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• Entity Framework - Merging 2 physical tables into one "virtual" table problems...

  - by Keith Barrows

  I have been reading up on porting ASP.NET Membership Provider into .NET 3.5 using LINQ & Entities. However, the DB model that every single sample shows is the newer model while I've inherited a rather old model. Differences: The User Table is split into a pair of User & Membership Tables. All of the tables in the DB are prepended with aspnet_ I have Lowered versions of some columns (UserName, Email, etc) To work with this I have copied the properties from the Membership table into the User table (in the DB this is a 1<-1 relationship, not a 1<-0,1), renamed aspnet_Applications to Application, aspnet_Profiles to Profile, aspnet_Users to User and aspnet_Roles to Role. (See image) Link to full size image of model Now, I am running into one of 2 problems when I try to compile. Using the model in the image I get this error: Problem in Mapping Fragment starting at line 464: EntitySets 'UserSet' and 'aspnet_Membership' are both mapped to table 'aspnet_Membership'. Their Primary Keys may collide. If I delete the aspnet_Membership table from my model (to handle the above error) I then get: Problem in Mapping Fragment starting at line 384: Column aspnet_Membership.ApplicationId in table aspnet_Membership must be mapped: It has no default value and is not nullable. My ability to hand edit the backing stores is not the best and I don't want to just hack something in that may break other things. I am looking for suggestions, best practices, etc to handle this. Note: Moving the data tables themselves is not an option as I cannot replace all the logic in the existing apps. I am building this EF Provider for a new App. Over the next 6 months the old app(s) will migrate bit-by-bit to the new structures. Note: I added a link just under the image to the full size image for better viewing.

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• Validation without ServiceLocator

  - by Dmitriy Nagirnyak

  Hi, I am getting back again and again to it thinking about the best way to perform validation on POCO objects that need access to some context (ISession in NH, IRepository for example). The only option I still can see is to use S*ervice Locator*, so my validation would look like: public User : ICanValidate { public User() {} // We need this constructor (so no context known) public virtual string Username { get; set; } public IEnumerable<ValidationError> Validate() { if (ServiceLocator.GetService<IUserRepository>().FindUserByUsername(Username) != null) yield return new ValidationError("Username", "User already exists.") } } I already use Inversion Of control and Dependency Injection and really don't like the ServiceLocator due to number of facts: Harder to maintain implicit dependencies. Harder to test the code. Potential threading issues. Explicit dependency only on the ServiceLocator. The code becomes harder to understand. Need to register the ServiceLocator interfaces during the testing. But on the other side, with plain POCO objects, I do not see any other way of performing the validation like above without ServiceLocator and only using IoC/DI. So the question would be: is there any way to use DI/IoC for the situation described above? Thanks, Dmitriy.

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• Django server side AJAX validation

  - by MMRUser

  Hi, Recently I'm trying to implement a simple Django application that include one server side AJAX validation, it's a simple form input field (username). I have used a pre-built in line AJAX validation library which uses jQuery. So the code goes like this HTML snippet <form id="simpleform" method="post" action="/done/"> Username:<input value="" class="validate[required,custom[noSpecialCaracters],length[0,20],ajax[ajaxUser]]" type="text" name="user" id="user" /> <input class="submit" type="submit" value="Validate"/> </form> The server side code snippet (embedded in to a php script) /* RECEIVE VALUE */ $validateValue=$_POST['validateValue']; $validateId=$_POST['validateId']; $validateError=$_POST['validateError']; /* RETURN VALUE */ $arrayToJs = array(); $arrayToJs[0] = $validateId; $arrayToJs[1] = $validateError; if($validateValue =="testname"){ // validate?? $arrayToJs[2] = "true"; // RETURN TRUE echo '{"jsonValidateReturn":'.json_encode($arrayToJs).'}'; // RETURN ARRAY WITH success }else{ for($x=0;$x<1000000;$x++){ if($x == 990000){ $arrayToJs[2] = "false"; echo '{"jsonValidateReturn":'.json_encode($arrayToJs).'}'; // RETURN ARRAY WITH ERROR } } } So my question is that how do I get this in to Python code (in order to use in Django environment) how do I get the user name from the input field in to the back end,I think the server side script snippet already does it but I want to know how to use this in my Pyhon code,and this is my first time using jQuery and I do need to use this same exact validation library. Your valuable corporation is needed. Thanks.

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• jQuery Validation error...

  - by Povylas

  Hi, I have been struggling with this jQuery Validation Plugin. Here is the code: <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { var validator = $('#signup').validate({ errorElement: 'span', rules: { username: { required: true, minlenght: 6 //remote: "check-username.php" }, password: { required: true, minlength: 5 }, confirm_password: { required: true, minlength: 5, equalTo: "#password" }, email: { required: true, email: true }, agree: "required" }, messages: { username: { required: "Please enter a username", minlength: "Your username must consist of at least 6 characters" //remote: "Somenoe have already chosen nick like this." }, password: { required: "Please provide a password", minlength: "Your password must be at least 5 characters long" }, confirm_password: { required: "Please provide a password", minlength: "Your password must be at least 5 characters long", equalTo: "Please enter the same password as above" }, email: "Please enter a valid email address", agree: "Please accept our policy" } }); var root = $("#wizard").scrollable({size: 1, clickable: false}); // some variables that we need var api = root.scrollable(); $("#data").click(function() { validator.form(); }); // validation logic is done inside the onBeforeSeek callback api.onBeforeSeek(function(event, i) { if($("#signup").valid() == false){ return false; }else{ return true; } $("#status li").removeClass("active").eq(i).addClass("active"); }); //if tab is pressed on the next button seek to next page root.find("button.next").keydown(function(e) { if (e.keyCode == 9) { // seeks to next tab by executing our validation routine api.next(); e.preventDefault(); } }); $('button.fin').click(function(){ parent.$.fn.fancybox.close() }); }); </script> And here is the error: $.validator.methods[method] is undefined http://www.vvv.vhost.lt/js/jquery-validate/jquery.validate.min.js Line 15 I am completely confused... Maybe some kind of handler is needed? I would be grateful for any kind of answer.

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• Postback not working with ASP.NET Routing (Validation of viewstate MAC failed)

  - by Robert

  Hi. I'm using the ASP.NET 3.5 SP1 System.Web.Routing with classic WebForms, as described in http://chriscavanagh.wordpress.com/2008/04/25/systemwebrouting-with-webforms-sample/ All works fine, I have custom SEO urls and even the postback works. But there is a case where the postback always fails and I get a: Validation of viewstate MAC failed. If this application is hosted by a Web Farm or cluster, ensure that configuration specifies the same validationKey and validation algorithm. AutoGenerate cannot be used in a cluster. Here is the scenario to reproduce the error: Create a standard webform mypage.aspx with a button Create a Route that maps "a/b/{id}" to "~/mypage.aspx" When you execute the site, you can navigate http://localhost:XXXX/a/b/something the page works. But when you press the button you get the error. The error doen't happen when the Route is just "a/{id}". It seems to be related to the number of sub-paths in the url. If there are at least 2 sub-paths the viewstate validation fails. You get the error even with EnableViewStateMac="false". Any ideas? Is it a bug? Thanks

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• Django: How to dynamically add tag field to third party apps without touching app's source code

  - by Chris Lawlor

  Scenario: large project with many third party apps. Want to add tagging to those apps without having to modify the apps' source. My first thought was to first specify a list of models in settings.py (like ['appname.modelname',], and call django-tagging's register function on each of them. The register function adds a TagField and a custom manager to the specified model. The problem with that approach is that the function needs to run BEFORE the DB schema is generated. I tried running the register function directly in settings.py, but I need django.db.models.get_model to get the actual model reference from only a string, and I can't seem to import that from settings.py - no matter what I try I get an ImportError. The tagging.register function imports OK however. So I changed tactics and wrote a custom management command in an otherwise empty app. The problem there is that the only signal which hooks into syncdb is post_syncdb which is useless to me since it fires after the DB schema has been generated. The only other approach I can think of at the moment is to generate and run a 'south' like database schema migration. This seems more like a hack than a solution. This seems like it should be a pretty common need, but I haven't been able to find a clean solution. So my question is: Is it possible to dynamically add fields to a model BEFORE the schema is generated, but more specifically, is it possible to add tagging to a third party model without editing it's source. To clarify, I know it is possible to create and store Tags without having a TagField on the model, but there is a major flaw in that approach in that it is difficult to simultaneously create and tag a new model.

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• when to clear or make null asp .net mvc models?

  - by SARAVAN

  HI, I am working in an asp .net mvc application. I am using the model and storing some of the values which i need to preserve between the page posts, in the form of datacontexts. Say my model looks something like this: public SelectedUser SelectedUserDetails { //get and set has //this.datacontext.data.SelectedUser = ..... //return this.datacontext.data..... } Now when this model needs to be cleared? I have many such models with many properties and datacontext. But I don't have an idea on when to clear it. Is there a way or an event that can be triggered automatically when the model is not used for a long time? Oneway I thought is when i navigate away from a page which uses my underlying model, I can clear that model if its no longer used anywhere and initialise it back as needed. But I need to clear almost many models at many points. Is there an automatic way that can clear models when it is no longer used beacuse care can be taken by my code to initialise them when I need them, but I don't know when to clear them when I no longer need them. I need this to get rid of any memory related issues. Any thoughts or comments?

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• Form submits but by passing the form validation when button.click is used

  - by Cuty Pie

  I am using form validation plugin as well as html5 attribute=recquired with input type=button or submit and fancybox.when button is clicked ,both validation proceedures work(notification of empty inputs appeare),but instead of this notification ,form is submitted. If I dont use button.click function but use simple submit.then validation works perfectly plugin==http://validatious.org/ javascript function $(document).ready(function() { $('#send').click(function() { $(this).attr("value", 'Applying...'); var id = getParam('ID'); $.ajax({ type:'POST', url:"send.php", data:{option:'catapply', tittle:$('#tittle').val(), aud:aud, con:con, adv:adv, mid:$('#mid').val(), aud2:aud, cid:$('#cid').val(), scid:$('#scname option[selected="saa"]').val(), gtt:$('input[name=gt]:radio:checked').val(), sr:$(":input").serialize() + '&aud=' + aud}, success:function(jd) { $('#' + id).fadeOut("fast", function() { $(this).before("<strong>Success! Your form has been submitted, thanks :)</strong>"); setTimeout("$.fancybox.close()", 1000); }); } }); }); }); AND Html is here <form id="form2" class="validate" style="display: none" > <input type='submit' value='Apply' id="send" class="sendaf validate_any" name="jobforming"/>

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• jquery form validation, and submit-on-change

  - by Bee

  I want to make all my settings forms across my site confirm that changes are saved, kinda like facebook does if you make changes in a form and then try to navigate away without saving. So I'm disabling the submit button on the forms only enabling if the values change. I then prompt the user to hit save before they leave the page in the case that they do have changes pending. var form = $('form.edit'); if(form.length > 0) { var orig_str = form.serialize(); $(':submit',form).attr('disabled','disabled'); form.on('change keyup', function(){ if(form.serialize() == orig_str) { setConfirmUnload(false); $(':submit',form).attr('disabled','disabled'); } else { setConfirmUnload(true); $(':submit',form).removeAttr('disabled') } }); $('input[type=submit]').click(function(){ setConfirmUnload(false); }); } function setConfirmUnload(on) { window.onbeforeunload = (on) ? unloadMessage : null; } function unloadMessage() { return 'If you navigate away from this page without saving your changes, they will be lost.'; } One of these forms needs some additional validation which I do using jQuery.validate library. e.g. if i wanted to ensure the user can't double submit the form on accident by double clicking on submit or somesuch (the actual validation in question is for a credit-card form and not this simple): $('form').validate({ submitHandler: function(form) { $(':submit', form).attr('disabled','disabled'); form.submit(); } }); Unfortunately both bits are trying to bind to submit button and they're interfering with each other such that the submit button remains disabled no matter what I do and it is impossible to submit the form at all. Is there some way to chain the validations together or something? Or some other way to avoid re-writing the validation code to repeat the "did you change anything in the form" business?

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• JQuery modal box form validation

  - by vikitor

  Hi, I was using a view to create an object for my specific project, but now I have to adapt this to another requirements, such as the creation of this object must be integrated in the creation of another one. The thing is, that this object must be created before starting to create the other one, and the way of doing it will be poping up a modal dialog box with JQuery with the form to create it. I've got to adapt the creation and it works fine, except for the validation messages. It is made in the controller like : if (not.NotName.Trim().Length == 0) { ModelState.AddModelError("NotName", "Name is required"); } if (_notification.checkIfExists(not.NotName, not.NotRecID)) { ModelState.AddModelError("NotName", "Notification already exists"); } And before with a normal view it worked fine, but now I'm not able to get the validation messages as I did. How can you get this validation messages thrown by the controller in the Modal Box? Because now when I made a mistake on purpose in the form in order to get the error it doesn't appear. I've seen the error is displayed in the site, because I've seen it on firebug, but it doesn't appear in my model box. How can I retrieve this errors? Do you know any tutorial that could help me with this? Thank you

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• Jquery Form Validation Plugin Not Working

  - by nayanjyoti hazarika

  I try to validate a simple Form but the Jquery Validation Plugin not working when I use only Button not The Submit Button. I can not use the Submit button there Because If I use submit Button After Submitting the form It take the Action and goes to Default page while my current form is comes from Ajax. I am very new to Jquery. Please Help its Urgent... I am giving the files here. index.html <html> <head> <script src="jquery.js"> <script="jquery-validate-min.js"> <script="validation.js> </head> <body> <form id="contact_form"> <table> <tr><th>Name</th><td><input name="name" /></td></tr> <tr><th>E Mail</th><td><input name="email" /></td></tr> <tr><th><input type="button" name ="submit" id="form_sub" onclick="save"></th><td><input name="email" /></td></tr> </table> </form> </body> </html> Now the validation.js file function save(){ $("#form_sub").click(function(){ $("#contact_form").validate({ 'rules':{ 'name':{ 'required':true, 'minlength':5 }, 'email':{ 'required':true, 'email':true } } }) } Everything works fine when we use input type="submit"... But it not working when we use input type="button" Any Idea how can Fix this? I am new to Jquery ... Please Help

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• jQuery validation plugin: valid() does not work with remote validation ?

  - by a-dilla

  I got started by following this awesome tutorial, but wanted to do the validation on on keyup and place my errors somewhere else. The remote validation shows its own error message at the appropriate times, making me think I had it working. But if I ask specifically if a field with remote validation is valid, it says no, actually, its not. In application.js I have this... $("#new_user").validate({ rules: { "user[login]": {required: true, minlength: 3, remote: "/live_validations/check_login"}, }, messages: { "user[login]": {required: " ", minlength: " ", remote: " "}, } }); $("#user_login").keyup(function(){ if($(this).valid()){ $(this).siblings(".feedback").html("0"); }else{ $(this).siblings(".feedback").html("1"); } }) And then this in the rails app... def check_login @user = User.find_by_login(params[:user][:login]) respond_to do |format| format.json { render :json => @user ? "false" : "true" } end end I think that my problem might have everything to do with this ticket over at jQuery, and tried to implement that code, but, being new to jQuery, it's all a bit over my head. When I say bit, I mean way way. Any ideas to fix it, or a new way to look at it, would be a big help.

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• Google Apps, SPF, softfail problem (validates with validation tools, but still softfails otherwise)

  - by mq.chen

  Hi, I guess this is probably a commonly asked and boring question but I'm really at a loss and I don't know what else to do. This might be a duplicate of other questions, but none of the solutions worked for me. I've Googled around and read just about anything I could find but I'm still puzzled as to why it doesn't work. The gist of my problem is that I have set-up Google Apps for a client of mine with the domain fintan.dk. Everthing works just excellent, except emails sent from *@fintan.dk (either with the Gmail web-interface or desktop client) to a non-Google Apps email gets a softfail (I have sent to my University email, an email hosted at MediaTemple and even Hotmail). The emails gets a pass when sent to a Google Apps or Gmail address though... (All emails from that domain are sent via email clients.) So this is what I have done so far: I've added the SPF record Google recommended (v=spf1 include:_spf.google.com ~all), waited several days hoping it would a DNS update delay problem. Now, three days later there is no change. I have verified the settings in the desktop clients several times. I have validated the records with validation tools like the SPF Query Tool, [email protected] and [email protected]. All of them validate and gives a pass, saying there shouldn't be a problem, but strangely there still is. So, I really don't know what else to do. Any help is very much appreciated. Thank you in advance!

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• TGT validation fails, but only for one user

  - by wzzrd

  I'm seeing the weirdest thing here. I have a couple of RHEL3, 4 and 5 machines that validate user credentials through Kerberos with an Active Directoy domain controller as their KDC. This works for all of my users, save one. There is one account that is unable to log into RHEL3 Linux machines and generates the following errors there: May 31 13:53:19 mybox sshd(pam_unix)[7186]: authentication failure; logname= uid=0 euid=0 tty=ssh ruser= rhost=10.0.0.1 user=user May 31 13:53:20 mybox sshd[7186]: pam_krb5: TGT verification failed for `user' May 31 13:53:20 mybox sshd[7186]: pam_krb5: authentication fails for `user' Other accounts, like my own, are fine: May 31 17:25:30 mybox sshd(pam_unix)[12913]: authentication failure; logname= uid=0 euid=0 tty=ssh ruser= rhost=10.0.0.1 user=myuser May 31 17:25:31 mybox sshd[12913]: pam_krb5: TGT for myuser successfully verified May 31 17:25:31 mybox sshd[12913]: pam_krb5: authentication succeeds for `myuser' May 31 17:25:31 mybox sshd(pam_unix)[12915]: session opened for user myuser by (uid=0) As you can see, TGT validation fails. This only happens for this specific account, not for any other. The failing useraccount's password has been reset, I inspected both user objects in Active Directory, but I see nothing out of the ordinary. If I have the failing useraccount log into a RHEL4 or 5 box, there is not problem, so it must be RHEL3 specific, but the fact that only one account suffers from this, alludes me. Maybe someone has seen this before?

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• .NET 4 RTM MetadataType attribute ignored when using Validator

  - by bart

  I am using VS 2010 RTM and trying to perform some basic validation on a simple type using MetadataTypeAttribute. When I put the validation attribute on the main class, everything works. However, when I put it on the metadata class, it seems to be ignored. I must be missing something trivial, but I've been stuck on this for a while now. I had a look at the Enterprise Library validation block as a workaround, but it doesn't support validation of single properties out of the box. Any ideas? class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Stuff t = new Stuff(); try { Validator.ValidateProperty(t.X, new ValidationContext(t, null, null) { MemberName = "X" }); Console.WriteLine("Failed!"); } catch (ValidationException) { Console.WriteLine("Succeeded!"); } } } [MetadataType(typeof(StuffMetadata))] public class Stuff { //[Required] //works here public string X { get; set; } } public class StuffMetadata { [Required] //no effect here public string X { get; set; } }

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• Java/Spring: Why won't Spring use the validator object I have configured?

  - by GMK

  I'm writing a web app with Java & Spring 2.5.6 and using annotations for bean validation. I can get the basic annotation validation working fine, and Spring will even call a custom Validator declared with @Validator on the target bean. But it always instantiates a brand new Validator object to do it. This is bad because the new validator has none of the injected dependencies it needs to run, and so it throws a null pointer exception on validate. I need one of two things and I don't know how to do either. Convince Spring to use the validator I have already configured. Convince Spring to honor the @Autowired annotations when it creates the new validator. The validator has the @Component annotation, like this. @Component public class AccessCodeBeanValidator implements Validator { @Autowired private MessageSource messageSource; Spring finds the validator in the component scan, injects the autowired dependencies, but then ignores it and creates a new one at validation time. The only thing that I can do at the moment is add a validator reference into the controller for each validator object and use that ref directly, instead of relying on the bean validation framework to call the validator for me. It looks like this. // first validate via the annotations on the bean beanValidator.validate(accessCodeBean, result); // then validate using the specific validator class acbValidator.validate(accessCodeBean, result); if (result.hasErrors()) { If anyone knows how to convince spring to use the existing validator, instead of creating a new one, or how to make it do the autowiring when it creates a new one, I'd love to know.

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• Making one of a group of similar form fields required in CakePHP

  - by Pickledegg

  I have a bunch of name/email fields in my form like this: data[Friend][0][name] data[Friend][1][name] data[Friend][2][name] etc. and data[Friend][0][email] data[Friend][1][email] data[Friend][2][email] etc. I have a custom validation rule on each one that checks to see if the corresponding field is filled in. Ie. if data[Friend][2][name] then data[Friend][2][email] MUST be filled in. FYI, heres what one of the two rules look like: My form validation rule: ( I have an email validation too but that's irrelevant here) 'name' => array( 'checkEmail' => array( 'rule' => 'hasEmail', 'message' => 'You must fill in the name field', 'last' => true ) ) My custom rule code: function hasEmail($data){ $name = array_values($data); $name = $name[0]; if(strlen($name) == 0){ return empty($this->data['Friend']['email']); } return true; } I need to make it so that one of the pairs should be filled in as a minimum. It can be any as long as the indexes correspond. I can't figure a way, as if I set the form rule to be required or allowEmpty false, it fails on ALL empty fields. How can I check for the existence of 1 pair and if present, carry on? Also, I need to strip out all of the remaining empty [Friend] fields, so my saveAll() doesn't save a load of empty rows, but I think I can handle that part using extract in my controller. The main problem is this validation. Thanks.

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• C# ErrorProvider Want to know if any are Active

  - by RcK

  I want to know if any ErrorProvider are active in my form. being able to find this out might help reduce my code.. I did find this thing here Counting ErrorProvider but incase someone knows a better way... so here goes. Ok so basically I have a WinForm which has many TextBoxes Now when user enters values I use Validating to perform validation and if it does not match Regex I set the ErrorProvider ON for that Control.. similarly if the user changes the value to a acceptable one I switch ErrorProvider OFF for that Control.. but when SAVE is clicked i have to do another check anyways incase the user did not listen to me and change the thing like he was supposed to and still clicked SAVE.. I dont want the thing crashing.. soo mm is there like a thing where I could say if ErrorProviders is not active then proceed with save else message box saying change it. [ANOTHER QUESTION] Umm When Validating it only Validates when the Control loses Focus... I kinda of want it to do validation when user stops typing.. I hope you get what I mean Like Email Address(textbox) when user is typing his/her name in I [DON'T] want it to do validation yet, but when user has finished entering is waiting for ErrorProvider to disappear(But it doesn't coz it only does that when control loses focus) 2 odd seconds after typing can i make the validation take place?

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• Is there any way to access codeigniter language and config properties from included javascript files

  - by ubermensch

  Good morning! I'm having great success so far with CodeIgniter. I'm new to PHP and web development in general, but I feel that CodeIgniter is giving me a leg up while I catch up on the basics. My question for today is this - I have been happily loading config and lang values from my views for a while now, and everything is working fine. But what about JavaScript files being linked into my views? Is there any way to make the $this-lang-line and $this-config-item function references available to me in my JavaScript files? I am implementing jQuery client-side validation, and would like to pull in my error messages from the server, both to support internationalisation and to make sure that validation gracefully degrades if JavaScript is not available, in that the error messages pushed back into the view from the server-side validation are identical to those displayed dynamically by the jQuery validation. I would not like to have to keep coming back to make sure that these strings are kept in sync. As for internationalisation, I'm fresh out of ideas on how to support that if it turns out that lang and config item strings are completely unavailable from my JS files. Any help you can provide would be greatly appreciated! :)

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• Spring - adding BindingResult to newly created model attribute

  - by Max

  My task is - to create a model attribute by given request parameters, to validate it (in same method) and to give it whole to the View. I was given this code: //Create the model attribute by request parameters Promotion promotion = Promotions.get(someRequestParam); //Add the attribute to the model modelMap.addAttribute("promotion", promotion); if (!promotion.validate()) { BindingResult errors = new BeanPropertyBindingResult(promotion, "promotion"); errors.reject("promotion.invalid"); //TODO: This is the part I don't like model.put(BindingResult.MODEL_KEY_PREFIX + "promotion", errors); } This thing sure works, but that part with creating key with MODEL_KEY_PREFIX and attribute name looks very hackish and not a Spring style to me. Is there a way to make the same thing prettier?

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• The model item passed into the dictionary is of type 'System.Collections.Generic.Lis

  - by mazhar

  Calling Index view is giving me this very very annoying error . Can anybody tell me what to do about it Error: The model item passed into the dictionary is of type 'System.Collections.Generic.List1[MvcApplication13.Models.Groups]', but this dictionary requires a model item of type 'MvcApplication13.Helpers.PaginatedList1[MvcApplication13.Models.Groups]'. public ActionResult Index(int? page) { const int pageSize = 10; var group =from p in _db.Groups orderby p.int_GroupId select p; var paginatedGroup = group.Skip((page ?? 0) * pageSize).Take(pageSize).ToList(); return View(paginatedGroup); } View: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" % Index <h2>Index</h2> <table> <tr> <th></th> <th> int_GroupId </th> <th> vcr_GroupName </th> <th> txt_GroupDescription </th> <th> bit_Is_Deletable </th> <th> bit_Active </th> <th> int_CreatedBy </th> <th> dtm_CreatedDate </th> <th> int_ModifiedBy </th> <th> dtm_ModifiedDate </th> </tr> <% foreach (var item in Model) { %> <tr> <td> <%= Html.ActionLink("Edit", "Edit", new { id=item.int_GroupId }) %> | <%= Html.ActionLink("Details", "Details", new { id=item.int_GroupId })%> | <%= Html.ActionLink("Delete", "Delete", new { id=item.int_GroupId })%> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.int_GroupId) %> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.vcr_GroupName) %> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.txt_GroupDescription) %> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.bit_Is_Deletable) %> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.bit_Active) %> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.int_CreatedBy) %> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(String.Format("{0:g}", item.dtm_CreatedDate)) %> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.int_ModifiedBy) %> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(String.Format("{0:g}", item.dtm_ModifiedDate)) %> </td> </tr> <% } %> </table> <% if (Model.HasPreviousPage) { % <%= Html.RouteLink("<<<", "UpcomingDinners", new { page = (Model.PageIndex-1) }) % <% } % <% if (Model.HasNextPage) { % <%= Html.RouteLink("", "UpcomingDinners", new { page = (Model.PageIndex + 1) }) % <% } % <p> <%= Html.ActionLink("Create New", "Create") %> </p>

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• [CakePHP] Can not Bake table model, controller and view

  - by user198003

  I developed small CakePHP application, and now I want to add one more table (in fact, model/controller/view) into system, named notes. I had already created a table of course. But when I run command cake bake model, I do not get table Notes on the list. I can add it manually, but after that I get some errors when running cake bake controller and cake bake view. Can you give me some clue why I have those problems, and how to add that new model?

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• Prevent Custom Entity being deleted from Entity Framework during Update Model Wizard

  - by rbg

  In Entity Framework v1 If you create a Custom Entity to map it to a Stored Procedure during FunctionImport and then Select "Update Model from Database" the Update Model Wizard removes the Custom Entity (as added Manually in the SSDL XML prior to functionImport) from the SSDL. Does anyone know if this limitation has been dealt with Entity Framework v4? I mean is there a way to prevent the Wizard from removing the Custom Entity from the Storage Schema (SSDL) during Model Update from Database????

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• Code assist in (jsp /jstl) view for Spring MVC model objects in Eclipse

  - by Bjorn Thor Jonsson

  In Spring MVC when placing an object in the view model like so: public String getUser( Model model ) { //...fetch user... model.addAttribute( "user", user ); return "viewName"; } and accessing it's values in the JSP / JSTL view like this: ... <p> ${user.name} </p> ... I'm wondering if it is possible to have code assist for the user object in the view? The IDE I'm using is MyEclipse but it would be interesting to know if this is possible in other editors as well. Thanks.

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• Observing model changes with Cocoa Bindings and NSArrayController

  - by jbrennan

  I've got an NSArrayController bound to a mutable array in my controller, which manages an array of my model objects. The array controller is bound to my UI. It works well. Now I'm trying to manually observe when a value changes in my model in my controller class (basically I'm marking the changed model as "needsToSave" for later on, but there are a few other tasks I have when it changes). I've read up on KVO but I'm not entirely sure what I need to be observing... The NSArrayController? The array of objects? each model object itself? Confusion. Any pointers would be very helpful. Thanks in advance!

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