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  • Write a compiler for a language that looks ahead and multiple files?

    - by acidzombie24
    In my language I can use a class variable in my method when the definition appears below the method. It can also call methods below my method and etc. There are no 'headers'. Take this C# example. class A { public void callMethods() { print(); B b; b.notYetSeen(); public void print() { Console.Write("v = {0}", v); } int v=9; } class B { public void notYetSeen() { Console.Write("notYetSeen()\n"); } } How should I compile that? what i was thinking is: pass1: convert everything to an AST pass2: go through all classes and build a list of define classes/variable/etc pass3: go through code and check if there's any errors such as undefined variable, wrong use etc and create my output But it seems like for this to work I have to do pass 1 and 2 for ALL files before doing pass3. Also it feels like a lot of work to do until I find a syntax error (other than the obvious that can be done at parse time such as forgetting to close a brace or writing 0xLETTERS instead of a hex value). My gut says there is some other way. Note: I am using bison/flex to generate my compiler.

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  • Java: volatile guarantees and out-of-order execution

    - by WizardOfOdds
    Note that this question is solely about the volatile keyword and the volatile guarantees: it is not about the synchronized keyword (so please don't answer "you must use synchronize" for I don't have any issue to solve: I simply want to understand the volatile guarantees (or lack of guarantees) regarding out-of-order execution). Say we have an object containing two volatile String references that are initialized to null by the constructor and that we have only one way to modify the two String: by calling setBoth(...) and that we can only set their references afterwards to non-null reference (only the constructor is allowed to set them to null). For example (it's just an example, there's no question yet): public class SO { private volatile String a; private volatile String b; public SO() { a = null; b = null; } public void setBoth( @NotNull final String one, @NotNull final String two ) { a = one; b = two; } public String getA() { return a; } public String getB() { return b; } } In setBoth(...), the line assigning the non-null parameter "a" appears before the line assigning the non-null parameter "b". Then if I do this (once again, there's no question, the question is coming next): if ( so.getB() != null ) { System.out.println( so.getA().length ); } Am I correct in my understanding that due to out-of-order execution I can get a NullPointerException? In other words: there's no guarantee that because I read a non-null "b" I'll read a non-null "a"? Because due to out-of-order (multi)processor and the way volatile works "b" could be assigned before "a"? volatile guarantees that reads subsequent to a write shall always see the last written value, but here there's an out-of-order "issue" right? (once again, the "issue" is made on purpose to try to understand the semantics of the volatile keyword and the Java Memory Model, not to solve a problem).

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  • jquery image hover popup cant detect browser edge and change its direction

    - by Salman
    hi guys i am trying to implement jquery image hover popup but facing a problem when the popup is closer to browser edge it goes beyond its edge i want it to change its direction when it finds that space is not enough to show that popup, i have see this effect in many plugins where popups, tooltips and drop down menus change their direction if they are close to browser window edge can any one guide me in right direction here is the screen shot for reference http://img512.imageshack.us/img512/4990/browseredge.png here is the jquery hover code function imagePreview(){ /* CONFIG */ xOffset = 10; yOffset = 30; // these 2 variable determine popup's distance from the cursor // you might want to adjust to get the right result /* END CONFIG */ $("a.preview").hover(function(e){ this.t = this.title; this.title = ""; var c = (this.t != "") ? "<br>" + this.t : ""; var newName = this.name; //console.log(this.name); newName=newName.replace("/l/","/o/"); //console.log(newName); $("body").append("<p id='preview'><img src='"+ this.name +"' alt='Image preview' style='margin-bottom:5px;'>"+ c +"</p>"); $("#preview img").error(function () { $("#preview img").attr("src" ,newName).css({'width': '400px', 'height': 'auto'}); }); $("#preview") .css("top",(e.pageY - xOffset) + "px") .css("left",(e.pageX + yOffset) + "px") .fadeIn("fast"); }, function(){ this.title = this.t; $("#preview").remove(); }); $("a.preview").mousemove(function(e){ $("#preview") .css("top",(e.pageY - xOffset) + "px") .css("left",(e.pageX + yOffset) + "px"); }); }; any help will be appriciated Thanks Salman

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  • WCF Certificates without Certificate Store

    - by Kane
    My team is developing a number of WPF plug-ins for a 3rd party thick client application. The WPF plug-ins use WCF to consume web services published by a number of TIBCO services. The thick client application maintains a separate central data store and uses a proprietary API to access the data store. The thick client and WPF plug-ins are due to be deployed onto 10,000 workstations. Our customer wants to keep the certificate used by the thick client in the central data store so that they don't need to worry about re-issuing the certificate (current re-issue cycle takes about 3 months) and also have the opportunity to authorise the use of the certificate. The proposed architecture offers a form of shared secret / authentication between the central data store and the TIBCO services. Whilst I don’t necessarily agree with the proposed architecture our team is not able to change it and must work with what’s been provided. Basically our client wants us to build into our WPF plug-ins a mechanism which retrieves the certificate from the central data store (which will be allowed or denied based on roles in that data store) into memory then use the certificate for creating the SSL connection to the TIBCO services. No use of the local machine's certificate store is allowed and the in memory version is to be discarded at the end of each session. So the question is does anyone know if it is possible to pass an in-memory certificate to a WCF (.NET 3.5) service for SSL transport level encryption? Note: I had asked a similar question (here) but have since deleted it and re-asked it with more information.

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  • how to fix: ctags null expansion of name pattern "\1"

    - by bua
    Hi, As the title points I have problem with ctags when trying to parse user-defined language. Basically I've followed those instructions. The quickest and easiest way to do this is by defining a new language using the program options. In order to have Swine support available every time I start ctags, I will place the following lines into the file $HOME/.ctags, which is read in every time ctags starts: --langdef=swine --langmap=swine:.swn --regex-swine=/^def[ \t]*([a-zA-Z0-9_]+)/\1/d,definition/ The first line defines the new language, the second maps a file extension to it, and the third defines a regular expression to identify a language definition and generate a tag file entry for it. I've tried different flags: b,e for regex. My definition of tag is: --regex-q=/^[ \t]*[^[:space:]]*[:space:]*:[:space:]*{/\l/f,function/b When I replace \1 with anything else (ascii caracter set ), It works. the output is: (--regex-q=/^[ \t]*[^[:space:]]*[:space:]*:[:space:]*{/my function name/f,function/b) !_TAG_FILE_FORMAT 2 /extended format; --format=1 will not append ;" to lines/ !_TAG_FILE_SORTED 1 /0=unsorted, 1=sorted, 2=foldcase/ !_TAG_PROGRAM_AUTHOR Darren Hiebert /[email protected]/ !_TAG_PROGRAM_NAME Exuberant Ctags // !_TAG_PROGRAM_URL http://ctags.sourceforge.net /official site/ !_TAG_PROGRAM_VERSION 5.8 // my function name file.q /^.ras.getLocation:{[u]$/;" f my function name file.q /^.a.getResource:{[u; pass]$/;" f my function name file.q /^.a.init:{$/;" f my function name file.q /^.a.kill:{[u; force]$/;" f my function name file.q /^.asdf.status:{[what; u]$/;" f my function name file.q /^.pc:{$/;" f Why \1 doesn't work? (I've tried all 1-9)

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  • not a valid AllXsd value

    - by jun
    I got this from a Soap client request: Exception: SoapFault exception: [soap:Client] Server was unable to read request. --- There is an error in XML document (2, 273). --- The string '2010-5-24' is not a valid AllXsd value. in /path/filinet.php:21 Stack trace: #0 [internal function]: SoapClient-__call('SubIdDetailsByO...', Array) #1 /path/filinet.php(21): SoapClient-SubIdDetailsByOfferId(Array) #2 {main} Seems like I am sending an incorrect value, how do I format my value in an AllXsd in php? Here is my code: <?php $start = isset($_GET['start']) ? $_GET['start'] : date("Y-m-d"); $end = isset($_GET['end']) ? $_GET['end'] : date("Y-m-d"); //define parameter array $param = array('userName'=>'user', 'password'=>'pass', 'startDate' => $start, 'endDate' => $end, 'promotionId' => ''); //Get wsdl path $serverPath = "https://webservices.filinet.com/affiliate/reports.asmx?WSDL"; //Declare Soap client $client = new SoapClient($serverPath); try { //make the call $result = $client->SubIdDetailsByOfferId($param); //If error found display error if(isset($fault)) { echo "Error: ". $fault; } //If no error display response else { //Used to display raw XML in the Web Browser header("Content-Type: text/xml;"); //SubIdDetailsResult = XML results echo $result->SubIdDetailsByOfferIdResult; } } catch(SoapFault $ex) { echo "<b>Exception:</b> ". $ex; } unset($client); ?>

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  • Two classes and inline functions

    - by klew
    I have two classes and both of them uses some of the other class, on example: // class1.h class Class1; #include "class2.h" class Class1 { public: static Class2 *C2; ... }; // class2.h class Class2; #include "class1.h" class Class2 { public: static Class1 *C1; ... }; And when I define it like in example above, it works (I also have some #ifndef to avoid infinite header recurency). But I also want to add some inline functions to my classes. And I read here that I should put definition of inline function in header file, because it won't work if I'll put them in cpp file and want to call them from other cpp file (when I do it I get undefined reference during linking). But the problem here is with something like this: // class1.h ... inline void Class1::Foo() { C2->Bar(); } I get error: invalid use of incomplete type ‘struct Class2’. So how can I do it?

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  • Idiomatic Scala way to deal with base vs derived class field names?

    - by Gregor Scheidt
    Consider the following base and derived classes in Scala: abstract class Base( val x : String ) final class Derived( x : String ) extends Base( "Base's " + x ) { override def toString = x } Here, the identifier 'x' of the Derived class parameter overrides the field of the Base class, so invoking toString like this: println( new Derived( "string" ).toString ) returns the Derived value and gives the result "string". So a reference to the 'x' parameter prompts the compiler to automatically generate a field on Derived, which is served up in the call to toString. This is very convenient usually, but leads to a replication of the field (I'm now storing the field on both Base and Derived), which may be undesirable. To avoid this replication, I can rename the Derived class parameter from 'x' to something else, like '_x': abstract class Base( val x : String ) final class Derived( _x : String ) extends Base( "Base's " + _x ) { override def toString = x } Now a call to toString returns "Base's string", which is what I want. Unfortunately, the code now looks somewhat ugly, and using named parameters to initialize the class also becomes less elegant: new Derived( _x = "string" ) There is also a risk of forgetting to give the derived classes' initialization parameters different names and inadvertently referring to the wrong field (undesirable since the Base class might actually hold a different value). Is there a better way? Edit: To clarify, I really only want the Base values; the Derived ones just seem necessary for initializing the Base ones. The example only references them to illustrate the ensuing issues. It might be nice to have a way to suppress automatic field generation if the derived class would otherwise end up hiding a base class field.

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  • Practical size limitations for RDBMS

    - by grenade
    I am working on a project that must store very large datasets and associated reference data. I have never come across a project that required tables quite this large. I have proved that at least one development environment cannot cope at the database tier with the processing required by the complex queries against views that the application layer generates (views with multiple inner and outer joins, grouping, summing and averaging against tables with 90 million rows). The RDBMS that I have tested against is DB2 on AIX. The dev environment that failed was loaded with 1/20th of the volume that will be processed in production. I am assured that the production hardware is superior to the dev and staging hardware but I just don't believe that it will cope with the sheer volume of data and complexity of queries. Before the dev environment failed, it was taking in excess of 5 minutes to return a small dataset (several hundred rows) that was produced by a complex query (many joins, lots of grouping, summing and averaging) against the large tables. My gut feeling is that the db architecture must change so that the aggregations currently provided by the views are performed as part of an off-peak batch process. Now for my question. I am assured by people who claim to have experience of this sort of thing (which I do not) that my fears are unfounded. Are they? Can a modern RDBMS (SQL Server 2008, Oracle, DB2) cope with the volume and complexity I have described (given an appropriate amount of hardware) or are we in the realm of technologies like Google's BigTable? I'm hoping for answers from folks who have actually had to work with this sort of volume at a non-theoretical level.

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  • Spinner in Android crashing when visibilty changes while handling OnClick in a button

    - by Dave George
    I have a spinner in UI, which I want to hide when I handle onClick method for a button. But the application is crashing all the time. Is it that I can't use the setVisibility(View.Gone) on spinners (it is not written anywhere). If I comment it out, then application run fine. I am getting NullPointerException and I am using RelativeLayout. Also, can I do this: public void onItemSelected(AdapterView<?> arg0, View view, int pos, long arg3) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub Toast.makeText(SpinnerActivity.this,selected , Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); spinner.setVisibility(View.GONE); } } Spinner code fore reference: itemsCity=getResources().getStringArray(R.array.cities_array); ArrayAdapter<CharSequence> adapter = ArrayAdapter.createFromResource( this, R.array.cities_array, android.R.layout.simple_spinner_item); adapter.setDropDownViewResource(android.R.layout.simple_spinner_dropdown_item); spinnerCity.setAdapter(adapter); And here is Button code: private class BtClickListner implements View.OnClickListener{ @Override public void onClick(View v) { essEditText.setVisibility(View.GONE); spinnerCity.setEnabled(false);// Getting exception here // Also tried spinnerCity.setVisibility(View.GONE);// Exception SameBt.setVisibility(View.GONE);// This is same button for which I am handliing event, but it allows me to change tis property at run time. }

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  • Asynchronous background processes in Python?

    - by Geuis
    I have been using this as a reference, but not able to accomplish exactly what I need: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/89228/how-to-call-external-command-in-python/92395#92395 I also was reading this: http://www.python.org/dev/peps/pep-3145/ For our project, we have 5 svn checkouts that need to update before we can deploy our application. In my dev environment, where speedy deployments are a bit more important for productivity than a production deployment, I have been working on speeding up the process. I have a bash script that has been working decently but has some limitations. I fire up multiple 'svn updates' with the following bash command: (svn update /repo1) & (svn update /repo2) & (svn update /repo3) & These all run in parallel and it works pretty well. I also use this pattern in the rest of the build script for firing off each ant build, then moving the wars to Tomcat. However, I have no control over stopping deployment if one of the updates or a build fails. I'm re-writing my bash script with Python so I have more control over branches and the deployment process. I am using subprocess.call() to fire off the 'svn update /repo' commands, but each one is acting sequentially. I try '(svn update /repo) &' and those all fire off, but the result code returns immediately. So I have no way to determine if a particular command fails or not in the asynchronous mode. import subprocess subprocess.call( 'svn update /repo1', shell=True ) subprocess.call( 'svn update /repo2', shell=True ) subprocess.call( 'svn update /repo3', shell=True ) I'd love to find a way to have Python fire off each Unix command, and if any of the calls fails at any time the entire script stops.

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  • Flash video player doesn't play after rewriting a url

    - by Joel
    Hi! I recently started a new job working on a content management system. One of the jobs was to implement url rewriting, which i've done, but for some reason the URL rewriting has killed the ability to play flv files through FLVPlayer_Progressive. An example can be seen below: Working if you then follow the link on the menu and go to Campaigns It's a Living Thing you can see how it's not working when the url is being re-written. Below is the html for the object tag i'm setting within a gui editor on the admin side, everything on that end works also! <object height="160" width="284" classid="clsid:D27CDB6E-AE6D-11cf-96B8-444553540000" codebase="http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=8,0,0,0" id="FLVPlayer"> <param name="movie" value="/sitefiles/PeachSocial/flash/FLVPlayer_Progressive.swf"> <param name="salign" value="lt"> <param name="quality" value="high"> <param name="scale" value="noscale"> <param name="FlashVars" value="&amp;MM_ComponentVersion=1&amp;skinName=Clear_Skin_1&amp;autoPlay=true&amp;autoRewind=true&amp;streamName=/sitefiles/PeachSocial/flash/dept_envrnmnt"> <embed src="/sitefiles/PeachSocial/flash/FLVPlayer_Progressive.swf" flashvars="&amp;MM_ComponentVersion=1&amp;skinName=Clear_Skin_1&amp;autoPlay=true&amp;autoRewind=true&amp;streamName=/sitefiles/PeachSocial/flash/dept_envrnmnt" quality="high" scale="noscale" name="FLVPlayer" salign="LT" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" pluginspage="http://www.adobe.com/shockwave/download/download.cgi?P1_Prod_Version=ShockwaveFlash" width="284" height="160"> </object> I would have thought giving the path the way i am would have taken it back to the server root and gone from there, but it doesn't seem to like it once the url rewriting happens. Anyways i'm outta ideas after a pretty frustrating day of trying to pass the thing absolute urls, relative paths and the like and am hoping a fresh set of eyes may help.

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  • Very strange jQuery / AJAX behavior

    - by Dr. DOT
    I have an Ajax call to the server that only works when I pass an alert(); to it. Cannot figure out what is wrong. Can anyone help? This Does Not Work (ie., Ajax call to server does not get made): <!-- jQuery.support.cors = true; // needed for ajax to work in certain older browsers and versions $('input[name="status"]').on("change", function() { if ($('input:radio[name="status"]:checked').val() == 'Y') { $.ajax({ url: 'http://mydomain.com/dir/myPHPscript.php?param=' + $('#param').val() + '&id=' + ( $('#id').val() * 1 ) + '&mode=' + $('#mode').val() }); } window.parent.closePP(); window.top.location.href = $('#redirect').val(); // reloads page }); //--> This Works! (ie., Ajax call to server gets made when I have the alert() present): <!-- jQuery.support.cors = true; // needed for ajax to work in certain older browsers and versions $('input[name="status"]').on("change", function() { if ($('input:radio[name="status"]:checked').val() == 'Y') { $.ajax({ url: 'http://mydomain.com/dir/myPHPscript.php?param=' + $('#param').val() + '&id=' + ( $('#id').val() * 1 ) + '&mode=' + $('#mode').val() }); **alert('this makes it work');** } window.parent.closePP(); window.top.location.href = $('#redirect').val(); // reloads page }); //--> Thanks.

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  • Having problems with sqlDataReader

    - by Anthony
    I am using a sqlDataReader to get data and set it to session variables. The problem is it doesn't want to work with expressions. I can reference any other column in the table, but not the expressions. The SQL does work. The code is below. Thanks in advance, Anthony Using myConnectionCheck As New SqlConnection(myConnectionString) Dim myCommandCheck As New SqlCommand() myCommandCheck.Connection = myConnectionCheck myCommandCheck.CommandText = "SELECT Projects.Pro_Ver, Projects.Pro_Name, Projects.TL_Num, Projects.LP_Num, Projects.Dev_Num, Projects.Val_Num, Projects.Completed, Flow.Initiate_Date, Flow.Requirements, Flow.Req_Date, Flow.Dev_Review, Flow.Dev_Review_Date, Flow.Interface, Flow.Interface_Date, Flow.Approval, Flow.Approval_Date, Flow.Test_Plan, Flow.Test_Plan_Date, Flow.Dev_Start, Flow.Dev_Start_Date, Flow.Val_Start, Flow.Val_Start_Date, Flow.Val_Complete, Flow.Val_Complete_Date, Flow.Stage_Production, Flow.Stage_Production_Date, Flow.MKS, Flow.MKS_Date, Flow.DIET, Flow.DIET_Date, Flow.Closed, Flow.Closed_Date, Flow.Dev_End, Flow.Dev_End_Date, Users_1.Email AS Expr1, Users_2.Email AS Expr2, Users_3.Email AS Expr3, Users_4.Email AS Expr4, Users_4.FNAME, Users_3.FNAME AS Expr5, Users_2.FNAME AS Expr6, Users_1.FNAME AS Expr7 FROM Projects INNER JOIN Users AS Users_1 ON Projects.TL_Num = Users_1.PIN INNER JOIN Users AS Users_2 ON Projects.LP_Num = Users_2.PIN INNER JOIN Users AS Users_3 ON Projects.Dev_Num = Users_3.PIN INNER JOIN Users AS Users_4 ON Projects.Val_Num = Users_4.PIN INNER JOIN Flow ON Projects.id = Flow.Flow_Pro_Num WHERE id = " myCommandCheck.CommandText += QSid myConnectionCheck.Open() myCommandCheck.ExecuteNonQuery() Dim count As Int16 = myCommandCheck.ExecuteScalar If count = 1 Then Dim myDataReader As SqlDataReader myDataReader = myCommandCheck.ExecuteReader() While myDataReader.Read() Session("TL_email") = myDataReader("Expr1").ToString() Session("PE_email") = myDataReader("Expr2").ToString() Session("DEV_email") = myDataReader("Expr3").ToString() Session("VAL_email") = myDataReader("Expr4").ToString() Session("Project_Name") = myDataReader("Pro_Name").ToString() End While myDataReader.Close() End If End Using

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  • C++ .NET DLL vs C# Managed Code ? (File Encrypting AES-128+XTS)

    - by Ranhiru
    I need to create a Windows Mobile Application (WinMo 6.x - C#) which is used to encrypt/decrypt files. However it is my duty to write the encryption algorithm which is AES-128 along with XTS as the mode of operation. RijndaelManaged just doesn't cut it :( Very much slower than DES and 3DES CryptoServiceProviders :O I know it all depends on how good I am at writing the algorithm in the most efficient way. (And yes I my self have to write it from scratch but i can take a look @ other implementations) Nevertheless, does writing a C++ .NET DLL to create the encryption/decryption algorithm + all the file handling and using it from C# have a significant performance advantage OVER writing the encryption algorithm + file handling in completely managed C# code? If I use C++ .NET to create the encryption algorithm, should I use MFC Smart Device DLL or ATL? What is the difference and is there any impact on which one I choose? And can i just add a reference to the C++ DLL from C# or should I use P/Invoke? I am fairly competent with C# than C++ but performance plays a major role as I have convinced my lecturers that AES is a very efficient cryptographic algorithm for resource constrained devices. Thanx a bunch :)

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  • Attributes of attributevalue element in SAML 2 Attribute Statement

    - by AJ
    I am building a web service that receives a SAML attribute query and responds with an attribute statement. I know I can return one or multiple values of a SAML attribute. I have some values that are dependent on the other attribute values. I need to show that relationship. Let us say, the query is for the Subject Dave and the return values are his company and job title. Dave can work at multiple companies with job title at each company. I have two options of sending this data back: Send this as a complextype by defining an attribute organization and return xml within that attribute. <saml:Attribute name="company"> <saml:AttributeValue> <company name="company1" jobtitle="CIO"/> <company name="company2" jobtitle="VP"/> </saml:AttributeValue> Try to send multiple values of attributes somehow sending a reference in attributevalue element. <saml:Attribute name="company"> <attributeValue>company1</attributeValue> <attributeValue>company2</attributeValue> </saml:Attribute> <saml:Attribute name="jobTitle> <attributeValue company="company1">CIO</attributeValue> <attributeValue company="company2">VP</attributeValue> </saml:Attribute> Which approach will you prefer? Why? I am biased towards second approach as it does not require client to know about any schema. It does require them to know about non-standard attribute company in the attribute value.

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  • Calling SubmitChanges on DataContext does not update database.

    - by drasto
    In C# ASP.NET MVC application I use Link to SQL to provide data for my application. I have got simple database schema like this: In my controller class I reference this data context called Model (as you can see on the right side of picture in properties) like this: private Model model = new Model(); I've got a table (List) of Series rendered on my page. It renders properly and I was able to add delete functionality to delete Series like this: public ActionResult Delete(int id) { model.Series.DeleteOnSubmit(model.Series.SingleOrDefault(s => s.ID == id)); model.SubmitChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } Where appropriate action link looks like this: <%: Html.ActionLink("Delete", "Delete", new { id=item.ID })%> Also create (implemented in similar way) works fine. However edit does not work. My edit looks like this: public ActionResult Edit(int id) { return View(model.Series.SingleOrDefault(s => s.ID == id)); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(Series series) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { UpdateModel(series); series.Title = series.Title + " some string to ensure title has changed"; model.SubmitChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } I have controlled that my database has a primary key set up correctly. I debugged my application and found out that everything works as expected until the line with model.SubmitChanges();. This command does not apply the changes of Title property(or any other) against the database. Please help.

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  • best way to pick a random subset from a collection?

    - by Tom
    I have a set of objects in a Vector from which I'd like to select a random subset (e.g. 100 items coming back; pick 5 randomly). In my first (very hasty) pass I did an extremely simple and perhaps overly clever solution: Vector itemsVector = getItems(); Collections.shuffle(itemsVector); itemsVector.setSize(5); While this has the advantage of being nice and simple, I suspect it's not going to scale very well, i.e. Collections.shuffle() must be O(n) at least. My less clever alternative is Vector itemsVector = getItems(); Random rand = new Random(System.currentTimeMillis()); // would make this static to the class List subsetList = new ArrayList(5); for (int i = 0; i < 5; i++) { // be sure to use Vector.remove() or you may get the same item twice subsetList.add(itemsVector.remove(rand.nextInt(itemsVector.size()))); } Any suggestions on better ways to draw out a random subset from a Collection?

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  • How to keep track of a private messaging system using MongoDB?

    - by luckytaxi
    Take facebook's private messaging system where you have to keep track of sender and receiver along w/ the message content. If I were using MySQL I would have multiple tables, but with MongoDB I'll try to avoid all that. I'm trying to come up with a "good" schema that can scale and is easy to maintain. If I were using mysql, I would have a separate table to reference the user and and message. See below ... profiles table user_id first_name last_name message table message_id message_body time_stamp user_message_ref table user_id (FK) message_id (FK) is_sender (boolean) With the schema listed above, I can query for any messages that "Bob" may have regardless if he's the recipient or sender. Now how to turn that into a schema that works with MongoDB. I'm thinking I'll have a separate collection to hold the messages. Problem is, how can I differentiate between the sender and the recipient? If Bob logs in, what do I query against? Depending on whether Bob initiated the email, I don't want to have to query against "sender" and "receiver" just to see if the message belongs to the user.

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  • When actually is a closure created?

    - by Jian Lin
    Is it true that a closure is created in the following cases for foo, but not for bar? Case 1: <script type="text/javascript"> function foo() { } </script> foo is a closure with a scope chain with only the global scope. Case 2: <script type="text/javascript"> var i = 1; function foo() { return i; } </script> same as Case 1. Case 3: <script type="text/javascript"> function Circle(r) { this.r = r; } Circle.prototype.foo = function() { return 3.1415 * this.r * this.r } </script> in this case, Circle.prototype.foo (which returns the circle's area) refers to a closure with only the global scope. (this closure is created). Case 4: <script type="text/javascript"> function foo() { function bar() { } } </script> here, foo is a closure with only the global scope, but bar is not a closure (yet), because the function foo is not invoked in the code, so no closure goo is ever created. It will only exist if foo is invoked , and the closure bar will exist until foo returns, and the closure bar will then be garbage collected, since there is no reference to it at all anywhere. So when the function doesn't exist, can't be invoked, can't be referenced, then the closure doesn't exist yet (never created yet). Only when the function can be invoked or can be referenced, then the closure is actually created?

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  • DataGridComboBoxColumn was not found

    - by Budda
    The System.Windows.Controls.Data.DataGrid is used in my Silverlight application, but on attempt to add 'DataGridComboBoxColumn' column to the grid the following error messages are obtained: Error 1 The tag 'DataGridComboBoxColumn' does not exist in XML namespace 'clr-namespace:System.Windows.Controls;assembly=System.Windows.Controls.Data'. C:\Project\Budda\VFMElita\VfmElitaView\Pages\SquadView.xaml 140 22 VfmElitaView Error 2 The type 'data:DataGridComboBoxColumn' was not found. Verify that you are not missing an assembly reference and that all referenced assemblies have been built. C:\Project\Budda\VFMElita\VfmElitaView\Pages\SquadView.xaml 142 22 VfmElitaView Here is my "header" of the xaml-file: Here is grid: <StackPanel Grid.Row="1" Grid.Column="0" Grid.RowSpan="2"> <TextBlock Text="????"/> <data:DataGrid AutoGenerateColumns="False" ItemsSource="{Binding FieldPlayers}"> <data:DataGrid.Columns> <!--<data:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="#"> <data:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock Margin="4" Loaded="TextBlock_Loaded"/> </DataTemplate> </data:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </data:DataGridTemplateColumn>--> <data:DataGridTextColumn Header="?" Binding="{Binding Number}"/> <data:DataGridComboBoxColumn> - that doesn't work </data:DataGridComboBoxColumn> </data:DataGrid.Columns> </data:DataGrid> </StackPanel> What is required to get 'DataGridComboBoxColumn' workable? Any help is welcome. Thanks.

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  • Convert string to decimal retaining the exact input format

    - by Brett
    Hi All, I'm sure this is a piece of cake but I'm really struggling with something that seems trivial. I need to check the inputted text of a textbox on the form submit and check to see if it's within a desired range (I've tried a Range Validator but it doesn't work for some reason so I'm trying to do this server-side). What I want to do is: Get the value inputted (eg. 0.02), replace the commas and periods, convert that to a decimal (or double or equivalent) and check to see if it's between 0.10 and 35000.00. Here's what I have so far: string s = txtTransactionValue.Text.Replace(",", string.Empty).Replace(".", string.Empty); decimal transactionValue = Decimal.Parse(s); if (transactionValue >= 0.10M && transactionValue <= 35000.00M) // do something If I pass 0.02 into the above, transactionValue is 2. I want to retain the value as 0.02 (ie. do no format changes to it - 100.00 is 100.00, 999.99 is 999.99) Any ideas? Thanks in advance, Brett

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  • passing hashes to a subroutine

    - by Vishalrix
    In one of my main( or primary) routines,I have two or more hashes. I want the subroutine foo() to recieve these possibly-multiple hashes as distinct hashes. Right now I have no preference if they go by value, or as references. I am struggling with this for the last many hours and would appreciate help, so that I dont have to leave perl for php! ( I am using mod_perl, or will be) Right now I have got some answer to my requirement, shown here From http://forums.gentoo.org/viewtopic-t-803720-start-0.html # sub: dump the hash values with the keys '1' and '3' sub dumpvals { foreach $h (@_) { print "1: $h->{1} 3: $h->{3}\n"; } } # initialize an array of anonymous hash references @arr = ({1,2,3,4}, {1,7,3,8}); # create a new hash and add the reference to the array $t{1} = 5; $t{3} = 6; push @arr, \%t; # call the sub dumpvals(@arr); I only want to extend it so that in dumpvals I could do something like this: foreach my %k ( keys @_[0]) { # use $k and @_[0], and others } The syntax is wrong, but I suppose you can tell that I am trying to get the keys of the first hash ( hash1 or h1), and iterate over them. How to do it in the latter code snippet above?

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  • Sybase: how can I remove non-printable characters from CHAR or VARCHAR fields with SQL?

    - by Kenny Drobnack
    I'm working with a Sybase database that seems to have non-printable characters in some of the string fields and this is throwing off some of our processing code. At first glance, it seemed to only be newlines and carriage returns, but we also have an ASCII code 27 in there - an ESC character, some accented characters, and some other oddities in there. I have no direct access to change the database, so changing the bad data isn't an option, yet. For now I have to make do with just filtering it out. We're trying to export the table data from one database and load it into a database used by another application in a nightly batch process. Ideally, I'd like to have a function that I can pass a list of characters and just have Sybase return the data with those characters removed. I'd like to keep it something we could do in plain SQL if possible. Something like this to remove characters that are ASCII 0 - 31. select str_replace(FIELD1, (0-31), NULL) as FIELD1, str_replace(FIELD2, (0-31), NULL) as FIELD2 from TABLE So far, str_replace is the nearest I can find, but it only allows replacing one string with another. No support for character ranges and won't let me do the above. We're running on Sybase ASE 12.5 on Unix servers.

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  • update variable based upon results from .NET backgroundworker

    - by Bruce
    I've got a C# program that talks to an instrument (spectrum analyzer) over a network. I need to be able to change a large number of parameters in the instrument and read them back into my program. I want to use backgroundworker to do the actual talking to the instrument so that UI performance doesn't suffer. The way this works is - 1) send command to the instrument with new parameter value, 2) read parameter back from the instrument so I can see what actually happened (for example, I try to set the center frequency above the max that the instrument will handle and it tells me what it will actually handle), and 3) update a program variable with the actual value received from the instrument. Because there are quite a few parameters to be updated I'd like to use a generic routine. The part I can't seem to get my brain around is updating the variable in my code with what comes back from the instrument via backgroundworker. If I used a separate RunWorkerCompleted event for each parameter I could hardwire the update directly to the variable. I'd like to come up with a way of using a single routine that's capable of updating any of the variables. All I can come up with is passing a reference number (different for each parameter) and using a switch statement in the RunWorkerCompleted handler to direct the result. There has to be a better way.

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