Search Results

Search found 21343 results on 854 pages for 'pass by reference'.

Page 656/854 | < Previous Page | 652 653 654 655 656 657 658 659 660 661 662 663  | Next Page >

  • Blackberry Apps - Importing a code-signed jar into an application project

    - by Eric Sniff
    Hi everyone, I'm working on a library project that Blackberry Java developers can import into their projects. It uses protected RIM APIs which require that it be code-signed, which I have done. But, I can't get my Jar imported and working with a simple helloWorld app. I'm using the eclipse plug-in Blackberry-JDE. Here is what I have tried: First: Building myLibProject with BlackBerry_JDE_PluginFull_1.0.0.67 into a JAR, signing it and importing it into a BlackBerry_JDE_PluginFull_1.0.0.67 application project -- I get a class not found error, while compiling the application project. Next: I imported myLibProject into an BlackBerry_JDE_PluginFull_1.1.1.* library project, built it into a jar, signed it and imported it into a BlackBerry_JDE_PluginFull_1.1.1.* application project. It built this time, but while loading up the simulator to test it I get the following error ( Access violation reading from 0xFFFFFFC ) before the simulator can loadup and it crashs the simulator. Other stuff I've tried: I also tried importing the jar into it's own project and having the HelloWorld app project reference that project. If I include the src in my application project it works fine... But Im looking for a way to deploy this as compiled code. Any Ideas? Or help?

    Read the article

  • Merge replication server side foreign key violation from unpublished table

    - by Reiste
    We are using SQL Server 2005 Merge Replication with SQL CE 3.5 clients. We are using partitions with filtering for the separate subscriptions, and nHibernate for the ORM mapping. There is automatic ID range management from SQL Server for the subscriptions. We have a table, Item, and a table with a foreign key to Item - ItemHistory. Both of these are replicated down, filtered according to the subscription. Item has a column called UserId, and is filtered per subscription with this filter: WHERE UserId IN (SELECT... [complicated subselect]...) ItemHistory hangs off Item in the publication filter articles. On the server, we have a table ItemHistoryExport, which has a foreign key to ItemHistory. ItemHistoryExport is not published. Entries in the Item and ItemHistory tables are never deleted, on the server or the client. However, the "ownership" of items (and hence their ItemHistories) MAY change, which causes them to be moved from one client subscription/partition to another from time to time. When we sync, we occasionally get the following error: A row delete at '48269404 - 4108383dbb11' could not be propagated to 'MyServer\MyInstance.MyDatabase'. This failure can be caused by a constraint violation. The DELETE statement conflicted with the REFERENCE constraint "FK_ItemHistoryExport_ItemHistory". The conflict occurred in database "MyDatabase", table "dbo.ItemHistoryExport", column 'ItemHistoryId'. Can anyone help us understand why this happens? There shouldn't ever be a delete happening on the server side.

    Read the article

  • Ruby on Rails / Yellow Maps For Ruby Plugin woes...

    - by Zach
    Okay I've read through the plugin comments and the docs as well and I have yet to come up with an answer as to how to do this. Here's my problem I want to use the :info_window_tabs and the :icon option, but I don't know what format to pass my information in. According to the documentation the following code should be correct. Here's my code: @mapper.overlay_init(GMarker.new([map.lat, map.lng], :title => map.name, :info_window_tabs => [ {:tab => "HTML", :content => @marker_html}, {:tab => "Attachments", :content => "stuff"}], :icon => { :image => "../images/icon.png" })) The readme and documentation can be viewed here. And the relevant ruby file that I am trying to interact with, including the author's comments, can be viewed here. I have tried the #rubyonrails channel in IRC as well as emailing the author directly and reporting an issue at GitHub. It really is just a question of syntax. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Difficulties using custom control - RichTextEditor

    - by Chris
    I am working on a school project that uses ASP.NET. I found this TextEditor control ( http://blogs.msdn.com/kirti/archive/2007/11/10/rich-text-editor-is-here.aspx ) that I am trying to include but it isn't working. The error I am getting is: Error Rendering Control - TextEditor. An unhandled exception has occurred. Index was out of range. Must be non-negative and less than the size of the collection. Parameter name: index. I see this error when I go Design part of the editor. I just don't understand this error at all. Also I am a lil bit confused as there is no parameter called index. :( What I have done is reference the binary in my project and then on the page I am trying to use it have registered its namespace and assembly with this line: <%@ Register Assembly="RichTextEditor" Namespace="AjaxControls" TagPrefix="rtt" %> I then go ahead and try to add the control to the page with this line of code: <rtt:richtexteditor ID="TextEditor" Theme="Blue" runat="server" /> Any help would be much appreciated. I haven't done anything like add a custom control before.

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net MVC Json Result: Parameters passed to controller method issue

    - by Moskie
    I'm having a problem getting a controller method that returns a JsonResult to accept parameters passed via the JQuery getJSON method. The code I’m working on works fine when the second parameter ("data") of the getJSON method call is null. But when I attempt to pass in a value there, it seems as if the controller method never even gets called. In this example case, I just want to use an integer. The getJSON call that works fine looks like this: $.getJSON(”/News/ListNewsJson/”, null, ListNews_OnReturn); The controller method is like this: public JsonResult ListNewsJson(int? id) { … return Json(toReturn); } By putting a breakpoint in the ListNewsJson method, I see that this method gets called when the data parameter of getJSON is null, but when I replace it with value, such as, say, 3: $.getJSON(”/News/ListNewsJson/”, 3, ListNews_OnReturn); … the controller method/breakpoint is never hit. Any idea what I'm doing wrong? I should also mention that the controller method works fine if I manually go to the address via my browser ("/News/ListNewsJson/3").

    Read the article

  • WinForms data binding with a Save button?

    - by Mat
    How is data binding in C# WinForms supposed to work when you have a Save button? I don't want the data updated until I press Save! I have two forms (list and detail) backed by a BindingList<T> collection and my custom object from that collection, respectively. I can bind each form to the list or object appropriately. However, any changes made in the detail form are immediately reflected in the list form - I don't want to save the changes and update the details shown in the list until the Save button is pressed. Is data binding designed to support this? Is there a common pattern for doing so? Whichever way I look at it, binding doesn't seem to be able to support this scenario. I've considered the following: Pass a clone of the object to the detail form, but then I have to reconcile the changes on Save - changes may have been made to the copy in the list in the meantime. Implementing IEditableObject and calling EndEdit on save almost works as I can prevent the list being notified of the changes made until Save is pressed, but if something else causes a refresh the list is updated with the interim data. I'm currently left with dispensing with data binding in my detail view, and doing it all manually. Which is rather annoying.

    Read the article

  • Android : Customizing tabs on state : How do I make a selector a drawable

    - by Chrispix
    I know how to put the icon on each tab, that is no problem. I also ran across this : Stack Overflow thread on pretty much same thing I followed one of the links from that question, and found this Pretty much, it said use a selector defined in the xml, sure, did that. But there is no id associated w/ it so I am not sure how to get the selector function as a drawable so I can use it as the icon for the tabs. Maybe I am going about this the wrong way.. But this is what I have, and obviously missing something. <selector android:id="@+id/myselector" xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <!-- Non focused states --> <item android:state_focused="false" android:state_selected="false" android:state_pressed="false" android:drawable="@drawable/darklogo" /> <item android:state_focused="false" android:state_selected="true" android:state_pressed="false" android:drawable="@drawable/lightlogo" /> <!-- Focused states --> <item android:state_focused="true" android:state_selected="false" android:state_pressed="false" android:drawable="@drawable/lightlogo" /> <item android:state_focused="true" android:state_selected="true" android:state_pressed="false" android:drawable="@drawable/lightlogo" /> <!-- Pressed --> <item android:state_pressed="true" android:drawable="@drawable/lightlogo" /> </selector> In my code, an example tab is generated using : host.addTab(host.newTabSpec("three") .setIndicator("map",drawables) .setContent(new Intent(this, Map.class))); Right now drawables is just a reference to an drawable image resource. How do I make the selector a drawable? * This is my question *

    Read the article

  • Jeditable with jQuery UI Datepicker

    - by BrynJ
    I need to have a click to edit element on a page, that will in turn invoke an instance of the jQuery UI Datepicker. Currently, I'm using JEditable to provide the in place editing, which is working fine. However, I have a date control input that I would like to have appear as a calendar, which is where the fun starts. I've found a Comment in the this blog by Calle Kabo (the page is a little mashed unfortunately) that details a way to do this: $.editable.addInputType("datepicker", { element: function(settings, original) { var input = $("<input type=\"text\" name=\"value\" />"); $(this).append(input); return(input); }, plugin: function(settings, original) { var form = this; $("input", this).filter(":text").datepicker({ onSelect: function(dateText) { $(this).hide(); $(form).trigger("submit"); } }); } }); However, I can't get the above to work - no errors, but no effect either. I've tried placing it within the jQuery document ready function and also outside of it - no joy. My UI Datepicker class is date-picker and my Jeditable class is ajaxedit, I'm sure the above inaction is due to the need to reference them somehow in the code, but I don't know how. Also, the Jeditable control is one of many element ids, if that has a bearing. Any ideas from those more in the know?

    Read the article

  • Getting Started with AJAX ToolKit Controls

    - by Aviran
    I am trying to make my first AJAX Control and I get error. I probbly missed some steps but I cann't find them eventhough I read many tutorials, probbly since I am new in AJAX, so I need to be guided step-by-step. These are the steps I've already done: Downloading AJAX ToolKit. Adding These Controls to the ToolBox. creating new ASP.NET Website (I heard about AJAX-Enabled Option, but I dont have this option) Adding a AJAX Tool. And thats it. I read that I need to register add AjaxControlToolkit.dll in application bin folder, but I dont know how to do that and I dont have Bin Folder in my website, only App_Data Folder. than I need to add this to the web config: <add tagPrefix="ajaxToolkit" namespace="AjaxControlToolkit" assembly="AjaxControlToolkit"/> than I need to add this to my website: <asp:ScriptManager ID="scriptmanager1" EnablePartialRendering="true" runat="Server" /> This is the error I receive: "Compilation Error Description: An error occurred during the compilation of a resource required to service this request. Please review the following specific error details and modify your source code appropriately. Compiler Error Message: CS0012: The type 'System.Web.UI.ExtenderControl' is defined in an assembly that is not referenced. You must add a reference to assembly 'System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35'." Source Error: Line 16: <br /> Line 17: <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text="Label" Width="229px"></asp:Label><br /> Line 18: <asp:ConfirmButtonExtender ID="ConfirmButtonExtender1" runat="server" ConfirmText="are you sure" Line 19: TargetControlID="Button1"> Line 20: </asp:ConfirmButtonExtender> Does anyone know how can I solve this error?

    Read the article

  • Python metaclass for enforcing immutability of custom types

    - by Mark Lehmacher
    Having searched for a way to enforce immutability of custom types and not having found a satisfactory answer I came up with my own shot at a solution in form of a metaclass: class ImmutableTypeException( Exception ): pass class Immutable( type ): ''' Enforce some aspects of the immutability contract for new-style classes: - attributes must not be created, modified or deleted after object construction - immutable types must implement __eq__ and __hash__ ''' def __new__( meta, classname, bases, classDict ): instance = type.__new__( meta, classname, bases, classDict ) # Make sure __eq__ and __hash__ have been implemented by the immutable type. # In the case of __hash__ also make sure the object default implementation has been overridden. # TODO: the check for eq and hash functions could probably be done more directly and thus more efficiently # (hasattr does not seem to traverse the type hierarchy) if not '__eq__' in dir( instance ): raise ImmutableTypeException( 'Immutable types must implement __eq__.' ) if not '__hash__' in dir( instance ): raise ImmutableTypeException( 'Immutable types must implement __hash__.' ) if _methodFromObjectType( instance.__hash__ ): raise ImmutableTypeException( 'Immutable types must override object.__hash__.' ) instance.__setattr__ = _setattr instance.__delattr__ = _delattr return instance def __call__( self, *args, **kwargs ): obj = type.__call__( self, *args, **kwargs ) obj.__immutable__ = True return obj def _setattr( self, attr, value ): if '__immutable__' in self.__dict__ and self.__immutable__: raise AttributeError( "'%s' must not be modified because '%s' is immutable" % ( attr, self ) ) object.__setattr__( self, attr, value ) def _delattr( self, attr ): raise AttributeError( "'%s' must not be deleted because '%s' is immutable" % ( attr, self ) ) def _methodFromObjectType( method ): ''' Return True if the given method has been defined by object, False otherwise. ''' try: # TODO: Are we exploiting an implementation detail here? Find better solution! return isinstance( method.__objclass__, object ) except: return False However, while the general approach seems to be working rather well there are still some iffy implementation details (also see TODO comments in code): How do I check if a particular method has been implemented anywhere in the type hierarchy? How do I check which type is the origin of a method declaration (i.e. as part of which type a method has been defined)?

    Read the article

  • Using Windows Integrated Auth & Anonymous during redirect on IIS7

    - by James Black
    I have an application we bought that I need to integrate, and it uses jakarta connection to get to the application from IIS. So, the basic operation is: user goes to the url Gets redirected to the application SSO is enabled, so redirected back to IIS for fetching of domain credentials Back to application If username is blank show login page, else let user in. This is a simplification of all the steps, but the basic idea is here. My difficulty is that I need both Windows Integrated Auth and anonymous on, as some users won't have credentials, and need to be prompted for a username/password. I have looked at: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2068546/iis-windows-authentication-before-anonymous already, but the user doesn't get to click on a link to decide. The application goes back to IIS looking for login.aspx and from there I want to either get their domain credentials or pass back to the application empty strings to signify that there are no credentials. It seems this isn't going to be possible though as if anonymous is on it doesn't make the 401 request so the credentials aren't passed. If I can't get this to work with just using an ASP page, could it be done using an ISAPI filter, or a module?

    Read the article

  • SSIS Lookup with Lookup Component Vs Script Component.

    - by Nev_Rahd
    Hello, I need to load Dimensions from EDW Tables (which does maintain historical records) and is of type Key-Value-Parameter. My scenario is ok if got a record in EDW as below Key1 Key2 Code Value EffectiveDate EndDate CurrentFlag 100 555 01 AAA 2010-01-01 11.00.00 9999-12-31 Y 100 555 02 BBB 2010-01-01 11.00.00 9999-12-31 Y This need to be loaded into DM by pivoting it as key1 and key2 combinations makes Natural key for DM SK NK 01 02 EffectiveDate EndDate CurrentFlag 1 100-555 AAA BBB 2010-01-01 11.00.00 9999-12-31 Y My ssis package does this all good pivoting... looking up the incoming NK in DIM.. if new will insert .. else with further lookup with effective date and determine if the incoming for same natural key got any new (change) in attribute.. if so updates the current record byy setting its end date and insert the new one with new attribute value and pulling the recent records values for other attributes. My problem is if the same natural key comes twice with same attribute in single extract my first lookup which on natural key .. will let both records pass and try to insert.. where its fails. If i get distinct records on NK the second is not picked and need to run package again. So my question how can i configure lookup or alernative way to handle this scenario when same NK comes twice in single extract, would be able to insert first record if not exists in Dim table and for second one should be able to updated with the changes with reference to one inserted above. Not sure this makes sense what am trying to explain. Will attached the screenshot once back to work desk (on monday). Thanks

    Read the article

  • dynamic link_to_remote in rails with jquery

    - by Claus Lensbøl
    Hi I'm trying to pass a string with a link_to_remote call as the :id, and the string should be collected from an input field with and id of "movie_title". <div id="search_list">Nothing here yet</div> <br /> <% semantic_form_for @movie do |f| %> <% f.inputs do -%> <%= f.input :title, :class => "movie_title" %> <%= link_to_remote( 'Search...', { :url => { :action => :imdb_search, :id => "'+$('\#movie_title').value+'" } }, { :title => "Search for this movie", :class => "imdb_search" } ) -%> [...removed text that does not matter...] <% end -%> <%= f.buttons %> <% end %> I keep getting an javascript error, and if I remove the # from the jquery in the link, it returns "Undefined". The link I get is: <a class="imdb_search" href="#" onclick="jQuery.ajax({data:'authenticity_token=' + encodeURIComponent('yHPHYTZsPTQLi9JYSauUYcoie/pqPPk2uHBTN0PzNsQ='), dataType:'script', type:'post', url:'/movies/imdb_search/'+$('%23movie_title').value+''}); return false;" title="Search for this movie">Search...</a> So I want the link updated with the contents of movie_title. How do I do that?

    Read the article

  • Steps in creating a web service using Axis2 - The client code

    - by zengr
    I am trying to create a web service, my tools of trade are: ** Axis2, Eclipse, Tomcat, Ant ** I need to create a web service from Code, i.e. Write a basic java class which will have the methods to be declared in the WSDL. Then use java2WSDL.sh to create my WSDL. So, is this approach correct: Write my Java class with actual business logic package packageNamel; public class Hello{ public void World(String name) { SOP("Hello" + name); } } Now, when I pass this Hello.java to java2WSDL.sh, this will give me the WSDL. Finally, I will write the services.xml file, and create the Hello.aar with following dir structure: Hello.aar packageName Hello.class META-INF services.xml MANIFEST.MF Hello.WSDL Now, I assume, my service will be deployed when I put the aar in tomcat1/webapps/axis2/WEB-INF/services But, here comes my problem, HOW DO I ACCESS THE METHOD World(String name)???!!, i.e. I am clueless about the client code! Please enlighten me on making a very basic web service and calling the method. The above described 3 steps might be wrong. It's a community wiki, feel free to edit. Thanks

    Read the article

  • How to suppress quotes in Powershell commands to executables

    - by David Gladfelter
    Is there any way to supress the enclosing quotation marks around each command-line argument that powershell likes to generate and then pass to external executables for command line arguments that have spaces in them? Here's the situation: One way to unpack many installers is a command of the form: msiexec /a <packagename> /qn TARGETDIR="<path to folder with spaces>" Trying to execute this from powershell has proven quite difficult. Powershell likes to enclose parameters with spaces in double-quotes. The following lines: msiexec /a somepackage.msi /qn 'TARGETDIR="c:\some path"' msiexec /a somepackage.msi /qn $('TARGETDIR="c:\some path"') $td = '"c:\some path"' msiexec /a somepackage.msi /qn TARGETDIR=$td All result in the following command line (as reported by the Win32 GetCommandLine() api): "msiexec" /a somepackage.msi /qn "TARGETDIR="c:\some path"" This command line: msiexec /a somepackage.msi TARGETDIR="c:\some path" /qn results in "msiexec" /a fooinstaller.msi "TARGETDIR=c:\some path" /qn It seems that Powershell likes to enclose the results of expressions meant to represent one argument in quotation marks when passing them to external executables. This works fine for most executables. However, MsiExec is very specific about the quoting rules it wants and won't accept any of the command lines Powershell generates for paths have have spaces in them. Is there any way to suppress this behavior?

    Read the article

  • FluentNHibernate Overrides: UseOverridesFromAssemblyOf non-generic version

    - by ThiagoAlves
    Hi, I have a repository class that inherits from a generic implementation: public namespace RepositoryImplementation { public class PersonRepository : Web.Generics.GenericNHibernateRepository<Person> } The generic repository implementation uses Fluent NHibernate conventions. They're working fine. One of those conventions is that all properties are not nullable. Now I need to define that specific properties may be nullable outside the conventions. Fluent NHibernate has an interesting override mechanism: public namespace RepositoryImplementation { public class PersonMappingOverride : IAutoMappingOverride<Person> { public void Override(FluentNHibernate.Automapping.AutoMapping<Funcionario> mapping) { mapping.Map(x => x.PhoneNumber).Nullable(); } } } Now I need to register the override class into Fluent NHibernate. I have the following code in the Web.Generics.GenericNHibernateRepository generic class: AutoMap.AssemblyOf<Person>() .Where(type => type.Namespace == "Entities") .UseOverridesFromAssemblyOf<PersonMappingOverride>(); The problem is: UseOverridesFromAssemblyOf is a generic method, and I can't do something like that: .UseOverridesFromAssemblyOf<PersonMappingOverride>(); Because that would cause a circular reference. I don't want the generic repository to know the either repository or the mapping override class, because they vary from project to project. I see another solution: in the GenericNHibernateRepository class I can do this.GetType() and get the repository implementation type (e.g.: PersonRepository). However I can't call UseOverridesFromAssemblyOf() passing a type. Is there another way to configure overrides in FluentNHibernate? If not, how could I call UseOverridesFromAssemblyOf<T> without making the generic repository depend upon the repository implementation or the mapping override class? (Source: http://wiki.fluentnhibernate.org/Auto_mapping#Overrides)

    Read the article

  • Idiomatic Scala way to deal with base vs derived class field names?

    - by Gregor Scheidt
    Consider the following base and derived classes in Scala: abstract class Base( val x : String ) final class Derived( x : String ) extends Base( "Base's " + x ) { override def toString = x } Here, the identifier 'x' of the Derived class parameter overrides the field of the Base class, so invoking toString like this: println( new Derived( "string" ).toString ) returns the Derived value and gives the result "string". So a reference to the 'x' parameter prompts the compiler to automatically generate a field on Derived, which is served up in the call to toString. This is very convenient usually, but leads to a replication of the field (I'm now storing the field on both Base and Derived), which may be undesirable. To avoid this replication, I can rename the Derived class parameter from 'x' to something else, like '_x': abstract class Base( val x : String ) final class Derived( _x : String ) extends Base( "Base's " + _x ) { override def toString = x } Now a call to toString returns "Base's string", which is what I want. Unfortunately, the code now looks somewhat ugly, and using named parameters to initialize the class also becomes less elegant: new Derived( _x = "string" ) There is also a risk of forgetting to give the derived classes' initialization parameters different names and inadvertently referring to the wrong field (undesirable since the Base class might actually hold a different value). Is there a better way? Edit: To clarify, I really only want the Base values; the Derived ones just seem necessary for initializing the Base ones. The example only references them to illustrate the ensuing issues. It might be nice to have a way to suppress automatic field generation if the derived class would otherwise end up hiding a base class field.

    Read the article

  • PHP, jQuery and Ajax Object Orientation

    - by pastylegs
    I'm a fairly experienced programmer getting my head around PHP and Ajax for the first time, and I'm having a bit of trouble figuring out how to incorperate object oriented PHP into my ajax webapp. I have an admin page (admin.php) that will load and write information (info.xml) from an XML file depending on the users selection of a form on the admin page. I have decided to use an object (ContentManager.php) to manage the loading and writing of the XML file to disk, i.e : class ContentManager{ var $xml_attribute_1 ... function __construct(){ //load the xml file from disk and save its contents into variables $xml_attribute = simplexml_load_file(/path/to/xml) } function get_xml_contents(){ return xml_attribute; } function write_xml($contents_{ } function print_xml(){ } } I create the ContentManager object in admin.php like so <?php include '../includes/CompetitionManager.php'; $cm = new CompetitionManager() ?> <script> ...all my jquery </script> <html> ... all my form elements </html> So now I want to use AJAX to allow the user to retrieve information from the XML file via the ContentManger app using an interface (ajax_handler.php) like so <?php if(_POST[]=="get_a"){ }else if() } ... ?> I understand how this would work if I wasn't using objects, i.e. the hander php file would do a certain action depending on a variable in the .post request, but with my setup, I can't see how I can get a reference to the ContentManager object I have created in admin.php in the ajax_handler.php file? Maybe my understanding of php object scope is flawed. Anyway, if anyone can make sense of what I'm trying to do, I would appreciate some help!

    Read the article

  • What is the WCF equivalent?

    - by klausbyskov
    I am trying to port some code that is based on WSE3.0 to WCF. Basically, the old code has the following configuration: <microsoft.web.services3> <diagnostics> <trace enabled="true" input="InputTrace.webinfo" output="OutputTrace.webinfo" /> </diagnostics> <tokenIssuer> <statefulSecurityContextToken enabled="false" /> </tokenIssuer> </microsoft.web.services3> When calling the same service through my "Service Reference" I get this error: Request does not contain required Security header My binding looks like this: <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="LegalUnitGetBinding" closeTimeout="00:01:00" openTimeout="00:01:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:01:00" allowCookies="false" bypassProxyOnLocal="false" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" maxBufferSize="65536" maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxReceivedMessageSize="65536" messageEncoding="Text" textEncoding="utf-8" transferMode="Buffered" useDefaultWebProxy="true"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="8192" maxArrayLength="16384" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> <security mode="Transport"> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> From what I have understood, the service I'm calling only requires an SSL connection, since it receives a username and password as part of a request parameter. Any help or suggestions would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Link to Hotmail / Windows Live email compose -- maintaining BCC

    - by Curtis Gibby
    My app creates a mailto-esque link that takes the end user to a Hotmail compose screen with various attributes pre-filled. Most of the functionality I need is working: to, cc, subject, body. However, Hotmail seems to be stripping out any BCC attributes that I pass into the URL. For example, this link works as advertised: http://mail.live.com/mail/EditMessageLight.aspx?n=&[email protected]&[email protected];%[email protected]&subject=the%20subject&body=the%20body I get the one email address in the To field and two in the CC field. But when I try the exact same URL except substituting "bcc" for "cc", the two addresses are nowhere to be found. http://mail.live.com/mail/EditMessageLight.aspx?n=&[email protected]&[email protected];%[email protected]&subject=the%20subject&body=the%20body This link format is posted all over the web (along with a variation like http://mail.live.com/default.aspx?rru=compose%3f[attributes] ), but none of the various settings that I've tried actually work to bring in the BCC addresses. I need the BCC so that the email recipients are not given each others' email addresses. My versions of this url for regular old mailto, along with Gmail and Yahoo Mail, work perfectly. Surprise surprise.

    Read the article

  • Weak event handler model for use with lambdas

    - by Benjol
    OK, so this is more of an answer than a question, but after asking this question, and pulling together the various bits from Dustin Campbell, Egor, and also one last tip from the 'IObservable/Rx/Reactive framework', I think I've worked out a workable solution for this particular problem. It may be completely superseded by IObservable/Rx/Reactive framework, but only experience will show that. I've deliberately created a new question, to give me space to explain how I got to this solution, as it may not be immediately obvious. There are many related questions, most telling you you can't use inline lambdas if you want to be able to detach them later: Weak events in .Net? Unhooking events with lambdas in C# Can using lambdas as event handlers cause a memory leak? How to unsubscribe from an event which uses a lambda expression? Unsubscribe anonymous method in C# And it is true that if YOU want to be able to detach them later, you need to keep a reference to your lambda. However, if you just want the event handler to detach itself when your subscriber falls out of scope, this answer is for you.

    Read the article

  • How to avoid using this in a contructor

    - by Paralife
    I have this situation: interface MessageListener { void onMessageReceipt(Message message); } class MessageReceiver { MessageListener listener; public MessageReceiver(MessageListener listener, other arguments...) { this.listener = listener; } loop() { Message message = nextMessage(); listener.onMessageReceipt(message); } } and I want to avoid the following pattern: (Using the this in the Client constructor) class Client implements MessageListener { MessageReceiver receiver; MessageSender sender; public Client(...) { receiver = new MessageReceiver(this, other arguments...); sender = new Sender(...); } . . . @Override public void onMessageReceipt(Message message) { if(Message.isGood()) sender.send("Congrtulations"); else sender.send("Boooooooo"); } } The reason why i need the above functionality is because i want to call the sender inside the onMessageReceipt() function, for example to send a reply. But I dont want to pass the sender into a listener, so the only way I can think of is containing the sender in a class that implements the listener, hence the above resulting Client implementation. Is there a way to achive this without the use of 'this' in the constructor? It feels bizare and i dont like it, since i am passing myself to an object(MessageReceiver) before I am fully constructed. On the other hand, the MessageReceiver is not passed from outside, it is constructed inside, but does this 'purifies' the bizarre pattern? I am seeking for an alternative or an assurance of some kind that this is safe, or situations on which it might backfire on me.

    Read the article

  • How to use Java varargs with the GWT Javascript Native Interface? (aka, "GWT has no printf()")

    - by markerikson
    I'm trying to quickly learn GWT as part of a new project. I found out that GWT doesn't implement Java's String.format() function, so there's no printf()-like functionality. I knew that some printf() implementations exist for Javascript, so I figured I could paste one of those in as a GWT Javascript Native Interface function. I ran into problems, and decided I'd better make sure that the varargs values were being passed in correctly. That's where things got ugly. First, some example code: // From Java, call the JSNI function: test("sourceString", "params1", "params2", "params3"); .... public static native void test(Object... params) /*-{ // PROBLEM: this kills GWT! // alert(params.length); // returns "function" alert(typeof(params)); // returns "[Ljava.lang.Object;@b97ff1" alert(params); }-*/; The GWT docs state that "calling a varargs JavaScript method from Java will result in the callee receiving the arguments in an array". I figured that meant I could at least check params.length, but accessing that throws a JavascriptException wrapped in an UmbrellaException, with no real information. When I do "typeof(params)", it returns "function". As if that weren't odd enough, if I check the string value of params, it returns what appears to be a string version of a Java reference. So, I guess I'm asking a few different questions here: 1) How do GWT/JSNI varargs actually work, and do I need to do something special to pass in values? 2) What is actually going on here? 3) Is there any easier way to get printf()-style formatting in a GWT application?

    Read the article

  • Very strange jQuery / AJAX behavior

    - by Dr. DOT
    I have an Ajax call to the server that only works when I pass an alert(); to it. Cannot figure out what is wrong. Can anyone help? This Does Not Work (ie., Ajax call to server does not get made): <!-- jQuery.support.cors = true; // needed for ajax to work in certain older browsers and versions $('input[name="status"]').on("change", function() { if ($('input:radio[name="status"]:checked').val() == 'Y') { $.ajax({ url: 'http://mydomain.com/dir/myPHPscript.php?param=' + $('#param').val() + '&id=' + ( $('#id').val() * 1 ) + '&mode=' + $('#mode').val() }); } window.parent.closePP(); window.top.location.href = $('#redirect').val(); // reloads page }); //--> This Works! (ie., Ajax call to server gets made when I have the alert() present): <!-- jQuery.support.cors = true; // needed for ajax to work in certain older browsers and versions $('input[name="status"]').on("change", function() { if ($('input:radio[name="status"]:checked').val() == 'Y') { $.ajax({ url: 'http://mydomain.com/dir/myPHPscript.php?param=' + $('#param').val() + '&id=' + ( $('#id').val() * 1 ) + '&mode=' + $('#mode').val() }); **alert('this makes it work');** } window.parent.closePP(); window.top.location.href = $('#redirect').val(); // reloads page }); //--> Thanks.

    Read the article

  • iPhone Objective-C service handlers

    - by Xavi Colomer
    Hello community! I am a as3 developer, I am used to use handlers everytime I launch an event and I am wondering which is the best way / practice to do that in Objective C. Let's say I want to call a diferent services from my backend. In as3 would be something like this to listent to the finish event: service.addEventListener( Event.COMPLETE, handler_serviceDidFinished ) service2.addEventListener( Event.COMPLETE, handler_serviceDidFinished2 ) But how can I do the same in Objective C? The problem is I already created the protocols and delegates, but how can I separate each response from the server? For example: -(void)callService:( NSString * )methodName withParameters:(NSMutableDictionary *) parameters { ... if (self.delegate != NULL && [self.delegate respondsToSelector:@selector(serviceDidFinishSuccessfully:)]) { [delegate serviceDidFinishSuccessfully:data]; } } Well I'm trying to create a generic delegate here, so how can I separate each response for every service? My first idea is that maybe I should return the name of the service method in the delegate call to identify each service. Maybe I should create a UID for each service and pass it the same way... Any idea?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 652 653 654 655 656 657 658 659 660 661 662 663  | Next Page >