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  • Asp.Net MVC 2: How exactly does a view model bind back to the model upon post back?

    - by Dr. Zim
    Sorry for the length, but a picture is worth 1000 words: In ASP.NET MVC 2, the input form field "name" attribute must contain exactly the syntax below that you would use to reference the object in C# in order to bind it back to the object upon post back. That said, if you have an object like the following where it contains multiple Orders having multiple OrderLines, the names would look and work well like this (case sensitive): This works: Order[0].id Order[0].orderDate Order[0].Customer.name Order[0].Customer.Address Order[0].OrderLine[0].itemID // first order line Order[0].OrderLine[0].description Order[0].OrderLine[0].qty Order[0].OrderLine[0].price Order[0].OrderLine[1].itemID // second order line, same names Order[0].OrderLine[1].description Order[0].OrderLine[1].qty Order[0].OrderLine[1].price However we want to add order lines and remove order lines at the client browser. Apparently, the indexes must start at zero and contain every consecutive index number to N. The black belt ninja Phil Haack's blog entry here explains how to remove the [0] index, have duplicate names, and let MVC auto-enumerate duplicate names with the [0] notation. However, I have failed to get this to bind back using a nested object: This fails: Order.id // Duplicate names should enumerate at 0 .. N Order.orderDate Order.Customer.name Order.Customer.Address Order.OrderLine.itemID // And likewise for nested properties? Order.OrderLine.description Order.OrderLine.qty Order.OrderLine.price Order.OrderLine.itemID Order.OrderLine.description Order.OrderLine.qty Order.OrderLine.price I haven't found any advice out there yet that describes how this works for binding back nested ViewModels on post. Any links to existing code examples or strict examples on the exact names necessary to do nested binding with ILists? Steve Sanderson has code that does this sort of thing here, but we cannot seem to get this to bind back to nested objects. Anything not having the [0]..[n] AND being consecutive in numbering simply drops off of the return object. Any ideas?

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  • Repackaging Jasper-Reports into an application specific OSGi bundle, legal or not?

    - by Chris
    Hi, I wanted to ask (probably a silly) question regarding the packaging of existing open-source components as OSGi bundles (more specifically Jasper Reports). I have an application that I am converting from a monolithic jar-hell type architecture to something more moduler and OSGi is my weapon of choice. There are various modules I have in mind but one of the modules is a reporting module. My own reporting module will be a jar file containing my code that should reference a Jasper Reports bundle. Trouble is, Jasper reports depends on far far too many libraries and is quite monolithic in its own right. I therefore wish to build my own Jasper Reports bundle but this is where I start getting confused about the legality of repackaging. I don't plan to re-compile but I do plan to re-bundle removing known items that I do not require. Can anyone offer advice on whether I am permitted to repackage (not recompile or extend) open-source libraries into OSGi bundles without falling foul of 'derivative works' clause of LGPL? I noticed that Groovy seems to offer some monolithic jars that include all dependancies and actually goes so far as to re-arrange the packages of its dependancies so that there are no namespace conflicts. This seems to me to be a violation of the license but if anyone can reassure me that this is legal then I would feel safer about my less intrusive custom-bundling of Jasper reports. Thanks for your time, Chris

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  • How to enable and use HTTP PUT and DELETE with Apache2 and PHP?

    - by Andreas Jansson
    Hi, It should be so simple. I've followed every tutorial and forum I could find, yet I can't get it to work. I simply want to build a RESTful API in PHP on Apache2. In my VirtualHost directive I say: <Directory /> AllowOverride All <Limit GET HEAD POST PUT DELETE OPTIONS> Order Allow,Deny Allow from all </Limit> </Directory> Yet every PUT request I make to the server, I get 405 method not supported. Someone advocated using the Script directive, but since I use mod_php, as opposed to CGI, I don't see why that would work. People mention using WebDAV, but to me that seems like overkill. After all, I don't need DAV locking, a DAV filesystem, etc. All I want to do is pass the request on to a PHP script and handle everything myself. I only want to enable PUT and DELETE for the clean semantics. Thanks, Andreas

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  • ASP MVC: Submitting a form with nested user controls

    - by Nigel
    I'm fairly new to ASP MVC so go easy :). I have a form that contains a number of user controls (partial views, as in System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl), each with their own view models, and some of those user controls have nested user controls within them. I intended to reuse these user controls so I built up the form using a hierarchy in this way and pass the form a parent view model that contains all the user controls' view models within it. For example: Parent Page (with form and ParentViewModel) -->ChildControl1 (uses ViewModel1 which is passed from ParentViewModel.ViewModel1 property) -->ChildControl2 (uses ViewModel2 which is passed from ParentViewModel.ViewModel2 property) -->ChildControl3 (uses ViewModel3 which is passed from ViewModel2.ViewModel3 property) I hope this makes sense... My question is how do I retrieve the view data when the form is submitted? It seems the view data cannot bind to the ParentViewModel: public string Save(ParentViewModel viewData)... as viewData.ViewModel1 and viewData.ViewModel2 are always null. Is there a way I can perform a custom binding? Ultimately I need the form to be able to cope with a dynamic number of user controls and perform an asynchronous submission without postback. I'll cross those bridges when I come to them but I mention it now so any answer won't preclude this functionality. Many thanks.

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  • SSIS 2005 Error while using script component Designer: "Cannot fetch a row from OLE DB provider "BUL

    - by user150541
    I am trying to debug a dts package in SSIS. I have a script component designer where I pass in the input variables to increment a counter. When I try to msgbox the counter value, I get the following error. Error: 0xC0202009 at STAGING1 to STAGING2, STAGING2 Destination [1056]: An OLE DB error has occurred. Error code: 0x80040E14. An OLE DB record is available. Source: "Microsoft SQL Native Client" Hresult: 0x80040E14 Description: "Cannot fetch a row from OLE DB provider "BULK" for linked server "(null)".". An OLE DB record is available. Source: "Microsoft SQL Native Client" Hresult: 0x80040E14 Description: "The OLE DB provider "BULK" for linked server "(null)" reported an error. The provider did not give any information about the error.". An OLE DB record is available. Source: "Microsoft SQL Native Client" Hresult: 0x80040E14 Description: "Reading from DTS buffer timed out.". Below is the part of the code within the script component designer : Imports System Imports System.Data Imports System.Math Imports Microsoft.SqlServer.Dts.Pipeline.Wrapper Imports Microsoft.SqlServer.Dts.Runtime.Wrapper Public Class ScriptMain Inherits UserComponent Dim iCounter As Integer Dim iCurrentVal As Integer Dim sCurrentOracleSeq As String Dim sSeqName As String Dim sSeqAltProcName As String Public Overrides Sub Input0_ProcessInputRow(ByVal Row As Input0Buffer) ' ' Add your code here ' Row.SEQIDNCASE = iCounter + iCurrentVal iCounter += 1 MsgBox(iCounter + iCurrentVal, MsgBoxStyle.Information, "Input0") End Sub Public Overrides Sub PreExecute() sCurrentOracleSeq = Me.Variables.VSEQIDCurVal iCurrentVal = CInt(sCurrentOracleSeq) MsgBox(iCurrentVal, MsgBoxStyle.Information, "No Title") iCounter = 0 sSeqName = Me.Variables.VSEQIDName sSeqAltProcName = Me.Variables.VSEQIDAlterProc End Sub Public Overrides Sub PostExecute() Me.Variables.VSEQIDUpdateSQL = "Begin " & sSeqAltProcName & "('" & sSeqName & "'," & (iCounter + iCurrentVal) & "); End;" End Sub End Class Note that the above part of code works perfectly fine if I comment out the lines that has Msgbox.

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  • Why user control with code behind file doesn't want to compile under MVC2?

    - by kyrisu
    I have user control in my MVC2 app placed in the Content folder (it's not supposed to be a view, just reusable part of the app). UserControl1.ascx looks like: <@ Control AutoEventWireup="true" Language="C#" CodeFile="~/Content/UserControl1.ascx.cs" Inherits="MVCDrill.Content.UserControl1" %> <div runat="server" id="mydiv"> <asp:LinkButton id="lb_text" runat="server"></asp:LinkButton> </div> UserControl1.ascx.cs looks like: using System; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; namespace MVCDrill.Content { public class UserControl1 : UserControl { public string Text { get { return this.lb_text.Text; } set { this.lb_text.Text = value; } } } } I'm pretty sure this kind of stuff compiled under webforms but I'm getting compilation error: 'MVCDrill.Content.UserControl1' does not contain a definition for 'lb_text' and no extension method 'lb_text' accepting a first argument of type 'MVCDrill.Content.UserControl1' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) Am I missing something? How to change it (what is the alternative) in MVC2 ? p.s. Intellisense sees lb_text with no problem. I've tried with different controls with the same outcome.

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  • Maintaining session information between 2 asp.net calls programmatically?

    - by Santhosh
    Hi, I'm not sure if I'll be clear enough in my explaination to make you guys understand, but I'll try. Here's my problem: We have an external site which the users in our company connect to by giving their corresponding username and password. The external site is an ASP.NET website. We want to integrate this website into our intranet portal so that the users don't have to enter their UN/Pwd to login to the website. Since the target website has no provision for SSO, we are simulating the POST request to login. So far so good. We are now required to perform an action after the initial login is done, on an another page. We can simulate the corresponding POST request as well. But the problem is since we are not maintaining any session information in our initial POST request, it always redirects to the login screen! Is there any way to maintain ASP.NET session information between multiple calls done programmatically? Can we create an ASP.NET session id cookie programmatically and then pass it along with our initial request? Or this is not possible at all? Any comments are appreciated. Thanks for your help. Regards.

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  • iPhone Objective-C service handlers

    - by Xavi Colomer
    Hello community! I am a as3 developer, I am used to use handlers everytime I launch an event and I am wondering which is the best way / practice to do that in Objective C. Let's say I want to call a diferent services from my backend. In as3 would be something like this to listent to the finish event: service.addEventListener( Event.COMPLETE, handler_serviceDidFinished ) service2.addEventListener( Event.COMPLETE, handler_serviceDidFinished2 ) But how can I do the same in Objective C? The problem is I already created the protocols and delegates, but how can I separate each response from the server? For example: -(void)callService:( NSString * )methodName withParameters:(NSMutableDictionary *) parameters { ... if (self.delegate != NULL && [self.delegate respondsToSelector:@selector(serviceDidFinishSuccessfully:)]) { [delegate serviceDidFinishSuccessfully:data]; } } Well I'm trying to create a generic delegate here, so how can I separate each response for every service? My first idea is that maybe I should return the name of the service method in the delegate call to identify each service. Maybe I should create a UID for each service and pass it the same way... Any idea?

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  • Android : Customizing tabs on state : How do I make a selector a drawable

    - by Chrispix
    I know how to put the icon on each tab, that is no problem. I also ran across this : Stack Overflow thread on pretty much same thing I followed one of the links from that question, and found this Pretty much, it said use a selector defined in the xml, sure, did that. But there is no id associated w/ it so I am not sure how to get the selector function as a drawable so I can use it as the icon for the tabs. Maybe I am going about this the wrong way.. But this is what I have, and obviously missing something. <selector android:id="@+id/myselector" xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <!-- Non focused states --> <item android:state_focused="false" android:state_selected="false" android:state_pressed="false" android:drawable="@drawable/darklogo" /> <item android:state_focused="false" android:state_selected="true" android:state_pressed="false" android:drawable="@drawable/lightlogo" /> <!-- Focused states --> <item android:state_focused="true" android:state_selected="false" android:state_pressed="false" android:drawable="@drawable/lightlogo" /> <item android:state_focused="true" android:state_selected="true" android:state_pressed="false" android:drawable="@drawable/lightlogo" /> <!-- Pressed --> <item android:state_pressed="true" android:drawable="@drawable/lightlogo" /> </selector> In my code, an example tab is generated using : host.addTab(host.newTabSpec("three") .setIndicator("map",drawables) .setContent(new Intent(this, Map.class))); Right now drawables is just a reference to an drawable image resource. How do I make the selector a drawable? * This is my question *

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  • ASP.Net MVC Json Result: Parameters passed to controller method issue

    - by Moskie
    I'm having a problem getting a controller method that returns a JsonResult to accept parameters passed via the JQuery getJSON method. The code I’m working on works fine when the second parameter ("data") of the getJSON method call is null. But when I attempt to pass in a value there, it seems as if the controller method never even gets called. In this example case, I just want to use an integer. The getJSON call that works fine looks like this: $.getJSON(”/News/ListNewsJson/”, null, ListNews_OnReturn); The controller method is like this: public JsonResult ListNewsJson(int? id) { … return Json(toReturn); } By putting a breakpoint in the ListNewsJson method, I see that this method gets called when the data parameter of getJSON is null, but when I replace it with value, such as, say, 3: $.getJSON(”/News/ListNewsJson/”, 3, ListNews_OnReturn); … the controller method/breakpoint is never hit. Any idea what I'm doing wrong? I should also mention that the controller method works fine if I manually go to the address via my browser ("/News/ListNewsJson/3").

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  • Break on EXC_BAD_ACCESS in XCode?

    - by jasonh
    I'm new to iPhone development and XCode in general and have no idea how to begin troubleshooting an EXC_BAD_ACCESS signal. How can I get XCode to break at the exact line that is causing the error? I can't seem to get XCode to stop on the line causing the problem, but I do see the following lines in my debug console: Sun Oct 25 15:12:14 jasonsmacbook TestProject[1289] : CGContextSetStrokeColorWithColor: invalid context Sun Oct 25 15:12:14 jasonsmacbook TestProject[1289] : CGContextSetLineWidth: invalid context Sun Oct 25 15:12:14 jasonsmacbook TestProject[1289] : CGContextAddPath: invalid context Sun Oct 25 15:12:14 jasonsmacbook TestProject[1289] : CGContextDrawPath: invalid context 2009-10-25 15:12:14.680 LanderTest[1289:207] *** -[CFArray objectAtIndex:]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x3c4e610 Now, I am attempting to draw to the context I retrieve from UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext() and pass to the object that I want to draw with. Further trial and error debugging and I found that an NSMutableArray I have a property for on my class was a zombie. I went into the init function for the class and here's the code I was using: if ((self = [super init])) { NSMutableArray *array = [NSMutableArray array]; self.terrainBlocks = array; [array release]; } return self; } I removed the [array release] line and it no longer gives me the EXC_BAD_ACCESS signal, but I'm now confused about why this works. I thought that when I used the property, it automatically retained it for me, and thus I should release it from within init so that I don't have a leak. I'm thoroughly confused about how this works and all the guides and Stackoverflow questions I've read only confuse me more about how to set properties within my init method. There seems to be no consensus as to which way is the best.

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  • boost::binding that which is already bound

    - by PaulH
    I have a Visual Studio 2008 C++ application that does something like this: template< typename Fcn > inline void Bar( Fcn fcn ) // line 84 { fcn(); }; template< typename Fcn > inline void Foo( Fcn fcn ) { // this works fine Bar( fcn ); // this fails to compile boost::bind( Bar, fcn )(); }; void main() { SYSTEM_POWER_STATUS_EX status = { 0 }; Foo( boost::bind( ::GetSystemPowerStatusEx, &status, true ) ); // line 160 } *The call to GetSystemPowerStatusEx() is just for demonstration. Insert your favorite call there and the behavior is the same. When I go to compile this, I get 84 errors. I won't post them all unless asked, but they start with this: 1>.\MyApp.cpp(99) : error C2896: 'boost::_bi::bind_t<_bi::dm_result<MT::* ,A1>::type,boost::_mfi::dm<M,T>,_bi::list_av_1<A1>::type> boost::bind(M T::* ,A1)' : cannot use function template 'void Bar(Fcn)' as a function argument 1> .\MyApp.cpp(84) : see declaration of 'Bar' 1> .\MyApp.cpp(160) : see reference to function template instantiation 'void Foo<boost::_bi::bind_t<R,F,L>>(Fcn)' being compiled 1> with 1> [ 1> R=BOOL, 1> F=BOOL (__cdecl *)(PSYSTEM_POWER_STATUS_EX,BOOL), 1> L=boost::_bi::list2<boost::_bi::value<_SYSTEM_POWER_STATUS_EX *>,boost::_bi::value<bool>>, 1> Fcn=boost::_bi::bind_t<BOOL,BOOL (__cdecl *)(PSYSTEM_POWER_STATUS_EX,BOOL),boost::_bi::list2<boost::_bi::value<_SYSTEM_POWER_STATUS_EX *>,boost::_bi::value<bool>>> 1> ] If anybody can point out what I may be doing wrong, I would appreciate it. Thanks, PaulH

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  • C# Client to Consume Google App Engine RESTful Webservice (rpc XML)

    - by Ngu Soon Hui
    I think I hit a problem when using C# client to consume Google App Engine Webservice. The Google App Engine code I use is here. This is how the python script on server would look like: from google.appengine.ext import webapp from google.appengine.ext.webapp.util import run_wsgi_app import logging from StringIO import StringIO import traceback import xmlrpclib from xmlrpcserver import XmlRpcServer class Application: def __init__(self): pass def getName(self,meta): return 'example' class XMLRpcHandler(webapp.RequestHandler): rpcserver = None def __init__(self): self.rpcserver = XmlRpcServer() app = Application() self.rpcserver.register_class('app',app) def post(self): request = StringIO(self.request.body) request.seek(0) response = StringIO() try: self.rpcserver.execute(request, response, None) except Exception, e: logging.error('Error executing: '+str(e)) for line in traceback.format_exc().split('\n'): logging.error(line) finally: response.seek(0) rstr = response.read() self.response.headers['Content-type'] = 'text/xml' self.response.headers['Content-length'] = "%d"%len(rstr) self.response.out.write(rstr) application = webapp.WSGIApplication( [('/xmlrpc/', XMLRpcHandler)], debug=True) def main(): run_wsgi_app(application) if __name__ == "__main__": main() The client side ( in Python) is this: import xmlrpclib s = xmlrpclib.Server('http://localhost:8080/xmlrpc/') print s.app.getName() I have no problem in using Python client to retrieve values from Google App Engine, but I do have difficulties in using a C# client to retrieve the values. The error I got was 404 method not found when I am trying to GetResponse from the web request. This is my code var request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create("http://localhost:8080/xmlrpc/app"); request.Method = "GET"; request.ContentLength = 0; request.ContentType = "text/xml"; using (HttpWebResponse response = request.GetResponse() as HttpWebResponse) //404 method not found error here. { } I think it must be that the url is wrong, but I don't know how to get it right. Any idea?

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  • how to fix: ctags null expansion of name pattern "\1"

    - by bua
    Hi, As the title points I have problem with ctags when trying to parse user-defined language. Basically I've followed those instructions. The quickest and easiest way to do this is by defining a new language using the program options. In order to have Swine support available every time I start ctags, I will place the following lines into the file $HOME/.ctags, which is read in every time ctags starts: --langdef=swine --langmap=swine:.swn --regex-swine=/^def[ \t]*([a-zA-Z0-9_]+)/\1/d,definition/ The first line defines the new language, the second maps a file extension to it, and the third defines a regular expression to identify a language definition and generate a tag file entry for it. I've tried different flags: b,e for regex. My definition of tag is: --regex-q=/^[ \t]*[^[:space:]]*[:space:]*:[:space:]*{/\l/f,function/b When I replace \1 with anything else (ascii caracter set ), It works. the output is: (--regex-q=/^[ \t]*[^[:space:]]*[:space:]*:[:space:]*{/my function name/f,function/b) !_TAG_FILE_FORMAT 2 /extended format; --format=1 will not append ;" to lines/ !_TAG_FILE_SORTED 1 /0=unsorted, 1=sorted, 2=foldcase/ !_TAG_PROGRAM_AUTHOR Darren Hiebert /[email protected]/ !_TAG_PROGRAM_NAME Exuberant Ctags // !_TAG_PROGRAM_URL http://ctags.sourceforge.net /official site/ !_TAG_PROGRAM_VERSION 5.8 // my function name file.q /^.ras.getLocation:{[u]$/;" f my function name file.q /^.a.getResource:{[u; pass]$/;" f my function name file.q /^.a.init:{$/;" f my function name file.q /^.a.kill:{[u; force]$/;" f my function name file.q /^.asdf.status:{[what; u]$/;" f my function name file.q /^.pc:{$/;" f Why \1 doesn't work? (I've tried all 1-9)

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  • Using Windows Integrated Auth & Anonymous during redirect on IIS7

    - by James Black
    I have an application we bought that I need to integrate, and it uses jakarta connection to get to the application from IIS. So, the basic operation is: user goes to the url Gets redirected to the application SSO is enabled, so redirected back to IIS for fetching of domain credentials Back to application If username is blank show login page, else let user in. This is a simplification of all the steps, but the basic idea is here. My difficulty is that I need both Windows Integrated Auth and anonymous on, as some users won't have credentials, and need to be prompted for a username/password. I have looked at: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2068546/iis-windows-authentication-before-anonymous already, but the user doesn't get to click on a link to decide. The application goes back to IIS looking for login.aspx and from there I want to either get their domain credentials or pass back to the application empty strings to signify that there are no credentials. It seems this isn't going to be possible though as if anonymous is on it doesn't make the 401 request so the credentials aren't passed. If I can't get this to work with just using an ASP page, could it be done using an ISAPI filter, or a module?

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  • SSIS Lookup with Lookup Component Vs Script Component.

    - by Nev_Rahd
    Hello, I need to load Dimensions from EDW Tables (which does maintain historical records) and is of type Key-Value-Parameter. My scenario is ok if got a record in EDW as below Key1 Key2 Code Value EffectiveDate EndDate CurrentFlag 100 555 01 AAA 2010-01-01 11.00.00 9999-12-31 Y 100 555 02 BBB 2010-01-01 11.00.00 9999-12-31 Y This need to be loaded into DM by pivoting it as key1 and key2 combinations makes Natural key for DM SK NK 01 02 EffectiveDate EndDate CurrentFlag 1 100-555 AAA BBB 2010-01-01 11.00.00 9999-12-31 Y My ssis package does this all good pivoting... looking up the incoming NK in DIM.. if new will insert .. else with further lookup with effective date and determine if the incoming for same natural key got any new (change) in attribute.. if so updates the current record byy setting its end date and insert the new one with new attribute value and pulling the recent records values for other attributes. My problem is if the same natural key comes twice with same attribute in single extract my first lookup which on natural key .. will let both records pass and try to insert.. where its fails. If i get distinct records on NK the second is not picked and need to run package again. So my question how can i configure lookup or alernative way to handle this scenario when same NK comes twice in single extract, would be able to insert first record if not exists in Dim table and for second one should be able to updated with the changes with reference to one inserted above. Not sure this makes sense what am trying to explain. Will attached the screenshot once back to work desk (on monday). Thanks

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  • Asymptotic complexity of a compiler

    - by Meinersbur
    What is the maximal acceptable asymptotic runtime of a general-purpose compiler? For clarification: The complexity of compilation process itself, not of the compiled program. Depending on the program size, for instance, the number of source code characters, statements, variables, procedures, basic blocks, intermediate language instructions, assembler instructions, or whatever. This is highly depending on your point of view, so this is a community wiki. See this from the view of someone who writes a compiler. Will the optimisation level -O4 ever be used for larger programs when one of its optimisations takes O(n^6)? Related questions: When is superoptimisation (exponential complexity or even incomputable) acceptable? What is acceptable for JITs? Does it have to be linear? What is the complexity of established compilers? GCC? VC? Intel? Java? C#? Turbo Pascal? LCC? LLVM? (Reference?) If you do not know what asymptotic complexity is: How long are you willing to wait until the compiler compiled your project? (scripting languages excluded)

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  • Calling Model Functions from a Library

    - by Abs
    Hello all, I have turned a normal PHP class into a library so I can use it in Codeigniter as a library. I can load it and call the functions I need in that class. Here is that class to help with the question. However, there are quite a few points where I have to call functions in my class. These functions reside in the model that instantiated my class. How can I do this as currently normal calls don't work. Here is my code: class Controlpanel_model extends Model { var $category = ''; var $dataa = 'a'; function Controlpanel_model(){ parent::Model(); } function import_browser_bookmarks(){ $this->load->library('BookmarkParser'); /* *In this function call to the class I pass * what model functions exist that it should call * You can view how this done by clicking the link above and looking at line 383 */ $this->bookmarkparser->parseNetscape("./bookmarks.html", 0, 'myURL', 'myFolder'); return $this->dataa; } function myURL($data, $depth, $no) { $category = $this->category; $this->dataa .= 'Tag = '.$category.'<br />'.'URL = '.$data["url"].'<br />'.'Title = '.$data["descr"].'<br />'.'<br /><br />'; } function myFolder($data, $depth, $no) { $this->category = $data["name"]; } } Thanks all for any help.

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  • How to temporarily replace one primitive type with another when compiling to different targets in c#

    - by Keith
    How to easily/quickly replace float's for doubles (for example) for compiling to two different targets using these two particular choices of primitive types? Discussion: I have a large amount of c# code under development that I need to compile to alternatively use float, double or decimals depending on the use case of the target assembly. Using something like “class MYNumber : Double” so that it is only necessary to change one line of code does not work as Double is sealed, and obviously there is no #define in C#. Peppering the code with #if #else statements is also not an option, there is just too much supporting Math operators/related code using these particular primitive types. I am at a loss on how to do this apparently simple task, thanks! Edit: Just a quick comment in relation to boxing mentioned in Kyles reply: Unfortunately I need to avoid boxing, mainly since float's are being chosen when maximum speed is required, and decimals when maximum accuracy is the priority (and taking the 20x+ performance hit is acceptable). Boxing would probably rules out decimals as a valid choice and defeat the purpose somewhat. Edit2: For reference, those suggesting generics as a possible answer to this question note that there are many issues which count generics out (at least for our needs). For an overview and further references see Using generics for calculations

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  • Per-pixel per-component alpha blending in Windows

    - by Crend King
    I have a 24-bit bitmaps with R, G, B color channels and a 24-bit bitmap with R, G, B alpha channels. I want to alpha blend the first bitmap to a HDC in GDI or RenderTarget in Direct2D with the alpha channels respectively. For example, suppose for one pixel, the bitmap color is (192, 192, 192), the HDC color is (0, 255, 255) and the alpha channels are (30, 40, 50). The final HDC color should be (22, 245, 242). I know I can BitBlt the HDC to a memory HDC first, do alpha blending by manually calculating the color of each pixel and finally BitBlt back. I just want to avoid the additional blitting and leave APIs do their job (faster since they are in kernel space). The first idea comes to my mind is to split the source bitmap into 3 red-only, green-only and blue-only 8-bit bitmaps, do normal alpha blending, then composite the 3 output bitmaps into the HDC. But I don't find a way to do the splitting and composition natively in Windows (would Direct2D layer help?). Also, the splitting and compositing may require many additional copying. The performance overhead would be too high. Or maybe do the alpha blending in 3 passes. Each pass apply the blending for one channel, while maintaining the other 2 unchanged. Thanks for any comment. EDIT: I found this question, and the answer should be good reference to this problem. However, besides AC_SRC_OVER, there is no other blending operation supported. Why don't Microsoft improve their API?

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  • Practical size limitations for RDBMS

    - by grenade
    I am working on a project that must store very large datasets and associated reference data. I have never come across a project that required tables quite this large. I have proved that at least one development environment cannot cope at the database tier with the processing required by the complex queries against views that the application layer generates (views with multiple inner and outer joins, grouping, summing and averaging against tables with 90 million rows). The RDBMS that I have tested against is DB2 on AIX. The dev environment that failed was loaded with 1/20th of the volume that will be processed in production. I am assured that the production hardware is superior to the dev and staging hardware but I just don't believe that it will cope with the sheer volume of data and complexity of queries. Before the dev environment failed, it was taking in excess of 5 minutes to return a small dataset (several hundred rows) that was produced by a complex query (many joins, lots of grouping, summing and averaging) against the large tables. My gut feeling is that the db architecture must change so that the aggregations currently provided by the views are performed as part of an off-peak batch process. Now for my question. I am assured by people who claim to have experience of this sort of thing (which I do not) that my fears are unfounded. Are they? Can a modern RDBMS (SQL Server 2008, Oracle, DB2) cope with the volume and complexity I have described (given an appropriate amount of hardware) or are we in the realm of technologies like Google's BigTable? I'm hoping for answers from folks who have actually had to work with this sort of volume at a non-theoretical level.

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  • ASP.Net MVC 3 Full Name In DropDownList

    - by tgriffiths
    I am getting a bit confused with this and need a little help please. I am developing a ASP.Net MVC 3 Web application using Entity Framework 4.1. I have a DropDownList on one of my Razor Views, and I wish to display a list of Full Names, for example Tom Jones Michael Jackson James Brown In my Controller I retrieve a List of User Objects, then select the FirstName and LastName of each User, and pass the data to a SelectList. List<User> Requesters = _userService.GetAllUsersByTypeIDOrgID(46, user.organisationID.Value).ToList(); var RequesterNames = from r in Requesters let person = new { UserID = r.userID, FullName = new { r.firstName, r.lastName } } orderby person.FullName ascending select person; viewModel.RequestersList = new SelectList(RequesterNames, "UserID", "FullName"); return View(viewModel); In my Razor View I have the following @Html.DropDownListFor(model => model.requesterID, Model.RequestersList, "Select", new { @class = "inpt_a"}) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.requesterID) However, when I run the code I get the following error At least one object must implement IComparable. I feel as if I am going about this the wrong way, so could someone please help with this? Thanks.

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  • How can I display the users profile pic using the facebook graph api?

    - by kielie
    Hi, I would like to display the users profile picture inside of my applications canvas page, is there a way to do that using the graph api? I know I can do it using FBML but I would also like to pass the profile pic to a flash game I am making, so I would have to get the profile pic from the api and send it as a variable, here is the code I have thus far, $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => FACEBOOK_APP_ID, 'secret' => FACEBOOK_SECRET_KEY, 'cookie' => true, 'domain' => 'myurl/facebook-test' )); $session = $facebook->getSession(); $uid = $facebook->getUser(); $me = $facebook->api('/me'); $updated = date("l, F j, Y", strtotime($me['updated_time'])); echo "Hello " . $me['name'] . $me['picture'] . "<br />"; echo "<div style=\"background:url(images/bg.jpg); width:760px; height:630px;\">" . "You last updated your profile on " . $updated . "</div>" . "<br /> your uid is" . $uid; Thanx in advance!

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  • How to suppress quotes in Powershell commands to executables

    - by David Gladfelter
    Is there any way to supress the enclosing quotation marks around each command-line argument that powershell likes to generate and then pass to external executables for command line arguments that have spaces in them? Here's the situation: One way to unpack many installers is a command of the form: msiexec /a <packagename> /qn TARGETDIR="<path to folder with spaces>" Trying to execute this from powershell has proven quite difficult. Powershell likes to enclose parameters with spaces in double-quotes. The following lines: msiexec /a somepackage.msi /qn 'TARGETDIR="c:\some path"' msiexec /a somepackage.msi /qn $('TARGETDIR="c:\some path"') $td = '"c:\some path"' msiexec /a somepackage.msi /qn TARGETDIR=$td All result in the following command line (as reported by the Win32 GetCommandLine() api): "msiexec" /a somepackage.msi /qn "TARGETDIR="c:\some path"" This command line: msiexec /a somepackage.msi TARGETDIR="c:\some path" /qn results in "msiexec" /a fooinstaller.msi "TARGETDIR=c:\some path" /qn It seems that Powershell likes to enclose the results of expressions meant to represent one argument in quotation marks when passing them to external executables. This works fine for most executables. However, MsiExec is very specific about the quoting rules it wants and won't accept any of the command lines Powershell generates for paths have have spaces in them. Is there any way to suppress this behavior?

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  • Weak event handler model for use with lambdas

    - by Benjol
    OK, so this is more of an answer than a question, but after asking this question, and pulling together the various bits from Dustin Campbell, Egor, and also one last tip from the 'IObservable/Rx/Reactive framework', I think I've worked out a workable solution for this particular problem. It may be completely superseded by IObservable/Rx/Reactive framework, but only experience will show that. I've deliberately created a new question, to give me space to explain how I got to this solution, as it may not be immediately obvious. There are many related questions, most telling you you can't use inline lambdas if you want to be able to detach them later: Weak events in .Net? Unhooking events with lambdas in C# Can using lambdas as event handlers cause a memory leak? How to unsubscribe from an event which uses a lambda expression? Unsubscribe anonymous method in C# And it is true that if YOU want to be able to detach them later, you need to keep a reference to your lambda. However, if you just want the event handler to detach itself when your subscriber falls out of scope, this answer is for you.

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