Search Results

Search found 21343 results on 854 pages for 'pass by reference'.

Page 656/854 | < Previous Page | 652 653 654 655 656 657 658 659 660 661 662 663  | Next Page >

• Blackberry Apps - Importing a code-signed jar into an application project

  - by Eric Sniff

  Hi everyone, I'm working on a library project that Blackberry Java developers can import into their projects. It uses protected RIM APIs which require that it be code-signed, which I have done. But, I can't get my Jar imported and working with a simple helloWorld app. I'm using the eclipse plug-in Blackberry-JDE. Here is what I have tried: First: Building myLibProject with BlackBerry_JDE_PluginFull_1.0.0.67 into a JAR, signing it and importing it into a BlackBerry_JDE_PluginFull_1.0.0.67 application project -- I get a class not found error, while compiling the application project. Next: I imported myLibProject into an BlackBerry_JDE_PluginFull_1.1.1.* library project, built it into a jar, signed it and imported it into a BlackBerry_JDE_PluginFull_1.1.1.* application project. It built this time, but while loading up the simulator to test it I get the following error ( Access violation reading from 0xFFFFFFC ) before the simulator can loadup and it crashs the simulator. Other stuff I've tried: I also tried importing the jar into it's own project and having the HelloWorld app project reference that project. If I include the src in my application project it works fine... But Im looking for a way to deploy this as compiled code. Any Ideas? Or help?

  Read the article

• Difficulties using custom control - RichTextEditor

  - by Chris

  I am working on a school project that uses ASP.NET. I found this TextEditor control ( http://blogs.msdn.com/kirti/archive/2007/11/10/rich-text-editor-is-here.aspx ) that I am trying to include but it isn't working. The error I am getting is: Error Rendering Control - TextEditor. An unhandled exception has occurred. Index was out of range. Must be non-negative and less than the size of the collection. Parameter name: index. I see this error when I go Design part of the editor. I just don't understand this error at all. Also I am a lil bit confused as there is no parameter called index. :( What I have done is reference the binary in my project and then on the page I am trying to use it have registered its namespace and assembly with this line: <%@ Register Assembly="RichTextEditor" Namespace="AjaxControls" TagPrefix="rtt" %> I then go ahead and try to add the control to the page with this line of code: <rtt:richtexteditor ID="TextEditor" Theme="Blue" runat="server" /> Any help would be much appreciated. I haven't done anything like add a custom control before.

  Read the article

• C# Client to Consume Google App Engine RESTful Webservice (rpc XML)

  - by Ngu Soon Hui

  I think I hit a problem when using C# client to consume Google App Engine Webservice. The Google App Engine code I use is here. This is how the python script on server would look like: from google.appengine.ext import webapp from google.appengine.ext.webapp.util import run_wsgi_app import logging from StringIO import StringIO import traceback import xmlrpclib from xmlrpcserver import XmlRpcServer class Application: def __init__(self): pass def getName(self,meta): return 'example' class XMLRpcHandler(webapp.RequestHandler): rpcserver = None def __init__(self): self.rpcserver = XmlRpcServer() app = Application() self.rpcserver.register_class('app',app) def post(self): request = StringIO(self.request.body) request.seek(0) response = StringIO() try: self.rpcserver.execute(request, response, None) except Exception, e: logging.error('Error executing: '+str(e)) for line in traceback.format_exc().split('\n'): logging.error(line) finally: response.seek(0) rstr = response.read() self.response.headers['Content-type'] = 'text/xml' self.response.headers['Content-length'] = "%d"%len(rstr) self.response.out.write(rstr) application = webapp.WSGIApplication( [('/xmlrpc/', XMLRpcHandler)], debug=True) def main(): run_wsgi_app(application) if __name__ == "__main__": main() The client side ( in Python) is this: import xmlrpclib s = xmlrpclib.Server('http://localhost:8080/xmlrpc/') print s.app.getName() I have no problem in using Python client to retrieve values from Google App Engine, but I do have difficulties in using a C# client to retrieve the values. The error I got was 404 method not found when I am trying to GetResponse from the web request. This is my code var request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create("http://localhost:8080/xmlrpc/app"); request.Method = "GET"; request.ContentLength = 0; request.ContentType = "text/xml"; using (HttpWebResponse response = request.GetResponse() as HttpWebResponse) //404 method not found error here. { } I think it must be that the url is wrong, but I don't know how to get it right. Any idea?

  Read the article

• PHP, jQuery and Ajax Object Orientation

  - by pastylegs

  I'm a fairly experienced programmer getting my head around PHP and Ajax for the first time, and I'm having a bit of trouble figuring out how to incorperate object oriented PHP into my ajax webapp. I have an admin page (admin.php) that will load and write information (info.xml) from an XML file depending on the users selection of a form on the admin page. I have decided to use an object (ContentManager.php) to manage the loading and writing of the XML file to disk, i.e : class ContentManager{ var $xml_attribute_1 ... function __construct(){ //load the xml file from disk and save its contents into variables $xml_attribute = simplexml_load_file(/path/to/xml) } function get_xml_contents(){ return xml_attribute; } function write_xml($contents_{ } function print_xml(){ } } I create the ContentManager object in admin.php like so <?php include '../includes/CompetitionManager.php'; $cm = new CompetitionManager() ?> <script> ...all my jquery </script> <html> ... all my form elements </html> So now I want to use AJAX to allow the user to retrieve information from the XML file via the ContentManger app using an interface (ajax_handler.php) like so <?php if(_POST[]=="get_a"){ }else if() } ... ?> I understand how this would work if I wasn't using objects, i.e. the hander php file would do a certain action depending on a variable in the .post request, but with my setup, I can't see how I can get a reference to the ContentManager object I have created in admin.php in the ajax_handler.php file? Maybe my understanding of php object scope is flawed. Anyway, if anyone can make sense of what I'm trying to do, I would appreciate some help!

  Read the article

• WinForms data binding with a Save button?

  - by Mat

  How is data binding in C# WinForms supposed to work when you have a Save button? I don't want the data updated until I press Save! I have two forms (list and detail) backed by a BindingList<T> collection and my custom object from that collection, respectively. I can bind each form to the list or object appropriately. However, any changes made in the detail form are immediately reflected in the list form - I don't want to save the changes and update the details shown in the list until the Save button is pressed. Is data binding designed to support this? Is there a common pattern for doing so? Whichever way I look at it, binding doesn't seem to be able to support this scenario. I've considered the following: Pass a clone of the object to the detail form, but then I have to reconcile the changes on Save - changes may have been made to the copy in the list in the meantime. Implementing IEditableObject and calling EndEdit on save almost works as I can prevent the list being notified of the changes made until Save is pressed, but if something else causes a refresh the list is updated with the interim data. I'm currently left with dispensing with data binding in my detail view, and doing it all manually. Which is rather annoying.

  Read the article

• Asp.Net MVC 2: How exactly does a view model bind back to the model upon post back?

  - by Dr. Zim

  Sorry for the length, but a picture is worth 1000 words: In ASP.NET MVC 2, the input form field "name" attribute must contain exactly the syntax below that you would use to reference the object in C# in order to bind it back to the object upon post back. That said, if you have an object like the following where it contains multiple Orders having multiple OrderLines, the names would look and work well like this (case sensitive): This works: Order[0].id Order[0].orderDate Order[0].Customer.name Order[0].Customer.Address Order[0].OrderLine[0].itemID // first order line Order[0].OrderLine[0].description Order[0].OrderLine[0].qty Order[0].OrderLine[0].price Order[0].OrderLine[1].itemID // second order line, same names Order[0].OrderLine[1].description Order[0].OrderLine[1].qty Order[0].OrderLine[1].price However we want to add order lines and remove order lines at the client browser. Apparently, the indexes must start at zero and contain every consecutive index number to N. The black belt ninja Phil Haack's blog entry here explains how to remove the [0] index, have duplicate names, and let MVC auto-enumerate duplicate names with the [0] notation. However, I have failed to get this to bind back using a nested object: This fails: Order.id // Duplicate names should enumerate at 0 .. N Order.orderDate Order.Customer.name Order.Customer.Address Order.OrderLine.itemID // And likewise for nested properties? Order.OrderLine.description Order.OrderLine.qty Order.OrderLine.price Order.OrderLine.itemID Order.OrderLine.description Order.OrderLine.qty Order.OrderLine.price I haven't found any advice out there yet that describes how this works for binding back nested ViewModels on post. Any links to existing code examples or strict examples on the exact names necessary to do nested binding with ILists? Steve Sanderson has code that does this sort of thing here, but we cannot seem to get this to bind back to nested objects. Anything not having the [0]..[n] AND being consecutive in numbering simply drops off of the return object. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• What is the WCF equivalent?

  - by klausbyskov

  I am trying to port some code that is based on WSE3.0 to WCF. Basically, the old code has the following configuration: <microsoft.web.services3> <diagnostics> <trace enabled="true" input="InputTrace.webinfo" output="OutputTrace.webinfo" /> </diagnostics> <tokenIssuer> <statefulSecurityContextToken enabled="false" /> </tokenIssuer> </microsoft.web.services3> When calling the same service through my "Service Reference" I get this error: Request does not contain required Security header My binding looks like this: <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="LegalUnitGetBinding" closeTimeout="00:01:00" openTimeout="00:01:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:01:00" allowCookies="false" bypassProxyOnLocal="false" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" maxBufferSize="65536" maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxReceivedMessageSize="65536" messageEncoding="Text" textEncoding="utf-8" transferMode="Buffered" useDefaultWebProxy="true"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="8192" maxArrayLength="16384" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> <security mode="Transport"> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> From what I have understood, the service I'm calling only requires an SSL connection, since it receives a username and password as part of a request parameter. Any help or suggestions would be greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• Ruby on Rails / Yellow Maps For Ruby Plugin woes...

  - by Zach

  Okay I've read through the plugin comments and the docs as well and I have yet to come up with an answer as to how to do this. Here's my problem I want to use the :info_window_tabs and the :icon option, but I don't know what format to pass my information in. According to the documentation the following code should be correct. Here's my code: @mapper.overlay_init(GMarker.new([map.lat, map.lng], :title => map.name, :info_window_tabs => [ {:tab => "HTML", :content => @marker_html}, {:tab => "Attachments", :content => "stuff"}], :icon => { :image => "../images/icon.png" })) The readme and documentation can be viewed here. And the relevant ruby file that I am trying to interact with, including the author's comments, can be viewed here. I have tried the #rubyonrails channel in IRC as well as emailing the author directly and reporting an issue at GitHub. It really is just a question of syntax. Thanks!

  Read the article

• how to write this typical mysql query( ho to use subquery column into main query)

  - by I Like PHP

  I HAVE TWO TABLES shown below table_joining id join_id(PK) transfer_id(FK) unit_id transfer_date joining_date 1 j_1 t_1 u_1 2010-06-05 2010-03-05 2 j_2 t_2 u_3 2010-05-10 2010-03-10 3 j_3 t_3 u_6 2010-04-10 2010-01-01 4 j_5 NULL u_3 NULL 2010-06-05 5 j_6 NULL u_4 NULL 2010-05-05 table_transfer id transfer_id(PK) pastUnitId futureUnitId effective_transfer_date 1 t_1 u_3 u_1 2010-06-05 2 t_2 u_6 u_1 2010-05-10 3 t_3 u_5 u_3 2010-04-10 now i want to know total employee detalis( using join_id) which are currently working on unit u_3 . means i want only join_id j_1 (has transfered but effective_transfer_date is future date, right now in u_3) j_2 ( tansfered and right now in `u_3` bcoz effective_transfer_date has been passed) j_6 ( right now in `u_3` and never transfered) what i need to take care of below steps( as far as i know ) <1> first need to check from table_joining whether transfer_id is NULL or not <2> if transfer_id= is NULL then see unit_id=u_3 where joining_date <=CURDATE() ( means that person already joined u_3) <3> if transfer_id is NOT NULL then go to table_transfer using transfer_id (foreign key reference) <4> now see the effective_transfer_date regrading that transfer_id whether effective_transfer_date<=CURDATE() <5> if transfer date has been passed(means transfer has been done) then return futureUnitID otherwise return pastUnitID i used two separate query but don't know how to join those query?? for step <1 ans <2 SELECT unit_id FROM table_joining WHERE joining_date<=CURDATE() AND transfer_id IS NULL AND unit_id='u_3' for step<5 SELECT IF(effective_transfer_date <= CURDATE(),futureUnitId,pastUnitId) AS currentUnitID FROM table_transfer // here how do we select only those rows which have currentUnitID='u_3' ?? please guide me the process?? i m just confused with JOINS. i think using LEFT JOIN can return the data i need, but i m not getting how to implement ...please help me. Thanks for helping me alwayz

  Read the article

• Link to Hotmail / Windows Live email compose -- maintaining BCC

  - by Curtis Gibby

  My app creates a mailto-esque link that takes the end user to a Hotmail compose screen with various attributes pre-filled. Most of the functionality I need is working: to, cc, subject, body. However, Hotmail seems to be stripping out any BCC attributes that I pass into the URL. For example, this link works as advertised: http://mail.live.com/mail/EditMessageLight.aspx?n=&[email protected]&[email protected];%[email protected]&subject=the%20subject&body=the%20body I get the one email address in the To field and two in the CC field. But when I try the exact same URL except substituting "bcc" for "cc", the two addresses are nowhere to be found. http://mail.live.com/mail/EditMessageLight.aspx?n=&[email protected]&[email protected];%[email protected]&subject=the%20subject&body=the%20body This link format is posted all over the web (along with a variation like http://mail.live.com/default.aspx?rru=compose%3f[attributes] ), but none of the various settings that I've tried actually work to bring in the BCC addresses. I need the BCC so that the email recipients are not given each others' email addresses. My versions of this url for regular old mailto, along with Gmail and Yahoo Mail, work perfectly. Surprise surprise.

  Read the article

• Weak event handler model for use with lambdas

  - by Benjol

  OK, so this is more of an answer than a question, but after asking this question, and pulling together the various bits from Dustin Campbell, Egor, and also one last tip from the 'IObservable/Rx/Reactive framework', I think I've worked out a workable solution for this particular problem. It may be completely superseded by IObservable/Rx/Reactive framework, but only experience will show that. I've deliberately created a new question, to give me space to explain how I got to this solution, as it may not be immediately obvious. There are many related questions, most telling you you can't use inline lambdas if you want to be able to detach them later: Weak events in .Net? Unhooking events with lambdas in C# Can using lambdas as event handlers cause a memory leak? How to unsubscribe from an event which uses a lambda expression? Unsubscribe anonymous method in C# And it is true that if YOU want to be able to detach them later, you need to keep a reference to your lambda. However, if you just want the event handler to detach itself when your subscriber falls out of scope, this answer is for you.

  Read the article

• Alternative to jQuery's .toggle() method that supports eventData?

  - by Bungle

  The jQuery documentation for the .toggle() method states: The .toggle() method is provided for convenience. It is relatively straightforward to implement the same behavior by hand, and this can be necessary if the assumptions built into .toggle() prove limiting. The assumptions built into .toggle have proven limiting for my current task, but the documentation doesn't elaborate on how to implement the same behavior. I need to pass eventData to the handler functions provided to toggle(), but it appears that only .bind() will support this, not .toggle(). My first inclination is to use a flag global to a single handler function to store the click state. In other words, rather than: $('a').toggle(function() { alert('odd number of clicks'); }, function() { alert('even number of clicks'); }); do this: var clicks = true; $('a').click(function() { if (clicks) { alert('odd number of clicks'); clicks = false; } else { alert('even number of clicks'); clicks = true; } }); I haven't tested the latter, but I suspect it would work. Is this the best way to do something like this, or is there a better way that I'm missing? Thanks!

  Read the article

• batch file to merge .js files from subfolders into one combined file

  - by Andrew Johns

  I'm struggling to get this to work. Plenty of examples on the web, but they all do something just slightly different to what I'm aiming to do, and every time I think I can solve it, I get hit by an error that means nothing to me. After giving up on the JSLint.VS plugin, I'm attempting to create a batch file that I can call from a Visual Studio build event, or perhaps from cruise control, which will generate JSLint warnings for a project. The final goal is to get a combined js file that I can pass to jslint, using: cscript jslint.js < tmp.js which would validate that my scripts are ready to be combined into one file for use in a js minifier, or output a bunch of errors using standard output. but the js files that would make up tmp.js are likely to be in multiple subfolders in the project, e.g: D:\_projects\trunk\web\projectname\js\somefile.debug.js D:\_projects\trunk\web\projectname\js\jquery\plugins\jquery.plugin.js The ideal solution would be to be able to call a batch file along the lines of: jslint.bat %ProjectPath% and this would then combine all the js files within the project into one temp js file. This way I would have flexibility in which project was being passed to the batch file. I've been trying to make this work with copy, xcopy, type, and echo, and using a for do loop, with dir /s etc, to make it do what I want, but whatever I try I get an error.

  Read the article

• Using Windows Integrated Auth & Anonymous during redirect on IIS7

  - by James Black

  I have an application we bought that I need to integrate, and it uses jakarta connection to get to the application from IIS. So, the basic operation is: user goes to the url Gets redirected to the application SSO is enabled, so redirected back to IIS for fetching of domain credentials Back to application If username is blank show login page, else let user in. This is a simplification of all the steps, but the basic idea is here. My difficulty is that I need both Windows Integrated Auth and anonymous on, as some users won't have credentials, and need to be prompted for a username/password. I have looked at: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2068546/iis-windows-authentication-before-anonymous already, but the user doesn't get to click on a link to decide. The application goes back to IIS looking for login.aspx and from there I want to either get their domain credentials or pass back to the application empty strings to signify that there are no credentials. It seems this isn't going to be possible though as if anonymous is on it doesn't make the 401 request so the credentials aren't passed. If I can't get this to work with just using an ASP page, could it be done using an ISAPI filter, or a module?

  Read the article

• Android : Customizing tabs on state : How do I make a selector a drawable

  - by Chrispix

  I know how to put the icon on each tab, that is no problem. I also ran across this : Stack Overflow thread on pretty much same thing I followed one of the links from that question, and found this Pretty much, it said use a selector defined in the xml, sure, did that. But there is no id associated w/ it so I am not sure how to get the selector function as a drawable so I can use it as the icon for the tabs. Maybe I am going about this the wrong way.. But this is what I have, and obviously missing something. <selector android:id="@+id/myselector" xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <!-- Non focused states --> <item android:state_focused="false" android:state_selected="false" android:state_pressed="false" android:drawable="@drawable/darklogo" /> <item android:state_focused="false" android:state_selected="true" android:state_pressed="false" android:drawable="@drawable/lightlogo" /> <!-- Focused states --> <item android:state_focused="true" android:state_selected="false" android:state_pressed="false" android:drawable="@drawable/lightlogo" /> <item android:state_focused="true" android:state_selected="true" android:state_pressed="false" android:drawable="@drawable/lightlogo" /> <!-- Pressed --> <item android:state_pressed="true" android:drawable="@drawable/lightlogo" /> </selector> In my code, an example tab is generated using : host.addTab(host.newTabSpec("three") .setIndicator("map",drawables) .setContent(new Intent(this, Map.class))); Right now drawables is just a reference to an drawable image resource. How do I make the selector a drawable? * This is my question *

  Read the article

• Grails bean-fields plugin

  - by Don

  Hi, I'm having problems using the Grails bean-fields plugin with a class this is annotated Validateable, but is not a domain/command class. The root cause of the problem appears to be in this method of BeanTagLib.groovy private def getBeanConstraints(bean) { if (bean?.metaClass?.hasProperty(bean, 'constraints')) { def cons = bean.constraints if (cons != null) { if (log.debugEnabled) { log.debug "Bean is of type ${bean.class} - the constraints property was a [${cons.class}]" } // Safety check for the case where bean is no a proper domain/command object // This avoids confusing errors where constraints comes back as a Closure if (!(cons instanceof Map)) { if (log.warnEnabled) { log.warn "Bean of type ${bean.class} is not a domain class, command object or other validateable object - the constraints property was a [${cons.class}]" } } } else { if (log.warnEnabled) { log.warn "Bean of type ${bean.class} has no constraints" } } return cons } else return null } I tested out this method above in the grails console and when I pass an instance of MyBean into this method, it logs: Bean of type ${bean.class} is not a domain class, command object or other validateable object - the constraints property was a [${cons.class}] Because the constraints are returned as an instance of Closure instead of a Map. If I could figue out how to get a Map reference to the constraints of a @Validateable class (that is not a domain/command class), I guess I could resolve the problem. Thanks, Don

  Read the article

• How to suppress quotes in Powershell commands to executables

  - by David Gladfelter

  Is there any way to supress the enclosing quotation marks around each command-line argument that powershell likes to generate and then pass to external executables for command line arguments that have spaces in them? Here's the situation: One way to unpack many installers is a command of the form: msiexec /a <packagename> /qn TARGETDIR="<path to folder with spaces>" Trying to execute this from powershell has proven quite difficult. Powershell likes to enclose parameters with spaces in double-quotes. The following lines: msiexec /a somepackage.msi /qn 'TARGETDIR="c:\some path"' msiexec /a somepackage.msi /qn $('TARGETDIR="c:\some path"') $td = '"c:\some path"' msiexec /a somepackage.msi /qn TARGETDIR=$td All result in the following command line (as reported by the Win32 GetCommandLine() api): "msiexec" /a somepackage.msi /qn "TARGETDIR="c:\some path"" This command line: msiexec /a somepackage.msi TARGETDIR="c:\some path" /qn results in "msiexec" /a fooinstaller.msi "TARGETDIR=c:\some path" /qn It seems that Powershell likes to enclose the results of expressions meant to represent one argument in quotation marks when passing them to external executables. This works fine for most executables. However, MsiExec is very specific about the quoting rules it wants and won't accept any of the command lines Powershell generates for paths have have spaces in them. Is there any way to suppress this behavior?

  Read the article

• Python metaclass for enforcing immutability of custom types

  - by Mark Lehmacher

  Having searched for a way to enforce immutability of custom types and not having found a satisfactory answer I came up with my own shot at a solution in form of a metaclass: class ImmutableTypeException( Exception ): pass class Immutable( type ): ''' Enforce some aspects of the immutability contract for new-style classes: - attributes must not be created, modified or deleted after object construction - immutable types must implement __eq__ and __hash__ ''' def __new__( meta, classname, bases, classDict ): instance = type.__new__( meta, classname, bases, classDict ) # Make sure __eq__ and __hash__ have been implemented by the immutable type. # In the case of __hash__ also make sure the object default implementation has been overridden. # TODO: the check for eq and hash functions could probably be done more directly and thus more efficiently # (hasattr does not seem to traverse the type hierarchy) if not '__eq__' in dir( instance ): raise ImmutableTypeException( 'Immutable types must implement __eq__.' ) if not '__hash__' in dir( instance ): raise ImmutableTypeException( 'Immutable types must implement __hash__.' ) if _methodFromObjectType( instance.__hash__ ): raise ImmutableTypeException( 'Immutable types must override object.__hash__.' ) instance.__setattr__ = _setattr instance.__delattr__ = _delattr return instance def __call__( self, *args, **kwargs ): obj = type.__call__( self, *args, **kwargs ) obj.__immutable__ = True return obj def _setattr( self, attr, value ): if '__immutable__' in self.__dict__ and self.__immutable__: raise AttributeError( "'%s' must not be modified because '%s' is immutable" % ( attr, self ) ) object.__setattr__( self, attr, value ) def _delattr( self, attr ): raise AttributeError( "'%s' must not be deleted because '%s' is immutable" % ( attr, self ) ) def _methodFromObjectType( method ): ''' Return True if the given method has been defined by object, False otherwise. ''' try: # TODO: Are we exploiting an implementation detail here? Find better solution! return isinstance( method.__objclass__, object ) except: return False However, while the general approach seems to be working rather well there are still some iffy implementation details (also see TODO comments in code): How do I check if a particular method has been implemented anywhere in the type hierarchy? How do I check which type is the origin of a method declaration (i.e. as part of which type a method has been defined)?

  Read the article

• Sharepoint: Integrity of lookup fields after a list import

  - by driAn

  Hi there I got a question about the behavior of lookup fields when importing data. I wonder how the lookup fields behave when the list they point to is being replaced/imported. To explain the issue, I will provide a quick example below: As example, assume we have these two sharepoint lists: Product Types ------------- + Type Name + Code Nr + etc Products -------- + Product Name + Product Type (Lookup field to list "Product Types") + etc In my scenario, the Products List contains production data on the production Sharepoint platform. It is filled with data by the business users. However the Product Types list contains rather static data and is maintained by the developer. Now after a development cycle, the developer wants to deploy his new webparts and his new data (product types list). The developer performs the following procedure: On the dev machine: Export "product type" list using stsadm On the production machine: Delete all items in the "product type" list On the production machine: Import the "product type" list using stsadm This means we basically replace the "product type" list on the production server while keeping the "product" list as it is. Now the question: Is this safe? Will the lookup references break under certain circumstances? Any downside of this import/export procedure? What happens if someone accesses a "product" during the import? Will the (now invalid) reference clear its own content (become a null value). What happens if the schema of the "product type" list changes (new column)? Will this cause any troubles? Thanks for all feedback and suggestions!

  Read the article

• Getting rid of the Expires node in the WS security header

  - by Nick

  From the snippet below, how do i get rid of the <wsu:Expires> tag? I want to either get rid of it or pass it in as a empty element. It is a read only property in objClient.RequestSoapContext.Security.Timestamp.Expires. Any help is appreciated. <wsse:Security soap:mustUnderstand="1"> <wsu:Timestamp wsu:Id="Timestamp-26d09d54-10ef-4141-aa2c-11c75ed8172b"> <wsu:Created>2010-03-08T15:32:16Z</wsu:Created> <wsu:Expires>2010-03-08T15:37:16Z</wsu:Expires> </wsu:Timestamp> <wsse:UsernameToken xmlns:wsu="http://docs.oasis-open.org/wss/2004/01/oasis-200401-wss-wssecurity-utility-1.0.xsd" wsu:Id="SecurityToken-7c9b80ec-98e9-4e41-af2e-ad37070cbdd3"> <wsse:Username>bubba</wsse:Username> <wsse:Password Type="http://docs.oasis-open.org/wss/2004/01/oasis-200401-wss-username-token-profile-1.0#PasswordDigest">dsfdfsdfsfs+-dasdf=</wsse:Password> <wsse:Nonce>QQ3C4HUfO2CyGx7HrjzMzg==</wsse:Nonce> <wsu:Created>2010-03-08T15:32:16Z</wsu:Created> </wsse:UsernameToken> </wsse:Security>

  Read the article

• Scalaz: request for use case for Cokleisli composition

  - by oxbow_lakes

  This question isn't meant as flame-bait! As it might be apparent, I've been looking at Scalaz recently. I'm trying to understand why I need some of the functionality that the library provides. Here's something: import scalaz._ import Scalaz._ type NEL[A] = NonEmptyList[A] val NEL = NonEmptyList I put some println statements in my functions to see what was going on (aside: what would I have done if I was trying to avoid side effects like that?). My functions are: val f: NEL[Int] => String = (l: NEL[Int]) => {println("f: " + l); l.toString |+| "X" } val g: NEL[String] => BigInt = (l: NEL[String]) => {println("g: " + l); BigInt(l.map(_.length).sum) } Then I combine them via a cokleisli and pass in a NEL[Int] val k = cokleisli(f) =>= cokleisli(g) println("RES: " + k( NEL(1, 2, 3) )) What does this print? f: NonEmptyList(1, 2, 3) f: NonEmptyList(2, 3) f: NonEmptyList(3) g: NonEmptyList(NonEmptyList(1, 2, 3)X, NonEmptyList(2, 3)X, NonEmptyList(3)X) RES: 57 The RES value is the character count of the (String) elements in the final NEL. Two things occur to me: How could I have known that my NEL was going to be reduced in this manner from the method signatures involved? (I wasn't expecting the result at all) What is the point of this? Can a reasonably simple and easy-to-follow use case be distilled for me? This question is a thinly-veiled plea for some lovely person like retronym to explain how this powerful library actually works.

  Read the article

• Why user control with code behind file doesn't want to compile under MVC2?

  - by kyrisu

  I have user control in my MVC2 app placed in the Content folder (it's not supposed to be a view, just reusable part of the app). UserControl1.ascx looks like: <@ Control AutoEventWireup="true" Language="C#" CodeFile="~/Content/UserControl1.ascx.cs" Inherits="MVCDrill.Content.UserControl1" %> <div runat="server" id="mydiv"> <asp:LinkButton id="lb_text" runat="server"></asp:LinkButton> </div> UserControl1.ascx.cs looks like: using System; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; namespace MVCDrill.Content { public class UserControl1 : UserControl { public string Text { get { return this.lb_text.Text; } set { this.lb_text.Text = value; } } } } I'm pretty sure this kind of stuff compiled under webforms but I'm getting compilation error: 'MVCDrill.Content.UserControl1' does not contain a definition for 'lb_text' and no extension method 'lb_text' accepting a first argument of type 'MVCDrill.Content.UserControl1' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) Am I missing something? How to change it (what is the alternative) in MVC2 ? p.s. Intellisense sees lb_text with no problem. I've tried with different controls with the same outcome.

  Read the article

• AS3 microphone recording/saving works, in-flash PCM playback double speed

  - by Lowgain

  I have a working mic recording script in AS3 which I have been able to successfully use to save .wav files to a server through AMF. These files playback fine in any audio player with no weird effects. For reference, here is what I am doing to capture the mic's ByteArray: (within a class called AudioRecorder) public function startRecording():void { _rawData = new ByteArray(); _microphone.addEventListener(SampleDataEvent.SAMPLE_DATA, _samplesCaptured, false, 0, true); } private function _samplesCaptured(e:SampleDataEvent):void { _rawData.writeBytes(e.data); } This works with no problems. After the recording is complete I can take the _rawData variable and run it through a WavWriter class, etc. However, if I run this same ByteArray as a sound using the following code which I adapted from the adobe cookbook: (within a class called WavPlayer) public function playSound(data:ByteArray):void { _wavData = data; _wavData.position = 0; _sound.addEventListener(SampleDataEvent.SAMPLE_DATA, _playSoundHandler); _channel = _sound.play(); _channel.addEventListener(Event.SOUND_COMPLETE, _onPlaybackComplete, false, 0, true); } private function _playSoundHandler(e:SampleDataEvent):void { if(_wavData.bytesAvailable <= 0) return; for(var i:int = 0; i < 8192; i++) { var sample:Number = 0; if(_wavData.bytesAvailable > 0) sample = _wavData.readFloat(); e.data.writeFloat(sample); } } The audio file plays at double speed! I checked recording bitrates and such and am pretty sure those are all correct, and I tried changing the buffer size and whatever other numbers I could think of. Could it be a mono vs stereo thing? Hope I was clear enough here, thanks!

  Read the article

• dynamic link_to_remote in rails with jquery

  - by Claus Lensbøl

  Hi I'm trying to pass a string with a link_to_remote call as the :id, and the string should be collected from an input field with and id of "movie_title". <div id="search_list">Nothing here yet</div> <br /> <% semantic_form_for @movie do |f| %> <% f.inputs do -%> <%= f.input :title, :class => "movie_title" %> <%= link_to_remote( 'Search...', { :url => { :action => :imdb_search, :id => "'+$('\#movie_title').value+'" } }, { :title => "Search for this movie", :class => "imdb_search" } ) -%> [...removed text that does not matter...] <% end -%> <%= f.buttons %> <% end %> I keep getting an javascript error, and if I remove the # from the jquery in the link, it returns "Undefined". The link I get is: <a class="imdb_search" href="#" onclick="jQuery.ajax({data:'authenticity_token=' + encodeURIComponent('yHPHYTZsPTQLi9JYSauUYcoie/pqPPk2uHBTN0PzNsQ='), dataType:'script', type:'post', url:'/movies/imdb_search/'+$('%23movie_title').value+''}); return false;" title="Search for this movie">Search...</a> So I want the link updated with the contents of movie_title. How do I do that?

  Read the article

• log4net creates log file but does not write to it (windows service in C#)

  - by user1825172

  I am trying to use basic logging for a windows service. I added the reference to log4net I added the following in AssemblyInfo.cs: [assembly: log4net.Config.XmlConfigurator(Watch = true)] I added the following to my App.config: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="log4net" type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler,log4net, Version=1.2.10.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=1b44e1d426115821" requirePermission="false" /> </configSections> <!-- Log4net Logging Setup --> <log4net> <appender name="RollingFileAppender" type="log4net.Appender.RollingFileAppender,log4net"> <file value="c:\\CGSD\\log\\logfile.txt" /> <appendToFile value="true" /> <lockingModel type="log4net.Appender.FileAppender+MinimalLock" /> <layout type="log4net.Layout.PatternLayout"> <conversionPattern value="%date [%thread] %level %logger - %message%newline" /> </layout> <filter type="log4net.Filter.LevelRangeFilter"> <levelMin value="INFO" /> <levelMax value="FATAL" /> </filter> </appender> <root> <level value="ALL"/> <appender-ref ref="RollingFileAppender"/> </root> </log4net> </configuration> I have the following code in my service: log4net.Config.XmlConfigurator.Configure(); log4net.ILog log = log4net.LogManager.GetLogger(typeof(Program)); log.Debug("test"); the file c:\CGSD\log\logfile.txt is created but nothing is ever written to it. i've been thru the forums all day trying to trac this one down, but if i overlooked an already posted solution i apologize. thx!

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 652 653 654 655 656 657 658 659 660 661 662 663  | Next Page >