Search Results

Search found 19211 results on 769 pages for 'ui automated testing'.

Page 658/769 | < Previous Page | 654 655 656 657 658 659 660 661 662 663 664 665  | Next Page >

  • Running mysql query using node blocks the whole process and then timesout

    - by lobengula3rd
    I have a node javascript that uses mysql npm (Felix). I have a procedure stored in my DB which I call when the user selects an option to kind of create its own instance of the program. The user chooses for how long he wants that data to be initialized for him. This is suppsoed to be between 1 and 2 years. So if he choose 1 year this query will insert around 20,000 rows into 1 table. If I run this query and a local DB this takes around 30 seconds (I suppose it is reasonable because its a big query which should be done only once in 1 or 2 years so its ok). For some reason my node script freezes as if it can't handle any more calls from other users. The even worse problem is that after like 2 minutes my client ui gets like an error from the server. At this point not all the data that was supposed to enter the DB is entered. After waiting like another minute all the data finally gets to the DB and only then it will accept new requests. This is my connection: this.connection = mysql.createConnection({ host : '********rds.amazonaws.com', user : 'admin', password : '******', database : '*****' }); and this is my query function: this.createCourts = function (req, res, next){ connection.query('CALL filldates("' + req.body['startDate'] + '","' + req.body['endDate'] + '","' + req.body['numOfCourts'] + '","' + req.body['duration'] + '","' + req.body['sundayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['mondayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['tuesdayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['wednesdayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['thursdayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['fridayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['saturdayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['sundayClose'] + '","' + req.body['mondayClose'] + '","' + req.body['tuesdayClose'] + '","' + req.body['wednesdayClose'] + '","' + req.body['thursdayClose'] + '","' + req.body['fridayClose'] + '","' + req.body['saturdayClose'] + '");', function(err){ if (err){ console.log(err); } else return res.send(200); }); }; what am i missing here? as i understand connection.query should by async so why is it actually blocking my node script? thanks.

    Read the article

  • deactivate ' pin to start ' on Application List page when pinning an app via code using C#?

    - by Ahmed Ali
    i'm creating a windows phone app ,where i've put a button to pin the app to start screen , but when press and hold the app icon on application list screen i find that the pin to start option can be used ShellTile TileToFind = ShellTile.ActiveTiles.FirstOrDefault(x => x.NavigationUri.ToString().Contains("MainPage.xaml")); // Create the Tile if we didn't find that it already exists. if (TileToFind == null) { // Create the Tile object and set some initial properties for the Tile. // The Count value of 12 shows the number 12 on the front of the Tile. Valid values are 1-99. // A Count value of 0 indicates that the Count should not be displayed. StandardTileData NewTileData = new StandardTileData { BackgroundImage = new Uri("300.png", UriKind.Relative), Title = "apptitle", BackTitle = "title", BackContent = "testing ", BackBackgroundImage = null }; // Create the Tile and pin it to Start. This will cause a navigation to Start and a deactivation of our app. ShellTile.Create(new Uri("/MainPage.xaml", UriKind.Relative), NewTileData); } else { MessageBox.Show("Already Pinned"); } how can i disable the user from pinning the application again from application list screen

    Read the article

  • .net layered design: return error code to forms indicating which controls have an error

    - by David Casillas
    Let's say I have a simple application. It tries to add a new entry to a database grabing the info from the user. The information is a tipical MasterDetail objetc like an invoice. The Invoice object used to collect the data has some simple atributes (Id, Date, etc...) and a List of InvoiceDetail, consisting of some simple atributes (invoiceId, productId, quantity, etc...) A form in the UI Layer collects the data from the user, creates an instance of Invoice and sends it to the Bussiness Layer. The Bussines layer sends the data to a Validation Module. If any error in the input is detected it has to return some kind of error code. The Bussiness Layer has to send the error code back to the Form to let the user correct the worng information. I want the application to display some kind of warning (a different background color for example) in every form control with an error. ¿What's a good aproach to I manage the errors to be able to inform the form which controls are wrong? ¿Can I create an error object?¿Use delegates?. I'm using VB.net but don't think this is relevant to the solution of the problem. P.D: Please suggest me some tags to this post.

    Read the article

  • GL_COLOR_MATERIAL with lighting on Android

    - by kostmo
    It appears that glColorMaterial() is absent from OpenGL ES. According to this post (for iPhone), you may still enable GL_COLOR_MATERIAL in OpenGL ES 1.x, but you're stuck with the default settings of GL_FRONT_AND_BACK and GL_AMBIENT_AND_DIFFUSE that you would otherwise set with glColorMaterial(). I would be OK with this, but the diffuse lighting is not working correctly. I set up my scene and tested it with one light, setting glMaterialfv() for GL_AMBIENT and GL_DIFFUSE once in the initialization. The normals have been set correctly, and lighting works the way it's supposed to. I see the Gourad shading. With GL_LIGHTING disabled, the flat colors I have set with glColor4f() appear on the various objects in the scene. This also functions as expected. However, when glEnable(GL_COLOR_MATERIAL) is called, the flat colors remain. I would expect to see the lighting effects. What might be missing? glColorMaterial() is also mentioned on anddev.org, but I'm not sure if the information there is accurate. I'm testing this on an Android 2.1 handset (Motorola Droid). Edit: It works properly on my 1.6 handset (ADP1).

    Read the article

  • Jquery problem - cant expand the row above in a table

    - by apg1985
    Hi People, What I cant figure out is how I would toggle a row in a table using the one below it. So say I have a table with 2 rows the first contains content and the one below contains a button, when the page loads the content row is hidden and when you click the button it toggles the content row on and off. In the example the first table works but the second does not, I need the second one to work. <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html> <head> <title>Testing Horizontal Accordion</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".sectionhead").toggle( function() { $(this).next("tr").hide(); }, function() { $(this).next("tr").show(); } ) }); </script> </head> <body> <table> <tr class="sectionhead"><td></td></tr> <tr class="child"><td>child</td></tr> </table> <br> <table> <tr class="child"><td>child</td></tr> <tr class="sectionhead"><td></td></tr> </table> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • (Not So) Silly Objective-C inheritance problem when using property - GCC Bug?

    - by Ben Packard
    Update 2 - Many people are insisting I need to declare an iVar for the property. Some are saying not so, as I am using Modern Runtime (64 bit). I can confirm that I have been successfully using @property without iVars for months now. Therefore, I think the 'correct' answer is an explanation as to why on 64bit I suddenly have to explicitly declare the iVar when (and only when) i'm going to access it from a child class. The only one I've seen so far is a possible GCC bug (thanks Yuji). Not so simple after all... Update - I messed up one line of the original copy and paste - corrected. The @property call was missing (nonatomic, retain) but is a red herring - STILL NEED AN ANSWER! Thanks. I've been scratching my head with this for a couple of hours - I haven't used inheritance much. Here I have set up a simple Test B class that inherits from Test A, where an ivar is declared. But I get the compilation error that the variable is undeclared. This only happens when I add the property and synthesize declarations - works fine without them. TestA Header: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> @interface TestA : NSObject { NSString *testString; } @end TestA Implementation is empty: #import "TestA.h" @implementation TestA @end TestB Header: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> #import "TestA.h" @interface TestB : TestA { } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *testProp; @end TestB Implementation (Error - 'testString' is undeclared) #import "TestB.h" @implementation TestB @synthesize testProp; - (void)testing{ NSLog(@"test ivar is %@", testString); } @end

    Read the article

  • Blackberry application works in simulator but not device

    - by Kai
    I read some of the similar posts on this site that deal with what seems to be the same issue and the responses didn't really seem to clarify things for me. My application works fine in the simulator. I believe I'm on Bold 9000 with OS 4.6. The app is signed. My app makes an HTTP call via 3G to fetch an XML result. type is application/xhtml+xml. In the device, it gives no error. it makes no visual sign of error. I tell the try catch to print the results to the screen and I get nothing. HttpConnection was taken right out of the demos and works fine in sim. Since it gives no error, I begin to reflect back on things I recall reading back when the project began. deviceside=true? Something like that? My request is simply HttpConnection connection = (HttpConnection)Connector.open(url); where url is just a standard url, no get vars. Based on the amount of time I see the connection arrows in the corner of the screen, I assume the app is launching the initial communication to my server, then either getting a bad result, or it gets results and the persistent store is not functioning as expected. I have no idea where to begin with this. Posting code would be ridiculous since it would be basically my whole app. I guess my question is if anyone knows of any major differences with device versus simulator that could cause something like http connection or persistent store to fail? A build setting? An OS restriction? Any standard procedure I may have just not known about that everyone should do before beginning device testing? Thanks

    Read the article

  • C# ASP.NET Binding Controls via Generic Method

    - by OverTech
    I have a few web applications that I maintain and I find myself very often writing the same block of code over and over again to bind a GridView to a data source. I'm trying to create a Generic method to handle data binding but I'm having trouble getting it to work with Repeaters and DataLists. Here is the Generic method I have so far: public void BindControl<T>(T control, SqlCommand sql) where T : System.Web.UI.WebControls.BaseDataBoundControl { cmd = sql; cn.Open(); SqlDataReader dr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); if (dr.HasRows) { control.DataSource = dr; control.DataBind(); } dr.Close(); cn.Close(); } That way I can just define my CommandText then make a call to "BindControls(myGridView, cmd)" instead of retyping this same basic block of code every time I need to bind a grid. The problem is, this doesn't work with Repeaters or DataLists. Each of these controls inherit their respective "DataSource" and "DataBind" methods from different classes. Someone on another forum suggested that I implement an interface, but I'm not sure how to make that work either. The GridView, Datalist and Repeater get their respective "DataBind" methods from BaseDataBoundControl, BaseDataList, and Repeater classes. How would I go about creating a single interface to tie them all together? Or am I better off just using 3 overloads for this method? Dave

    Read the article

  • Working with Decimal fields in SSIS

    - by CoffeeAddict
    I'm using SQL Server 2008 w/SP2. I've got an incoming decimal(9,2) field incoming through my OLE DB transformation to my recordset destination transformation. It's like it's reading it as something other than a decimal? I don't know..I'm not an SSIS guru. So continuing on...the problem I have starts here with me trying to stuff the value into a variable for this decimal field. In a foreach loop, I have a variable to represent this decimal field so I can work with it. The first problem that I believe is pretty well known is SSIS variables do not have a decimal type. And from my own testing and what I've read out there, people are using type object for the variable to make SSIS "happy" with decimal values? It makes mine happy. But, then in my foreach loop, I have a for loop. And inside that I'm using an E*xecute SQL Task transformation*. In it, I need to create a parameter mapping to my variable so I can work with that decimal field in my T-SQL call in here. So now I see a type decimal for the parameter and use it and set that to point to my variable. When I run SSIS and it hits my SQL call, I get this in my output window.: The type is not supported.DBTYPE_DECIMAL So I am hitting a wall here. All I wanna do is work with a decimal!!!

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to render PDF (fPDF) via a javascript?

    - by J. LaRosee
    So, I'm passing some values via jQuery to the server, which generates PDF garble. It goes something like this: $.post('/admin/printBatch', data, // Some vars and such function(data){ if(data) { var batch = window.open('','Batch Print','width=600,height=600,location=_newtab'); var html = data; // Perhaps some header info here?! batch.document.open(); batch.document.write(html); batch.document.close(); $( this ).dialog( "close" ); // jQuery UI } else { alert("Something went wrong, dawg."); } return false; }); The output file looks roughly like so: $pdf->AddPage(null, null, 'A PDF Page'); //.... $pdf->Output('', 'I'); // 'I' sends the file inline to the browser (http://fpdf.org/en/doc/output.htm) What gets rendered to the browser window: %PDF-1.3 3 0 obj <> endobj 4 0 obj <> stream ... I'm missing something major, I just know it... thoughts? Thanks, guys.

    Read the article

  • How do I design a Wizard-based system with SoC in mind?

    - by Erik Forbes
    I'm building a Windows Forms system (in C# if it matters to anyone) that provides an application automation service. As this application is targeted at users who are not computer savvy, I've decided to break up the functions of the application into various tasks, and provide these tasks via a wizard UI. I'd like to avoid coupling the views and view engine (from which the Wizard will be built) to the automation engine. The problem I'm having is that the automation engine, which runs on a separate thread while it does its thing, needs to report status information back to the user, as well as listen for cancel or pause events from the user. Since I don't want the view engine or the automation engine to rely on each other, I'm having a hard time figuring out how to provide for this information conduit. Any insights into this issue I'm having would be greatly appreciated. I've been wracking my brain for a couple weeks now on this point, and I really don't want to give up and just couple everything together. If anyone needs additional details to help come up with some sort of idea please let me know and I'll be happy to provide them.

    Read the article

  • Redirecting to a Facelet is not working when extending FaceletViewHandler

    - by Abel Morelos
    I'm overriding the handleRenderResponse method defined in com.sun.facelets.FaceletViewHandler: protected void handleRenderException(FacesContext context, Exception ex) I'm overriding this method so I can redirect the user to a custom error page (which contain the desired look and feel and other stuff). This is the way I'm trying to String errorPage = "/error.xhtml"; String contextPath = context.getExternalContext().getRequestContextPath(); String errorPagePath = contextPath+errorPage; context.getExternalContext().redirect(errorPagePath); The previous code is what I'm using to perform the redirect to this custom error page. Anyway, when I perform the redirect I'm prompted with a download dialog (this is with Internet Explorer, in Firefox the page does not display properly or as I would expect). I tried changing "/error.xhtml" to "/error.jsf" but in that case I get a 404 error. Somehow I think that the XHTML file is not being handled to the Facelets ViewHandler after the redirect, if I open the downloaded xhtml file I can see that the EL expressions were not resolved and the the ui tags were not handled. I don't have problems with other pages in my application, only when doing the redirect programatically. Important data from my web.xml: facelets.VIEW_MAPPINGS is set to *.xhtml javax.faces.DEFAULT_SUFFIX is set to .xhtml servlet-mapping for the "Faces Servlet" is ".jsf" and "/faces/"

    Read the article

  • i want to convert my aspx.cs to dll

    - by jay rathod
    i have a default.aspx page: <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="_Default" %> <!DOCTYPE html> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:Button ID="btn" runat="server" Text="clicke here" OnClick="btn_Click"/> <asp:TextBox ID="txt" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="lbl"></asp:Label> </div> </div> </form> </body> </html> and default.aspx.cs : public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { string test; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } protected void btn_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { test = txt.Text; lbl.Text = test; } } now i want to make the dll of my default.aspx.cs file and remove it from the website and give the reference of it. so how can i do this??

    Read the article

  • String Length Evaluating Incorrectly

    - by Justin R.
    My coworker and I are debugging an issue in a WCF service he's working on where a string's length isn't being evaluated correctly. He is running this method to unit test a method in his WCF service: // Unit test method public void RemoveAppGroupTest() { string addGroup = "TestGroup"; string status = string.Empty; string message = string.Empty; appActiveDirectoryServicesClient.RemoveAppGroup("AOD", addGroup, ref status, ref message); } // Inside the WCF service [OperationBehavior(Impersonation = ImpersonationOption.Required)] public void RemoveAppGroup(string AppName, string GroupName, ref string Status, ref string Message) { string accessOnDemandDomain = "MyDomain"; RemoveAppGroupFromDomain(AppName, accessOnDemandDomain, GroupName, ref Status, ref Message); } public AppActiveDirectoryDomain(string AppName, string DomainName) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(AppName)) { throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } } We tried to step into the .NET source code to see what value string.IsNullOrEmpty was receiving, but the IDE printed this message when we attempted to evaluate the variable: 'Cannot obtain value of local or argument 'value' as it is not available at this instruction pointer, possibly because it has been optimized away.' (None of the projects involved have optimizations enabled). So, we decided to try explicitly setting the value of the variable inside the method itself, immediately before the length check -- but that didn't help. // Lets try this again. public AppActiveDirectoryDomain(string AppName, string DomainName) { // Explicitly set the value for testing purposes. AppName = "AOD"; if (AppName == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } if (AppName.Length == 0) { // This exception gets thrown, even though it obviously isn't a zero length string. throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } } We're really pulling our hair out on this one. Has anyone else experienced behavior like this? Any tips on debugging it?

    Read the article

  • Button Onclick event (which is in codbehind) doesn't get triggered in MVC 2

    - by rksprst
    I had an MVC 1.0 web application that was in VS 2008; I just upgraded the project to VS 2010 which automatically upgraded MVC to 2.0. I have a bunch of viewpages have codebehind files that were manually added. The project worked fine before the upgrade, but now the onclick even't don't get triggered. I.e. I have an asp:button with an onclick event that points to a method in the codebehind. When you click the button, the onclick event doesn't get triggered. In fact, when you look at the Page variable, IsPostBack is false. This is really bizarre and I'm wondering if anyone know what happened and how to fix it. I'm thinking it has something to do with the changes in MVC 2.0; but I'm not sure. Any help is really appreciated, I've been trying to figure this out for a while. (deleting the codebehinds and moving that to the controller is not really an option since there is so many pages, moving back to vs 2008 is a last resort as I want to make use of some of the VS 2010 features like performance testing.)

    Read the article

  • How do I ensure only the headers are shown for the first item in an ItemsControl in WPF?

    - by Dan Ryan
    I am using MVVM binding an ObservableCollection of children to an ItemsControl. The ItemsControl contains a UserControl used to style the UI for the children. <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding Documents}"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <View:DocumentView Margin="0, 10, 0, 0" /> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> I want to show a header row for the contents of the ItemsControl but only want to show this once at the top (not for every child). How can I implement this behaviour in the DocumentView user control? Fyi I am using a Grid layout to style the child rows: <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="34"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="100"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="*" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="60" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition /> <RowDefinition /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.ColumnSpan="4" Grid.Row="0" Text="Should only show this at the top"></TextBlock> <Image Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="1" Height="24" Width="24" Source="/Beazley.Documents.Presentation;component/Icons/error.png"></Image> <ComboBox Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="1" Name="ContentTypes" ItemsSource="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type View:MainView}}, Path=DataContext.ContentTypes}" SelectedValue="{Binding ContentType}"/> <TextBox Grid.Column="2" Grid.Row="1" Text="{Binding Path=FileName}"/> <Button Grid.Column="3" Grid.Row="1" Command="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type View:MainView}}, Path=DataContext.RemoveFile}" CommandParameter="{Binding}">Remove</Button> </Grid>

    Read the article

  • Trouble bringing a Blackberry App to Foreground

    - by Luis Armando
    I have an app that is listening in background and when the user clicks "send" it displays a dialogue. However I need to bring my app to foreground so the user answers some questions before letting the message go. but I haven't been able to do this, this is the code in my SendListener: SendListener sl = new SendListener(){ public boolean sendMessage(Message msg){ Dialog myDialog = new Dialog(Dialog.D_OK, "message from within SendListener", Dialog.OK,Bitmap.getPredefinedBitmap(Bitmap.EXCLAMATION), Dialog.GLOBAL_STATUS) { //Override inHolster to prevent the Dialog from being dismissed //when a user holsters their BlackBerry. This can //cause a deadlock situation as the Messages //application tries to save a draft of the message //while the SendListener is waiting for the user to //dismiss the Dialog. public void inHolster() { } }; //Obtain the application triggering the SendListener. Application currentApp = Application.getApplication(); //Detect if the application is a UiApplication (has a GUI). if( currentApp instanceof UiApplication ) { //The sendMessage method is being triggered from //within a UiApplication. //Display the dialog using is show method. myDialog.show(); App.requestForeground(); } else { //The sendMessage method is being triggered from // within an application (background application). Ui.getUiEngine().pushGlobalScreen( myDialog, 1, UiEngine.GLOBAL_MODAL ); } return true; } }; store.addSendListener(sl); App is an object I created above: Application App = Application.getApplication(); I have also tried to invoke the App to foreground using its processID but so far no luck.

    Read the article

  • Problem detecting installed application on Win Svr 2003 x64

    - by PD
    I have an x86 Windows application that consists of a couple of services and a client ui. Due to various issues with persuading the various MSIs to upgrade properly, the installation process is now governed by a wizard-style program that detects what is currently installed and handles upgrades by storing the user's current settings, uninstalling the existing software and installing the new version(s). The basic process is: Look in HKLM\Software\Classes\Installer\Products Loop through the GUID keys therein looking for ProductName="(my app name)" If not found, repeat starting from HKCU\Software\Microsoft\Installer\Products instead If found, offer the user an upgrade (as described earlier) else a clean install (i.e. user is asked various questions by the wizard) Now, this works just fine on pretty much any Windows platform you care to mention, from XP up. It fails only on Windows Server 2003 x64, in that an existing installation is not detected by the wizard - despite the exact same registry keys being present as are on any other platform I test on. It's fine on: XP x32 Vista x32, x64 Server 2003 x86 Server 2008 x86, x64 Server 2008 R2 x64 Windows 7 x86, x64 It's only Server 2003 x64 that seems to exhibit this issue.

    Read the article

  • make array from a list of images with jquery

    - by robertdd
    i have a list of photos like this: <div class="upimage"> <ul id="upimagesQueue" class="thumbs ui-sortable"> <li id="upimagesKHGYUD"> <a href="uploads/0002.jpg"> <img src="uploads/0002.jpg" id="KHGYUD"> </a> </li> <li id="upimagesNCEEKI"> <a href="uploads/0003.jpg"> <img src="uploads/0003.jpg" id="NCEEKI"> </a> </li> <li id="upimagesPWSHUN"> <a href="uploads/0003.jpg"> <img src="uploads/0003.jpg" id="PWSHUN"> </a> </li> <li id="upimagesOYJAQV"> <a href="uploads/0004.jpg"> <img src="uploads/0004.jpg" id="OYJAQV"> </a> </li> </ul> </div> i want to make a function in jquery too get all the images in 1 array to be able to sent the array to php! the array i want to be in this form: array( 'image_id_1' => array( 'image_src_1' => 'xyz.jpg', ) 'image_id_2' => array( 'image_src_2' => 'xyz.jpg', ) 'image_id_3' => array( 'image_src_3' => 'xyz.jpg', ) 'image_id_4' => array( 'image_src_4' => 'xyz.jpg', ) ) how i can code this? thanks

    Read the article

  • Could my forms be hacked.

    - by Mike Sandman
    Hi there, I posted a question yesterday, which I intend to get back to today however I wrote some JavaScript as a first line of prevention against XSS. However when testing this on my live server I catch some invalid input as the javascript catches the php section. My form uses post and php isn't in my form items (i haven't typed it in). Could this be picking up the form action or something? I'm baffeled, Any ideas Here is my code, it is triggered on the submit button. function validateForBadNess(){ var theShit = new Array("*","^", "$", "(",")","{", "}","[", "]","\", "|", "'","/","?",",","=","","gt","lt", "<","script","`","´","php"); var tagName = new Array(); tagName[0] = "input"; tagName[1] = "select"; tagName[2] = "textbox"; tagName[3] = "textarea"; for (ms=0;ms // loop through the elements of the form var formItems = document.getElementsByTagName(tagName[ms]); for (var xs=0;xs var thisString = formItems[xs].value; // loop through bad array for (zs in theShit){ //alert(thisString + " " + thisString.indexOf(theShit[zs])) if(thisString.indexOf(theShit[zs]) >= 0){ alert("Sorry but the following character: " + theShit[zs] + " is not permitted. Please omit it from your input.\nIf this is part of your password please contact us to heave your password reset.") return false; } } // loop for formitems } // tagName toop } // original condition }

    Read the article

  • code to ping websites works sometimes ...

    - by trustfundbaby
    I'm testing out a piece of code to ping a bunch of websites I own on a regular basis, to make sure they're up. I'm using rails and so far I have this hideous test action that I'm using to try it out (see below). The problem though, is that sometimes it works, and other times it won't ... sometimes it runs through the code just fine, other times, it seems to completely ignore the begin/rescue block ... a. I need help figuring out what the problem is b. And refactoring this to make it look respectable. Your help is much appreciated. require 'net/http' require 'uri' def ping @sites = NewsSource.all @sites.each do |site| if site.uri and !site.uri.empty? uri = URI.parse(site.uri) response = nil path = uri.path.blank? ? '/' : uri.path path = uri.query.blank? ? path : "#{path}?#{uri.query}" begin Net::HTTP.start(uri.host, uri.port) {|http| http.open_timeout = 30 http.read_timeout = 30 response = http.head(path) } if response.code.eql?('200') or response.code.eql?('301') or response.code.eql?('302') site.up = true else site.up = false end site.up_check_msg = response.message site.up_check_code = response.code rescue Errno::EBADF rescue Timeout::Error site.up = false site.up_check_msg = 'timeout' site.up_check_code = '408' end site.up_check_time = 0.seconds.ago site.save end end end

    Read the article

  • PHPMailer with GMail: SMTP Error

    - by Abs
    Hello all, I am making use of PHPMailer to send mail through GMail. The code I use is straight from a tutorial and it works perfectly on my laptop. However, testing this on a Windows 2003 Server - it seems to always return an SMPT error: SMTP Error: Could not connect to SMTP host. Mailer Error: SMTP Error: Could not connect to SMTP host. Here is the settings I use in PHPMailer: include("phpmailer/class.phpmailer.php"); $mail = new PHPMailer(); $mail->IsSMTP(); $mail->SMTPAuth = true; // enable SMTP authentication $mail->SMTPSecure = "ssl"; // use ssl $mail->Host = "smtp.gmail.com"; // GMAIL's SMTP server $mail->Port = 465; // SMTP port used by GMAIL server Can I say with confidence that this isn't a port issue, since I am connecting to another server on port 465 and it is sending mail. If not, please explain. How can I resolve this issue? Thanks all for any help

    Read the article

  • Problem with LINQ in C#

    - by David Bonnici
    I am encountering a problem when using LINQ in C#, I am constantly getting "Specified cast is not valid". This is what I am trying to do. I create a class in which I declare all the columns of the table. [Table(Name="tbl_Aff")] public class Affiliate { [Column] public string name; [Column] public string firstname; [Column] public string surname; [Column] public string title; } I then declare a strongly typed DataContext in which I declare all Table collections as members of the context. public partial class Database : DataContext { public Table affiliate; public Database() : base(Settings.getConnectionString()) { } //This method gets the connection string by reading from an XML file. } public partial class Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Database database = new Database(); try { var q = from a in database.affiliate select a; foreach (var aff in q) // Here I get the error "Specified cast is not valid" { lblMessage.InnerHtml += aff.name + ""; } } catch (Exception ex) { System.Console.WriteLine(ex.Message); } } }

    Read the article

  • m2eclipse: How to set Eclipse project settings when importing a maven project?

    - by Marius Andreiana
    Using m2eclipse Eclipse plugin, everybody on the dev team should be able to checkout source code, import Maven project in Eclipse and be good to go. I saw m2eclipse is being merged into Eclipse 3.7, and maven-eclipse-plugin won't be maintained any longer, so I'm looking for a m2eclipse-based solution (without running "mvn eclipse:clean eclipse:eclipse" before project import, which is what maven-eclipse-plugin does). maven-eclipse-plugin allows this in pom.xml <additionalConfig> <file> <name>.settings/com.google.gdt.eclipse.core.prefs</name> <content><![CDATA[ eclipse.preferences.version=2 jarsExcludedFromWebInfLib= warSrcDir=${project.build.directory}/${project.build.finalName} warSrcDirIsOutput=true ]]> </content> </file> The more general question is How would m2eclipse do something similar? For some cases, just saving the eclipse .settings/prefs file works (e.g. org.eclipse.jdt.ui.prefs), but in this case, com.google.gdt.eclipse.core.prefs is always overwritten on m2eclipse project import. A specific question is asked here, with no reply. Thanks! UPDATE: Not possible now, see request

    Read the article

  • Calculate posterior distribution of unknown mis-classification with PRTools in MATLAB

    - by Samuel Lampa
    I'm using the PRTools MATLAB library to train some classifiers, generating test data and testing the classifiers. I have the following details: N: Total # of test examples k: # of mis-classification for each classifier and class I want to do: Calculate and plot Bayesian posterior distributions of the unknown probabilities of mis-classification (denoted q), that is, as probability density functions over q itself (so, P(q) will be plotted over q, from 0 to 1). I have that (math formulae, not matlab code!): P(q|k,N) = Posterior * Prior / Normalization constant = P(k|q,N) * P(q|N) / P(k|N) The prior is set to 1, so I only need to calculate the posterior and normalization constant. I know that the posterior can be expressed as (where B(N,k) is the binomial coefficient): P(k|q,N) = B(N,k) * q^k * (1-q)^(N-k) ... so the Normalization constant is simply an integral of the posterior above, from 0 to 1: P(k|N) = B(N,k) * integralFromZeroToOne( q^k * (1-q)^(N-k) ) (The Binomial coefficient ( B(N,k) ) can be omitted thoughappears in both the posterior and normalization constant, so it can be omitted.) Now, I've heard that the integral for the normalization constant should be able to be calculated as a series ... something like: k!(N-k)! / (N+1)! Is that correct? (I have some lecture notes from with this series, but can't figure out if it is for the normalization constant integral, or for the posterior distribution of mis-classification (q)) Also, hints are welcome as how to practically calculate this? (factorials are easily creating truncation errors right?) ... AND, how to practically calculate the final plot (the posterior distribution over q, from 0 to 1).

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 654 655 656 657 658 659 660 661 662 663 664 665  | Next Page >