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• ASP.NET MVC 4/Web API Single Page App for Mobile Devices ... Needs Authentication

  - by lmttag

  We have developed an ASP.NET MVC 4/Web API single page, mobile website (also using jQuery Mobile) that is intended to be accessed only from mobile devices (e.g., iPads, iPhones, Android tables and phones, etc.), not desktop browsers. This mobile website will be hosted internally, like an intranet site. However, since we’re accessing it from mobile devices, we can’t use Windows authentication. We still need to know which user (and their role) is logging in to the mobile website app. We tried simply using ASP.NET’s forms authentication and membership provider, but couldn’t get it working exactly the way we wanted. What we need is for the user to be prompted for a user name and password only on the first time they access the site on their mobile device. After they enter a correct user name and password and have been authenticated once, each subsequent time they access the site they should just go right in. They shouldn’t have to re-enter their credentials (i.e., something needs to be saved locally to each device to identify the user after the first time). This is where we had troubles. Everything worked as expected the first time. That is, the user was prompted to enter a user name and password, and, after doing that, was authenticated and allowed into the site. The problem is every time after the browser was closed on the mobile device, the device and user were not know and the user had to re-enter user name and password. We tried lots of things too. We tried setting persistent cookies in JavaScript. No good. The cookies weren’t there to be read the second time. We tried manually setting persistent cookies from ASP.NET. No good. We, of course, used FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(model.UserName, true); as part of the form authentication framework. No good. We tried using HTML5 local storage. No good. No matter what we tried, if the user was on a mobile device, they would have to log in every single time. (Note: we’ve tried on an iPad and iPhone running both iOS 5.1 and 6.0, with Safari configure to allow cookies, and we’ve tried on Android 2.3.4.) Is there some trick to getting a scenario like this working? Or, do we have to write some sort of custom authentication mechanism? If so, how? And, what? Or, should we use something like claims-based authentication and WIF? Or??? Any help is appreciated. Thanks!

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• How do I remove elements from a jQuery wrapped set

  - by Bungle

  I'm a little confused about which jQuery method and/or selectors to use when trying to select an element, and then remove certain descendant elements from the wrapped set. For example, given the following HTML: <div id="article"> <div id="inset"> <ul> <li>This is bullet point #1.</li> <li>This is bullet point #2.</li> <li>This is bullet point #3.</li> </ul> </div> <p>This is the first paragraph of the article</p> <p>This is the second paragraph of the article</p> <p>This is the third paragraph of the article</p> </div> I want to select the article: var $article = $('#article'); but then remove <div id="inset"></div> and its descendants from the wrapped set. I tried the following: var $article = $('#article').not('#inset'); but that didn't work, and in retrospect, I think I can see why. I also tried using remove() unsuccessfully. What would be the correct way to do this? Ultimately, I need to set this up in such a way that I can define a configuration array, such as: var selectors = [ { select: '#article', exclude: ['#inset'] } ]; where select defines a single element that contains text content, and exclude is an optional array that defines one or more selectors to disregard text content from. Given the final wrapped set with the excluded elements removed, I would like to be able to call jQuery's text() method to end up with the following text: This is the first paragraph of the article.This is the second paragraph of the article.This is the third paragraph of the article. The configuration array doesn't need to work exactly like that, but it should provide roughly equivalent configuration potential. Thanks for any help you can provide!

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• Using JavaScript to parse an XML file

  - by Chris Clouten

  I am new to Stack OverFlow and coding in general. I am trying to take an XML file and render it in the browser using JavaScript. I have looked around at some sample code of how to do this and came up with the following code: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <body> <script> if (window.XMLHttpRequest) {// code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else {// code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.open("GET","social.xml",false); xmlhttp.send(); xmlDoc=xmlhttp.responseXML; document.write("<table border='1'>"); var x=xmlDoc.getElementsByTagName("CD"); for (i=0;i<x.length;i++) { document.write("<tr><td>"); document.write(x[i].getElementsByTagName("c_id")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue); document.write("</td><td>"); document.write(x[i].getElementsByTagName("facebook_id")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue); document.write("</td></tr>"); } document.write("</table>"); </script> </body> </html> Anyway, when I run this on my local server none of the data that I am trying to display in the table appears. My .html file and .xml file are in the same folder, so I believe I have the correct file pathway. I could just be making a rookie mistake here, but I can't for the life of me figure out why a table listing the c_id and facebook_id values is not being created. I looked around for answers and haven't been able to find any. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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• Is a many-to-many relationship with extra fields the right tool for my job?

  - by whichhand

  Previously had a go at asking a more specific version of this question, but had trouble articulating what my question was. On reflection that made me doubt if my chosen solution was correct for the problem, so this time I will explain the problem and ask if a) I am on the right track and b) if there is a way around my current brick wall. I am currently building a web interface to enable an existing database to be interrogated by (a small number of) users. Sticking with the analogy from the docs, I have models that look something like this: class Musician(models.Model): first_name = models.CharField(max_length=50) last_name = models.CharField(max_length=50) dob = models.DateField() class Album(models.Model): artist = models.ForeignKey(Musician) name = models.CharField(max_length=100) class Instrument(models.Model): artist = models.ForeignKey(Musician) name = models.CharField(max_length=100) Where I have one central table (Musician) and several tables of associated data that are related by either ForeignKey or OneToOneFields. Users interact with the database by creating filtering criteria to select a subset of Musicians based on data the data on the main or related tables. Likewise, the users can then select what piece of data is used to rank results that are presented to them. The results are then viewed initially as a 2 dimensional table with a single row per Musician with selected data fields (or aggregates) in each column. To give you some idea of scale, the database has ~5,000 Musicians with around 20 fields of related data. Up to here is fine and I have a working implementation. However, it is important that I have the ability for a given user to upload there own annotation data sets (more than one) and then filter and order on these in the same way they can with the existing data. The way I had tried to do this was to add the models: class UserDataSets(models.Model): user = models.ForeignKey(User) name = models.CharField(max_length=100) description = models.CharField(max_length=64) results = models.ManyToManyField(Musician, through='UserData') class UserData(models.Model): artist = models.ForeignKey(Musician) dataset = models.ForeignKey(UserDataSets) score = models.IntegerField() class Meta: unique_together = (("artist", "dataset"),) I have a simple upload mechanism enabling users to upload a data set file that consists of 1 to 1 relationship between a Musician and their "score". Within a given user dataset each artist will be unique, but different datasets are independent from each other and will often contain entries for the same musician. This worked fine for displaying the data, starting from a given artist I can do something like this: artist = Musician.objects.get(pk=1) dataset = UserDataSets.objects.get(pk=5) print artist.userdata_set.get(dataset=dataset.pk) However, this approach fell over when I came to implement the filtering and ordering of query set of musicians based on the data contained in a single user data set. For example, I could easily order the query set based on all of the data in the UserData table like this: artists = Musician.objects.all().order_by(userdata__score) But that does not help me order by the results of a given single user dataset. Likewise I need to be able to filter the query set based on the "scores" from different user data sets (eg find all musicians with a score 5 in dataset1 and < 2 in dataset2). Is there a way of doing this, or am I going about the whole thing wrong?

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• Memory leaks getting sub-images from video (cvGetSubRect)

  - by dnul

  Hi, i'm trying to do video windowing that is: show all frames from a video and also some sub-image from each frame. This sub-image can change size and be taken from a different position of the original frame. So , the code i've written does basically this: cvQueryFrame to get a new image from the video Create a new IplImage (img) with sub-image dimensions ( window.height,window.width) Create a new Cvmat (mat) with sub-image dimensions ( window.height,window.width) CvGetSubRect(originalImage,mat,window) seizes the sub-image transform Mat (cvMat) to img (IplImage) using cvGetImage my problem is that for each frame i create new IplImage and cvMat which take a lot of memory and when i try to free the allocated memory I get a segmentation fault or in the case of the CvMat the allocated space does not get free (valgrind keeps telling me its definetly lost space). the following code does it: int main(void){ CvCapture* capture; CvRect window; CvMat * tmp; //window size window.x=0;window.y=0;window.height=100;window.width=100; IplImage * src=NULL,*bk=NULL,* sub=NULL; capture=cvCreateFileCapture( "somevideo.wmv"); while((src=cvQueryFrame(capture))!=NULL){ cvShowImage("common",src); //get sub-image sub=cvCreateImage(cvSize(window.height,window.width),8,3); tmp =cvCreateMat(window.height, window.width,CV_8UC1); cvGetSubRect(src, tmp , window); sub=cvGetImage(tmp, sub); cvShowImage("Window",sub); //free space if(bk!=NULL) cvReleaseImage(&bk); bk=sub; cvReleaseMat(&tmp); cvWaitKey(20); //window dimensions changes window.width++; window.height++; } } cvReleaseMat(&tmp); does not seem to have any effect on the total amount of lost memory, valgrind reports the same amount of "definetly lost" memory if i comment or uncomment this line. cvReleaseImage(&bk); produces a segmentation fault. notice i'm trying to free the previous sub-frame which i'm backing up in the bk variable. If i comment this line the program runs smoothly but with lots of memory leaks I really need to get rid of memory leaks, can anyone explain me how to correct this or even better how to correctly perform image windowing? Thank you

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• How a database is loaded into an application?

  - by Audel

  Hi All i need is a simple explanation on how does this function work I also attached a piece of php which I think is the one that retrieves the data from the database. Please correct me if I'm wrong Cheers. function loadDatabaseRecords () { // Mozilla/Safari if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { xmlHttpReq = new XMLHttpRequest(); } // IE else if (window.ActiveXObject) { xmlHttpReq = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } alert ("To Server (Load Records):\n\najax-open-DB.php"); xmlHttpReq.open('GET', "ajax-open-DB.php", true); xmlHttpReq.onreadystatechange = loadDatabaseRecordsCallback; xmlHttpReq.send(null); } <?php $link = mysql_connect ("ipaddress", "localhost", "password"); mysql_select_db ("database1"); $query = "SELECT * from addressbook"; $result = mysql_query ($query); print "<table>"; print "<tr>"; print "<th>Firstname</th><th>Lastname</th><th>Address</th><th>Telephone</th>"; print "</tr>"; for ($i = 0; $i < mysql_num_rows ($result); $i ++) { $row = mysql_fetch_object ($result); print "<tr>"; print "<td>$row->firstname</td>"; print "<td>$row->lastname</td>"; print "<td>$row->address</td>"; print "<td>$row->telephone</td>"; print "</tr>"; } print "</table>"; mysql_close ($link); ?>

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• Java DriverManager Always Assigns My Driver

  - by JGB146

  I am writing a driver to act as a wrapper around two separate MySQL connections (to distributed databases). Basically, the goal is to enable interaction with my driver for all applications instead of requiring the application to sort out which database holds the desired data. Most of the code for this is in place, but I'm having a problem in that when I attempt to create connections via the MySQL Driver, the DriverManager is returning an instance of my driver instead of the MySQL Driver. I'd appreciate any tips on what could be causing this and what could be done to fix it! Below is a few relevant snippets of code. I can provide more, but there's a lot, so I'd need to know what else you want to see. First, from MyDriver.java: public MyDriver() throws SQLException { DriverManager.registerDriver(this); } public Connection connect(String url, Properties info) throws SQLException { try { return new MyConnection(info); } catch (Exception e) { return null; } } public boolean acceptsURL(String url) throws SQLException { if (url.contains("jdbc:jgb://")) { return true; } return false; } It is my understanding that this acceptsURL function will dictate whether or not the DriverManager deems my driver a suitable fit for a given URL. Hence it should only be passing connections from my driver if the URL contains "jdbc:jgb://" right? Here's code from MyConnection.java: Connection c1 = null; Connection c2 = null; /** *Constructors */ public DDBSConnection (Properties info) throws SQLException, Exception { info.list(System.out); //included for testing Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver").newInstance(); String url1 = "jdbc:mysql://server1.com/jgb"; String url2 = "jdbc:mysql://server2.com/jgb"; this.c1 = DriverManager.getConnection( url1, info.getProperty("username"), info.getProperty("password")); this.c2 = DriverManager.getConnection( url2, info.getProperty("username"), info.getProperty("password")); } And this tells me two things. First, the info.list() call confirms that the correct user and password are being sent. Second, because we enter an infinite loop, we see that the DriverManager is providing new instances of my connection as matches for the mysql URLs instead of the desired mysql driver/connection. FWIW, I have separately tested implementations that go straight to the mysql driver using this exact syntax (al beit only one at a time), and was able to successfully interact with each database individually from a test application outside of my driver.

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• grdb not working variables

  - by stupid_idiot

  hi, i know this is kinda retarded but I just can't figure it out. I'm debugging this: xor eax,eax mov ah,[var1] mov al,[var2] call addition stop: jmp stop var1: db 5 var2: db 6 addition: add ah,al ret the numbers that I find on addresses var1 and var2 are 0x0E and 0x07. I know it's not segmented, but that ain't reason for it to do such escapades, because the addition call works just fine. Could you please explain to me where is my mistake? I see the problem, dunno how to fix it yet though. The thing is, for some reason the instruction pointer starts at 0x100 and all the segment registers at 0x1628. To address the instruction the used combination is i guess [cs:ip] (one of the segment registers and the instruction pointer for sure). The offset to var1 is 0x10 (probably because from the begining of the code it's the 0x10th byte in order), i tried to examine the memory and what i got was: 1628:100 8 bytes 1628:108 8 bytes 1628:110 <- wtf? (assume another 8 bytes) 1628:118 ... whatever tricks are there in the memory [cs:var1] points somewhere else than in my code, which is probably where the label .data would usually address ds.... probably.. i don't know what is supposed to be at 1628:10 ok, i found out what caused the assness and wasted me whole fuckin day. the behaviour described above is just correct, the code is fully functional. what i didn't know is that grdb debugger for some reason sets the begining address to 0x100... the sollution is to insert the directive ORG 0x100 on the first line and that's the whole thing. the code was working because instruction pointer has the right address to first instruction and goes one by one, but your assembler doesn't know what effective address will be your program stored at so it pretty much remains relative to first line of the code which means all the variables (if not using label for data section) will remain pointing as if it started at 0x0. which of course wouldn't work with DOS. and grdb apparently emulates some DOS features... sry for the language, thx everyone for effort, hope this will spare someone's time if having the same problem... heheh.. at least now i know the reason why to use .data section :))))

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• Between/Timerange LINQ

  - by dezza

  My intention here is to select all entries (Bookings) between "begin" (begin_prefix) and "end" (end_prefix) BUT! The important thing is: If I have a booking at 07:25-10:00 - you query for 09:00-10:00 it should still show the booking because it reserves the room until 10 no matter what .. So .. 07.25-10.00 booking means query for 09:00-10.00 still returns a list of bookings within 09:00-10.00 (which means 07.25-10.00 is included) public static List<booking> Today(DateTime begin, DateTime end) { try { IFormatProvider Culturez = new CultureInfo(ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["locale"].ToString(), true); DateTime begin_prefix = DateTime.ParseExact(begin.ToString(), "dd-MM-yyyy HH:mm:ss", Culturez); DateTime end_prefix = DateTime.ParseExact(end.ToString(), "dd-MM-yyyy HH:mm:ss", Culturez); dbDataContext db = new dbDataContext(); // gives bookings BEFORE begin_prefix (why?) IQueryable<booking> bQ = from b in db.bookings where begin_prefix >= b.Starts && b.Ends <= end_prefix && b.Ends > b.Starts && b.pointsbookings.Count > 0 select b; // ^gives bookings BEFORE begin_prefix (why?) List<booking> bL = bQ.ToList(); return bL; } catch (Exception) { throw; } } I've tried getting this right for some time now .. Seems everytime I correct it to something new, a new overlap or selection outside the two begin/end dates seem to appear :( UPDATE CRITERIA and SOURCE: Bookings has to be WITHIN "begin_prefix" and "end_prefix" or on the exact same time .. .. currently the above code gives me bookings BEFORE begin_prefix date, which is not intentioned! We're in 2011, I got bookings from 2010 as well! ** NEW!! UPDATED: This is what I have: SEARCH.START = BOOKING.START BOOKING.END <= SEARCH.END ... the problem comes up when .. BOOKING entry: 10:00(Start)-14:00(End) This means according to above: 08.59 = 10.00 (SEARCH.START = BOOKING.START) It will never include it. But it should, since this is the same room and the seats are booked individually!

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• UITableView: Mixing static and dynamic cells

  - by AlexR

  I am trying to mix dynamic and static cells in a grouped table view: I would like to get two sections with static cells at the top followed by a section of dynamic cells (please refer to the screenshot below). I have set the table view contents to static cells. I designed the static cells in Interface Builder and gave them identifiers related to their section and row: "section0static0", "section0static1", "section1static0" and "section1static1". I named the dynamic cell "section2dynamic". My delegate methods, in which I am trying to return the correct cell identifier (static or dynamic) are as follows: - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { switch (section) { case 0: return 2; break; case 1: return 2; break; case 2: return 0; break; default: break; } return 0; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @""; if (indexPath.section <= 1) CellIdentifier = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"section%istatic%i",indexPath.section,indexPath.row]; else CellIdentifier = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"section%idynamic",indexPath.section]; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier forIndexPath:indexPath]; return cell; } Edit Based on AppleFreak's advice I have changed my code as follows: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell; if (indexPath.section <= 1) { // section <= 1 indicates static cells cell = [super tableView:tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath]; } else { // section > 1 indicates dynamic cells CellIdentifier = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"section%idynamic",indexPath.section]; cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier forIndexPath:indexPath]; } return cell; } However, my app crashes with error message Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: 'UITableView dataSource must return a cell from tableView:cellForRowAtIndexPath:' for section 0 and row 0. The cell returned from cell = [super tableView:tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath] for section 0 and row 0 is nil. What is wrong with my code? Could there be any problems with my outlets? I haven't set any outlets because I am subclassing UITableViewController and supposedly do not any outlets for tableview to be set (?). Any suggestions on how to better do it?

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• how to use window.onload?

  - by Patrick

  I'm refactoring a website using MVC. What was a set of huge pages with javascript, php, html etc etc is becoming a series of controllers and views. I'm trying to do it in a modular way so views are split in 'modules' that I can reuse in other pages when needed eg. "view/searchform displays only one div with the searchform "view/display_events displays a list of events and so on. One of the old pages was supposed to load a google map with a marker on it. Amongst the rest of the code, I can identify the relevant bits as follows <head> <script src="http://maps.google.com/maps?file=api&amp;v=2&amp;key=blablabla" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ function load() { if (GBrowserIsCompatible()) { var map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map")); var point = new GLatLng(<?php echo ($info->lat && $info->lng) ? $info->lat .",". $info->lng : "51.502759,-0.126171"; ?>); map.setCenter(new GLatLng(<?php echo ($info->lat && $info->lng) ? $info->lat .",". $info->lng : "51.502759,-0.126171"; ?>), 15); map.addControl(new GLargeMapControl()); map.addControl(new GScaleControl()); map.addOverlay(new GMarker(point)); var marker = createMarker(point,GIcon(),"CIAO"); map.addOverlay(marker); } } //]]> </script> </head> ...then <body onload="load()" onunload="GUnload()"> ...and finally this div where the map should be displayed <div id="map" style="width: 440px; height: 300px"> </div> Don't know much about js, but my understanding is that a) I have to include the scripts in the view module I'm writing (directly in the HTML? I would prefer to load a separate script) b) I have to trigger that function using the equivalent of body onload... (obviously there's no body tag in my view. In my ignorance I've tried div onload=.... but didn't seem to be working :) What do you suggest I do? I've read about window.onload but don't know what's the correct syntax for that. please keep in mind that other parts of the page include other js functions (eg, google adsense) that are called after the footer.

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• Openlayers and Bing Maps (POLYGONS)

  - by Jordan

  When trying to draw polygons onto a bing map, the initial marker is set differently on the map. How can I fix this? OpenLayers Bing Example <script src="OpenLayers.js"></script> <script> var map; function init(){ map = new OpenLayers.Map("map"); map.addControl(new OpenLayers.Control.LayerSwitcher()); var shaded = new OpenLayers.Layer.VirtualEarth("Shaded", { type: VEMapStyle.Shaded }); var hybrid = new OpenLayers.Layer.VirtualEarth("Hybrid", { type: VEMapStyle.Hybrid }); var aerial = new OpenLayers.Layer.VirtualEarth("Aerial", { type: VEMapStyle.Aerial }); var POLY_LAYER = new OpenLayers.Layer.Vector(); map.addLayers([shaded, hybrid, aerial, POLY_LAYER]); map.setCenter(new OpenLayers.LonLat(-110, 45), 3); var polygon = new OpenLayers.Control.DrawFeature(POLY_LAYER, OpenLayers.Handler.Polygon); map.addControl(polygon); polygon.activate(); } </script> Bing Example <div id="tags"> Bing, Microsoft, Virtual Earth </div> <p id="shortdesc"> Demonstrates the use of Bing layers. </p> <div id="map" class="smallmap"></div> <div id="docs">This example demonstrates the ability to create layers using tiles from Bing maps.</div> Of course the above is being initialized and page works. You can draw the polygon shapes. Notice if you zoom in or out one time, the markers are set at the correct coordinates. My app I was testing this on is really using the bing maps API keys and not VirtualEarth. But it's doing a similar thing. Is this an Openlayers bug? The below source came directly from the open layers example site, I just added and activated polygons to the map. Please let me know how I can fix this for using the Bing Map API.. I've been stuck on this for HOURS! :(

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• KnockoutJS radio buttons not changing like checkboxes do

  - by Gaui

  I have the same data structure for checkboxes and radio buttons. When checking the checkboxes, they return correct boolean value ('chosen' variable). However, when I check the radio buttons, 'chosen' always changes to the 'value' (integer). Also the radio buttons don't get "checked" in the beginning, even though 'chosen' == true Javascript: function attributeValueViewModel(data) { var self = this; self.id = ko.observable(data.id); self.attributeID = ko.observable(data.attributeID); self.value = ko.observable(data.value); self.chosen = ko.observable(data.chosen); } function viewModel() { var self = this; self.attributeValues1 = ko.observableArray([]); self.attributeValues2 = ko.observableArray([]); self.addToList = function(data) { ko.utils.arrayForEach(data, function(item) { self.attributeValues1.push(new attributeValueViewModel(item)); self.attributeValues2.push(new attributeValueViewModel(item)); }); }; } var arr = [ { "id": 55, "attributeID": 28, "value": "Yes", "chosen": false, }, { "id": 56, "attributeID": 28, "value": "No", "chosen": true, }, { "id": 62, "attributeID": 28, "value": "Maybe", "chosen": false, } ]; var vm = new viewModel(); ko.applyBindings(vm); vm.addToList(arr); HTML <b>Checkbox:</b> <div id="test1"> <span data-bind="foreach: attributeValues1()"> <input type="checkbox" data-bind="value: id(), checked: chosen, attr: { name: 'test1' }" /> <span data-bind="text: value()"></span> <span data-bind="text: chosen()"></span> </span> </div> <br /> <b>Radio:</b> <div id="test2"> <span data-bind="foreach: attributeValues2()"> <input type="radio" data-bind="value: id(), checked: chosen, attr: { name: 'test2' }" /> <span data-bind="text: value()"></span> <span data-bind="text: chosen()"></span> </span> </div>? Here is my fiddle: http://jsfiddle.net/SN7Vn/1/ Can you please explain this behavior and why the radio buttons don't update boolean (like checkboxes do)?

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• Strategies for "Always-Connected" Windows Client Data Architecture

  - by magz2010

  Hi. Let me start by saying: this is my 1st post here, this is a bit lenghty, and I havent done Windows Forms development in years....with that in mind please excuse me if this isn't directly a programming question and please bear with me as I really need the help!! I have been asked to develop a Windows Forms app for our company that talks to a central (local area network) Linux Server hosting a PostgreSQL database. The app is to allow users to authenticate themselves into the system and thereafter conduct the usual transactions with the PG database. Ordinarily, I would propose writing a webforms app against Mono, but the clients need to utilise local resources such as USB peripheral devices, so that is out of the question. While it might not seem clear, my questions are italised below: Dilemma #1: The application is meant to be always connected. How should I structure my DAL/BLL - Should this reside on the server or with the client? Dilemma #2: I have been reading up on Client Application Services (CAS), and it seems like a great fit for authentication, as everything is exposed via URIs. I know that a .NET Data Provider exists for PostgreSQL, but not too sure if CAS will all work on a Linux (Debian) server? Believe me, I would get my hands dirty and try myself, but I need to come up with a logical design first before resources are allocated to me for "trial purposes"! Dilemma #3: If the DAL/BLL is to reside on the server, is there any way I can create data services, and expose only these services to authenticated clients. There is a (security) requirement whereby a connection string with username and password to the database cannot be present on any client machines...even if security on the database side is quite rigid. I'm guessing that the only way for this to work would be to create the various CRUD data service methods that are exposed by an ASP.NET app, and have the WindowsForms make a request for data or persist data to the ASP.NET app (thru a URI) and have that return a resultset or value. Would I be correct in assuming this? Should I be looking into WCF Data Services? and will WCF work with a non-SQL Server database? Thank you for taking the time out to read this, but know that I am desperately seeking any advice on this! THANKS A MILLION!!!!

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• Running OpenMPI on Windows XP

  - by iamweird

  Hi there. I'm trying to build a simple cluster based on Windows XP. I compiled OpenMPI-1.4.2 successfully, and tools like mpicc and ompi_info work too, but I can't get my mpirun working properly. The only output I can see is Z:\orterun --hostfile z:\hosts.txt -np 2 hostname [host0:04728] Failed to initialize COM library. Error code = -2147417850 [host0:04728] [[8946,0],0] ORTE_ERROR_LOG: Error in file ..\..\openmpi-1.4.2 \orte\mca\ess\hnp\ess_hnp_module.c at line 218 -------------------------------------------------------------------------- It looks like orte_init failed for some reason; your parallel process is likely to abort. There are many reasons that a parallel process can fail during orte_init; some of which are due to configuration or environment problems. This failure appears to be an internal failure; here's some additional information (which may only be relevant to an Open MPI developer): orte_plm_init failed -- Returned value Error (-1) instead of ORTE_SUCCESS -------------------------------------------------------------------------- [host0:04728] [[8946,0],0] ORTE_ERROR_LOG: Error in file ..\..\openmpi-1.4.2 \orte\runtime\orte_init.c at line 132 -------------------------------------------------------------------------- It looks like orte_init failed for some reason; your parallel process is likely to abort. There are many reasons that a parallel process can fail during orte_init; some of which are due to configuration or environment problems. This failure appears to be an internal failure; here's some additional information (which may only be relevant to an Open MPI developer): orte_ess_set_name failed -- Returned value Error (-1) instead of ORTE_SUCCESS -------------------------------------------------------------------------- [host0:04728] [[8946,0],0] ORTE_ERROR_LOG: Error in file ..\..\..\..\openmpi -1.4.2\orte\tools\orterun\orterun.c at line 543 Where z:\hosts.txt appears as follows: host0 host1 Z: is a shared network drive available to both host0 and host1. What my problem is and how do I fix it? Upd: Ok, this problem seems to be fixed. It seems to me that WideCap driver and/or software components causes this error to appear. A "clean" machine runs local task successfully. Anyway, I still cannot run a task within at least 2 machines, I'm getting following message: Z:\mpirun --hostfile z:\hosts.txt -np 2 hostname connecting to host1 username:cluster password:******** Save Credential?(Y/N) y [host0:04728] This feature hasn't been implemented yet. [host0:04728] Could not connect to namespace cimv2 on node host1. Error code =-2147024891 -------------------------------------------------------------------------- mpirun was unable to start the specified application as it encountered an error. More information may be available above. -------------------------------------------------------------------------- I googled a little and did all the things as described here: http://www.open-mpi.org/community/lists/users/2010/03/12355.php but I'm still getting the same error. Can anyone help me? Upd2: Error code -2147024891 might be WMI error WBEM_E_INVALID_PARAMETER (0x80041008) which occures when one of the parameters passed to the WMI call is not correct. Does this mean that the problem is in OpenMPI source code itself? Or maybe it's because of wrong/outdated wincred.h and credui.lib I used while building OpenMPI from the source code?

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• git: setting a single tracking remote from a public repo.

  - by Gauthier

  I am confused with remote branches. My local repo: (local) ---A---B---C-master My remote repo (called int): (int) ---A---B---C---D---E-master What I want to do is to setup the local repo's master branch to follow that of int. Local repo: (local) ---A---B---C---D---E-master-remotes/int/master So that when int changes to: (int) ---A---B---C---D---E---F-master I can run git pull from the local repo's master and get (local) ---A---B---C---D---E---F-master-remotes/int/master Here's what I have tried: git fetch int gets me all the branches of int into remote branches. This can get messy since int might have hundreds of branches. git fetch int master gets me the commits, but no ref to it, only FETCH_HEAD. No remote branch either. git fetch int master:new_master works but I don't want a new name every time I update, and no remote branch is setup. git pull int master does what I want, but there is still no remote branch setup. I feel that it is ok to do so (that's the best I have now), but I read here and there that with the remote setup it is enough with git pull. git branch --track new_master int/master, as per http://www.gitready.com/beginner/2009/03/09/remote-tracking-branches.html . I get "not a valid object name: int/master". git remote -v does show me that int is defined and points at the correct location (1. worked). What I miss is the int/master branch, which is precisely what I want to get. git fetch in master:int/master. Well, int/master is created, but is no remote. So to summarize, I've tried some stuff with no luck. I would expect 2 to give me the remote branch to master in the repo int. The solution I use now is option 3. I read somewhere that you could change some config file by hand, but isn't that a bit cumbersome? The "cumbersome" way of editting the config file did work: [branch "master"] remote = int merge = master It can be done from command line: $ git config branch.master.remote int $ git config branch.master.merge master Any reason why option 2 above wouldn't do that automatically? Even in that case, git pull fetches all branches from the remote.

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• Need Help with Page Life Cycle(I think it is screwing me up)

  - by chobo2

  Hi I have dragged a empty asp.net table onto my webform. I generate all the rows in the code behind those. Now my table gets filled up and has dropdown lists. When the user hits save I go through all the rows and update the values from the dropdownlist in the db. This works all great. However if 2 columns have each have "Present" then those 2 columns should be not be shown anymore and 2 new columns get put in its place with other dropdown lists. This all works. However you have to refresh the entire page to for the 2 columns that should go away to go away. So what I tried to do is at the end of the button click event. Clear the whole table and then regenerate it. However when I do this then my values are not saved to the database anymore for whatever reason. if (IsPostBack == false) { // check if dummy variables exist in db- If true just generate tables with values in db. If not generate them. } else { // grab the values from the database // generate tables with the values } btn click event { go through all rows in table(foreach loop) update each column in the database with cells in each row. while in foreach loop. //done } So this is how it goes and it works expect(all correct values are saved) the table is just not updated to the user. Does not work if (IsPostBack == false) { // same code as above } // if postback is true do nothing. By the time it gets to the click event it says there is zero rows in the table so nothing happens. btn click event { // same code } Fails also. if (IsPostBack == false) { // same code as above } else { // same code as above but moved into its own method. gernerateTable(); } btn click event { // update all rows // once done clear the Tables rows // call generateTable() } This last one does nothing as for some reason it does not update anything. I don't understand why. So what am I doing wrong with this life cycle something in my process is wrong. The code works just not when I want the table to be updated right away.

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• BULK INSERT from one table to another all on the server

  - by steve_d

  I have to copy a bunch of data from one database table into another. I can't use SELECT ... INTO because one of the columns is an identity column. Also, I have some changes to make to the schema. I was able to use the export data wizard to create an SSIS package, which I then edited in Visual Studio 2005 to make the changes desired and whatnot. It's certainly faster than an INSERT INTO, but it seems silly to me to download the data to a different computer just to upload it back again. (Assuming that I am correct that that's what the SSIS package is doing). Is there an equivalent to BULK INSERT that runs directly on the server, allows keeping identity values, and pulls data from a table? (as far as I can tell, BULK INSERT can only pull data from a file) Edit: I do know about IDENTITY_INSERT, but because there is a fair amount of data involved, INSERT INTO ... SELECT is kinda of slow. SSIS/BULK INSERT dumps the data into the table without regards to indexes and logging and whatnot, so it's faster. (Of course creating the clustered index on the table once it's populated is not fast, but it's still faster than the INSERT INTO...SELECT that I tried in my first attempt) Edit 2: The schema changes include (but are not limited to) the following: 1. Splitting one table into two new tables. In the future each will have its own IDENTITY column, but for the migration I think it will be simplest to use the identity from the original table as the identity for the both new tables. Once the migration is over one of the tables will have a one-to-many relationship to the other. 2. Moving columns from one table to another. 3. Deleting some cross reference tables that only cross referenced 1-to-1. Instead the reference will be a foreign key in one of the two tables. 4. Some new columns will be created with default values. 5. Some tables aren’t changing at all, but I have to copy them over due to the "put it all in a new DB" request.

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• unable to trigger event in IE during clonning

  - by Abhimanyu

  Following is the code which will clone a set of div with their events(onclick) which is working fine for FF but in case of IE it is not firing events associated with each div. <html> <head> <style type='text/css'> .firstdiv{ border:1px solid red; } </style> <script language="JavaScript"> function show_tooltip(idx,condition,ev) { alert(idx +"=="+condition+"=="+ev); } function createCloneNode () { var cloneObj = document.getElementById("firstdiv").cloneNode(true); document.getElementById("maindiv").appendChild(cloneObj); } function init(){ var mainDiv = document.createElement("div"); mainDiv.id = 'maindiv'; var firstDiv = document.createElement("div"); firstDiv.id ='firstdiv'; firstDiv.className ='firstdiv'; for(var j=0;j<4;j++) { var summaryDiv = document.createElement("div"); summaryDiv.id = "sDiv"+j summaryDiv.className ='summaryDiv'; summaryDiv.onmouseover = function() {this.setAttribute("style","text-decoration:underline;cursor:pointer;");} summaryDiv.onmouseout = function() {this.setAttribute("style","text-decoration:none;");} summaryDiv.setAttribute("onclick", "show_tooltip("+j+",'view_month',event)"); summaryDiv.innerHTML = 'Div'+j; firstDiv.appendChild(summaryDiv); } mainDiv.appendChild(firstDiv); var secondDiv = document.createElement("div"); var linkDiv = document.createElement("div"); linkDiv.innerHTML ='create clone of above element'; linkDiv.onclick = function() { createCloneNode(); } secondDiv.appendChild(linkDiv); mainDiv.appendChild(secondDiv); document.body.appendChild(mainDiv); } </script> </head> <body> <script language="JavaScript"> init() </script> </body> </html> can anybody tell me whats the problem in above code please correct me..

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• How not to abort http response c#

  - by user194076

  I need to run several methods after sending file to a user for a download. What happens is that after I send a file to a user, response is aborted and I can no longer do anything after response.end(). for example, this is my sample code: Response.Clear(); Response.AddHeader("content-disposition", "attachment; filename=test.pdf"); Response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; byte[] a = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes("test"); Response.BinaryWrite(a); Response.End(); StartNextMethod(); Response.Redirect(URL); So, in this example StartNextMethod and Response.Redirect are not executing. What I tried is I created a separate handler(ashx) with the following code: public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { context.Response.Clear(); context.Response.AddHeader("content-disposition", "attachment; filename=test.pdf"); context.Response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; byte[] a = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes("test"); context.Response.BinaryWrite(a); context.Response.End(); } and call it like this: Download d = new Download(); d.ProcessRequest(HttpContext.Current); StartNextMethod(); Response.Redirect(URL); but the same error happen. I've tryied to replace Response.End with CompleteRequest but it doesn't help. I guess the problem is that I'm using HttpContext.Current but should use a separate response stream. Is that correct? how do I do that in a separate method generically (Assume that I want my handler to accept byte array of data and content type and be downloadable from a separate response. I really do not want to use a separate page for a response. UPDATE I still didn't find a good solution. I'd like to do some actions after user has downloaded a file, but without using a separate page for a response\request thing.

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• Backbone.js (model instanceof Model) via Chrome Extension

  - by Leoncelot

  Hey guys, This is my first time ever posting on this site and the problem I'm about to pose is difficult to articulate due to the set of variables required to arrive at it. Let me just quickly explain the framework I'm working with. I'm building a Chrome Extension using jQuery, jQuery-ui, and Backbone The entire JS suite for the extension is written in CoffeeScript and I'm utilizing Rails and the asset pipeline to manage it all. This means that when I want to deploy my extension code I run rake assets:precompile and copy the resulting compressed JS to my extensions Directory. The nice thing about this approach is that I can actually run the extension js from inside my Rails app by including the library. This is basically the same as my extensions background.js file which injects the js as a content script. Anyway, the problem I've recently encountered was when I tried testing my extension on my buddy's site, whiskeynotes.com. What I was noticing is that my backbone models were being mangled upon adding them to their respective collections. So something like this.collection.add(new SomeModel) created some nonsense version of my model. This code eventually runs into Backbone's prepareModel code _prepareModel: function(model, options) { options || (options = {}); if (!(model instanceof Model)) { var attrs = model; options.collection = this; model = new this.model(attrs, options); if (!model._validate(model.attributes, options)) model = false; } else if (!model.collection) { model.collection = this; } return model; }, Now, in most of the sites on which I've tested the extension, the result is normal, however on my buddy's site the !(model instance Model) evaluates to true even though it is actually an instance of the correct class. The consequence is a super messed up version of the model where the model's attributes is a reference to the models collection (strange right?). Needless to say, all kinds of crazy things were happening afterward. Why this is occurring is beyond me. However changing this line (!(model instanceof Model)) to (!(model instanceof Backbone.Model)) seems to fix the problem. I thought maybe it had something to do with the Flot library (jQuery graph library) creating their own version of 'Model' but looking through the source yielded no instances of it. I'm just curious as to why this would happen. And does it make sense to add this little change to the Backbone source? Update: I just realized that the "fix" doesn't actually work. I can also add that my backbone Models are namespaced in a wrapping object so that declaration looks something like class SomeNamespace.SomeModel extends Backbone.Model

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• Haskell type classes and type families (cont'd)

  - by Giuseppe Maggiore

  I need some help in figuring a compiler error which is really driving me nuts... I have the following type class: infixl 7 --> class Selectable a s b where type Res a s b :: * (-->) :: (CNum n) => (Reference s a) -> (n,(a->b),(a->b->a)) -> Res a s b which I instance twice. First time goes like a charm: instance Selectable a s b where type Res a s b = Reference s b (-->) (Reference get set) (_,read,write) = (Reference (\s -> let (v,s') = get s in (read v,s')) (\s -> \x -> let (v,s') = get s v' = write v x (_,s'') = set s' v' in (x,s''))) since the type checker infers (-->) :: Reference s a -> (n,a->b,a->b->a) -> Reference s b and this signature matches with the class signature for (--) since Res a s b = Reference s b Now I add a second instance and everything breaks: instance (Recursive a, Rec a ~ reca) => Selectable a s (Method reca b c) where type Res a s (Method reca b c) = b -> Reference s c (-->) (Reference get set) (_,read,write) = \(x :: b) -> from_constant( Constant(\(s :: s)-> let (v,s') = get s :: (a,s) m = read v ry = m x :: Reference (reca) c (y,v') = getter ry (cons v) :: (c,reca) v'' = elim v' (_,s'') = set s' v'' in (y,s''))) :: Reference s c the compiler complains that Couldn't match expected type `Res a s (Method reca b c)' against inferred type `b -> Reference s c' The lambda expression `\ (x :: b) -> ...' has one argument, which does not match its type In the expression: \ (x :: b) -> from_constant (Constant (\ (s :: s) -> let ... in ...)) :: Reference s c In the definition of `-->': --> (Reference get set) (_, read, write) = \ (x :: b) -> from_constant (Constant (\ (s :: s) -> ...)) :: Reference s c reading carefully the compiler is telling me that it has inferred the type of (--) thusly: (-->) :: Reference s a -> (n,a->(Method reca b c),a->(Method reca b c)->a) -> (b -> Reference s c) which is correct since Res a s (Method reca b c) = b -> Reference s c but why can't it match the two definitions? Sorry for not offering a more succint and standalone example, but in this case I cannot figure how to do it...

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• Urgent help needed on How to update NSMutableDictionary. My code doesn't work.

  - by dawatson833

  I've populated an array using. arrSettings = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:[self settingsPath]]; The file is a plist with the root as an array and then a dictionary with three three keys defined as number. I've also tried setting the keys to string. I display the values in the plist file on a view using. diaper = [[arrSettings objectAtIndex:0] objectForKey:@"Diaper Expenses"]; oil = [[arrSettings objectAtIndex:0] objectForKey:@"Oil Used"]; tree = [[arrSettings objectAtIndex:0] objectForKey:@"Wood Used"]; This code works fine, the values in the dictionary are assigned to the variables and they are displayed. The user can make changes and then press a save button. I use this code to extract the dictionary part of the array so I can update it. The assignment to editDictionary works. I've double checked the key names including case and that is correct. editDictionary = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; editDictionary = [arrSettings objectAtIndex:0]; NSNumber *myNumber = [NSNumber numberWithFloat:diaperAmount]; [editDictionary setValue:myNumber forKey:@"Diaper Expenses"]; myNumber = [NSNumber numberWithFloat:oilAmount]; [editDictionary setValue:myNumber forKey:@"Oil Used"]; myNumber = [NSNumber numberWithFloat:treeAmount]; [editDictionary setValue:myNumber forKey:@"Wood Used"]; In this example I've used a nsnumber. But I've also tried the xxxAmount field as part of SetValue instead of creating a NSNumber. Neither implementation works. Several strange things happen. Sometimes the first two setvalue statements work, but the last setvalue fails with a EXC_BAD_ACCESS failure. Other times the first setValue fails with the same error. I have no idea why the first two sometimes work. I'm at a loss of what to do next. I've tried several implentations and none of them work. Also, in the debugger how can I display the editDictionary elements. I can see editDictionary, but I don't know how to display the individual elements.

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• help me to choose the best soulotion for my purpose to build my software.

  - by rima

  before answer me plz thinking about the futures of these kind of program and answer me plz. I wanna get some data from oracle server like: 1-get all the function,package,procedure and etc for showing them or drop them & etc... 2-compile my *.sql files,get the result if they have problem & etc... becuz I was beginner in oracle first of all I for solve the second problem I try to connect to sqlPlus by RUN sqlplus and trace the output(I mean,I change the output stream of shell and trace what happend and handle the assigned message to customer. NOW THIS PART SUCCEED. just a little bit I have problem with get all result because the output is asynchronous.any way... [in this case I log in to oracle Server by send argument to the sqlplus by make a process in c#] after that I try to get all function,package or procedure name,but I have problem in speed!so I try to use oracle.DataAccess.dll to connect the database. now I m so confusing about: which way is correct way to build a program that work like Oracle Developer! I do not have any experience for like these program how work. If Your answer is I must use the second way follow this part plz: I search a little bit the Golden,PLedit (Benthic software),I have little bit problem how I must create the connection string?because I thinking about how I can find the host name or port number that oracle work on them?? am I need read the TNSNames.Ora file? IF your answer is I must use the first way follow this part plz: do u have any Idea for how I parse the output?because for example the result of a table is so confusing...[i can handle & program it but I really need someone experience,because the important things to me learn how such software work so nice and with quick response?] All of the has different style in output... If you are not sure Can u help me which book can help me in this way i become expert? becuz for example all the C# write just about how u can connect to DB and the DB books write how u can use this DB program,I looking for a book that give me some Idea how develop an interface for do transaction between these two.not simple send and receive data,for example how write a compiler for them. the language of book is not different for me i know C#,java,VB,sql,Oracle Thanks.

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• How to count the length (number of lines) of a csv file in Rails?

  - by Mathias

  Hello, I have a form (Rails) which allows me to load a .csv file using the file_field. In the view: <% form_for(:upcsv, :html => {:multipart => true}) do |f| %> <table> <tr> <td><%= f.label("File:") %></td> <td><%= f.file_field(:filename) %></td> </tr> </table> <%= f.submit("Submit") %> <% end %> Clicking Submit redirects me to another page (create.html.erb). The file was loaded fine, and I was able to read the contents just fine in this second page. I am trying to show the number of lines in the .csv file in this second page. My controller (semi-pseudocode): class UpcsvController < ApplicationController def index end def create file = params[:upcsv][:filename] ... #params[:upcsv][:file_length] = file.length # Show number of lines in the file #params[:upcsv][:file_length] = file.size ... end end Both file.length and file.size returns '91' when my file only contains 7 lines. From the Rails documentation that I read, once the Submit button is clicked, Rails creates a temp file of the uploaded file, and the params[:upcsv][:filename] contains the contents of the temp/uploaded file and not the path to the file. And I don't know how to extract the number of lines in my original file. What is the correct way to get the number of lines in the file? My create.html.erb: <table> <tr> <td>File length:</td> <td><%= params[:upcsv][:file_length] %></td> </tr> </table> I'm really new at Rails (just started last week), so please bear with my stupid questions. Thank you!

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