Search Results

Search found 20383 results on 816 pages for 'hello'.

Page 660/816 | < Previous Page | 656 657 658 659 660 661 662 663 664 665 666 667  | Next Page >

  • How to send HTTP get method with headers using CURL

    - by mithunmo
    Hello , I need to send GET Request method with the below headers . I am getting the following capture from HTTP live headers ***http://172.20.22.26/ GET / HTTP/1.1 Host: 172.20.22.26 User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 5.1; en-US; rv:1.9.0.1) Gecko/2008070208 Firefox/3.0.1 Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language: en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 300 Connection: keep-alive Authorization: Basic bWl0aHVuOm1pdGh1bg== HTTP/1.x 200 OK Date: Thu, 01 Jan 2009 00:29:20 GMT Server: HTTPsrv Connection: Keep-Alive Keep-Alive: timeout=30, max=100 Transfer-Encoding: chunked Content-Type: text/html ----------------------------**------------------------------* I am using the following program . It is not working . Please let me know where I am going wrong. <?php $credentials = "mithun:mithun"; $url = "http://172.20.22.26"; $headers = array( "GET /HTTP/1.1", "User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 5.1; en-US; rv:1.9.0.1) Gecko/2008070208 Firefox/3.0.1", "Content-type: text/xml;charset=\"utf-8\"", "Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8", "Accept-Language: en-us,en;q=0.5", "Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate", "Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7", "Keep-Alive: 300", "Connection: keep-alive", "Authorization: Basic " . base64_encode($credentials)); $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL,$url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 60); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, $headers); //curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, $defined_vars['HTTP_USER_AGENT']); $data = curl_exec($ch); if (curl_errno($ch)) { print "Error: " . curl_error($ch); } else { // Show me the result var_dump($data); curl_close($ch); }?>

    Read the article

  • What is best strategy to handle exceptions & errors in Rails?

    - by Nick Gorbikoff
    Hello. I was wondering if people would share their best practices / strategies on handling exceptions & errors. Now I'm not asking when to throw an exception ( it has been throroughly answered here: SO: When to throw and Exception) . And I'm not using this for my application flow - but there are legitimate exceptions that happen all the time. For example the most popular one would be ActiveRecordNotFound. What would be the best way to handle it? The DRY way? Right now I'm doing a lot of checking within my controller so if Post.find(5) returns Nil - I check for that and throw a flash message. However while this is very granular - it's a bit cumbersome in a sense that I need to check for exceptions like that in every controller, while most of them are essentially the same and have to do with record not found or related records not found - such as either Post.find(5) not found or if you are trying to display comments related to post that doesn't exist, that would throw an exception (something like Post.find(5).comments[0].created_at) I know you can do something like this in ApplicationController and overwrite it later in a particular controller/method to get more granular support, however would that be a proper way to do it? class ApplicationController < ActionController::Base rescue_from ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid do |exception| render :action => (exception.record.new_record? ? :new : :edit) end end

    Read the article

  • Implementing the ‘defer’ statement from Go in Objective-C?

    - by zoul
    Hello! Today I read about the defer statement in the Go language: A defer statement pushes a function call onto a list. The list of saved calls is executed after the surrounding function returns. Defer is commonly used to simplify functions that perform various clean-up actions. I thought it would be fun to implement something like this in Objective-C. Do you have some idea how to do it? I thought about dispatch finalizers, autoreleased objects and C++ destructors. Autoreleased objects: @interface Defer : NSObject {} + (id) withCode: (dispatch_block_t) block; @end @implementation Defer - (void) dealloc { block(); [super dealloc]; } @end #define defer(__x) [Defer withCode:^{__x}] - (void) function { defer(NSLog(@"Done")); … } Autoreleased objects seem like the only solution that would last at least to the end of the function, as the other solutions would trigger when the current scope ends. On the other hand they could stay in the memory much longer, which would be asking for trouble. Dispatch finalizers were my first thought, because blocks live on the stack and therefore I could easily make something execute when the stack unrolls. But after a peek in the documentation it doesn’t look like I can attach a simple “destructor” function to a block, can I? C++ destructors are about the same thing, I would create a stack-based object with a block to be executed when the destructor runs. This would have the ugly disadvantage of turning the plain .m files into Objective-C++? I don’t really think about using this stuff in production, I’m just interested in various solutions. Can you come up with something working, without obvious disadvantages? Both scope-based and function-based solutions would be interesting.

    Read the article

  • EJB3Unit testing no-tx-datasource

    - by justastefan
    Hello, I am doing tests on an ejb3-project using ejb3unit http://ejb3unit.sourceforge.net/Session-Bean.html for testing. All my Services long for @PersistenceContext (UnitName=bla). I set up the ejb3unit.properties like this: ejb3unit_jndi.1.isSessionBean=true ejb3unit_jndi.1.jndiName=ejb/MyServiceBean ejb3unit_jndi.1.className=com.company.project.MyServiceBean everything works with the in-memory-database. So now i want additionally test another servicebean with @PersistenceContext (UnitName=noTxDatasource) that goes for a defined in my datasources.xml: <datasources> <local-tx-datasource> ... </local-tx-datasource> <no-tx-datasource> <jndi-name>noTxDatasource</jndi-name> <connection-url>...</connection-url> <driver-class>oracle.jdbc.OracleDriver</driver-class> <user-name>bla</user-name> <password>bla</password> </no-tx-datasource> </datasources> How do I tell ejb3unit to make this work: Object object = InitialContext.doLookup("java:/noTxDatasource"); if (object instanceof DataSource) { return ((DataSource) object).getConnection(); } else { return null; } Currently it fails saying: javax.NamingException: Cannot find the name (noTxDataSource) in the JNDI tree Current bindings: (ejb/MyServiceBean=com.company.project.MyServiceBean) How can I add this no-tx-datasource to the jndi bindings?

    Read the article

  • Accessing deleted rows from a DataTable

    - by Ken
    Hello: I have a parent WinForm that has a MyDataTable _dt as a member. The MyDataTable type was created in the "typed dataset" designer tool in Visual Studio 2005 (MyDataTable inherits from DataTable) _dt gets populated from a db via ADO.NET. Based on changes from user interaction in the form, I delete a row from the table like so: _dt.FindBySomeKey(_someKey).Delete(); Later on, _dt is passed by value to a dialog form. From there, I need to scan through all the rows to build a string: foreach (myDataTableRow row in _dt) { sbFilter.Append("'" + row.info + "',"); } The problem is that upon doing this after a delete, the following exception is thrown: DeletedRowInaccessibleException: Deleted row information cannot be accessed through the row. The work around that I am currently using (which feels like a hack) is the following: foreach (myDataTableRow row in _dt) { if (row.RowState != DataRowState.Deleted && row.RowState != DataRowState.Detached) { sbFilter.Append("'" + row.info + "',"); } } My question: Is this the proper way to do this? Why would the foreach loop access rows that have been tagged via the Delete() method??

    Read the article

  • Mysql latin1 turkish data and delphi 2010 utf8

    - by sabri.arslan
    Hello, I have tables collating latin1_general_ci and have turkish character values. And i can use this data on delphi 7+zeos with no problem. but i want to upgrade my delphi to 2010 version but zeos too slow as i saw. so i want to use odbc+ado or dbexpress solution. dbexpress solution works fine , display my data as entered and write as entered table without any change to column charset. but dbexpress has problems as i saw. for example when i select * from table which has column types as varchar,decimal,int,tinyint,text give av errors on xp systems. vista and 7 does not give any error and work fine(not fully tested). ado solution(dbgo) works fine but its not show my data as entered.its want everything be utf. but i don't want to convert my data to utf before test everything. how can i see my data as entered and write client side utf and store latin1(as zeos or dbexpress do). i was tried many other options. eg. mysql side collation and charset parameters. sorry for my bad english. i hope someone understand me. thanks.

    Read the article

  • vsts load test datasource issues

    - by ashish.s
    Hello, I have a simple test using vsts load test that is using datasource. The connection string for the source is as follows <connectionStrings> <add name="MyExcelConn" connectionString="Driver={Microsoft Excel Driver (*.xls)};Dsn=Excel Files;dbq=loginusers.xls;defaultdir=.;driverid=790;maxbuffersize=4096;pagetimeout=20;ReadOnly=False" providerName="System.Data.Odbc" /> </connectionStrings> the datasource configuration is as follows and i am getting following error estError TestError 1,000 The unit test adapter failed to connect to the data source or to read the data. For more information on troubleshooting this error, see "Troubleshooting Data-Driven Unit Tests" (http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkId=62412) in the MSDN Library. Error details: ERROR [42000] [Microsoft][ODBC Excel Driver] Cannot update. Database or object is read-only. ERROR [IM006] [Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Driver's SQLSetConnectAttr failed ERROR [42000] [Microsoft][ODBC Excel Driver] Cannot update. Database or object is read-only. I wrote a test, just to check if i could create an odbc connection would work and that works the test is as follows [TestMethod] public void TestExcelFile() { string connString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["MyExcelConn"].ConnectionString; using (OdbcConnection con = new OdbcConnection(connString)) { con.Open(); System.Data.Odbc.OdbcCommand objCmd = new OdbcCommand("SELECT * FROM [loginusers$]"); objCmd.Connection = con; OdbcDataAdapter adapter = new OdbcDataAdapter(objCmd); DataSet ds = new DataSet(); adapter.Fill(ds); Assert.IsTrue(ds.Tables[0].Rows.Count > 1); } } any ideas ?

    Read the article

  • Cocoa Core data: cannot save Created Items in NSTableview

    - by Paul Rostorp
    Hello, I'm am a beginner in mac os x development and am trying to get started with all this. Here is my problem : I've create a non-document based cocoa app using core data as storage. I've added an entity and attributes to the xdatamodel. In IB i've created an NSArrayController and linked it properly. I've created an nstableview binded to the nsarraycontroller. Next I added a button linked to nsarraycontroller with the " add: " method. When I try it out, I can add and edit the items in the table. Here comes the problem: Core data is supposed to save everything automatically, but to make sure i linked the "save" button in the menu to the appdelegate and to the " file's owner" , first responder, application... everything possible ( with both " save :" and " saveaction:" methods ). And still it doesn't save when clicking save: when I restart the cell created ( and renamed ) are gone. And also, I didn't even edit the source code yet; core data for such simple tasks is supposed to only need Interface builder. Please help me for this, I haven't found any threads resolving this problem. Thank you in advance.

    Read the article

  • Binding ElementName

    - by zvi
    Hello First Sorry for my English. I wanted to ask why ElementName does not work the first case, and work in the second. I give the two sections of code . the firts not work <Button Name="button1" Width="100" > <Button.LayoutTransform> <ScaleTransform x:Name="ttt" ScaleX="3" ScaleY="6"/> </Button.LayoutTransform> <Button.Triggers> <EventTrigger RoutedEvent="Path.Loaded"> <EventTrigger.Actions> <BeginStoryboard> <Storyboard RepeatBehavior="Forever"> <DoubleAnimation Storyboard.Target="{Binding ElementName=ttt}" Storyboard.TargetProperty="ScaleX" From="10" To="5" Duration="0:0:1" /> </Storyboard> </BeginStoryboard> </EventTrigger.Actions> </EventTrigger> </Button.Triggers> Button </Button> But it does work <Button Name="button1" Width="100" > <Button.LayoutTransform> <ScaleTransform x:Name="ttt" ScaleX="3" ScaleY="6"/> </Button.LayoutTransform> <Button.Triggers> <EventTrigger RoutedEvent="Path.Loaded"> <EventTrigger.Actions> <BeginStoryboard> <Storyboard RepeatBehavior="Forever"> <DoubleAnimation Storyboard.Target="{Binding ElementName=button1}" Storyboard.TargetProperty="Width" From="100" To="50" Duration="0:0:1" /> </Storyboard> </BeginStoryboard> </EventTrigger.Actions> </EventTrigger> </Button.Triggers> Button </Button> I know I can use Storyboard.TargetName .

    Read the article

  • Use a resource dictionary as theme in Silverlight

    - by SaphuA
    Hello, I have developed an application which allows the user to switch between themes. I'm doing this by including the xaml file as a resource in my project and using the following code: MainTheme.ThemeUri = new Uri("SilverlightApplication1;component/Themes/[ThemeName]/Theme.xaml", UriKind.Relative); This worked well, untill I found these themes: http://timheuer.com/blog/archive/2010/05/17/silverlight-4-tools-released-and-new-application-templates.aspx The difference is that these themes consist of multiple files. So I made a Theme.xaml file that only includes MergedDictionaries so I could still use the code above. This is the Theme.xaml file for the Cosmopolitan theme. <ResourceDictionary xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml"> <ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> <ResourceDictionary Source="CoreStyles.xaml"/> <ResourceDictionary Source="SDKStyles.xaml"/> <ResourceDictionary Source="Styles.xaml"/> <ResourceDictionary Source="ToolkitStyles.xaml"/> </ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> </ResourceDictionary> However, when I run the c# code above I get the following exception: System.Windows.Markup.XamlParseException: Failed to assign to property 'System.Windows.ResourceDictionary.Source'. Just to be clear, using the MergedDictionaries method does work when I set it in my App.xaml: <Application.Resources> <ResourceDictionary> <ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> <ResourceDictionary Source="Themes/Cosmopolitan/Theme.xaml"/> </ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> </ResourceDictionary> </Application.Resources> What am I doing wrong? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • [Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Data source name not found and no default driver specified - works

    - by Matt
    Hello, I am developing a java app (with odbc bridge - forgive me - the only paradox driver I have been able to obtain is the microsoft odbc driver) - which works fine while in eclipse, (and netbeans) - connecting and obtaining data from an ancient paradox 5.x database. So long as it is run from inside my IDE - it compiles and runs flawlessly. When I export it to a runable jar, suddenly [code][Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Data source name not found and no default driver specified[/code] occurs. The jar is being run on the same box as my developing IDE - so I am confused about the cause. It is being run via console from a user account, as per the IDE. My connection string is "jdbc:odbc:Driver={Microsoft Paradox Driver (*.db )};DriverID=538; Fil=Paradox 5.X; DefaultDir=C:\paradox\database\location\" - obtained from connectionstrings.com - and as mentioned before, working fine while run from the IDE. The above seems to 'magically' create its own connection, avoiding the setup of a dsn - I am unsure quite how it does - but it works. The only other thing I can think that might be pertinent is that my PC is a 64bit o/s (windows server 2008). Please help, any suggestions or comments will be greatly appreciated. Thanks, Matt

    Read the article

  • jQuery - script tags in the HTML are parsed out by jQuery and not executed

    - by Jose Jose
    I have an HTML page like so: <html> <body> <div id='something'> ... <script> var x = 'hello world'; </script> ... </div> </body> </html> On another page, I am doing this: $.ajax({ url: 'example.html', type: 'GET', success: function(data) { $('#mydiv').html($(data).find('#something').html()); alert(x); } }); jQuery, however, is not executing the javascript in the first file, even though the documentation says it does. How can I make it do that? EDIT: Unfortunately in the real world application I am working on I don't have control over what the "included" page has. We are on the same domain, but I can't modify the code that it outputs as it is a packaged product our IT department will not let us modify.

    Read the article

  • Access SSAS cube from across domains without direct database connection

    - by SuperKing
    Hello, I'm working with SQL Server Analysis Services for the first time and have the dilemma of working on a project in which users must be able to access SSAS Cubes (via a custom web dashboard) that live across different servers and domains, but without having access to the other server's SSAS database connection strings. So Organization A and Organization B will have their own cubes on their own servers, but Organization A users must be able to view Organization B's cubes, and Organization B users must be able to view Organization A's cubes, but neither organization should have access to the connection string. I've read about allowing HTTP access to the SSAS server and cube from the link below, but that requires setting up users for authentication or allowing anonymous access to one organization's server for users of another organization, and I'm not sure this would be acceptable for this situation, or if this is the preferred way to do this. Is performance acceptable here? http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc917711.aspx I also wonder if perhaps it makes sense to run a nightly/weekly process that accesses the other organization's SSAS database via a web service or something, and pull that data into a database on the organization's server, and then rebuild the cube. Then that cube would be queried without having to go and connect to the other organization server when viewing the cube. Has anyone else attempted to accomplish something similar? Is HTTP access the standard way to go for this? Or any other possible options? Thanks, and please let me know if you need more info, still unclear on how some of this works.

    Read the article

  • Windows Sidebar gadget - cannont access a div in Flyout DOM

    - by cyrix86
    In the main gadget html, there is a div with an onclick that calls this method in the Gadget script file: ShowFlyout = function() { System.Gadget.Flyout.show = true; var flyoutDoc = System.Gadget.Flyout.document; var mainFlyoutDiv = flyoutDoc.getElementById('divFlyout'); mainFlyoutDiv.innerHTML = "hello"; } Here is the Flyout html: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.0 Transitional//EN"> <html> <head> <title>This is a flyout</title> <link href="Css\FlyoutStyle.css" type="text/css" rel="Stylesheet" /> </head> <body> <div id="divFlyout" > </div> </body> </html> The problem is that mainFlyoutDiv is always null. When peering into the System.Gadget.Flyout.document object through the debugger, the body parameter is null - I don't think that's right. The System.Gadget.Flyout.file value is being set elsewhere when the gadget first loads. What am I doing wrong? Also, does the System.Gadget.Flyout.show property have to be true before the System.Gadget.Flyout.document property can be accessed? My ultimate goal is to open a flyout and dynamically populate it's html

    Read the article

  • multiple keys and values with google-collections

    - by flash3000
    Hello, I would like use google-collection in order to save the following file in a Hash with multiple keys and values Key1_1, Key2_1, Key3_1, data1_1, 0, 0 Key1_2, Key2_2, Key3_2, data1_2, 0, 0 Key1_3, Key2_3, Key3_3, data1_3, 0, 0 Key1_4, Key2_4, Key3_4, data1_4, 0, 0 The first three columns are the different keys and the last two integer are the two different values. I have already prepare a code which spilt the lines in chunks. import java.io.BufferedReader; import java.io.FileNotFoundException; import java.io.FileReader; import java.io.IOException; public class HashMapKey { public static void main(String[] args) throws FileNotFoundException, IOException { String inputFile = "inputData.txt"; BufferedReader br = new BufferedReader(new FileReader(inputFile)); String strLine; while ((strLine = br.readLine()) != null) { String[] line = strLine.replaceAll(" ", "").trim().split(","); for (int i = 0; i < line.length; i++) { System.out.print("[" + line[i] + "]"); } System.out.println(); } } } Unfortunately, I do not know how to save these information in google-collection? Thank you in advance. Best regards,

    Read the article

  • Navigation view system with webview problem with touches!

    - by Gonçalo Falcão
    Hello i have search everything and i didn't figure this out! I have a tab bar controller with 5 navigation controlls, in one of the navigation control, i have a view, with a table view inside, and when i click that item i push a new view, that view have view -webview -view i create that second view(is transperant) because i need to handle a single tap to hide my toolbar and navigation bar, and the webview was eating all the touches! I put that view and implement on the view controller -(void) touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event{ UITouch* touch = [touches anyObject]; if(touch.tapCount == 2){ [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self]; } [[wv.subviews objectAtIndex:0] touchesBegan:touches withEvent:event]; [super touchesBegan:touches withEvent:event]; } -(void) touchesMoved:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event{ [[wv.subviews objectAtIndex:0] touchesMoved:touches withEvent:event]; [super touchesMoved:touches withEvent:event]; } -(void) touchesEnded:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event{ UITouch* touch = [touches anyObject]; if(touch.tapCount == 1){ [self performSelector:@selector(hideBars) withObject:nil afterDelay:0.3]; } [[wv.subviews objectAtIndex:0] touchesEnded:touches withEvent:event]; [super touchesEnded:touches withEvent:event]; } -(void) touchesCancelled:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event{ [[wv.subviews objectAtIndex:0] touchesCancelled:touches withEvent:event]; [super touchesCancelled:touches withEvent:event]; } wv is my UIWebView IBOutlet now i can get the the touches in my controller and send them to my webview. So i thought everything was working, i'm able to scroll, but now when i have links i'm not able to click them. And the webview is detecting the links i have made that test. So any other way to implements this to get the touches in the links, or i should change this workaround to hide the toolbars so i can have the full functionability of the webview? Thks for the help in advance.

    Read the article

  • Writing to a new window with javascript... get access denied

    - by Søren
    Hello gurus :) I have been struggling with this for a while now, and decided it was time to ask for help. I am trying to create a print function on an aspx page, and I am using javascript to do this: function PrintContentCell() { var display_setting = "toolbar=yes, location=no, directories=yes, menubar=yes,"; display_setting += "scrollbars=yes, width=750, height=600, left=100, top=25"; var content_innerhtml = document.getElementById("testTable").innerHTML; var document_print = window.open("Loading.htm", "", display_setting); document_print.document.open(); document_print.document.write('<html><head><title>Print</title></head>'); document_print.document.write('<body style="font-family:verdana; font-size:12px;" onLoad="self.print();self.close();" >'); document_print.document.write(content_innerhtml); document_print.document.write('</body></html>'); document_print.print(); document_print.document.close(); return false; } I get "Access Denied" when the script tries to write to the new window. The Loading.htm file is just a very slim html document writing out the text "Loading...". I had hoped this would work after reading this thread: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/735136/ie-6-7-access-denied-trying-to-access-a-popup-window-document Anybody can help?

    Read the article

  • Binding ListBox to List (Collection) in XAML

    - by david2tm
    Hello, I'm learning WPF, so I'm kind of n00b in this. I saw some examples about how to do what I want to do, but nothing exactly... The question: I want to bind List to ListBox. I want to do it in XAML, w/o coding in code behind. How can I achieve that? Right now I do it that way: <!-- XAML --> <ListBox x:Name="FileList"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Label Content="{Binding Path=.}"/> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> // Code behind public MainWindow() { // ... files = new List<string>(); FileList.ItemsSource = files; } private void FolderBrowser_TextChanged(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { string folder = FolderBrowser.Text; files.Clear(); files.AddRange(Directory.GetFiles(folder, "*.txt", SearchOption.AllDirectories)); FileList.Items.Refresh(); } But I want to get rid of FileList.ItemsSource = files; and FileList.Items.Refresh(); in C# code. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Accessing the selected element inside a templated textblock bound to a wpf listbox

    - by black sensei
    Hello good people , i'm trying to achieve a functionality but i'm don't know how to start it. I'm using vs 2008 sp1 and i'm consuming a webservice which returns a collection (is contactInfo[]) that i bind to a ListBox with little datatemplate on it. <ListBox Margin="-146,-124,-143,-118.808" Name="contactListBox" MaxHeight="240" MaxWidth="300" MinHeight="240" MinWidth="300"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock> <CheckBox Name="contactsCheck" Uid="{Binding fullName}" Checked="contacts_Checked" /><Label Content="{Binding fullName}" FontSize="15" FontWeight="Bold"/> <LineBreak/> <Label Content="{Binding mobile}" FontSize="10" FontStyle="Italic" Foreground="DimGray" /> <Label Content="{Binding email}" FontStyle="Italic" FontSize="10" Foreground="DimGray"/> </TextBlock> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> Every works fine so far. so When a checkbox is checked i'll like to access the information of the labels (either the) belonging to the same row or attached to it and append the information to a global variable for example (for each checkbox checked). My problem right now is that i don't know how to do that. Can any one shed some light on how to do that? if you notice Checked="contacts_Checked" that's where i planned to perform the operations. thanks for reading and helping out

    Read the article

  • .htaccess equivalent of baseurl?

    - by Ryan
    Hello, I'm trying to install Symfony on a shared server and am attempting to duplicate the httpd.conf command: # Be sure to only have this line once in your configuration NameVirtualHost 127.0.0.1:8080 # This is the configuration for your project Listen 127.0.0.1:8080 <VirtualHost 127.0.0.1:8080> DocumentRoot "/home/sfproject/web" DirectoryIndex index.php <Directory "/home/sfproject/web"> AllowOverride All Allow from All </Directory> Alias /sf /home/sfproject/lib/vendor/symfony/data/web/sf <Directory "/home/sfproject/lib/vendor/symfony/data/web/sf"> AllowOverride All Allow from All </Directory> </VirtualHost> I need to do so using .htaccess The redirect portion was done in the root using the following: Options +FollowSymlinks RewriteEngine on rewritecond %{http_host} ^symfony.mysite.ca [nc] rewriterule ^(.*)$ http://symfony.mysite.ca/web/$1 [r=301,nc] For the alias, I've tried using: RewriteBase / but no success. The main issue is that the index.php file residing in the /web folder uses the /web path in its path to images and scripts. So instead of href="/css/main.css" //this would work it uses href="/web/css/main.css" //this doesn't work, already in the /web/ directory! Any ideas? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Save email as draft in php

    - by Yorian
    Hello, The past few days I've been trying to find out how I can save emails as drafts using php. I've created an emailaddress that uses imap (and resides on the same server). What I would like to do is to use php to create an email and store it in the drafts folder. These emails would then be recognized by the email client (ms office outlook in this case) so they can be editted and send from the email client. I've found some interesting information about the imap functions from php, they let you send mail, but I can't really figure out how to store them in the drafts folder (to which I have write access). I can actually find and read the emails, I save as drafts in my email client, using my ftp connection. However they make use of UID and message-ID's and such which I don't understand where they come from. My questions: - how could I create email drafts - How does a new UID or message-ID get created, and how would I use them for my email-draft file? Help is much appreciated, thanks. Yorian

    Read the article

  • Empty POST from jQuery UI Dialog to PHP function with $.post

    - by solefald
    Hello, I am having hell of a time trying to figure this one out. Maybe someone can help me here or point me in the right direction. I have a jQuery UI dialog that pops up when user clicks on an image. The dialog displays a form with 2 drop down windows. "dept" and "group". Group drop down is disabled, until something is selected in the "dept" dropdown menu. When user selects a department, I do a POST to php function and then enable and populate the group drop down. Simple enough... <select name="dept" id="dept_select" onchange="getDeptGroups(this.value);"> // Some data here </select> JS function: function getDeptGroups(dept) { // This alert works and displays department name. //alert(dept); $.post("/am/ldap/getDepartmentGroups.php", { department: dept }, function(data){ alert(data); }); } and finally in php page i just do <? print_r($_POST); ?> and end up with empty array. Array ( ) This happens in both, Chrome and Firefox, however, FireBug clearly shows post data being submitted: What am i doing wrong here?

    Read the article

  • HOW CAn I Differciate the button click Event

    - by SHASHANK
    hello All i have a problem. i m making Some wpf button Dynamic through C#.i m using it A loop for this now i m trying to find all button Click Event. i find it But It Work Same on All The button Click how Can i Differciate all the button . thanks in Advance shashank `for (int i = 0; i < 2; i++) { Button b1 = new Button(); //this.RegisterName("myAnimatedBrush", b1); b1.Name = "button" + i; b1.Height = 200; b1.Width = 200; b1.Margin = new Thickness(0, -100, 0, 0); b1.HorizontalAlignment = HorizontalAlignment.Left; b1.Content = "English"; b1.Background = System.Windows.Media.Brushes.Pink; b1.Click+=new RoutedEventHandler(b1_Click); canvasbtn.Children.Add(b1); Canvas.SetLeft(b1,b1.Width * i); }`

    Read the article

  • jQuery1.4.2 $.ajax crashes IE6/7

    - by Kenny Eliasson
    Hello there! I'm having a really hard time debugging one of our latest reported bugs. The problem occurs "randomly", not on every page load, sometimes I can "click" around for a minute or two before IE6/7 crashes. By crash I mean that the IE-window shuts down and I get the option to send the crash info to Microsoft. In FF, Chrome, Safari, IE8 everything is working perfectly. What the page does is issuing 2 AJAX Jsonp calls and building some menus with the data returned. The data brought back can be from ~500b to approx. 35kb. The JSON is valid (else it wouldn't have loaded at all in FF etc), and as i told previous, it works for when navigating around the site soemtimes in IE6/7. I've tested to comment out the callbacks, still crashes. If I remove the $.ajax calls the page will work again. Whats strange is that if I downgrade to jQuery 1.3.2 everything works in all browsers including IE6/7. I've taken the crash-logs and looked at them in WinDbg and what happens seems to be a NULL POINTER reference. The last entries of the stack trace is as follows mshtml!CTreePos::SourceIndex+0x9 mshtml!CMarkup::InsertElementInternal+0x3a8 mshtml!CDoc::InsertElement+0x98 mshtml!CDocument::get_implementation+0x144 Anyone having a clue what could cause this?

    Read the article

  • jQuery find value then replace SRC

    - by Charles Web Dev
    Hello all, Can anyone see anything that is wrong with this code it just isn't working... I am tring to: get the value of #product-variants-option-0 search #preload for the relevant image and then change div.image img src to that image jQuery(document).ready(function($) { $('#product-variants-option-0').change(function() { // What is the sku of the current variant selection. var select_value = $(this).find(':selected').val(); if (select_value == "Kelly Green") { var keyword = "kly"; }; var new_src = $('#preload img[src*=keyword]'); $('div.image img').attr('src', new_src); }); }); The selection: <select class="single-option-selector-0" id="product-variants-option-0"> <option value="Kelly Green">Kelly Green</option> <option value="Navy">Navy</option> <option value="Olive">Olive</option> <option value="Cocoa">Cocoa</option> </select> I'm trying to search an unordered list: <ul id="preload" style="display:none;"> <li><img src="0z-kelly-green-medium.jpg"/></li> <li><img src="0z-olive-medium.jpg"/></li> </ul> The image I'm trying to replace is this:

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 656 657 658 659 660 661 662 663 664 665 666 667  | Next Page >