    - by Budda
    The System.Windows.Controls.Data.DataGrid is used in my Silverlight application, but on attempt to add 'DataGridComboBoxColumn' column to the grid the following error messages are obtained: Error 1 The tag 'DataGridComboBoxColumn' does not exist in XML namespace 'clr-namespace:System.Windows.Controls;assembly=System.Windows.Controls.Data'. C:\Project\Budda\VFMElita\VfmElitaView\Pages\SquadView.xaml 140 22 VfmElitaView Error 2 The type 'data:DataGridComboBoxColumn' was not found. Verify that you are not missing an assembly reference and that all referenced assemblies have been built. C:\Project\Budda\VFMElita\VfmElitaView\Pages\SquadView.xaml 142 22 VfmElitaView Here is my "header" of the xaml-file: Here is grid: <StackPanel Grid.Row="1" Grid.Column="0" Grid.RowSpan="2"> <TextBlock Text="????"/> <data:DataGrid AutoGenerateColumns="False" ItemsSource="{Binding FieldPlayers}"> <data:DataGrid.Columns> <!--<data:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="#"> <data:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock Margin="4" Loaded="TextBlock_Loaded"/> </DataTemplate> </data:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </data:DataGridTemplateColumn>--> <data:DataGridTextColumn Header="?" Binding="{Binding Number}"/> <data:DataGridComboBoxColumn> - that doesn't work </data:DataGridComboBoxColumn> </data:DataGrid.Columns> </data:DataGrid> </StackPanel> What is required to get 'DataGridComboBoxColumn' workable? Any help is welcome. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • PJSIP Custom Registration Header (iOS)

    - by Daniel Redington
    I am attempting to setup SIP communication with an internal server (using the PJSIP library), however, this server requires a custom header field with a specified header value for the REGISTRATION call. For example's sake we'll call this required header "MyHeader". From what I've found, the pjsua_acc_add() function will add an account and register it to the server using a config struct. The parameter "reg_hdr_list" of the config struct has the description "The optional custom SIP headers to be put in the registration request." Which sounds like exactly what I need, however doesn't seem to have any effect on the call itself. Here's what I have so far: pjsua_acc_config cfg; pjsua_acc_config_default(&cfg); //...Some other config stuff related to the server... pjsip_hdr test; test.name = pj_str("MyHeader"); test.sname = pj_str("MyHdr"); test.type = PJSIP_H_OTHER; test.prev = cfg.reg_hdr_list.prev; test.next = cfg.reg_hdr_list.next; cfg.reg_hdr_list = test; pj_status_t status; status = pjsua_acc_add(&cfg, PJ_TRUE, &acc_id); From the server side, there are no extra header fields or anything. And the struct that is used to define the header (pjsua_hdr) has no "value" or equivalent field, so even if it did create the header, how does it set the value? Here's the refrence for the header list definition: Link And the reference for the header struct: Link Any help would be greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Passing VB Callback function to C dll - noob is stuck.

    - by WaveyDavey
    Callbacks in VB (from C dll). I need to pass a vb function as a callback to a c function in a dll. I know I need to use addressof for the function but I'm getting more and more confused as to how to do it. Details: The function in the dll that I'm passing the address of a callback to is defined in C as : PaError Pa_OpenStream( PaStream** stream, const PaStreamParameters *inputParameters, const PaStreamParameters *outputParameters, double sampleRate, unsigned long framesPerBuffer, PaStreamFlags streamFlags, PaStreamCallback *streamCallback, void *userData ); where the function is parameter 7, *streamCallback. The type PaStreamCallback is defines thusly: typedef int PaStreamCallback( const void *input, void *output, unsigned long frameCount, const PaStreamCallbackTimeInfo* timeInfo, PaStreamCallbackFlags statusFlags, void *userData ); In my vb project I have: Private Declare Function Pa_OpenStream Lib "portaudio_x86.dll" _ ( ByVal stream As IntPtr _ , ByVal inputParameters As IntPtr _ , ByVal outputParameters As PaStreamParameters _ , ByVal samprate As Double _ , ByVal fpb As Double _ , ByVal paClipoff As Long _ , ByVal patestCallBack As IntPtr _ , ByVal data As IntPtr) As Integer (don't worry if I've mistyped some of the other parameters, I'll get to them later! Let's concentrate on the callback for now.) In module1.vb I have defined the callback function: Function MyCallback( ByVal inp As Byte, _ ByVal outp As Byte, _ ByVal framecount As Long, _ ByVal pastreamcallbacktimeinfo As Byte, _ ByVal pastreamcallbackflags As Byte, _ ByVal userdata As Byte) As Integer ' do clever things here End Function The external function in the dll is called with err = Pa_OpenStream( ptr, _ nulthing, _ outputParameters, _ SAMPLE_RATE, _ FRAMES_PER_BUFFER, _ clipoff, _ AddressOf MyCallback, _ dataptr) This is broken in the declaration of the external function - it doesn't like the type IntPtr as a function pointer for AddressOf. Can anyone show me how to implement passing this callback function please ? Many thanks David

    Read the article

  • Daylight Savings Handling in DateDiff() in MS Access?

    - by PowerUser
    I am fully aware of DateDiff()'s inability to handle daylight savings issues. Since I often use it to compare the number of hours or days between 2 datetimes several months apart, I need to write up a solution to handle DST. This is what I came up with, a function that first subtracts 60 minutes from a datetime value if it falls within the date ranges specified in a local table (LU_DST). Thus, the usage would be: datediff("n",Conv_DST_to_Local([date1]),Conv_DST_to_Local([date2])) My question is: Is there a better way to handle this? I'm going to make a wild guess that I'm not the first person with this question. This seems like the kind of thing that should have been added to one of the core reference libraries. Is there a way for me to access my system clock to ask it if DST was in effect at a certain date & time? Function Conv_DST_to_Local(X As Date) As Date Dim rst As DAO.Recordset Set rst = CurrentDb.OpenRecordset("LU_DST") Conv_DST_to_Local = X While rst.EOF = False If X > rst.Fields(0) And X < rst.Fields(1) Then Conv_DST_to_Local = DateAdd("n", -60, X) rst.MoveNext Wend End Function Notes I have visited and imported the BAS file of http://www.cpearson.com/excel/TimeZoneAndDaylightTime.aspx. I spent at least an hour by now reading through it and, while it may do its job well, I can't figure out how to modify it to my needs. But if you have an answer using his data structures, I'll take a look. Timezones are not an issue since this is all local time.

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net ListView and event handling.

    - by Neil
    I have an .ascx which contains a listview. Let's call it the parent. Within its ItemTemplate I reference a second .ascx which is basically another listview, let's call it the child. On the parent, the child control is wrapped in a placeholder tag. I use this place holder tag to show and hide the child. Psuedo code: The child listview has a 'close' button in its Layout Template. Let's call it "btnClose" with an onClick event of "btnClose_Click". I want to use this button to set the visibility of the containing placeholder. I'm trying to avoid doing something like using PlaceHolder plhChild = (PlaceHolder)childListCtl.NamingContainer since I can't guarantee every instance of the child .ascx will be contained within a placeholder. I tried creating an event in the child that could be subscribed to. Psuedo code: public delegate CloseButtonHandler(); public event CloseButtonHandler CloseButtonEvent; And in the actual btnClose_Click(Object sender, EventArgs e) event I have: if (CloseButtonEvent != null) CloseButtonEvent(); My problem is that the delegate CloseButtonEvent is always null. I've tried assigning the delegate in the listview's OnDatabound event of the parent and on the click event, to set the plhChild.visible = true, and I've stepped through the code and know the delegate instantiation works in both place, but again, when it gets to the btnClose_Click event on the child, the delegate is null. Any help would be appreciated. Neil

    Read the article

  • XNA 2D mouse picking

    - by Corndog
    I'm working on a simple 2D Real time strategy game using XNA. Right now I have reached the point where I need to be able to click on the sprite for a unit or building and be able to reference the object associated with that sprite. From the research I have done over the last three days I have found many references on how to do "Mouse picking" in 3D which does not seem to apply to my situation. I understand that another way to do this is to simply have an array of all "selectable" objects in the world and when the player clicks on a sprite it checks the mouse location against the locations of all the objects in the array. the problem I have with this approach is that it would become rather slow if the number of units and buildings grows to larger numbers. (it also does not seem very elegant) so what are some other ways I could do this. (Please note that I have also worked over the ideas of using a Hash table to associate the object with the sprite location, and using a 2 dimensional array where each location in the array represents one pixel in the world. once again they seem like rather clunky ways of doing things.)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 654 655 656 657 658 659 660 661 662 663 664 665  | Next Page >